General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTCurrent Affairs
Arrange the following events of 2023 in chronological order:
- a. G20 Summit in India - b. ICC World Cup Final 2023 - c. Launch of Chandrayaan 3 - d. COP28 climate summit in Dubai
💡Correct Answer: Option A (c, a, b, d)
The chronological order is: Launch of Chandrayaan 3 (July 14, 2023), G20 Summit in New Delhi (September 9-10, 2023), ICC World Cup Final (November 19, 2023), and COP28 Summit in Dubai (November 30, 2023). This matches sequence: c, a, b, d.
Q2
Accountancy & Book KeepingCost Accounting
Fixed cost is a cost:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Which does not change in total during a given period despite changes in output)
Fixed costs are those expenses that remain constant in total amount over a specific range of activity/output during a given period, regardless of volume changes.
Q3
Accountancy & Book KeepingCost Accounting
Calculate the Prime Cost from the following information:
- Direct material purchased: Rs. 1,00,000 - Direct material consumed: Rs. 90,000 - Direct labour: Rs. 60,000 - Direct expenses: Rs. 20,000 - Manufacturing overheads: Rs. 30,000
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rs. 1,70,000)
Prime Cost is the sum of direct costs: Prime Cost = Direct Materials Consumed + Direct Labour + Direct Expenses = Rs. 90,000 + Rs. 60,000 + Rs. 20,000 = Rs. 1,70,000. (Note: Purchased material is not used directly, only consumed material is counted).
Q4
Accountancy & Book KeepingLedger
Suppliers' personal accounts are seen in the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Purchases Ledger)
The Purchases Ledger (or Creditors Ledger) contains the personal accounts of all suppliers from whom goods have been purchased on credit.
Q5
Accountancy & Book KeepingBasic Accounting
Bookkeeping is regarded as the _____ step of accounting.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (First)
Bookkeeping is the recording phase of accounting and constitutes the first step in the accounting process, which is followed by classifying, summarizing, and interpreting.
Q6
Accountancy & Book KeepingAccounting Equation
Which of the following is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (asset = liability + equity)
The fundamental accounting equation is Assets = Liabilities + Capital (Owner's Equity). This represents the balance sheet structure.
Q7
Accountancy & Book KeepingAccounting Concepts
Which concept suggests the exclusion of human resources in the balance sheet?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Money Measurement Concept)
The Money Measurement Concept states that only transactions and events that can be expressed in terms of money should be recorded. Since human resource value cannot be reliably quantified in money, it is excluded from the balance sheet.
Q8
Accountancy & Book KeepingVouchers
Which of the following procedures should an accountant follow while preparing a voucher?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
An accountant preparing a voucher must verify details on supporting bills, check authorization signatures, and determine the correct voucher type (receipt, payment, journal). Thus, all procedures are correct.
Q9
Accountancy & Book KeepingSource Documents
Which of the following business documents is proof of payment for a business transaction?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Receipt)
A Receipt is a written acknowledgment that a specified sum of money has been received, serving as proof of payment.
Q10
Accountancy & Book KeepingBank Reconciliation
In a bank statement, cash deposited by the customer is shown as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (credit)
For the bank, customer deposits are liabilities. Hence, when cash is deposited, the bank credits the customer's account (indicating the bank owes this money back to the customer).
Q11
Accountancy & Book KeepingBank Reconciliation
What is "Deposit in transit" in bank reconciliation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Added to Bank Balance)
Deposits in transit are funds received and recorded by the company in its cash book but not yet processed and recorded by the bank. In bank reconciliation, these are added to the bank statement balance.
Q12
Accountancy & Book KeepingBank Reconciliation
What type of cheque is that which is issued by a firm but not yet presented to the bank?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Outstanding cheques)
An outstanding cheque (also known as an unpresented cheque) is a cheque that has been written and issued by the firm but has not yet been presented to the bank for payment.
Q13
Accountancy & Book KeepingPFMS
The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) was earlier known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Central Plan Schemes Monitoring System (CPSMS))
The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) was initially launched as a pilot program called the Central Plan Schemes Monitoring System (CPSMS) in 2009 to track funds released under plan schemes.
Q14
Accountancy & Book KeepingSingle Entry System
A statement of financial position produced from incomplete accounting records is commonly known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Statement of affairs)
Under the single entry system (incomplete records), a Statement of Affairs is prepared to estimate the financial position of a business and calculate opening and closing capital.
Q15
Accountancy & Book KeepingPartnership Accounts
What happens when interest on drawings is charged to a partner?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Debited to partner's capital a/c)
Interest on drawings is charged to partners as it is an expense for them. It is debited to the partner's Capital or Current Account, reducing their overall equity balance.
Q16
Accountancy & Book KeepingPartnership Accounts
M and N are two partners sharing profits and losses in a 3:2 ratio. They admit P as a new partner with a 1/5th share. What will be the new profit-sharing ratio?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (12:8:5)
Let total profit = 1. P's share = 1/5. Remaining share = 1 - 1/5 = 4/5. M's new share = 3/5 4/5 = 12/25. N's new share = 2/5 4/5 = 8/25. P's share = 1/5 = 5/25. The new profit-sharing ratio is 12:8:5.
Q17
Accountancy & Book KeepingLedger
The method of transferring items from a journal into their respective ledger accounts is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Posting)
Posting is the process of transferring debits and credits from the journal or other books of original entry to the respective ledger accounts.
Q18
Accountancy & Book KeepingAuditing
When an audit is undertaken to check the financial controls and irregularities in the organization, it is which type of audit?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Internal audit)
An internal audit is conducted within an organization to evaluate risk management, internal controls, and check for any financial irregularities/frauds.
Q19
Accountancy & Book KeepingRatio Analysis
Current Ratio is calculated as:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Current assets / Current liabilities)
Current Ratio is a liquidity ratio that measures a company's ability to cover its short-term obligations. It is calculated as Current Assets divided by Current Liabilities.
Q20
Accountancy & Book KeepingBank Reconciliation
A bank passbook is a copy of:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The customer account in the bank's ledger)
A bank passbook (or bank statement) is a copy of the customer's ledger account maintained in the books of the bank.
Q21
Accountancy & Book KeepingTrial Balance
A trial balance helps to check the accuracy of the:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ledger)
A trial balance is prepared to verify the arithmetical accuracy of postings in the ledger accounts. If the trial balance agrees, it indicates that the ledger accounts are arithmetically correct.
Q22
Accountancy & Book KeepingSingle Entry System
Which of the following entities generally prepare their books of accounts under the single entry system?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sole traders)
Sole traders and small partnership businesses usually keep their accounts under the single entry system because of its simplicity and lower costs. Companies are legally required to maintain double-entry records.
Q23
Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation
GST is a consumption of goods and service tax based on:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Destination)
GST is a destination-based tax on consumption of goods and services, meaning the tax revenue goes to the consuming state rather than the producing state.
Q24
Accountancy & Book KeepingLeverage
What does financial leverage measure?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The sensibility of EPS w.r.t % change in the EBIT level)
Financial leverage measures the sensitivity of Earnings Per Share (EPS) in response to a percentage change in Earnings Before Interest and Taxes (EBIT).
Q25
Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation
A Finance Bill becomes the Finance Act when it is passed by:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both House of Parliament and signed by President.)
A Finance Bill becomes the Finance Act after it is passed by both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) and receives the formal assent (signature) of the President of India.
Q26
Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation
Income which accrues or arises outside India & is also received outside India is taxable in the case of:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Resident and Ordinary Resident)
Under Indian income tax law, global income (income accruing/arising and received outside India) is taxable only for individuals who are Resident and Ordinarily Resident (ROR).
Q27
Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation (GST)
Which of the following is/are included in the definition of "Goods" as defined under section 2(52) of the CGST Act, 2017?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Actionable claim)
Section 2(52) of the CGST Act, 2017 defines 'goods' to exclude money and securities but specifically includes actionable claims, growing crops, grass, etc.
Q28
Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation
The amount payable at the time of closure or opting out of the National Pension Scheme referred to in section 80CCD shall be exempt to the extent of _____ of the total amount payable.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (40%)
Under the Income Tax Act, at the time of closure or exit from the NPS, the exemption was initially set to 40% of the total amount payable under Section 10(12A). Although it was later raised to 60%, the question features the legacy 40% value in the options which was marked as the key by JKSSB.
Q29
Accountancy & Book KeepingPartnership Accounts
Goodwill of a firm of X and Y is valued at Rs. 30,000. It is appearing in the books at Rs. 12,000. Z is admitted for a 1/4th share. What amount is Z supposed to bring for goodwill?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (7,500)
The new partner Z must bring goodwill equivalent to their share in the current valued goodwill. Valued Goodwill = Rs. 30,000. Z's share = 1/4 of Rs. 30,000 = Rs. 7,500.
Q30
Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation
Assertion (A): If the interest is payable outside India, tax must be deducted at source. Reason (R): If tax has not been deducted at source, the amount paid as interest will not be allowed as a deduction in computing business income.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).)
Both are correct. Section 40(a)(i) mandates that if interest is payable outside India, tax must be deducted at source (TDS). If tax is not deducted, the interest expense is disallowed as a deduction, making R the correct explanation of A.
Q31
Accountancy & Book KeepingCost Accounting
From the following information, find out the number of units that must be sold by the firm to earn a profit of Rs. 1,80,000 per year:
- Sales price: Rs. 25 per unit - Variable manufacturing costs: Rs. 12 per unit - Variable selling costs: Rs. 3 per unit - Fixed factory overheads: Rs. 5,00,000 - Fixed selling costs: Rs. 3,00,000
💡Correct Answer: Option C (98,000 units)
Contribution per unit = Selling Price - Total Variable Cost = 25 - (12 + 3) = Rs. 10. Total Fixed Cost = 5,00,000 + 3,00,000 = Rs. 8,00,000. Required Sales Units = (Fixed Costs + Target Profit) / Contribution per unit = (8,00,000 + 1,80,000) / 10 = 9,80,000 / 10 = 98,000 units.
Q32
Statistics & MathematicsRelations and Functions
Consider the following relations/functions and their properties:
- a. F={(x,y)∈R×R:x2+y=2} - b. F={(x,y)∈R×R:x2+y2=25} - c. F={(x,y)∈R×R:y=2x+1} - d. F={(x,y)∈R×R:y=x2}
Matches: - 1. F∘F={(x,z)∈R×R:z=4x+3} - 2. F is increasing on (0,∞) but not on $\mathbb{R} - 3$. F is one-one but not onto - 4. Range of F=[−2,∞) (assuming y=x2−2 in the paper's original intended equation) - 5. F is not a function
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-4, b-5, c-1, d-2)
F in (b) is a circle equation, which is not a function (b-5). F in (c) has F(F(x))=2(2x+1)+1=4x+3 (c-1). F in (d) is y=x2, which is increasing on positive real numbers but not on the whole real line (d-2). This makes D (a-4, b-5, c-1, d-2) the correct match.
Q33
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationFirearms
Which of the following marks are usually present on a cartridge fired from a good quality firearm?
i. Firing pin mark. ii. Breech face. iii. Chamber marks.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii & iii)
When a cartridge is fired, the firing pin indent, breech face marks (transferred under high pressure), and chamber scraping marks are typically left on the primer and cartridge case.
Q34
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationFirearms
The internal diameter of a barrel is known as:
i. Bore ii. Calibre iii. Gauge
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i & ii)
Bore and Calibre refer to the internal diameter of the barrel. Gauge is a system of measurement indicating the diameter of smoothbore barrels (shotguns) in terms of lead balls per pound, but is not the diameter name itself.
Q35
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationShotguns
Which of the following statement is true for Barrel choke?
i. It is the reducing of bore of a shotgun at the breech end ii. Choke increases the effective range of a shotgun. iii. Reduction of diameter by one millimeter is called as full choke.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ii & iii)
Statements ii and iii are true. A choke is a constriction at the muzzle end (not the breech end) of a shotgun barrel, which tightens the shot pattern to increase the effective range. A 1mm reduction in diameter corresponds to a full choke.
Q36
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationFirearms
A firearm can have the following type of barrels:
i. Smooth bore ii. Rifled bore iii. Smoothbore with partial rifling
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii & iii)
Barrels can be smoothbore (shotguns), rifled (rifles/pistols), or partially rifled (like Paradox barrels, which are smoothbore with rifling only at the muzzle end).
Q37
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationShotguns
Which of the following statements are true for shotguns?
i. A shotgun is a short-range firearm. ii. Shotgun gives accurate aim when a single projectile is fired iii. Spreading of pellets increases with increase in range of fire.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i & iii)
Statements i and iii are true. A shotgun is typically a short-range weapon, and pellet dispersion increases with range. Statement ii is incorrect because smoothbore shotguns are generally inaccurate when firing a single projectile (slug) compared to rifled barrels.
Q38
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationArms Act
Which of the following means ammunition, as per Indian Arms Act, 1959?
i. Rocket. ii. Noxious liquid iii. Charges for firearm.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii & iii)
Section 2(b) of the Indian Arms Act, 1959 defines 'ammunition' to include rockets, noxious liquid/gas-producing articles, and propellant charges/cartridges for firearms.
Q39
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationAmmunition
The active constituents of smokeless powder are?
i. Nitroglycerine. ii. Nitrocellulose. iii. Sulphur.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i & ii)
Smokeless powder consists of Nitrocellulose (single-base) or Nitrocellulose and Nitroglycerine (double-base). Sulphur is a constituent of black powder, not smokeless powder.
Q40
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationAmmunition
In firearms, the powders with increasing rate of burning are called as:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Progressive powder)
Progressive burning powder is designed to burn at an increasing rate as it travels, which helps maintain high pressure behind the bullet inside the barrel.
Q41
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationAmmunition
Which of the following are the constituents of gunpowder?
i. Sodium Nitrate ii. Sulphur iii. Charcoal.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii & iii)
Traditional gunpowder (black powder) consists of an oxidizer (potassium nitrate or alternatively sodium nitrate in industrial blasting powders) combined with sulphur and charcoal.
Q42
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationAmmunition
Which of the following statements are true for gun powder?
i. Suitable for high velocity ammunition ii. It gives irregular ballistics iii. Leaves considerable amount of solid residue
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ii & iii)
Statements ii and iii are true. Gunpowder (black powder) is unsuitable for modern high-velocity ammunition because it burns too rapidly, has irregular ballistics, and leaves behind about 55% solid fouling residue.
Q43
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationFiring Process
Arrange the following process of firing in increasing order of chronology.
i. Triggering ii. Striking percussion cap iii. Hammer release iv. Ignition of propellent
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, iii, ii, iv)
The correct sequence of events when firing a gun is: first the trigger is pulled/triggering (i), which releases the hammer (iii), causing the firing pin to strike the percussion cap (ii), leading to the ignition of the propellant (iv).
Q44
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationGSR Analysis
Match the following:
List-I (Detectable Metal) i. Antimony ii. Copper iii. Iron iv. Nitrates
List-II (Source) a. Primers b. Barrel c. Propellants d. Bullet jacket
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c)
List-I (Test) i. Dermal Nitrate Test ii. Harrison and Gilroy's Test iii. Price's Spot Test iv. Walker's Test
List-II (Reagent) a. Diphenylamine b. 2 naphthylamine c. Triphenylmethyl arsonium iodide d. Sodium rhodizonate
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b)
The correct matches are: Dermal Nitrate Test uses Diphenylamine (i-a); Harrison and Gilroy's Test uses Sodium Rhodizonate (ii-d); Price's Spot Test uses Triphenylmethyl arsonium iodide (iii-c); Walker's Test uses 2-naphthylamine (iv-b).
Q46
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationWound Ballistics
Match the following:
List-I (Bullet Velocity Zone) i. Under 400 m/s ii. 400 to 600 m/s iii. 600 to 1100 m/s iv. Beyond 1100 m/s
List-II (Wounding phenomena) a. Instantaneous death b. Explosive wound c. No abnormal wounding phenomena d. Expanding bullets starts mushrooming
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a)
The correct matches are: Under 400 m/s - No abnormal wounding phenomena (i-c); 400 to 600 m/s - Expanding bullets starts mushrooming (ii-d); 600 to 1100 m/s - Explosive wound (iii-b); Beyond 1100 m/s - Instantaneous death (iv-a).
Q47
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationTrajectory
The vertical range is maximum at angle of projection equal to
💡Correct Answer: Option D (90°)
The maximum vertical height (range) is obtained when a projectile is fired straight up, which corresponds to an angle of 90°.
Drag becomes equal to the projectile's weight after which the projectile falls with a constant velocity known as
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Terminal velocity)
When the downward force of gravity (weight) equals the upward air resistance (drag), the net force becomes zero, and the projectile falls at a constant terminal velocity.
Q49
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationWound Ballistics
The range which commences beyond the limit of flame zone and extends up to the distance to which the gunpowder residues could be projected in the area surrounding the wound of entrance is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Near range)
The 'Near range' (or close range) is the zone beyond the burning flame where unburnt/semi-burnt gunpowder particles are projected, creating powder tattooing (stippling) on the skin.
Q50
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationAmmunition
Following is not the part of ammunition
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Barrel)
The barrel is a mechanical part of the firearm itself, while the cartridge case, bullet, and primer are components of the ammunition.
Q51
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationHistory of Firearms
Arrange the following firearms with chronological order of their invention.
i. Match Lock ii. Wheel Lock iii. Hand Canon iv. 0.303 SLR
💡Correct Answer: Option B (iii, i, ii, iv)
The correct chronological sequence of inventions is: Hand Cannon (14th century, iii) -> Matchlock (15th century, i) -> Wheellock (16th century, ii) -> 0.303 SLR (20th century, iv). This corresponds to order: iii, i, ii, iv.
Q52
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationTrajectory
The horizontal range of a projectile when projected with same velocity at angle of projections 30° and 60° is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Same)
The horizontal range equation is R = (v² sin(2θ)) / g. Since sin(230°) = sin(60°) and sin(260°) = sin(120°) = sin(60°), complementary angles of projection yield the exact same horizontal range.
Q53
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationRifling
The process of cutting the lands and groove inside the barrel of a firearm is called as
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rifling)
Rifling is the process of cutting helical grooves (creating lands and grooves) inside the bore of a firearm barrel to impart spin and stabilize the bullet.
Q54
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationAmmunition
Ammunition of rifles firearm DOES NOT contain
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Wads)
Wads are cylindrical cardboard, plastic, or felt barriers used in shotgun shells to separate the powder and pellets. Rifle cartridges do not contain wads.
Q55
Firearms & Ammunition ExaminationHistory of Firearms
Snaphaunce and Miquelet are the types of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Flint lock)
Snaphaunce and Miquelet are early historic variations and developments of the Flintlock ignition mechanism.
Which of the following is not the factor affecting on the internal ballistics?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Wind deflection.)
Internal ballistics covers everything that happens inside the gun barrel before the bullet exits. Wind deflection occurs in flight, which is part of external ballistics.
Q57
Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeAmmunition
Dum-Dum bullets were first manufactured at
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Calcutta)
Dum-Dum (expanding) bullets were first designed and manufactured in the late 19th century at the British Indian Army Arsenal located in Dum Dum near Calcutta (Kolkata).
Q58
Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeAmmunition
The function of primer is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (To ignite the main charge)
The primer contains a small amount of sensitive primary explosive that detonates upon impact, sending a flame to ignite the main propellant powder charge.
Q59
Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeShotguns
Wad in the cartridge serves the purpose of:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (To prevent from jerk)
The wad serves as a cushion and barrier in shotgun shells. The compressible section of the wad helps absorb the initial peak shock wave (the 'jerk') upon ignition, protecting the barrel and stabilizing pressure.
Q60
Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeWound Ballistics
Scorching is also known as
i. Singeing ii. Burning iii. Charring
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii & iii)
Scorching (the thermal damage caused by muzzle flash gases) is also referred to as singeing (specifically for hair) or burning/charring (for fibers and tissue).
Q61
Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeWound Ballistics
Tattooing is also known as
i. Blackening ii. Peppering iii. Stippling
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ii & iii)
Tattooing is the embedding of unburnt powder grains in the skin, which is also known as stippling or peppering. Blackening is the deposit of soot/smoke, which can be wiped off, unlike tattooing.
Q62
Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeShotguns
The mathematical relation between diameter of dispersed pellets (D) and range (R) of fire of a half choke standard firearms is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (D=3R)
In standard ballistics, the pattern diameter (D in cm) for a half-choke shotgun is roughly 3 times the range of fire (R in meters): D = 3R. (Contrast: Cylinder is 4R, Full choke is 2R/2.5R).
Q63
Forensic Physics & General KnowledgeWound Ballistics
Which of the following are characteristics wounds caused by firearms?
i. Rat holes ii. Key holes iii. Explosive wound
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii & iii)
All three are characteristic gunshot wounds: Rat holes (close-range shotgun wound), Key holes (tumbling bullet entries), and Explosive wounds (high-velocity or contact head wounds).
Q64
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyHypothesis Testing
In hypothesis testing, what is a type II error?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (If the investigator fails to reject a null hypothesis that is false in the population.)
A Type II error (beta error) occurs when the null hypothesis is false but the investigator fails to reject it.
Q65
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyStatistics
What is the value with the most instances or occurrences in the list called?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mode)
In statistics, the mode is the value that appears most frequently in a data set.
Q66
Forensic Serology & ImmunologySampling
What is random sampling?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (When each item has an equal chance of selection it is called random sampling)
Simple random sampling is a selection method where every individual member of the population has an equal probability of being chosen.
Q67
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyChi Square Test
What is the formula for Chi square test?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($x^{2}=$\Sigma$$\frac{(Observed~value-Expected~value)^{2}$}{Expected~value}$)
The Chi-square formula is: χ² = Σ [(O - E)² / E], where O is the observed frequency and E is the expected frequency.
Q68
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyProbability
There are two events "I" and "J". The events occurring are mutually exclusive for example "I" or "J", its probability is given by which of the laws of probability?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Addition rule)
For mutually exclusive events, the probability of I or J occurring is the sum of their individual probabilities (Addition Rule): P(I ∪ J) = P(I) + P(J).
Q69
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyF Test
Which of the following tests is used to check the equality of variances between two populations?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (F-test)
The F-test is a statistical test used to compare the variances of two independent populations.
Q70
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyHypothesis Testing
If the F statistic is larger than the critical F value.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Accept the alternate hypothesis, H,)
If the calculated F-statistic exceeds the critical value, we reject the null hypothesis (H₀) and accept the alternate hypothesis (H₁).
Q71
Forensic Serology & ImmunologySemen Analysis
Which of the following is the major protein present in seminal fluid at concentrations of 0.5-2.0 mg/mL?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Prostate Specific Antigen)
Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA or p30) is present in seminal fluid at concentrations of 0.5–2.0 mg/mL, serving as a key marker for semen detection. Semenogelins are present in much higher concentrations (10-20 mg/mL).
Q72
Forensic Serology & ImmunologySemen Analysis
What compound acts as the substrate in the Fast Blue B test for semen detection?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a-naphthyl phosphate)
In the Brentamine (Fast Blue B) test, alpha-naphthyl phosphate acts as the substrate for acid phosphatase, releasing alpha-naphthol which reacts with the dye to form a purple color.
Q73
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyUrine Detection
DMAC assay is a presumptive assay for body fluid detection. What does it detect?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Urea in urine)
The DMAC (p-dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde) assay reacts with urea, which is present in high concentrations in urine, to produce a pink/red color.
Q74
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyEpithelial Cells
Epithelial cell detection is often indicative of the presence of various body fluids. What stain can be used to distinguish between skin, oral and vaginal epithelial cells?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dane's)
Dane's staining method is used to differentiate skin (keratinized), oral, and vaginal epithelial cells based on color differences related to keratinization.
Match the column of the part of spermatozoa to the colour stained in Christmas tree staining.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-q, ii-r, iii-s, iv-p)
In the Christmas Tree Stain (nuclear fast red/picroindigocarmine), the acrosomal cap is pink (i-q), the nucleus is red (ii-r), the tail is green (iii-s), and the midpiece is blue (iv-p).
Q76
Forensic Serology & ImmunologySaliva Analysis
Which gland produces majority of saliva in humans?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Submandibular glands)
The submandibular glands produce approximately 65-70% of the total unstimulated saliva in humans, followed by the parotids.
Q77
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyVaginal Secretions
What are the predominant bacteria in the vagina of women of reproductive age?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lactobacilli spp)
Lactobacillus species are the dominant members of the vaginal microbiota in healthy women of reproductive age, keeping the pH acidic to protect against infections.
Q78
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyImmunology
Which among the following terms would be aptly defined as a foreign substance that is capable of eliciting antibody formation in a host cell and combining with the antibody?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Antigen)
An antigen is traditionally defined as a foreign substance that can trigger an immune response (eliciting antibodies) and bind specifically with those antibodies.
Q79
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyLewis Blood Group
Which of the following statements pertaining to the Lewis antigen system is INCORRECT?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Lewis Ags expression is influenced by LEW1 and LEW2 genes)
The Lewis antigen expression is governed by the FUT3 (Lewis) and FUT2 (Secretor) genes on chromosome 19. There are no genes named LEW1 and LEW2.
Q80
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyRh System
Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn occurs when -
💡Correct Answer: Option D (An Rh negative mother becomes pregnant with an Rh positive fetus for the second time)
Erythroblastosis fetalis (HDN) occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus. In subsequent pregnancies, maternal antibodies cross the placenta and attack fetal RBCs.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (International Union for Conservation of Nature)
IUCN stands for the International Union for Conservation of Nature, an international organization working in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources.
Q82
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyForensic Botany
Which of the following statements pertaining to use of palynomorphs in forensics is INCORRECT?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Recovery of diatoms from stomach alone indicates death by drowning)
Finding diatoms in the stomach alone does not prove drowning, as diatoms can be swallowed with drinking water. Diatoms must be recovered from closed organs like bone marrow, brain, or liver to indicate drowning.
Q83
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyImmunoassays
In an immunochromatography assay, what would the control zone comprise of?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Immobilised unlabelled antiglobulin)
The control line contains immobilized antiglobulin antibodies (e.g., anti-mouse IgG) that capture excess dye-labeled detection antibodies to show the test ran correctly.
Q84
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyImmunoassays
Arrange the steps of immunoprecipitation in the right order:
i. Elution ii. Binding of antigen and antibody iii. Immobilisation of primary antibody on a matrix
💡Correct Answer: Option D (iii, ii, i)
The correct sequence for immunoprecipitation is: first immobilizing the antibody on a solid support (iii), then binding the antigen/target (ii), and finally eluting the purified antigen (i).
Q85
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyDiatoms
What is the salicaceous outer covering of the diatom called?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Frustule)
The silica-rich, hard outer cell wall of a diatom is called a frustule.
Q86
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyForensic Botany
Cannabis plants are often grown indoors illegally. Their pollen can be collected as evidence from the cracks and crevices of the indoor environment by investigative team long after the plantation has been shifted or eradicated. What type of pollination does Cannabis exhibit?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Anemophilous)
Cannabis is an anemophilous (wind-pollinated) plant, producing lightweight pollen that disperses easily and lingers in cracks and indoor spaces.
According to IUCN Red List, Endangered species are defined as
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Species that possess a very high risk of extinction because of rapid population declines of 50 to more than 70 percent over the previous 10 years)
Under IUCN criteria, Endangered (EN) species are those facing a very high risk of extinction due to a population decline of 50% to 70% or more over 10 years.
Q88
General Knowledge & Forensic BiologyImmunology
Match the column:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-q, ii-s, iii-r, iv-p)
The correct immunoglobulin match is: IgA is a dimer in secretions (i-q); IgE is involved in allergies (ii-s); IgG crosses the placenta (iii-r); IgM is the primary response antibody (iv-p).
In which of the following situations is the measured value most likely to be the true value of the quantity being measure?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (When the measurement has both high precision and high accuracy)
High accuracy ensures the measured value is close to the true value, while high precision ensures consistency, making a high accuracy and high precision measurement the closest to the true value.
The error caused by poor calibration of the instrument is called
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Systematic Error)
Systematic errors are reproducible inaccuracies that are consistently in the same direction, often caused by poorly calibrated instruments or flawed experimental design.
A person lays stick over a pit, with the intension of causing death whosoever step on it. What offence has he committed?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Culpable homicide)
This is a classic illustration from Section 299 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) for Culpable Homicide. Laying sticks over a pit with the intention of causing death, whereby someone falls in and is killed, constitutes culpable homicide.
Q93
Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsLaw of Evidence
What section defines the term "Admissibility"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Section-45, India Evidence Act)
Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act defines the relevancy and admissibility of expert opinions (opinions of experts on foreign law, science, art, identity, handwriting, or finger impressions).
Q94
Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsLaw of Evidence
What does the term cross-examination mean?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Examination of witness by the opposite party)
Under Section 137 of the Indian Evidence Act, the examination of a witness by the adverse (opposite) party is called cross-examination.
Which is not the amendment done to the IPC, 1860 Section 375?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rape of boys below the age of 16 years will carry minimum imprisonment of ten years or life imprisonment.)
Section 375 of the IPC deals exclusively with sexual assault committed by a man against a female. Male children are protected under the POCSO Act, not Section 375 IPC.
What section of NDPS Act, 1985 deals with contravention related to cannabis and cannabis plant?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Section-20)
Section 20 of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985 prescribes the punishment for contravention in relation to cannabis plant and cannabis (charas, ganja).
What is not a phenanthrene alkaloid extracted from Opium plant?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Narcotine)
Opium alkaloids include phenanthrenes (morphine, codeine, thebaine) and benzylisoquinolines (narcotine/noscapine, papaverine). Thus, Narcotine is not a phenanthrene alkaloid.
Cocaine is extracted from plant belonging to family
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Erythroxylum)
Cocaine is extracted from the leaves of the Erythroxylum coca plant (family Erythroxylaceae). Erythroxylum is the genus name representing this botanical source.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Metabolises into 6 MAM on metabolism)
Heroin metabolizes into 6-monoacetylmorphine (6-MAM), and then into morphine. Morphine does not metabolize into 6-MAM; it metabolizes into glucuronides (M3G, M6G).
Barbiturates (like phenobarbital) are fully synthetic sedative-hypnotic drugs. Codeine, Cocaine, and Cathinone are natural alkaloids or derived from plants.
Griess test with Zinc dust is used for the detection of
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Nitrates)
The Griess reagent directly detects nitrites. Adding Zinc dust reduces nitrates to nitrites, allowing the Griess test to detect Nitrates (such as residues from gunpowder).
What is the best solvent to extract secondary high explosives?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Acetone)
Acetone is the most commonly used organic solvent to dissolve and extract secondary high explosives (like RDX, TNT, PETN, and HMX) from post-blast debris.
What is not the primary component of an high explosive train?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Safety Switch)
An explosive train consists of a fuse, primer (detonator), booster, and main charge. A safety switch is an electrical or mechanical safety device, not an active chemical/explosive component of the train itself.
"Booby trap" type of TED is designed to function when
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Victim does something to initiate the initiation mechanism)
A booby trap is an explosive device (IED) designed to be triggered unknowingly by the victim performing a specific, routine action (like opening a door or lifting an object).
Deflagrating explosives have method of initiation as
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ignition)
Low/deflagrating explosives (like black powder or smokeless powder) burn rapidly and are initiated by simple ignition or flame, as opposed to high explosives which require a shockwave (detonation) to initiate.
What are the fundamental features of an explosive?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Formation of gaseous by-products with simultaneous release of energy)
The absolute defining chemical features of an explosion are the rapid conversion of a solid or liquid into gaseous products with a simultaneous massive release of heat and pressure energy.
Q113
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsData Communication
The telephone network is a good example of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Full duplex)
The telephone network is a full-duplex system because both parties can transmit and receive audio signals simultaneously over the same channel.
Q114
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityHash Functions
Which of the following is not a hash functions?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (DES)
DES (Data Encryption Standard) is a symmetric block cipher algorithm, not a cryptographic hash function. MD5, Whirlpool, and SHA-512 are cryptographic hash functions.
Q115
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityHash Functions
MD5 is widely used hash function for producing hash value of _____ bits.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (128)
MD5 (Message-Digest Algorithm 5) produces a fixed-size cryptographic hash value of 128 bits (represented as a 32-character hexadecimal number).
Q116
Computer Networks & Internet SecurityHash Functions
Which one of the following is not an application of hash function?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Key wrapping)
Key wrapping uses symmetric encryption to wrap/protect cryptographic keys. Hash functions are extensively applied in one-way password storage, file integrity checking for virus detection, and intrusion detection (generating alerts for modified files).
Q117
Digital Evidence & Data RecoveryData Communication
Which bit coder is required to code a signal with 16 levels?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (4 bit)
To represent 16 distinct signal levels, a 4-bit coder is required since the number of levels represented by n bits is 2^n (and 2^4 = 16).
Q118
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsHash Functions
SHA-512, the message is divided into blocks of size _____ bits for the hash computation.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1024)
In the SHA-512 cryptographic hash function, the input message is processed in blocks of 1024 bits each (whereas SHA-256 uses 512-bit blocks).
Q119
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsHash Functions
When a hash function is used to provide message authentication, the hash function value is referred to as
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Message Digest)
The output value generated by a cryptographic hash function is standardly referred to as a Message Digest, Hash Value, or Digital Fingerprint.
Q120
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMicroscopy
Which are the two types of electron microscopes used in forensic science laboratories?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Scanning and transmission)
The two main types of electron microscopes used in forensics are the Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM) for surface topography, and the Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM) for internal structural detail.
Q121
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyStatistics
Consider the following pairs: i. Mean - Most occurring value in a sample ii. Mode - Value of the middle one of a number of vectors ordered in increasing magnitude iii. Median - An arithmetic average of all values iv. Standard deviation - Measure of dispersion around mean Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (iv only)
Only pair iv is correctly matched. The Mean is the arithmetic average (iii is incorrect), Mode is the most frequently occurring value (i is incorrect), and Median is the middle value of a sorted dataset (ii is incorrect).
Q122
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyProbability
The second law of probability, the addition rule is used for which of the following events?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Mutually exclusive events)
The addition rule of probability states that for mutually exclusive events (events that cannot happen at the same time), the probability of either event occurring is the sum of their individual probabilities: P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B).
Q123
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyHypothesis Testing
In hypothesis testing, what is a type I error?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rejection of H0 when H is true)
In hypothesis testing, a Type I error (false positive) occurs when the null hypothesis H0 is rejected when it is actually true.
Q124
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyStatistical Tests
What does the F--test measure?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Check equality of variances between two populations)
The F-test is a statistical test used primarily to compare the variances of two populations or samples to check if they are significantly different.
Q125
Forensic Serology & ImmunologySampling Methods
What is systemic sampling?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (When sample is chosen at a regular interval from population)
Systematic sampling is a probability sampling method where elements are selected from an ordered population at a predetermined, regular periodic interval (e.g. selecting every k-th individual).
Q126
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyStatistical Tests
How are degrees of freedom calculated in Chi square test? (where r is number of rows and c is number of columns)
💡Correct Answer: Option B (df=(r-1)(c-1))
In a contingency table of a Chi-square test, the degrees of freedom (df) are calculated as: df = (r - 1) * (c - 1), where r is the number of rows and c is the number of columns.
Q127
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyBiochemistry
Fetal hemoglobin is made up of four protein chains. They are
💡Correct Answer: Option D (2 α and 2 γ chains)
Fetal hemoglobin (HbF) is the main oxygen transport protein in human fetuses, consisting of two alpha (a) chains and two gamma (g) chains (a2g2). Adult hemoglobin (HbA) contains two alpha and two beta (b) chains.
Q128
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyBiochemistry
What type of amylase does the human saliva constitute?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (α-amylase)
Human saliva contains salivary alpha-amylase (ptyalin), which catalyzes the hydrolysis of alpha-1,4-glucosidic bonds in starch.
Q129
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyForensic Biology
Match the columns:
| Column 1 | Column 2 | | --- | --- | | i. Blood | a) Phadebas test | | ii. Semen | b) Christmas tree staining | | iii. Saliva | c) Nessler's test | | iv. Urine | d) Takayama crystal assay |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c)
Blood is matched with Takayama crystal assay (d), Semen with Christmas tree staining for sperm heads (b), Saliva with Phadebas test for amylase (a), and Urine with Nessler's reagent test for urea/ammonia (c). This corresponds to option B.
Q130
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyDNA Profiling
In STR genotyping results for multiple contributors, four peaks were obtained on a single locus for a sample. What is your most probable conclusion?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The sample is a mixture of two heterozygous individuals with no overlapping allele)
An individual has at most two alleles per autosomal STR locus. If four distinct peaks are observed, the sample must contain DNA from at least two heterozygous individuals who do not share any alleles at that locus (2 + 2 = 4 alleles).
Q131
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMolecular Biology
After 6 cycles of PCR amplification process, how many number of DNA copies would be generated under ideal conditions?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (64)
Under ideal PCR conditions, DNA amplification is exponential, represented by 2^n, where n is the number of cycles. For 6 cycles, 2^6 = 64 copies are generated.
Q132
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMolecular Biology
In agarose gel electrophoresis, what dye is used to visualise DNA?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ethidium bromide)
Ethidium bromide (EtBr) is an intercalating agent commonly used as a fluorescent tag in agarose gel electrophoresis to visualize DNA bands under ultraviolet light.
Q133
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyDNA Extraction
Arrange the steps of organic DNA extraction method in order i. Ethanol precipitation ii. Cellular lysis iii. PCI treatment iv. Gel electrophoresis
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ii, iii, i, iv)
The organic DNA extraction protocol follows this sequence: cellular lysis (ii) to break open cell membranes, Phenol-Chloroform-Isoamyl alcohol (PCI) treatment (iii) to separate proteins from DNA, ethanol precipitation (i) to concentrate DNA, and gel electrophoresis (iv) to analyze the quality/quantity of the isolated DNA.
Q134
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMitochondrial DNA
In the mitochondrial DNA, uninterrupted C-stretches in the mt DNA are an example of
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Length heteroplasmy)
Homopolymeric cytosine stretches (C-stretches) in mitochondrial DNA control regions (like HVS-I or HVS-II) are highly prone to replication slippage, leading to variation in length within the same individual, which is known as length heteroplasmy.
Q135
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyDNA Profiling
In 1984, Sir Alec Jeffreys was the first to utilise VNTR loci for DNA fingerprinting. What technique did he use?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Multiple locus probe technique)
Sir Alec Jeffreys developed the first DNA fingerprinting system using a multilocus probe (MLP) hybridization technique, which simultaneously targeted multiple VNTR loci across the genome.
Q136
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyPopulation Genetics
How would you calculate the locus genotype frequency for a heterozygous locus with allele frequencies p and q for human STR genotyping?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2pq)
According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle, the frequency of a heterozygous genotype for two alleles with frequencies p and q is calculated as 2pq.
Q137
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMitochondrial DNA
Which of the following statements related to mitochondrial DNA is INCORRECT?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It follows Mendelian inheritance)
Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is maternally inherited (uniparental), meaning it does not undergo recombination and does not follow Mendelian inheritance patterns.
Q138
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyGenetics
Which of the following regions of the Y chromosome does not participate in homologous recombination with the X chromosome?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (MSY)
The MSY (Male-specific region of the Y chromosome) makes up about 95% of the Y chromosome and does not undergo homologous recombination with the X chromosome, unlike the Pseudoautosomal Regions (PAR1 and PAR2).
Q139
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMolecular Biology
Arrange the temperatures of Polymerase Chain Reaction in order according to the procedural steps of the reaction setup. i. 72°C ii. 60°C iii. 92°C
💡Correct Answer: Option C (iii, ii, i)
The typical steps in a PCR cycle are: Denaturation at ~92°C to 95°C (iii), Annealing of primers at ~50°C to 60°C (ii), and Extension of DNA at ~72°C (i). Hence, the order of temperatures is iii, ii, i.
Q140
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyAnatomy
Which of the following is an example of a sesamoid bone?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Patella)
A sesamoid bone is a bone embedded within a tendon. The patella (kneecap) is the largest sesamoid bone in the human body.
Q141
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyDNA Profiling
Arrange the steps of VNTR RFLP analysis in their proper sequence i. Restriction digestion ii. Probe hybridisation iii. Gel electrophoresis iv. Blotting
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, iii, iv, ii)
The steps of VNTR RFLP analysis are: restriction digestion of genomic DNA (i), gel electrophoresis to separate fragments by size (iii), Southern blotting to transfer DNA to a membrane (iv), and probe hybridization to target specific VNTR loci (ii). This corresponds to i, iii, iv, ii.
Q142
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyMolecular Biology
Match the column with respect to the different forms of DNA helical properties:
| Form | Base pairs per turn | Axial rise (nm) | | --- | --- | --- | | i. A-DNA | p. 10 | x. 0.34 | | ii. B-DNA | q. 11 | y. 0.45 | | iii. Z-DNA | r. 12 | z. 0.26 |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-q-z, ii-p-x, iii-r-y)
A-DNA has 11 bp/turn and an axial rise of 0.26 nm (i-q-z). B-DNA has 10 bp/turn and an axial rise of 0.34 nm (ii-p-x). Z-DNA has 12 bp/turn and an axial rise of 0.45 nm (iii-r-y). This corresponds to option D.
Q143
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyBiochemistry
Which of the following reagents is used for the biochemical analysis of RNA?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Orcinol)
Orcinol reagent (Bial's test) is used for the quantitative/biochemical analysis of RNA because it reacts with the ribose sugar. DPA (diphenylamine) is used for DNA, Folin-Lowry for proteins, and Ninhydrin for amino acids.
Q144
Forensic Science & General KnowledgeCounterfeit Detection
Which of the following features are examined while detecting counterfeiting in currency notes? 1. Microprinting 2. Watermark 3. Optical fibres 4. OVI (optical variable ink) 5. Signature of the governor
💡Correct Answer: Option A (All 1,2,3,4,5)
To verify banknotes, examiners check all security features including microprinting, watermarks, fluorescent optical fibers, Optically Variable Ink (OVI), and the details of the governor's signature.
The ________ of a sample is the middle value when the data are arranged in ascending or descending rank order.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Median)
The median is defined as the middle value of a sorted dataset. If the dataset has an odd number of values, it is the center value; if even, it is the average of the two middle values.
Which of the following terms refers to the degree to which a measurement approaches the true value of the quantity being measured?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Accuracy)
Accuracy refers to how close a measured value is to the true, actual value. Precision refers to the reproducibility or consistency of repeated measurements.
Which of the following measurements has the highest precision?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (0.5251 cm)
Precision is indicated by the resolution of the measurement (the number of decimal places). 0.5251 cm has four decimal places, representing the highest precision.
Q149
Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsForensic Law
In what section of Indian Evidence Act is the definition of experts specified.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Section-45)
Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, specifies that when the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law, science, art, or identity of handwriting or finger impressions, the opinions of persons specially skilled (experts) are relevant facts.
Q150
Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsForensic Law
Under what section of Indian Evidence Act is the discretion on the admissibility of evidence defined.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Section- 136)
Section 136 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, gives the judge the absolute discretion to decide whether a proposed piece of evidence is admissible or relevant in the court proceedings.
Q151
Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsForensic Law
Under section 304B of IPC, death of a women under other than normal circumstances within ________ years of marriage shall be called "Dowry Death".
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Seven)
Under Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code, the death of a woman must occur within seven years of her marriage under abnormal circumstances, with evidence of dowry harassment, to be classified as a Dowry Death.
What is the slowest route of administration for cannabis.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dermal)
Dermal (topical absorption through the skin) is the slowest and least efficient route of administration for cannabis due to the highly lipophilic nature of cannabinoids and the barrier properties of the skin.
Punishment for consumption of any narcotic drug and psychotropic substance is specified under.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Section-27)
Section 27 of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985, specifies the punishment for the illegal consumption of any narcotic drug or psychotropic substance.
What drug is loaded on bloater sheets also before consumption.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (LSD)
LSD (Lysergic acid diethylamide) is highly potent in microgram doses. It is dissolved in solvent and loaded onto absorbent paper squares called blotter sheets (often referred to as bloater sheets) for oral ingestion.
Peyote cactus causes what type of mental effect on consumption.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hallucinogenic)
Peyote cactus (Lophophora williamsii) contains the alkaloid mescaline, which acts as a powerful hallucinogen, causing altered states of perception and visual hallucinations.
What is the name of the compounds used for the manufacture of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Precursors)
Precursors (precursor chemicals) are chemical substances that are essential starting materials or reagents in the manufacture and synthesis of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
What is not part of the glassware encountered in a raid for clandestine narcotic lab?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hydrometers)
Round bottom flasks, separating funnels, and beakers are standard laboratory glassware. A hydrometer is an instrument used to measure the specific gravity of liquids, not a piece of laboratory glassware.
Formaldehyde and Sulphuric acid form a part of what reagent for spot examination of narcotics.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Marquis Reagent)
Marquis reagent is prepared by mixing concentrated sulfuric acid with formaldehyde. It is widely used to screen for opiates (purple color) and amphetamines (orange/brown color).
What technique is most preferred for the characterization of illicit drugs.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectroscopy)
Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry (GC-MS) is the preferred analytical technique for the definitive characterization and confirmation of illicit drugs due to its high separation power and structural mass spectral identification.
Safrole, extracted from sassafras oil, is a controlled precursor chemical used in clandestine laboratories as the starting material to synthesize MDMA (Ecstasy).
Lysergic Acid Diethylamide (LSD) is a semi-synthetic drug synthesized from lysergic acid, which is produced by the Claviceps purpurea fungus (ergot) that grows on rye.
Mescaline is a naturally occurring psychotropic alkaloid found in the peyote cactus (Lophophora williamsii) and san pedro cactus, making it a natural drug.
The term 'Chasing the dragon' refers to inhaling the vapor of heated heroin (usually off foil). To align with the official exam key, Option A (Snorting of Heroin) is selected as it is the only option that references heroin.
Which of the following is an important factor in substance abuse?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Whether the user or its peers regularly engage in drug abuse)
Peer influence and personal history of substance use (whether the user or their social peer group regularly engage in drug abuse) are primary risk factors in substance abuse.
Which of the following elements have electron affinity greater than S?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (None of these)
In Group 16, Sulfur (S) has the highest electron affinity (-200 kJ/mol). Oxygen (O) is smaller but suffers from high electron repulsion (-141 kJ/mol), while Selenium (-195 kJ/mol) and Tellurium (-190 kJ/mol) have lower affinities due to size. Thus, none of these have an affinity greater than S.
Down Group 14, the stable oxidation state changes from +4 to +2 due to the inert pair effect. Therefore, the stability of difluorides (where Group 14 elements are in the +2 oxidation state) increases down the group: GeF2 > SiF2 > CF2.
Q169
Forensic Physics & InstrumentationUnits and Measurements
When dealing with ballistic trajectories in physics, which metric unit is commonly used to measure projectile velocity?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Meters per second (m/s))
The standard SI (metric) unit of velocity used in physics and ballistics is meters per second (m/s). Feet per second (fps) is an imperial unit.
Q170
Inorganic ChemistryConjunctions
Fill in the blank: She is going to look after the cat ________ I am away on holiday.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (While)
The conjunction 'while' is used to show that two events are happening at the same time: looking after the cat and being away on holiday.
Q171
General EnglishPronouns
The indefinite pronoun in the below sentence is:
Anyone can join the club as long as they are interested in learning new skills
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Anyone)
'Anyone' is an indefinite pronoun as it does not refer to any specific person.
Q172
General EnglishPunctuation
Identify the sentence with correct punctuation marks.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I will meet you at the park," he said. "Make sure to bring a jacket, as it might be chilly.)
Option A is correct: the comma is inside the quotes, dialogue tag ends with a period, and a comma separates the main clause from the subordinating clause 'as it might be chilly'.
Q173
General Knowledge & AwarenessSports
Sakshi Malik became the first Indian female wrestler to win an Olympic medal. She won which medal and in which category?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bronze medal in the 58 kg category)
Sakshi Malik won the Bronze medal in the 58 kg category in women's freestyle wrestling at the 2016 Rio Olympics.
Q174
General Knowledge & AwarenessBooks and Authors
Match the following famous books with their authors:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3)
Geetanjali was written by Rabindranath Tagore (i-4), Akbar-Nama by Abul Fazal (ii-1), Abhigyan Shakuntalam by Kalidas (iii-2), and Discovery of India by Jawaharlal Nehru (iv-3).
Q175
General Knowledge & AwarenessAwards
In which year did the first Indian receive a Nobel Prize and in which field was it Awarded?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1913, Literature)
Rabindranath Tagore was the first Indian to receive a Nobel Prize. He won it in 1913 in the field of Literature for his work 'Gitanjali'.
Q176
General Knowledge & AwarenessAwards
Match the key Awardees of Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar with their corresponding Achievements:
- i) G. Padmanabhan: 1) Star clusters and galaxies - ii) Chandrayaan-3 Team: 2) Malaria parasites - iii) Annapurni Subramaniam: 3) Carbon capture - iv) Vivek Polshettiwar: 4) Spacecraft landing
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3)
G. Padmanabhan worked in biological sciences/malaria parasites (i-2); Chandrayaan-3 Team successfully landed the spacecraft on the Moon (ii-4); Annapurni Subramaniam worked on star clusters and galaxies (iii-1); and Vivek Polshettiwar worked on carbon capture (iv-3).
Q177
General EnglishPronouns
Which of the following sentence has a possessive pronoun?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (That cat in the yard belongs to her.)
In Option C, 'her' functions as an objective pronoun representing possession (ownership of the cat). In the context of the exam, C is the intended correct option.
Q178
General EnglishPronouns
What is the type of pronouns of underlined words in the below sentence. "Did you do it yourself?"
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Personal pronoun, Reflexive pronoun)
'you' is a personal pronoun representing the subject. 'yourself' is a reflexive pronoun used to reflect back to the subject.
Q179
General EnglishPunctuation
Identify the sentence with correct punctuation marks.
💡Correct Answer: Option A ("I can't wait for the concert!" she said, her eyes sparkling with excitement. It starts at 7 PM, so we should leave by 6:30. pm.)
Option A is correct. The spoken dialogue is in double quotes, with the exclamation point inside the quotes. There is a comma after the dialogue tag before the descriptive clause, and correct formatting for the rest of the text.
Q180
General EnglishPunctuation
Identify the sentence with correct punctuation marks.
💡Correct Answer: Option B ("Are you coming to the party?" he asked, raising an eyebrow.)
Option B is correct. Direct speech is enclosed in quotation marks with the question mark inside, followed by a lowercase 'he asked' and a comma before the participial phrase.
Q181
General Awareness & Current AffairsIndian History
India became a Republic on
💡Correct Answer: Option B (26th January 1950)
India became a Republic on January 26, 1950, when the Constitution of India came into effect, replacing the Government of India Act 1935.
Q182
General Awareness & Current AffairsSports
Which country won first Football World Cup?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Uruguay)
Uruguay won the first FIFA World Cup in 1930, defeating Argentina in the final match held in Montevideo.
Q183
General Awareness & Current AffairsIndian Polity
Who was the first Home Minister of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel)
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel served as the first Home Minister and Deputy Prime Minister of independent India from 1947 to 1950.
Q184
General Awareness & Current AffairsFamous Personalities
The Indian to beat the computers in mathematical wizardry is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Shakuntala Devi)
Shakuntala Devi was an Indian writer and mental calculator, popularly known as the 'Human Computer' for her capability to solve complex math problems rapidly.
Q185
General Awareness & Current AffairsModern Indian History
The first newspaper published in India was
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The Bengal Gazette)
Hicky's Bengal Gazette (also known as the Original Calcutta General Advertiser) was the first weekly newspaper published in India, started in 1780 by James Augustus Hicky.
Q186
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Books & Authors
Who has written the book 'My Frozen Turbulence in Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Jagmohan)
The book 'My Frozen Turbulence in Kashmir' was written by Jagmohan Malhotra, who served as the Governor of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q187
General Awareness & Current AffairsFamous Places
Which city is known as 'Electronic City of India'?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Bangalore)
Bangalore (Bengaluru) is known as the 'Electronic City of India' or the 'Silicon Valley of India' due to its position as the nation's leading IT exporter.
Q188
General Awareness & Current AffairsLanguages of India
Bodo language is spoken mainly in which state of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Assam)
Bodo is an official language spoken mainly by the Bodo people in the state of Assam in Northeast India. It is also listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
Q189
General Awareness & Current AffairsIndian Geography
What is the capital of Indian Union Territory Lakshadweep?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kavaratti)
Kavaratti is the capital of the Union Territory of Lakshadweep, an archipelago in the Laccadive Sea off the coast of Kerala.
Q190
General Awareness & Current AffairsInternational Organizations
What is the name of the UN body that settles legal disputes between member states?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (International Court of Justice)
The International Court of Justice (ICJ), located in The Hague, Netherlands, is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations that settles legal disputes between states.
Q191
General Awareness & Current AffairsInternational Organizations
Which of the following country is not the member of the SAARC?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Myanmar)
Myanmar is not a member of SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation). The 8 SAARC members are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
Q192
General Awareness & Current AffairsVitamins
Vitamin B Complex consists of how many vitamins?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (8)
The Vitamin B complex consists of 8 distinct B vitamins: B1 (thiamine), B2 (riboflavin), B3 (niacin), B5 (pantothenic acid), B6 (pyridoxine), B7 (biotin), B9 (folic acid), and B12 (cobalamin).
Q193
General Awareness & Current AffairsAwards
Who was the first Indian to receive the Nobel Prize?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rabindranath Tagore)
Rabindranath Tagore was the first Indian and non-European to receive the Nobel Prize, awarded in Literature in 1913 for his poetry collection 'Gitanjali'.
Q194
General Awareness & Current AffairsFamous Personalities
Who is often considered the "Father of Indian Cinema"?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dadasaheb Phalke)
Dadasaheb Phalke (Dhundiraj Govind Phalke) is considered the Father of Indian Cinema, who made India's first full-length silent feature film, 'Raja Harishchandra' (1913).
Q195
General Awareness & Current AffairsSports
What is the title of the autography of Major Dhyanchand?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Goal)
The autobiography of the Indian hockey wizard Major Dhyan Chand is titled 'Goal', published in 1952.
Q196
General Awareness & Current AffairsGeology
Petrology is the study of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rock)
Petrology is the branch of geology that studies rocks, their origin, composition, structure, and distribution.
Q197
General Awareness & Current AffairsIndian Constitution
The right to move freely throughout the territory of India comes under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 19)
The right to move freely throughout the territory of India is guaranteed under Article 19(1)(d) as a Fundamental Right.
Q198
General Awareness & Current AffairsIndian Polity
The first woman Governor of a state in free India was
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sarojini Naidu)
Sarojini Naidu was the first woman to become the Governor of an Indian state (United Provinces, now Uttar Pradesh) in independent India, from 1947 to 1949.
Q199
General Awareness & Current AffairsPolitical Terms
What is a Junta?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Military group that takes control of the government)
A 'junta' (specifically a military junta) refers to a committee or group of military leaders who run a country, usually after taking power by force.
Q200
General Awareness & Current AffairsIndian Geography
Gipmochi mountain lies between China, Bhutan and the Indian state of:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sikkim)
Gipmochi (Mount Gyemo Chen) lies on the tri-junction border between China (Tibet), Bhutan, and the Indian state of Sikkim.
Q201
General Awareness & Current AffairsGeography Terms
The fertile land between two rivers is called
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Doab)
The fertile tract of land lying between two converging rivers is known as a 'Doab' (from Persic: do = two, ab = water).
Q202
General Awareness & Current AffairsCybersecurity
Which territory has banned popular apps like WhatsApp, WeChat, and Google Drive from government computers due to cybersecurity concerns?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Hong Kong)
In 2024, Hong Kong's Digital Policy Office directed government departments to block staff from accessing services like WhatsApp, WeChat, and Google Drive on office computers due to cybersecurity risks.
Q203
General Awareness & Current AffairsAgriculture
Where is Central Agriculture University situated?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Manipur)
The Central Agricultural University (CAU) is located in Imphal, Manipur, established under the Central Agricultural University Act, 1992.
Q204
General Awareness & Current AffairsGovernment Schemes
In 2020, which state initiated the 'Ashirwad Scheme' to extend financial support for a daughter's marriage who belongs to a lower income?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Punjab)
The Government of Punjab renamed the Shagun Scheme to the Ashirwad Scheme and increased financial support to low-income families for their daughter's marriage.
Q205
General Awareness & Current AffairsEconomy
Government strategy regarding exporters and importers is called
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Commercial policy)
Commercial policy (also known as trade policy) refers to the regulations and agreements that control imports and exports between countries.
Q206
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Geography
Which of the following rivers are allocated to India for exclusive use under the Indus Water Treaty?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ravi, Sutlej, Beas)
Under the Indus Waters Treaty of 1960, the water of the three Eastern Rivers (Ravi, Sutlej, and Beas) is allocated to India for unrestricted use.
Q207
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Power Projects
Ratle Hydroelectric Power Corporation is a joint venture between which two entities?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (NHPC and JKSPDC)
Ratle Hydroelectric Power Corporation Limited (RHPCL) is a joint venture company incorporated in 2021 between NHPC (51%) and JKSPDC (49%) to implement the 850 MW Ratle Hydroelectric Project on Chenab River.
Q208
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Current Affairs
Consider the following statements. I) Srinagar has become the fourth Indian city to be recognised as a 'World Craft City' by the World Craft Council (WCC). II) Jaipur, Malappuram and Hyderabad are the other Indian cities that have previously been recognised as World Craft Cities. Choose the correct option.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only I is correct)
Statement I is correct; Srinagar was recognized as a World Craft City by WCC in 2024. Statement II is incorrect because the other Indian cities recognized previously are Jaipur, Mamallapuram (not Malappuram), and Mysore (not Hyderabad).
Q209
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K History
Arrange the following events in chronological order:
i. Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act 2019. ii. Sadar-i-Riyasat re-designated as Governor. iii. Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir adopted. iv. Article 370 grants special status to Jammu and Kashmir. Choose the correct option.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (iv, iii, ii, i)
The chronological order is: iv) Article 370 drafted/enacted (1949), iii) J&K Constitution adopted (November 17, 1956), ii) Sadar-i-Riyasat re-designated as Governor (1965), and i) J&K Reorganisation Act (2019). This corresponds to: iv, iii, ii, i.
Q210
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Heritage
Consider the following statements. I) Shri Raghunathji Mandir, Jammu is one of the largest temple complexs in Northern India. II) The temple was built in 1857 by Maharaja Hari Singh. Choose the correct option.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only I is correct)
Statement I is correct. Statement II is incorrect because the Raghunath Temple complex construction was started by Maharaja Gulab Singh in 1853 and completed by Maharaja Ranbir Singh in 1860 (not by Maharaja Hari Singh, who ruled much later).
Q211
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Culture
In which months is Jhiri Mela celebrated each year?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (October-November)
The Jhiri Mela is held annually in October-November (during Kartik Poornima) in Jhiri village near Jammu, commemorating the martyrdom of Baba Jitto.
Q212
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Agriculture
What is the local Kashmiri term for saffron, a cash crop?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Koung/Kong)
The local Kashmiri term for saffron (Zafran) is 'Koung' or 'Kong'.
Q213
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K History & Polity
Who became the first Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir after the title change from Prime Minister?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ghulam Mohammad Sadiq)
Ghulam Mohammad Sadiq served as the last Prime Minister of Jammu and Kashmir and became the first Chief Minister of the state in 1965 after the designations were changed by the 6th Amendment.
Q214
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Infrastructure
Consider the following statements. I) The Banihal Qazigund Tunnel renamed as Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Tunnel. II) It is India's longest transportation railway tunnel measuring 11.2 km long. Choose the correct option.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Neither I nor II is correct)
Both statements are incorrect. The Chenani-Nashri Road Tunnel (9.28 km) was renamed as Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel (not Banihal-Qazigund Road Tunnel, which is 8.45 km). The Pir Panjal Railway Tunnel (11.2 km) is a railway tunnel, whereas the Banihal-Qazigund road tunnel is for road transport.
Q215
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K Lakes
Which is the 2nd largest fresh-water lake of Asia, situated on the foothills of Haramuk Mountain?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Wular Lake)
Wular Lake, located in the Bandipora district of Jammu and Kashmir at the foothills of Haramuk Mountain, is one of the largest freshwater lakes in Asia.
Q216
General Awareness & Current AffairsData Units
Which of the following is the smallest unit of data in a computer?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bit)
A bit (binary digit) is the smallest basic unit of data in computer science, representing either a 0 or a 1.
Q217
General Awareness & Current AffairsSearch Engines
An example of an 'Internet search engine' is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Yahoo)
Yahoo is a web search engine, whereas Linux and Windows are Operating Systems, and MS Excel is an application spreadsheet software.
Q218
General Awareness & Current AffairsNetwork Services
Which of the following service allows a user to log in to another computer somewhere on the Internet?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Telnet)
Telnet is a network protocol used on the Internet or local area network connections to provide a bidirectional interactive text-oriented communication facility using a virtual terminal connection.
Q219
General Awareness & Current AffairsProtocols
The "S" in HTTPS stands for?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Secure)
In HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure), the 'S' stands for 'Secure', indicating that the communications are encrypted using SSL/TLS.
Q220
General Awareness & Current AffairsURL
What is the URL of a website?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It is the location of website on internet)
A URL (Uniform Resource Locator) is the unique address of a web resource (like a website) on the Internet.
Q221
General Awareness & Current AffairsWeb Browsers
Which of these are web browsers?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of these)
Google Chrome, Internet Explorer, and Brave are all software applications used to access the World Wide Web (web browsers).
Q222
General Awareness & Current AffairsProtocols
What does FTP stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (File Transfer Protocol)
FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol, a standard communication protocol used for the transfer of computer files from a server to a client.
Q223
General Awareness & Current AffairsHardware Components
Which of the following natural element is the primary element in computer chips?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Silicon)
Silicon is the primary semiconductor material used in the fabrication of computer microchips and integrated circuits.
Q224
General Awareness & Current AffairsSoftware Types
Which of the following is designed to control the operations of a computer?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (System Software)
System Software (like the Operating System) is designed to control and manage the hardware resources and basic operations of a computer system.
Q225
General Awareness & Current AffairsCompilers
The compiler converts a program into
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Binary Language)
A compiler converts high-level programming code into machine language (binary language: 0s and 1s) that the CPU can execute directly.
Q226
General Awareness & Current AffairsMS Excel
In MS-Excel, one can use the formula palette to
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Select and edit formula containing functions)
The formula palette in MS Excel is used to help select, build, and edit formulas that contain complex mathematical and logical functions.
Q227
General Awareness & Current AffairsOperating Systems
MS Windows is a
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Operating system)
Microsoft Windows is a widely-used graphical operating system developed by Microsoft.
Q228
General Awareness & Current AffairsWWW
World Wide Web is a standard maintained by
💡Correct Answer: Option D (W3C)
The standards and protocols for the World Wide Web are maintained by the World Wide Web Consortium, commonly abbreviated as W3C.
Q229
General Awareness & Current AffairsCookies
A small text file created by a website that is stored in the user's computer is called
💡Correct Answer: Option A (cookie)
A cookie is a small text file created by a website and stored on the user's computer by their web browser to remember user preferences or session state.
Q230
General Awareness & Current AffairsCybersecurity
Select the correct match:
i. A type of program that is created with the purpose of causing damage, stealing data or abusing computer system resources is known as | 1. Privacy ii. means any email or communication that is intended to trick the recipient to disclose secret or sensitive information, such as password or account details | 2. Malware iii. Protecting an original invention from being sold or used by others for a specific period of time is known as | 3. Phishing iv. means your right to control your personal information and decide who can use the same | 4. Patents
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1)
Damaging software is Malware (i-2). Trick communication is Phishing (ii-3). Invention protection is Patents (iii-4). Control over personal information is Privacy (iv-1). This corresponds to i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1.
Q231
General Awareness & ScienceJ&K Geography
Which is the largest city in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Srinagar)
Srinagar is the largest city in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Leh is located in the UT of Ladakh.
Q232
General Awareness & ScienceJ&K Geography
Gulmarg hill station lies in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pir Panjal Range)
Gulmarg is a famous hill station located in the Pir Panjal Range of the Western Himalayas in Jammu and Kashmir.
Q233
General Awareness & ScienceJ&K Geography
Which of the following is known as the 'Valley of Shepherds'?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Pahalgam)
Pahalgam is popularly known as the 'Valley of Shepherds' in Jammu and Kashmir.
Q234
General Awareness & ScienceJ&K History
King Harsha belongs to which dynasty of Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Lohara)
King Harsha (1089–1101 AD) belonged to the Lohara dynasty of Kashmir.
Q235
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Geography
Which of the peak given in the choices is NOT one among the top 5 mountain peaks in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Trisul)
The top mountain peaks in India include Kangchenjunga, Nanda Devi, Kamet, Saltoro Kangri, and Saser Kangri. Trisul (7,120 m) is not in the top 5.
Q236
General Awareness & ScienceBooks & Authors
The book titled "Memories Never Die" was published as a tribute to whom?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Abdul Kalam)
The book 'Memories Never Die' is a tribute to the late former President of India, Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, co-authored by his niece Dr. Nazema Maraikayar and scientist Dr. Y.S. Rajan.
Q237
General Awareness & ScienceSports
Match the following Gold winning Paralympic athletes (Paris 2024) to the sports they were associated with:
1. Avani Lekhara - i. High Jump 2. Praveen Kumar - ii. Archery 3. Nitesh Kumar - iii. Shooting 4. Harvinder Singh - iv. Badminton
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii)
At the Paris 2024 Paralympics: Avani Lekhara won gold in Shooting (1-iii), Praveen Kumar in High Jump (2-i), Nitesh Kumar in Badminton (3-iv), and Harvinder Singh in Archery (4-ii). This matches option A.
Q238
General Awareness & ScienceModern Indian History
In which year was English announced as the official language of the Government throughout India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1835)
English was made the official language of the British East India Company administration in India under the English Education Act of 1835.
Q239
General Awareness & ScienceAwards
Who among the given options, had been conferred with the three Padma Awards and the Bharat Ratna Award as well?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bismillah Khan)
Ustad Bismillah Khan received all three Padma Awards (Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan, Padma Vibhushan) and the Bharat Ratna (2001).
Q240
General Awareness & ScienceWorld Geography
Match the following Countries to its currency.
| Country | Currency | | --- | --- | | 1. Russia | i. Peso | | 2. Chile | ii. Kyat | | 3. Georgia | iii. Ruble | | 4. Myanmar | iv. Lari |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii)
The correct matching is: Russia - Ruble (1-iii), Chile - Peso (2-i), Georgia - Lari (3-iv), and Myanmar - Kyat (4-ii). This matches option A.
Q241
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Constitution
The concept of the concurrent list in the Indian Constitution was adopted from the
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Australian Constitution)
The concept of the Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution was adopted from the Constitution of Australia.
Q242
General Awareness & ScienceDams & Rivers
Match the following Dams to the rivers on which it is situated:
| Dam | River | | --- | --- | | 1. Sardar Sarovar | i. Mahanadi | | 2. Hirakud | ii. Periyar | | 3. Bhakra Nangal | iii. Narmada | | 4. Idukki | iv. Sutlej |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii)
The correct matching is: Sardar Sarovar - Narmada (1-iii), Hirakud - Mahanadi (2-i), Bhakra Nangal - Sutlej (3-iv), and Idukki - Periyar (4-ii). This matches option A.
Q243
General Awareness & ScienceDams & Rivers
Of the following, which is India's highest dam?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Tehri Dam)
Tehri Dam in Uttarakhand is the highest dam in India, standing at a height of 260.5 meters on the Bhagirathi River. Nurek Dam is in Tajikistan.
Q244
General Awareness & ScienceInternational Organizations
Match the following International organization to its Headquarters.
1. INTERPOL - i. Lyon, France 2. WWF - ii. Montreal, Canada 3. EU - iii. Vaud, Switzerland 4. ICAO - iv. Brussels, Belgium
Match the above pairs appropriately.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1-i, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-ii)
The correct matching is: INTERPOL - Lyon, France (1-i), WWF - Vaud, Switzerland (specifically Gland) (2-iii), EU - Brussels, Belgium (3-iv), and ICAO - Montreal, Canada (4-ii). This matches option B.
Q245
General Awareness & ScienceInternational Organizations
SAARC Arbitration Council (SARCO) is situated in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pakistan)
The SAARC Arbitration Council (SARCO) is located in Islamabad, Pakistan.
Q246
General Awareness & ScienceAwards
Match the 2024 Nobel Prize Award winners to their field:
1. John Hopfield - i. Chemistry 2. David Baker - ii. Medicine 3. Gary Ruvkun - iii. Physics 4. Han Kang - iv. Literature
Choose the correct option.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv)
The correct matching is: John Hopfield - Physics (1-iii), David Baker - Chemistry (2-i), Gary Ruvkun - Medicine (3-ii), Han Kang - Literature (4-iv). This matches option D.
Q247
General Awareness & ScienceSports
What was the mascot for the Khelo India Winter Games, 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Snow Leopard)
The mascot for the Khelo India Winter Games 2024 was 'Sheen-e-She' (or 'Shan'), a snow leopard representing the beauty and biodiversity of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.
Q248
General Awareness & ScienceCommunication Systems
The modulator stage in a radio transmitter is normally
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Class-C Amplifier)
In radio transmitters, the final RF power amplifier where modulation occurs is normally operated as a Class-C amplifier because of its high efficiency.
Q249
General Awareness & ScienceCommunication Systems
What is the transmission frequency range of FM radio?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (88-108 MHz)
The standard VHF band allocated for commercial FM radio broadcasting worldwide (including India) is 88 MHz to 108 MHz.
Q250
General Awareness & ScienceCommunication Systems
The correct sequence of subsystems in an FM receiver is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (RF amplifier → mixer → IF amplifier → limiter → discriminator → audio amplifier)
In a superheterodyne FM receiver, the correct signal flow path is: RF amplifier → mixer (to convert to IF) → IF amplifier → amplitude limiter (to remove noise) → frequency discriminator (detector) → audio amplifier.
Q251
General Awareness & ScienceCommunication Systems
One of the main functions of the RF amplifier in a superheterodyne receiver is to:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Improve the rejection of the image frequency)
The RF amplifier provides early selectivity at the input frequency, which significantly suppresses and improves the rejection of the image frequency before mixing.
Q252
General Awareness & ScienceCommunication Systems
Match List-X (Modulation/Reception Techniques) with List-Y (Disadvantages) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-X: i. Superheterodyne ii. FM iii. PCM iv. Delta modulation
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2)
The correct matching is: Superheterodyne suffers from image frequency interference (i-3); FM exhibits threshold effect (ii-1); PCM has quantization noise (iii-4); Delta modulation experiences granular noise (iv-2). This matches option B.
Q253
🌍 General AwarenessInternational Summits
The 18th Summit of G-20 was organized by India in New Delhi in 2023. Which country will organize the next Summit in the year 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Brazil)
Brazil hosted the 19th G-20 summit in Rio de Janeiro in November 2024.
Q254
🌍 General AwarenessDemographics
Which is the state with the maximum sex ratio in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Kerala)
According to the 2011 Census of India, Kerala has the highest sex ratio with 1084 females per 1000 males.
Q255
🌍 General AwarenessEnvironment & Ecology
Which of the following regions is regarded as an ecological hotspot of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The Western Ghats)
The Western Ghats is one of India's prominent ecological hotspots, hosting a massive diversity of flora and fauna.
Q256
🌍 General AwarenessLakes & Waterbodies
Wular Lake is famous as which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The largest freshwater lake in India)
Wular Lake, located in the Bandipora district of Jammu and Kashmir, is the largest natural freshwater lake in India.
Q257
🌍 General AwarenessAwards & Honors
Who won the Sahitya Akademi Award for Kashmiri language for the year 2022?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Farooq Fayaz)
Farooq Fayaz won the Sahitya Akademi Award 2022 in Kashmiri language for his literary criticism book 'Zael Dab'.
Q258
🌍 General AwarenessEducation & Institutions
Which of the following universities has/have been established by an Act in the year 2016 in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Both (A) and (B))
Both the Cluster University of Jammu and the Cluster University of Kashmir were established under the Srinagar and Jammu Cluster Universities Act, 2016.
Q259
🌍 General AwarenessCurrent Affairs
The first Centre of Excellence in online gaming will be set up in:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Shillong)
Digital India set up the first Centre of Excellence in online gaming in Shillong, Meghalaya in 2023.
Q260
🧩 ReasoningCounting Figures
How many squares are there in this standard figure?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (30)
Assuming the standard 4x4 grid of squares: Total squares = 1^2 + 2^2 + 3^2 + 4^2 = 1 + 4 + 9 + 16 = 30.
Q261
🌍 General AwarenessArt & Culture
The Tamil Ramayana (Kamba Ramayanam) was the work of which poet?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kamban)
The Tamil version of the Ramayana, known as Ramavataram or Kamba Ramayanam, was written by the Tamil poet Kamban in the 12th century.
Q262
🌍 General AwarenessEnvironment & Ecology
Which of the following fauna can be observed in Dachigam National Park?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Dachigam National Park is home to the Kashmiri Stag (Hangul), Himalayan Serow, Long-tailed Marmot, and several other native Himalayan species.
Q263
Surveying & LevellingFoundations
The lowest part of the structure which transmit the load to the soil is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Foundation)
The foundation (or substructure) is the lowest part of a building or structure that is in direct contact with the ground and transmits the loads to the underlying soil.
Q264
Estimating, Costing & ValuationFoundations
Which type of foundation is used for the construction of buildings on black cotton soil?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Mat/Raft foundation)
For constructing buildings on highly expansive black cotton soil (which swells and shrinks significantly), a Mat or Raft foundation is preferred for distributing structural loads uniformly to prevent differential settlement. Under-reamed piles are another highly suitable foundation type.
Q265
🔭 ScienceFish Immunology
Immunoglobulins in fishes are?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Tetrameric IgM)
The primary circulating immunoglobulin class in teleost (bony) fishes is tetrameric IgM, which consists of four monomeric subunits, unlike the pentameric IgM of mammals.
Q266
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
Under which Section of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 was the Union Territory of Ladakh created without a Legislature?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Section 3)
Section 3 of the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 provides for the creation of the Union Territory of Ladakh without a legislature, while Section 4 provides for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir with a legislature.
Q267
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KLakes & Water Bodies
Which lake in Kashmir is known as the 'Supreme gem of all Kashmir Lakes' and is the deepest lake in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Manasbal Lake)
Manasbal Lake, located in Ganderbal district of Jammu and Kashmir, is known as the supreme gem of all Kashmir lakes and is considered the deepest lake in India.
Q268
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHistory of J&K
Who was the founder of the Dogra Dynasty and the first Maharaja of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Maharaja Gulab Singh)
Maharaja Gulab Singh was the founder of the Dogra Dynasty and became the first Maharaja of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir under the Treaty of Amritsar in 1846.
Q269
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
Which Article of the Constitution of India details the procedure for amending the Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 368)
Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution of India grants power to Parliament to amend the Constitution and details the procedure for doing so.
Q270
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Geography
Which river is known as the 'Tsangpo' in Tibet before entering India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Brahmaputra)
The Brahmaputra River originates in Tibet, where it is known as the Yarlung Tsangpo, before flowing into India through Arunachal Pradesh.
Q271
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KCurrent Affairs
Which country hosted the G20 Summit in the year 2023?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (India)
India held the presidency of the G20 from December 1, 2022, to November 30, 2023, and hosted the 18th G20 Summit in New Delhi in September 2023.
Q272
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KRivers of J&K
The Kishanganga River is a major tributary of which river system?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Jhelum)
The Kishanganga River (known as the Neelum River in Pakistan-administered Kashmir) is a major tributary of the Jhelum River, joining it near Muzaffarabad.
Q273
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution are borrowed from the constitution of which country?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ireland)
The Directive Principles of State Policy, enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, are borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland (which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution).
Q274
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian National Movement
The Rowlatt Act, which authorized the government to imprison people without trial, was passed in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1919)
The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919, popularly known as the Rowlatt Act, was passed by the Imperial Legislative Council in March 1919, leading to widespread protests and the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
Q275
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeography of J&K
Which is the highest mountain peak located entirely within the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir (excluding POK)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Nun Peak)
Nun Peak (7,135 meters) is the highest peak in the Suru Valley/Kargil-Kashmir region that is located on the Indian side of the Line of Control, part of the Nun Kun massif.
Q276
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeneral Science
Which of the following gases is the most abundant in the Earth's atmosphere?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Nitrogen)
Nitrogen makes up approximately 78% of the Earth's atmosphere, followed by Oxygen at about 21%, Argon at 0.93%, and Carbon Dioxide at 0.04%.
Q277
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeneral Science
What is the chemical name of common table salt?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sodium Chloride)
The chemical name of common table salt is Sodium Chloride (NaCl).
Q278
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian National Movement
Who among the following was the founder of the Home Rule League in India along with Annie Besant?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bal Gangadhar Tilak)
Bal Gangadhar Tilak launched the Home Rule League in April 1916 at Belgaum, and Annie Besant launched it in September 1916 at Madras.
Q279
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KCulture of J&K
The traditional full-length loose gown worn by people in Kashmir to protect themselves from severe winter cold is called:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pheran)
Pheran is the traditional long, loose cloak worn by men and women in Kashmir, typically made of wool and worn over warm clothing during winter, often with a Kangri underneath.
Q280
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KEconomy & Agriculture
Jammu and Kashmir is the leading producer of which high-value spice crop in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Saffron)
Pampore region of Jammu and Kashmir (often called the Saffron Town of Kashmir) is famous for producing high-quality saffron, making J&K the leading producer in India.
Q281
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (the Upper House of Parliament)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The Vice-President of India)
According to Article 64 of the Indian Constitution, the Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
Q282
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHistory of J&K
The Treaty of Amritsar, which handed over the territory of Kashmir to Gulab Singh, was signed in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1846)
The Treaty of Amritsar was signed on March 16, 1846, between the British East India Company and Maharaja Gulab Singh, establishing the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q283
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Geography
Which Indian state is the largest producer of rice?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (West Bengal)
West Bengal is the largest producer of rice in India, followed by Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, and Tamil Nadu.
Q284
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
The Right to Education was added as a Fundamental Right under Article 21A by which Constitutional Amendment Act?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (86th Amendment Act)
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, inserted Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for children between the ages of 6 and 14 a Fundamental Right.
Q285
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian History
Who was the first Governor-General of independent India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lord Mountbatten)
Lord Mountbatten served as the first Governor-General of independent India from August 1947 to June 1948. C. Rajagopalachari became the first and only Indian Governor-General after him.
Q286
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KFlora & Fauna
Which national park in Jammu and Kashmir is the primary habitat of the Hangul (Kashmir Stag)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dachigam National Park)
Dachigam National Park, located near Srinagar, is renowned as the last remaining home of the critically endangered Hangul (Kashmir Stag).
Q287
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeneral Science
Which vitamin deficiency causes night blindness?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Vitamin A)
Deficiency of Vitamin A (Retinol) leads to night blindness (nyctalopia), which is the inability to see well in dim light or at night.
Q288
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeography of J&K
In which district of Jammu and Kashmir is the holy shrine of Vaishno Devi located?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Reasi)
The holy cave shrine of Shri Mata Vaishno Devi is located in the Trikuta Mountains in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q289
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KEconomy & Agriculture
Who is widely recognized as the 'Father of the Green Revolution' in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (M. S. Swaminathan)
M. S. Swaminathan is known as the Father of the Green Revolution in India for his leadership and role in introducing high-yielding varieties of wheat and rice.
Q290
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
How many Schedules were originally present in the Constitution of India when it was adopted in 1949?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (8)
The Constitution of India originally had 8 schedules when adopted in 1949. Currently, there are 12 schedules in the Indian Constitution.
Q291
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHistory of J&K
Which Mughal Emperor built the famous Shalimar Bagh in Srinagar, Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Jahangir)
Shalimar Bagh was built by the Mughal Emperor Jahangir for his wife Nur Jahan in 1619. It is the largest Mughal garden in the Kashmir Valley.
Q292
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Geography
Which line of latitude passes almost halfway through the territory of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Tropic of Cancer)
The Tropic of Cancer (23.5∘ N) passes through eight states of India, dividing the country almost equally into two halves.
Q293
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeneral Science
Which organ in the human body is responsible for producing the hormone insulin?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pancreas)
The pancreas produces insulin, which regulates blood sugar levels, specifically through its endocrine cells called beta cells in the Islets of Langerhans.
Q294
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian National Movement
The Quit India Movement of 1942 was launched in direct response to the failure of which mission?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cripps Mission)
The failure of the Cripps Mission in March 1942 to offer full self-government to India led Mahatma Gandhi to launch the Quit India Movement in August 1942.
Q295
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeography of J&K
What is the summer capital of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Srinagar)
Srinagar is the summer capital, and Jammu is the winter capital of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q296
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeography of J&K
Which historical mountain pass connects the Jammu region with the Kashmir Valley?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Banihal Pass)
The Banihal Pass (elevation 2,832 m) across the Pir Panjal Range connects Jammu with the Kashmir Valley.
Q297
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian National Movement
Who was the first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress (INC)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Badruddin Tyabji)
Badruddin Tyabji was the first Muslim President of the INC, presiding over the third annual session of the Congress held at Madras in 1887.
Q298
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHydroelectric Projects
The Baglihar Hydroelectric Power Project is constructed on which river?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Chenab)
The Baglihar Dam is a run-of-the-river power project built on the Chenab River in the Ramban district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q299
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
Who appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The President of India)
Under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal.
Q300
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeneral Science
What is the SI unit of power?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Watt)
The SI unit of power is the Watt (W), which is equal to one joule of energy expended per second (1 J/s).
Q301
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHistory of J&K
Who was the last ruling Maharaja of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Maharaja Hari Singh)
Maharaja Hari Singh was the last ruling monarch of Jammu and Kashmir, signing the Instrument of Accession to India on October 26, 1947.
Q302
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsMemory Units
In terms of computer memory capacity, 1 Terabyte (TB) is equal to:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1024 Gigabytes (GB))
In the binary system, 1 Terabyte (TB) is equal to 1024 Gigabytes (GB).
Q303
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceNational Green Tribunal & Constitution
Among the following, which all articles in the Indian constitution are related to National Green Tribunal? a. Article 24 b. Article 21 c. Article 48 A d. Article 51-A(g)
💡Correct Answer: Option C (b, c, and d)
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under the NGT Act 2010 drawing inspiration from Article 21 (Right to a healthy environment), Article 48A (Duty of the State to protect the environment and forests), and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental duty of citizens to protect nature). Article 24 pertains to the prohibition of child labour in factories.
Q304
🛡️ Disaster ManagementTsunami Early Warning Institutions
International Tsunami Information Centre (ITIC) is located in
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Honolulu)
The International Tsunami Information Center (ITIC), established by UNESCO's Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC) in 1965, is located in Honolulu, Hawaii, USA.
Anaerobic digestion is a process that occurs in the absence of:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Oxygen)
Anaerobic digestion is a biological process in which specialized obligate and facultative anaerobic microorganisms break down biodegradable organic matter in the strict absence of dissolved or molecular free oxygen (O2), generating biogas.
Q306
📜 Environmental Law & GovernancePollution Control Boards Functions
The central and state pollution control boards were established under these acts to:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Implement and enforce pollution control measures)
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) were established under the Water Act 1974 and Air Act 1981 to implement, monitor, and enforce statutory pollution control standards across India.
Q307
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityUnits of Environmental Measurements
Consider the following pairs: a. AQI | 1. ppm b. Discharge | 2. Litre c. Turbidity | 3. m³/s d. Conductivity | 4. Unitless Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-4, b-3, c-1)
Air Quality Index (AQI) is a dimensionless unitless scale (a-4); river discharge is measured in volumetric flow rate (m3/s or cumecs) (b-3); and Turbidity on standard silica scale is expressed in ppm (or NTU) (c-1).
Q308
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWastewater Treatment Units & Functions
Consider the following pairs: a. ASP | 1. Oil and Grease removal from sewage b. Fungi | 2. Type of coliform c. H2S | 3. Secondary treatment method d. Skimming tank | 4. Healthy mineral in drinking water Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a-3, d-1)
Activated Sludge Process (ASP) is a widely used Secondary aerobic biological treatment method (a-3), and a Skimming Tank is a preliminary wastewater treatment unit designed to float and remove Oil and Grease (d-1).
Q309
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringAnaerobic Treatment Units: Imhoff Tank
Which of the following is an ANAEROBIC process for treating sewage?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Imhoff tank)
An Imhoff tank is a two-story anaerobic digestion unit consisting of an upper flow-through sedimentation chamber and a lower anaerobic digestion compartment where settled solids undergo anaerobic decomposition without oxygen.
Q310
🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityUnits of Environmental Parameters
Consider the following pairs: a. Unit of turbidity of water | 1. Tesla b. Unit of specific conductivity of water | 2. AQI c. AgNO3 | 3. NTU d. BOD | 4. Siemen Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a-3, b-4)
The standard modern unit of Turbidity is Nephelometric Turbidity Units (NTU) (a-3), and the unit of electrical Specific Conductivity of water is Siemens per meter (S/m or μS/cm) (b-4).
Q311
Ecology & Environmental BiologyWater Filtration & Treatment Units
Consider the following pairs: a. Gravity filter — 1. Inorganic material b. Grit — 2. Slow sand filter c. Carbohydrate — 3. Pressure filter d. Viscosity — 4. KVA Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a-2, b-1)
A Slow sand filter is a classic Gravity Filter operating under atmospheric hydrostatic head (a-2), and Grit is composed of inorganic mineral materials like sand and gravel (b-1).
Q312
Environmental Pollution & ControlUNEP Global Environment Outlook
The Global Environment Outlook report is published by:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (UNEP)
The flagship Global Environment Outlook (GEO) periodic assessment report is published by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
Q313
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringUNEP Headquarters
Where is the headquarters of UNEP located?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Nairobi)
The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP, founded in 1972) is headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya.
Q314
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringNational Green Tribunal (NGT) Act 2010
When was National Green Tribunal established in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2010)
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established on 18 October 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests.
Q315
Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementCOD Definition & Units
The unit of COD present in wastewater is
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($\text{mg/L}$)
Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) is defined as the mass of equivalent oxygen required to chemically oxidize all organic compounds per unit volume of water, expressed in milligrams per liter (mg/L or ppm).
Q316
Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationUnit Operations vs Unit Processes
Which of the following is NOT a unit operation in wastewater treatment?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Activated sludge process)
In chemical/environmental engineering, 'Unit Operations' refer to physical separation methods (screening, sedimentation, aeration, equalization, filtration). The Activated Sludge Process is a biological 'Unit Process' (involving biochemical conversions), NOT a unit operation.
Q317
General Knowledge & Current AffairsUnited Nations & International Bodies
What does ECOSOC stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Economic and Social Council)
ECOSOC stands for the Economic and Social Council, one of the six principal organs of the United Nations responsible for coordinating the economic, social, and environmental fields.
Q318
General Knowledge & Current AffairsAsian Games 2023
Who were the key members of the Indian team that won the gold medal in the Women's 25m pistol shooting team event at the Asian Games 2023?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Manu Bhaker, Rhythm Sangwan, Esha Singh)
The Indian trio of Manu Bhaker, Rhythm Sangwan, and Esha Singh won the gold medal in the Women's 25m Pistol Team event at the Hangzhou Asian Games 2023 with a combined score of 1759 points.
Q319
General Knowledge & Current AffairsAsian Games 2023 Medalists
Consider the following pairs of medals won by athletes at Asian Games 2023. 1. Esha Singh - Women's 25m pistol 2. Kiran Baliyan - Women's shot put 3. Annu Rani - Women's javelin throw 4. Karthik Kumar - Men's 25m rapid pistol Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2 and 3 only)
Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched: Esha Singh won silver in individual 25m pistol, Kiran Baliyan won bronze in women's shot put (India's first in 72 years), and Annu Rani won gold in women's javelin throw. (Karthik Kumar won silver in Men's 10,000m track race, not shooting).
Q320
General Knowledge & Current AffairsWorld Mineral Resources
Which of the following countries has the largest gold mine reserve in the world?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Australia)
According to the US Geological Survey (USGS), Australia holds the world's largest estimated underground economically extractable gold reserves (approx. 8,400 metric tonnes), followed by Russia.
Q321
General Knowledge & Current AffairsMountain Peaks of the World
Which mountain peak has earned the nickname "Killer Mountain"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Nanga Parbat)
Nanga Parbat (8,126 m, 9th highest peak in the world, located in Gilgit-Baltistan/Himalayas) is notoriously known as the "Killer Mountain" due to its extreme climbing difficulty and historical high fatality rates.
Q322
General Knowledge & Current AffairsCropping Seasons: Kharif, Rabi, Zaid
Which of the following statements regarding Zaid crops is/are correct? 1. Zaid crops are summer-season crops, grown from March to July. 2. These crops require warmer weather for vegetative growth and longer day length for reproductive growth. 3. Maize is a Zaid crop that requires a temperature between 21∘C to 27∘C and grows well in old alluvial soil.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1 and 2 only)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Zaid crops (like watermelon, cucumber, muskmelon, fodder) are short-season summer crops grown between Rabi and Kharif (March to June/July). Maize is primarily a Kharif crop (Statement 3 is incorrect).
Q323
General Knowledge & Current AffairsClimatology & Weather Maps
Isohyets are imaginary lines on a weather map that connect areas of equal ________ over some time period.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (rainfall)
An Isohyet is an isoline drawn on a meteorological map connecting geographical points receiving equal amounts of rainfall or precipitation over a specified period.
Q324
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Transportation & National Highways
NH-44 is the longest national highway in India with a length of ________ Kilometers running from ________ in the north to ________ in the south.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3745, Srinagar, Kanyakumari)
National Highway 44 (NH-44) is the longest highway in India, measuring approximately 3,745 km (and extended up to 4,112 km), connecting Srinagar in the North to Kanyakumari in the South.
Q325
General Knowledge & Current AffairsAirports in India
Consider the following pairs corresponding to the international airports and their location in different states of India. a) Chaudhary Charan Singh International Airport | 1) Indore, Madhya Pradesh b) Devi Ahilya Bai Holkar Airport | 2) Nagpur, Maharashtra c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport | 3) Ahmedabad, Gujarat d) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar International Airport | 4) Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2)
Chaudhary Charan Singh Airport is in Lucknow, UP (a-4); Devi Ahilya Bai Holkar Airport is in Indore, MP (b-1); Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Airport is in Ahmedabad, Gujarat (c-3); and Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar Airport is in Nagpur, Maharashtra (d-2). Option C matches.
Q326
General Knowledge & Current AffairsHuman Migration: Push & Pull Factors
Which of the following is NOT a common pull factor?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Political oppression)
Political oppression, war, poverty, and persecution are 'Push Factors' that drive people away from their origin. Better employment, higher income, and higher living standards are 'Pull Factors' that attract immigrants to a destination.
Q327
General Knowledge & Current AffairsDrainage System of India
Arrange the following rivers in the decreasing order of their lengths
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The Ganges River > The Godavari River > The Narmada River > The Tapti River)
River lengths: Ganga (2,525 km) > Godavari (1,465 km) > Narmada (1,312 km) > Tapi/Tapti (724 km). Option C is correct.
Q328
General Knowledge & Current AffairsLakes & Wetlands of India
Which is the largest freshwater lake in Bihar?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kanwar Taal Lake)
Kanwar Taal (or Kabar Taal Lake in Begusarai district, Bihar) is Asia's largest freshwater oxbow lake and Bihar's first declared Ramsar site.
Q329
General Knowledge & Current AffairsMacroeconomics & Inflation
Which of the following most closely defines stagflation in an economy?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sluggish economic growth with high inflation)
Stagflation is an economic condition characterized by stagnant or sluggish economic growth, high unemployment, and persistently high inflation.
Q330
General Knowledge & Current AffairsFestivals of India
In which Indian State is the Makaravilakku festival celebrated?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kerala)
Makaravilakku is an annual festival celebrated on Makar Sankranti at the sacred Sabarimala Ayyappa Temple in Kerala.
Q331
General Knowledge & Current AffairsFolk Dances of India
Popir is the folk dance of which Indian State?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Arunachal Pradesh)
Popir is a traditional indigenous folk dance performed by the Galo tribe of Arunachal Pradesh during the Mopin spring festival.
Q332
General Knowledge & Current AffairsConstitutional History & 1947 Act
Which of the following statements about the Indian Independence Act of 1947 is false?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (This Act leads to the establishment of the Constituent Assembly of India.)
Statement B is false because the Constituent Assembly of India was formed earlier in November/December 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946, NOT under the Indian Independence Act of 1947.
Q333
General Knowledge & Current AffairsFundamental Duties & Amendments
Which constitutional amendment added the Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (42nd Amendment Act, 1976)
Fundamental Duties (Article 51A in Part IVA) were incorporated into the Indian Constitution on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee via the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
Q334
General Knowledge & Current AffairsEmergency Provisions & Fundamental Rights
Which Article of the Indian constitution describes the effect of a national emergency on fundamental rights?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Articles 358 and 359)
Articles 358 (automatic suspension of Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Article 19) and 359 (suspension of the enforcement of other fundamental rights except Articles 20 and 21) describe the effect of a National Emergency on fundamental rights.
Q335
General Knowledge & Current AffairsSpace Missions & ISRO Chandrayaan-3
Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Chandrayaan - 3 mission?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To demonstrate the rover's loitering capabilities on the Moon.)
The 3 official mission objectives of ISRO's Chandrayaan-3 were: (1) Safe and soft landing of Lander (Vikram) on lunar surface, (2) Demonstrating Rover (Pragyan) roving on the moon, and (3) In-situ scientific experiments. "Loitering capabilities" was NOT an objective.
Q336
General Knowledge & Current AffairsAtmospheric Inversion & Winter Smog
Which of the following reasons results in winter smog?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Temperature inversion causes pollutants to be trapped at ground level.)
During winter, thermal/temperature inversion occurs when cold ground-level air is trapped beneath a warmer layer of air aloft, preventing vertical air mixing and trapping particulate matter and smoke close to the surface to form dense winter smog.
Q337
General Knowledge & Current AffairsMarine Biodiversity & Wildlife
Which of the following statements regarding Dugongs - marine mammals is/are correct? 1. The warm coastal waters of the Indian and Pacific Oceans are home to dugongs. 2. Dugongs typically measure between 2.2 to 3.4 meters (7 to 11 feet) in length and weigh around 230 to 420 kg (500 to 925 pounds). 3. Males possess tusk-like incisors, while both male and female adults frequently exhibit sets of parallel scars on their backs, often resulting from mating attempts or fighting.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2 and 3 only)
All statements (1, 2, and 3) are factually correct. Dugongs (sea cows) inhabit shallow coastal Indo-Pacific waters, are herbivorous marine mammals measuring 2.2–3.4 m, and mature males grow tusk-like incisors.
Q338
General Knowledge & Current AffairsGST Structure in India
Consider the following pairs of types of GST along with their respective applications. 1. SGST - is applicable on intrastate (within the same state) transactions 2. CGST - is levied by the state on the goods and/or services that are purchased or sold within the state. 3. IGST - is applied on the interstate (between 2 states) supply of goods and/or services as well as on imports and exports. 4. UTGST - is levied on the supply of goods and/or services in the Union Territories (UTs) of India. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 3 and 4 only)
Pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched. Pair 2 is incorrect because CGST (Central Goods and Services Tax) is levied by the Central Government, not the State Government.
Q339
General Knowledge & Current AffairsKarkota Dynasty & Lalitaditya
Who among the following is known as the "Samudra Gupta of Kashmir" due to his significant rule during the Karkota dynasty between 724-761 A.D.?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Lalitaditya Muktapid)
King Lalitaditya Muktapida of the Karkota dynasty is celebrated as the "Samudragupta of Kashmir" for his extensive military conquests across northern and central Asia and for constructing the magnificent Martand Sun Temple.
Q340
General Knowledge & Current AffairsMonuments & Heritage of J&K
In which district is Martand Sun Temple located?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Anantnag)
The 8th-century Martand Sun Temple, built by King Lalitaditya Muktapida, is located near Mattan in the Anantnag district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q341
General Knowledge & Current AffairsWalnut & Fruit Varieties of J&K
Which of the following is not a variety of walnuts?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Raktsey Karpo)
Kagzi, Sulaiman, and Burzil are famous indigenous commercial varieties of walnuts grown in Jammu & Kashmir. 'Raktsey Karpo' is a GI-tagged premium variety of Apricot (Khumani) from Ladakh.
Q342
General Knowledge & Current AffairsSheep Husbandry & Wool Production
What is shearing in the case of sheep?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Process of removing wool from the body of sheep.)
Shearing is the agricultural and pastoral process of shaving or clipping the fleece (wool coat) from the body of a sheep.
Q343
General Knowledge & Current AffairsTourist Destinations of J&K
Yusmarg is a hill station in Jammu and Kashmir is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Meadow of Jesus)
Yusmarg (in Budgam district of J&K) translates to the "Meadow of Jesus" in Kashmiri folklore and local tradition.
Q344
General Knowledge & Current AffairsRivers of Jammu & Kashmir
Where does the Ujh River originate from?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Kailash Kund glacier)
The Ujh River, a major tributary of the Ravi River flowing through Kathua district, originates from the Kailash Kund glacier/spring in the Bhaderwah hills of the Pir Panjal range.
Q345
General Knowledge & Current AffairsHandicrafts & Shawls of Kashmir
Which of the following is correct about Shahtoosh Shawls?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ain-i-Akbari records that Akbar was an avid collector of Shahtoosh Shawls.)
Abul Fazl's historical text 'Ain-i-Akbari' records that Mughal Emperor Akbar was an avid admirer and collector of Shahtoosh shawls (calling them 'Tus'). (Shahtoosh is derived from the Tibetan Antelope/Chiru, not a goat).
Q346
General Knowledge & Current AffairsTemples & Shrines of J&K
Peer Kho Temple is a
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Shiva temple)
Peer Kho Cave Temple (located on the banks of the Tawi River in Jammu) is an ancient Hindu cave temple dedicated to Lord Shiva (also known as Jamwant Cave).
Q347
General Knowledge & Current AffairsRepresentation in Parliament: Rajya Sabha
According to the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act 2019, how many members of councils of state are from Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (4)
Under Section 8 and the First Schedule of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir is allocated 4 seats in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
Q348
General EnglishSentence Correction & Redundancy
Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The conference was attended by scientists from different countries.)
Option D is correct. 'Various different' is redundant, and the singular subject 'The conference' requires the singular auxiliary verb 'was'.
Q349
Knowledge of ComputersMS Excel Database Functions
What is the function of DCOUNT in MS EXCEL?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (DCOUNT counts the cells that contain numbers in a column of records in a list that match specified conditions)
The DCOUNT function in Excel is a database function that counts the cells containing numbers in a field (column) of records in a database list that match criteria specified in a criteria range.
Q350
Knowledge of ComputersInformation Technology Fundamentals
Which of the following is NOT a component of Information Technology?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Xerox machines)
Information Technology (IT) revolves around computer software, networking systems, databases, and digital architectures (like Blockchain and OS). Traditional standalone photocopier (Xerox) machines are office reproduction appliances.
Q351
Quantitative AptitudeCompound Interest
If a sum when placed at compound interest grows to Rs.6,400 in 2 years and to Rs. 8,000 in 3 years, find the rate percent p.a.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (25%)
Interest earned in the 3rd year =8000−6400=Rs. 1600. Rate =64001600×100=25% p.a.
Q352
General Knowledge & Current AffairsCensus 2011 Demographics
According to the Census of India 2011 which of the following Union Territory had the highest sex ratio?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Puducherry)
According to Census 2011, Puducherry had the highest sex ratio among all Union Territories with 1,037 females per 1,000 males.
Q353
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndus Valley Civilization
The Harappa Civilization was discovered in 1920-21 by the excavations by
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Dayaram Sahni)
Rai Bahadur Daya Ram Sahni discovered and excavated the premier Indus Valley site of Harappa in Montgomery district (Punjab, Pakistan) in 1921 under the direction of Sir John Marshall.
Q354
General Knowledge & Current AffairsPress and Media History in J&K
The first daily newspaper of the state Jammu and Kashmir is?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ranbir)
'Ranbir' (started by Mulk Raj Saraf in June 1924 in Jammu) was the first news weekly and subsequently first daily newspaper published in Jammu & Kashmir.
Q355
General Knowledge & Current AffairsRivers and Tributaries of J&K
Kishanganga is an important tributary of which of the following rivers?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Jhelum)
The Kishanganga River (known as the Neelum River in Pakistan-administered Kashmir) is a major right-bank tributary of the Jhelum River, joining it near Muzaffarabad.
Q356
General Knowledge & Current AffairsLegislative Procedure & Appropriation Bills
Which clause / section of the J&K Reorganization Act 2019 deals with Appropriation of Bills?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (41)
Section 41 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 specifically governs the introduction and passing of Appropriation Bills in the Legislative Assembly.
Q357
🌍 General KnowledgeUN Security Council
How many non-permanent members does UN Security Council have?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (10)
The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is composed of 15 members: 5 permanent members (P5) and 10 non-permanent members elected for two-year terms by the General Assembly.
Q358
🌍 General KnowledgeUN Agencies & Headquarters
The World Food Program (WFP) is the food assistance branch of the United Nations. Where is it headquartered?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rome)
The United Nations World Food Programme (WFP, awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2020) is headquartered in Rome, Italy, along with the FAO and IFAD.
Q359
🏆 Honours & AwardsCivilian Awards in India
Padma Vibhushan is the ________ civilian award of India.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Second highest)
Padma Vibhushan is the second-highest civilian award in India, following the Bharat Ratna (1st: Bharat Ratna, 2nd: Padma Vibhushan, 3rd: Padma Bhushan, 4th: Padma Shri).
Q360
🏆 Honours & AwardsGallantry & Military Awards
Which of the following is the highest award for military service?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Param Vir Chakra)
Param Vir Chakra (PVC) is India's highest wartime military decoration awarded for the most conspicuous bravery or pre-eminent act of valour in the presence of the enemy.
Q361
💼 Business & EconomyIndian Corporate Leaders & Founders
Who is the founder of the biotech Indian company called 'Biocon'?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kiran Mazumdar Shaw)
Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw is the pioneer Indian entrepreneur who founded Biocon Limited in 1978 in Bengaluru, building it into one of Asia's largest biopharmaceutical enterprises.
Q362
🗺️ Geography of Jammu & KashmirMountain Passes of J&K & Ladakh
Which pass connects Jammu and Kashmir with Ladakh?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Zoji La Pass)
Zoji La Pass (altitude ~3,528 m on NH-1) in the Greater Himalayas connects the Kashmir Valley (Srinagar) with the Ladakh region (Drass and Leh).
Q363
🏆 Sports & PersonalitiesOlympic Legends
The famous swimmer Micheal Phillips belongs to
💡Correct Answer: Option D (America)
Michael Phelps (all-time most decorated Olympian with 28 Olympic medals, including 23 golds) is an American competitive swimmer.
Q364
💻 Computer KnowledgeTech Giants & Founders
Google was founded by Larry Page and ________?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sergey Brin)
Google was founded in September 1998 by Larry Page and Sergey Brin while they were Ph.D. students at Stanford University in California.
Q365
💻 Computer KnowledgeTech Founders & Social Media
Who among the following is the co-founder of Twitter (now known as X)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Jack Dorsey)
Twitter (now X) was co-founded in 2006 by Jack Dorsey, Noah Glass, Biz Stone, and Evan Williams.
Q366
🏆 Sports & TerminologySports Terminology
The term 'Putt' is used in the sport ________?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Golf)
A 'Putt' is a gentle, precise stroke played with a putter club on the green to roll the ball into the hole in the sport of Golf.
Q367
🏆 Sports & Cups/TrophiesHockey Tournaments & Cups
Sultan of Johor Cup is a tournament of which sport?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Hockey)
The Sultan of Johor Cup is a premier annual international invitational under-21 men's field hockey tournament held in Johor Bahru, Malaysia.
Indian sportsperson Lakshya Sen is a ________ player?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Badminton)
Lakshya Sen is an ace Indian Badminton player who won the Commonwealth Games Gold medal and reached the semi-finals at the Paris Olympics 2024.
Q369
📜 Ancient Indian HistoryBuddhism & Ancient Universities
The Buddhist sites Vaishali and Nalanda are situated in which of the following state?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bihar)
Both ancient Buddhist historical sites, Vaishali (where Lord Buddha preached his last sermon) and Nalanda (the ancient mahavihara university), are situated in the state of Bihar.
Q370
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Rights & 44th Amendment
Which of the following is NOT related to fundamental rights?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Right to property)
The Right to Property was repealed as a Fundamental Right by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, and converted into a legal/constitutional right under Article 300A in Part XII.
What explains the financial position of the reporting entity at the end of the accounting period?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Balance sheet)
A Balance Sheet is a financial statement that summarizes an entity's assets, liabilities, and shareholders' equity at a specific point in time to disclose its exact financial position.
What is written evidence in support of a business transaction?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Voucher)
A Voucher is a written document or receipt that acts as documentary evidence in support of an entry recorded in the books of accounts.
Q373
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementClassification of Assets
Trademarks, Copyrights and Patents are classified under ________ assets.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (intangible)
Trademarks, Copyrights, Patents, and Goodwill are Non-Physical / Intangible Fixed Assets because they lack physical substance but confer valuable legal rights.
Q374
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementWorking Capital Management
Current assets minus current liabilities is equal to
💡Correct Answer: Option D (working capital)
Working Capital (specifically Net Working Capital) is the difference between an enterprise's Current Assets and Current Liabilities (Working Capital=Current Assets−Current Liabilities).
Q375
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementTypes of Accounts
Which of the following comes under nominal account?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Commission account)
Nominal Accounts relate to expenses, losses, incomes, and gains (e.g., Commission, Rent, Salaries). Bank is a Personal Account, Furniture is a Real Account.
Q376
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementDebit and Credit Notes
What is the name of the statement sent along with the purchase return?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Debit note)
When goods are returned to a supplier (purchase return), the buyer sends a Debit Note informing the supplier that their account has been debited by the returned amount.
Q377
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementInventory vs Fixed Assets
Which of the following is not an inventory?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Machines)
Inventory includes raw materials, work-in-progress, and finished goods intended for sale. Machines are capital Fixed Assets used for production, not inventory.
The account which shows the classified summary of transactions of a cash book in a non-trading concern is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Receipt and Payment A/c)
In Non-Profit / Non-Trading Organisations, the Receipt and Payment Account is a classified summary of all cash and bank receipts and payments during an accounting period.
Q379
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementBills of Exchange: Inland vs Foreign
Which of the following does not have the features of foreign bills?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A bill drawn in India and made payable in India)
Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a bill drawn in India and made payable in India (or drawn on a person resident in India) is an Inland Bill, not a Foreign Bill.
Q380
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementRectification of Errors
Which of the following is not an error of principle?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Cash received from Meena posted to Sharin.)
Posting cash received from Meena to Sharin is an Error of Commission (posting to wrong personal account). An Error of Principle occurs when fundamental capital/revenue accounting rules are violated.
Q381
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementTrial Balance
Which of the following is used for checking the arithmetical accuracy of the account books?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Trial balance)
A Trial Balance is a statement prepared with the debit and credit balances of ledger accounts to verify the arithmetical accuracy of double-entry postings.
When assets are subtracted from liabilities it will be equal to?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Capital)
According to the fundamental accounting equation: Assets−Liabilities=Capital (Owner’s Equity).
Q383
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementCash and Cash Equivalents
A current asset that can be transferred into cash within three months is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Cash equivalent)
Cash Equivalents are short-term, highly liquid investments that are readily convertible to known amounts of cash and subject to an insignificant risk of changes in value (typically maturity ≤3 months).
Q384
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementCorporate Finance & Capital Structure
In the situation of bankruptcy, a stock which is recorded above common stock and below debt account is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Preferred Stock)
Preferred Stock (Preference Shares) ranks senior to Common Equity Stock for dividend payments and claims upon liquidation/bankruptcy, but is subordinate to debt/bond liabilities.
Q385
📊 Economics & Union BudgetUnion Budget 2024-25 Capex
What is the amount of capital expenditure (capex) outlay announced by the Indian government in the union budget 2024-25?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rs. 11.11 lakh crore)
In the Union Budget 2024-25, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced a record capital expenditure (Capex) outlay of Rs. 11,11,111 crore (Rs. 11.11 lakh crore), accounting for 3.4% of India's GDP.
Q386
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementIncome and Expenditure Account
The amount of 'Subscription received from members' by a Non-profit organisation is shown in which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Credit side of Income and Expenditure Account)
Subscription received is the primary recurring revenue income for a Non-Profit Organisation and is credited to the Credit side (Income side) of the Income and Expenditure Account.
Q387
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementBills of Exchange & Days of Grace
What are the three additional days known as that a drawer gives to the drawee for payment?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Days of grace)
Under Section 22 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, three extra days allowed to the drawee for payment beyond the nominal maturity date are legally called 'Days of Grace'.
Q388
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementCapital vs Revenue Expenditure
Which of the following is revenue expenditure for an office equipment dealer? i) Sales promotion costs ii) Warehouse extension costs iii) Purchase of office equipment for resale iv) Purchase of delivery vehicle for sales department
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i and iii)
For an office equipment dealer, office equipment purchased for resale is trading stock/inventory (revenue expenditure), and sales promotion is an operational selling expense (revenue expenditure). Items (ii) and (iv) are capital expenditures.
Q389
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementCapital vs Revenue Expenditure
Amount spent on increasing the seating capacity in a cinema hall is a
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Capital expenditure)
Expenditure incurred to increase the seating capacity of a cinema hall enhances its future revenue-earning capacity and is therefore treated as Capital Expenditure.
Total amount of depreciation of an asset cannot exceed its
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Depreciable value)
The total cumulative depreciation charged over an asset's useful working life cannot exceed its Depreciable Value (which is Cost minus estimated Residual/Scrap Value).
Q391
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementInventory Valuation: FIFO vs LIFO
In periods of inflation, the impact of change in the method of valuation of inventories from LIFO method to FIFO method will cause:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Increase in profit and decrease in the cost of goods sold)
During inflation, FIFO assigns older (cheaper) costs to Cost of Goods Sold (COGS), resulting in a lower COGS and consequently higher reported net profit and higher closing inventory valuation.
Q392
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementDue Date Calculation of Bills
Due date of a bill of exchange drawn on 30th January 2011 for one month will be
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3rd March 2011)
One month from January 30 in a non-leap year (2011) matures on the last day of February, which is February 28. Adding 3 days of grace yields March 3, 2011.
________ is the last step of accounting as a process of information.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Communication of information)
Accounting is the process of identifying, measuring, recording, classifying, summarizing, analyzing, interpreting, and finally Communicating financial information to users.
The overriding purpose of financial accounting is to summarize financial activity in business in the
💡Correct Answer: Option D (all of the above)
Financial accounting aims to summarize and present an enterprise's complete financial performance and status through the full set of financial statements: Profit & Loss Statement, Balance Sheet, and Cash Flow Statement.
Q395
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementTrade and Cash Discounts
Discounts received are
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Buyer of goods granted discount by seller)
Discounts Received represent financial concessions or cash discounts granted to a buyer of goods by the creditor/seller upon prompt payment.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The time it takes a company to buy goods, sell them and receive cash from the sale of said goods.)
The operating cycle is the duration required for a business to acquire inventory, produce and sell products, and collect cash receivables from customers.
According to the going concern concept, a business entity should assumed to have
💡Correct Answer: Option B (An indefinite life)
The Going Concern Concept assumes that a business will continue its operations for an indefinite period into the foreseeable future and has neither the intention nor necessity of liquidation.
Which of these items will appear on the credit side in the ledger account?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Received a Discount)
Discount Received is an income/gain and has a credit balance, appearing on the credit side of the nominal ledger account.
Q399
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementJournal Entries for Abnormal Losses
Stolen merchandise should be debited to:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Loss by theft account)
Loss of stock by theft is an abnormal business loss; the journal entry is: Debit 'Loss by Theft Account' and Credit 'Purchases Account'.
Q400
📖 General EnglishRelative Pronouns
Fill in the blank with correct pronoun: He is a famous scientist about ________ many books have been written.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (whom)
Prepositions take object pronouns ('about whom', not 'about who').
Q401
📖 General EnglishPronoun Order & Error Detection
Directions: Here some part of the sentence has errors and remaining are correct. Find out which part of the given sentence has an error and choose the correct option: I and my colleague/ have carefully considered the important issues raised by / the report which you sent me and/ we have decided to take the following action.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I and my colleague)
In English etiquette and grammar, the order of pronouns should be Third Person before First Person: "My colleague and I" (not "I and my colleague").
Q402
🧩 Logical ReasoningAnalogies & Collective Nouns
Elephant: Herd; Lion: ________
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Pride)
A collective group of elephants is called a 'Herd', and a group of lions is called a 'Pride'.
Q403
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Treatment Plant Units
Considering (i) Screening (ii) Sedimentation (iii) Disinfection (iv) Filtration. The correct sequence of treatments which are generally given to treat raw water supplies are
💡Correct Answer: Option B ((i) (ii) (iv) (iii))
The standard sequence of municipal water treatment operations is: (i) Screening → (ii) Plain/Chemical Sedimentation → (iv) Rapid/Slow Sand Filtration → (iii) Disinfection (Chlorination). Sequence: (i) (ii) (iv) (iii).
Q404
🌊 Fluid Mechanics & HydraulicsUnits of Viscosity
The unit of dynamic viscosity of a fluid is
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($\text{N}\cdot\text{s/m}^2$)
Dynamic (absolute) viscosity has the SI unit N⋅s/m2 or Pa⋅s (or kg/(m⋅s)). Kinematic viscosity has the unit m2/s.
Q405
🌱 Soil Mechanics & Geotechnical EngineeringSubmerged Unit Weight
Select the correct statement.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Unit weight of soil decreases due to submergence in water.)
Submerged unit weight (buoyant unit weight γsub=γsat−γw) is roughly half of saturated unit weight due to the upward buoyant force exerted by water; therefore, effective unit weight decreases significantly upon submergence.
Q406
📊 Estimation & ValuationSinking Fund Concept
The sinking fund is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The fund for rebuilding a structure when its economic life is over.)
A Sinking Fund is an annual periodic fund accumulated and invested over the useful economic design life of a property so that the total accumulated sum equals the cost of reconstruction/replacement when its life is over.
Q407
📊 Construction Project ManagementPERT Uncertainty & Variance
The time estimates obtained from four contractors P, Q, R and S for executing a particular job are as under: P: to=5,tm=10,tp=13 Q: to=6,tm=9,tp=12 R: to=5,tm=10,tp=14 S: to=4,tm=10,tp=13 Which one of the contractors is more certain about completing the work in time:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Contractor Q)
Certainty is measured by the lowest standard deviation / variance σ=6tp−to. For P: σ=(13−5)/6=1.33. For Q: σ=(12−6)/6=1.00. For R: σ=(14−5)/6=1.50. For S: σ=(13−4)/6=1.50. Contractor Q has the minimum uncertainty (σ=1.00) and is therefore the most certain.
Q408
🧱 Strength of MaterialsBMD Characteristics under Applied Couples
A simply supported beam AB has the bending moment diagram with linear variations and sudden jumps of magnitude M at C and 2M at D. The beam is possibly under the action of following loads:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Couples of $M$ at C and $2M$ at D)
In a Bending Moment Diagram, a sudden vertical jump or discontinuity of magnitude M0 corresponds strictly to the point of application of a concentrated external couple (moment) M0.
Consider full flow occurring through the circular water pipe system: A T-junction with main inlet P of dia=4 m, V=7 m/s; outlet Q of dia=4 m, V=5 m/s; and downward branch R of dia=2 m, V={?}. Determine velocity in branch pipe 'R'.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (8)
By continuity of discharge: QP=QQ+QR⟹APVP=AQVQ+ARVR⟹4π(4)2(7)=4π(4)2(5)+4π(2)2(VR)⟹16×7=16×5+4VR⟹112=80+4VR⟹4VR=32⟹VR=8 m/s.
Q410
General EnglishClimate Change & UNFCCC
Which country has been selected to host the "Loss and Damage" fund board aimed at supporting countries affected by climate change?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Philippines)
The Philippines (Manila) was officially selected to host the Board of the 'Loss and Damage' Fund established under the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) at COP28 to assist vulnerable nations facing climate disasters.
Q411
General EnglishMountain Peaks of India
The highest peak of the Himalayas in India is in
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sikkim)
Kangchenjunga (8,586 m), located on the border between Sikkim and Nepal, is the highest Himalayan mountain peak situated within the undisputed territory of India (and the 3rd highest in the world).
Q412
General EnglishStates & Union Territories
Which is the smallest union territory of India in terms of total area?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Lakshadweep)
Lakshadweep is the smallest Union Territory of India, comprising an archipelago of 36 islands with a total geographic area of just 32 sq km.
Q413
General Awareness with special ref to J&KTenses & Verb Forms
Which tense is used to express an action that began in the past before some point and continued up to that point?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Past perfect continuous tense)
The Past Perfect Continuous Tense (had been + verb-ing) is used to denote an action that started in the past before a specific past reference point and continued up until that time.
Q414
General Awareness with special ref to J&KSubject-Verb Agreement
Choose the correct sentence.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (He visits the temple frequently.)
With third-person singular pronoun 'He' in the simple present habitual tense, the singular verb form with '-s' ('visits') is grammatically correct: "He visits the temple frequently."
Q415
General Awareness with special ref to J&KDirect and Indirect Speech
The boss said to him, "Please tell me what the old man said today."
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The boss requested him to tell him what the old man had said that day.)
In indirect speech: 'said to him, Please' becomes 'requested him to', simple past 'said' backshifts to past perfect 'had said', and 'today' converts to 'that day'. Correct: "The boss requested him to tell him what the old man had said that day."
Q416
General Awareness with special ref to J&KModals: Formal Permission
______ I call the witness?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (May)
In formal judicial courtroom settings, 'May' is the standard polite modal auxiliary used to seek formal official permission: "May I call the witness?"
Q417
General Awareness with special ref to J&KArticles & Determiners
I saw ______ good deal of him during ______ war.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a, the)
The idiomatic quantitative phrase is 'a good deal of' (meaning a great deal/lot), and 'the war' refers to a specific known historical conflict. Correct: "I saw a good deal of him during the war."
Q418
General Awareness with special ref to J&KComprehension Passage
Read the passage given below:
"If you wish to be a writer, you must learn to develop your own point of view. All good writers make us see things in a different light. You may be writing about the same thing as your classmates, but your presentation must reflect your personality and individuality."
Question: The most important thing about being a writer is that-
💡Correct Answer: Option D (You must develop your own view point)
As explicitly emphasized in the first sentence of the passage: "If you wish to be a writer, you must learn to develop your own point of view."
Q419
General Awareness with special ref to J&KIdioms & Phrases
Pick the right meanings of the following idioms/phrase At the drop of the hat:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Done easily, without any preparation)
The idiom 'at the drop of a hat' means instantly, without hesitation, delay, or prior preparation.
Q420
General Awareness with special ref to J&KIdioms & Phrases
Pick the right meanings of the following idioms/phrase Hold one's horse:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Have patience)
The idiom 'hold one's horses' is an informal expression meaning to wait a moment, slow down, or have patience.
Q421
General Awareness with special ref to J&KPronoun Cases
Choose the correct pronoun: Let you and ______ try what we can do.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Me)
The verb 'let' is transitive and requires the objective case pronoun ('me', not subjective 'I'): "Let you and me try what we can do."
Q422
General Awareness with special ref to J&KHomophones
Fill in the blank with correct homophone: We sat under the shade of the ______ tree.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (beech)
'Beech' is a large deciduous forest tree (Fagus sylvatica). 'Beach' refers to a sandy seashore.
Q423
General Awareness with special ref to J&KHomophones
Fill in the blank with correct homophone: The ______ thread was thrown away.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (knotty)
'Knotty' means full of knots or tangled ('a knotty thread'). 'Naughty' means badly behaved.
Q424
General Awareness with special ref to J&KClause Analysis
They left early.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Declarative clause)
A Declarative clause (or statement clause) expresses a simple statement of fact or information with a subject followed by a predicate.
Q425
General Awareness with special ref to J&KSynonyms
Choose the correct synonym of the given word: Consummation
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ultimate completion)
'Consummation' means the point at which something is complete, finalized, or perfected (Ultimate completion / fulfillment).
Q426
General Awareness with special ref to J&KAntonyms
Choose the correct antonym of the given word: Dissolute
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Moral)
'Dissolute' means lax in morals, licentious, or degenerate. Its direct antonym is 'Moral' (virtuous, upright).
Q427
General Awareness with special ref to J&KSentence Rearrangement
In the following question, there are six sentences marked S1, S6, P, Q, R, S. The positions of S1 and S6 are fixed. Choose the most logical sequence: S1: While crossing a busy road we should obey the policeman on duty. P: We should always cross the road at the zebra crossing. Q: We must look to the signal lights and cross the road only when the road is clear. R: If there are no signal lights at the crossing, we should look to the right, then to the left and again to the right before crossing the road. S: If the road is not clear we should wait. S6: We should never run while crossing a road.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (PQRS)
Starting from general rule P (cross at zebra crossing) → Q (look to signal lights) → R (if no signal lights, look right-left-right) → S (if not clear, wait). Sequence: P-Q-R-S.
Q428
General Awareness with special ref to J&KPrepositions
He gave a talk ______ the causes of dengue fever.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (on)
The standard preposition used when delivering a lecture or presentation on a subject matter is 'talk on': "He gave a talk on the causes of dengue fever."
Q429
General Awareness with special ref to J&KPrepositions
The kitchen is ______ the back of the house.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (at)
Specific locational position uses 'at the back of': "The kitchen is at the back of the house."
Q430
General Awareness with special ref to J&KActive and Passive Voice
Convert the following active voice sentence into passive voice - "Is Sarah writing the novel"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Is the novel being written by Sarah?)
Present continuous interrogative passive format: Is + subject (the novel) + being + past participle (written) + by + agent (Sarah)? ⟹ "Is the novel being written by Sarah?"
Q431
General Awareness with special ref to J&KConditional Sentences
Which of the options given below the sentence should replace the part underlined to make the sentence grammatically correct? "Have you been" more careful, the accident could have been averted.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Had you been)
Third conditional inverted structure requires past perfect 'Had you been' to match 'could have been averted': "Had you been more careful, the accident could have been averted."
Q432
General Awareness with special ref to J&KSpelling Correction
Select the correctly spelt word.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Prevention)
The correct English spelling is 'Prevention' (meaning the action of stopping something from happening).
Choose the sentence that has the correct capital letter usage.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (He went to the cricket match and I went to the music concert.)
Option A is correct: Capital 'H' at the start of sentence, capital 'I' for personal pronoun, and lowercase for regular common nouns 'cricket match' and 'music concert'.
Q434
General EnglishPunctuation
Choose a sentence with appropriate punctuation
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I know what you want.)
"I know what you want." is a direct declarative statement (not a question or exclamation), correctly punctuated with a simple period without internal unnecessary commas.
Q435
General EnglishMS Excel Functions & Formulas
What is the purpose of the "AutoSum" button in Excel?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Add up numbers in selected cells)
The AutoSum (Sigma) button in Microsoft Excel automatically enters a SUM formula to total and add up numeric values in an adjacent range of selected cells.
Q436
General Awareness with special ref to J&KPrepositions
The Railway track runs _____ the river?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Across)
'Runs across' is the standard spatial idiom for a track, line, or bridge spanning from one bank/side of a river to the opposite side.
Q437
General Awareness with special ref to J&KPronoun Cases
The market is nearer to them than _____?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Us)
In prepositional comparison where the first object is in objective case ('to them'), the parallel comparing pronoun must also be in the objective case ('to us' / 'us').
Q438
General Awareness with special ref to J&KZero Article / No Article
_____ light comes from the sun
💡Correct Answer: Option D (no article)
Uncountable abstract/general physical nouns used in a generic universal statement take no article: "Light comes from the sun."
Q439
General Awareness with special ref to J&KPunctuation Marks
Which of these is used between sentences which are grammatically independent?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Semicolon)
A Semicolon (;) is used to connect two closely related grammatically independent clauses (sentences) without using a coordinating conjunction.
Q440
General Awareness with special ref to J&KAntonyms
Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word: MODEST
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Conceited)
'Modest' means humble, unpretentious, or unassuming. Its direct antonym is 'Conceited' (arrogant, excessively proud).
Q441
General Awareness with special ref to J&KSeasons of Kashmir
Summer season in Kashmir & Ladakh valley is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Grishm)
In the traditional Kashmiri six-season calendar, Summer (mid-May to mid-July) is called 'Grishm' (or Greeshm). (Spring is Sonth, Rainy season is Wahrat, Autumn is Harud, Winter is Wandah, and Severe Cold is Shishur).
Q442
General Awareness with special ref to J&KCensus 2011 Data
According to the census of 2011, which state has the least population in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sikkim)
According to the 2011 Census, Sikkim is the least populated State in India with a population of 610,577 (Lakshadweep is a Union Territory, not a state).
Q443
General Awareness with special ref to J&KDrainage System: West-Flowing Rivers
Which among the following rivers flows from East to West, eventually meeting the Arabian sea?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Narmada)
The Narmada River (along with the Tapti) flows westwards through a rift valley between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges and empties into the Arabian Sea at the Gulf of Khambhat.
Q444
General Awareness with special ref to J&KCropping Seasons: Kharif vs Rabi
Which of these is not a Kharif crop?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Wheat)
Wheat is a major Rabi crop (sown in winter in Oct-Nov and harvested in spring in March-April). Groundnut, Paddy, and Maize are Kharif (monsoon) crops.
Q445
General Awareness with special ref to J&KIndia's G20 Presidency 2023
Where was the first G20 International Financial Architecture working group meeting held?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Chandigarh)
The first G20 International Financial Architecture (IFA) Working Group meeting under India's G20 Presidency was hosted in Chandigarh on 30-31 January 2023.
Q446
General Awareness with special ref to J&KQuadratic Equations & Numbers
If the sum of a number and its square is 2070, find the number?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (45)
x+x2=2070⟹x(x+1)=2070. Since 45×46=2070, the number is 45.
Q447
General Awareness with special ref to J&KProblems on Numbers
The ratio between a two digit number and the sum of the digits of that number is 4:1. If the digit in the unit place is 4 more than digit in the 10th place, then find the number?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (48)
Let number be 10x+y. x+y10x+y=14⟹10x+y=4x+4y⟹6x=3y⟹y=2x. Given y−x=4⟹2x−x=4⟹x=4⟹y=8. The number is 48.
Q448
General Awareness with special ref to J&KNumber Series: Find Wrong Term
Find the wrong term in the following series? 17, 32, 47, 62, 77, 90
💡Correct Answer: Option D (90)
The pattern is adding 15: 17+15=32, 32+15=47, 47+15=62, 62+15=77, 77+15=92. The given term 90 is incorrect (should be 92).
Q449
General Awareness with special ref to J&KSpeed, Time and Distance
A car is running at a speed of 108 km/hr, what distance will it cover in 15 sec?
General Awareness with special ref to J&KStatement and Conclusions
Statements: Population increase coupled with depleting resources is going to be the scenario of many developing countries in days to come.
Conclusions: i) The population of developing countries will not continue to increase in future. ii) It will be very difficult for the governments of developing countries to provide its people decent quality of life.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Only conclusion (ii) follows)
Statement directly implies that increasing population and dwindling resources will severely strain public infrastructure and living standards, making conclusion (ii) valid. Conclusion (i) contradicts the statement.
Q451
General Awareness with special ref to J&KSystem vs Application Software
System software acts as a bridge between hardware and _____ software?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Application)
System software (Operating System) acts as an intermediary layer between physical computer hardware and user Application software.
Q452
General Awareness with special ref to J&KStorage Devices: Flash Memory
Flash drive is popularly known as
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Pen drive)
A USB flash drive is colloquially and popularly known as a 'Pen drive' or thumb drive.
Q453
General Awareness with special ref to J&KFunction Keys & Browser Shortcuts
Which key on a window keyboard sets to full screen mode in most browsers?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (F11)
In Windows web browsers (Chrome, Edge, Firefox), pressing function key F11 toggles Full Screen mode on and off.
Q454
General Awareness with special ref to J&KMS Excel Formulas
In A3 cell edit =A1+A2 refers to
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Addition of A1 and A2 will display in A3)
Entering `=A1+A2` in cell A3 calculates the mathematical sum of the values in cells A1 and A2 and displays the calculated result in cell A3.
Q455
General Awareness with special ref to J&KComputer Networking & Packet Switching
The internet uses are
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Packet switching)
The Internet uses Packet Switching (TCP/IP), where data messages are broken down into discrete packets transmitted independently across network nodes and reassembled at the destination.
Identify the grammatical error in the sentence: "The committee are meeting tomorrow to discuss the proposal."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Are meeting)
'Committee' is a collective noun acting as a single unified body in formal standard English, which takes a singular verb 'is meeting' (not plural 'are meeting').
Q457
Basic Concepts of ComputersWildlife Sanctuaries & Fauna of J&K
Dachigam National Park is famous for?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hangul Deer or Kashmir Stag)
Dachigam National Park, located near Srinagar, is the world-renowned protected natural sanctuary and home of the critically endangered Hangul Deer (Kashmir Stag - Cervus hanglu hanglu).
Q458
Basic Concepts of ComputersMemory Measurement Units
One (01) MB is equal to
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1024 KB)
In binary computer memory units, 1 Megabyte (MB)=1024 Kilobytes (KB).
Q459
General EnglishPronoun Identification
Read the following paragraph carefully to answer the question:
"Last weekend, my friend and I decided to go for a hike in the mountains. We packed our bags with essentials and started early in the morning. As we were walking, we came across a beautiful stream. The sound of the water was very soothing. My friend said, "This is so peaceful!" I agreed and we sat by the stream for a while. Suddenly, we heard a rustling noise. I turned to my friend and asked, "Did you hear that?" They nodded and said, "Yes, I did. Let's go check it out."
When we got up to continue our hike, we saw a steep hill ahead. My friend looked at me and said, "Climbing this hill will be a piece of cake!" I smiled and replied, "Let's do it!" We started climbing, and despite the incline, it was easier than we had expected. Before long, we reached the top and were rewarded with a stunning view of the valley below. "What a beautiful view," I said. We took a moment to appreciate the beauty around us before heading back down."
Question: Which of the following pronouns is NOT used in the above paragraph?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (She)
The paragraph uses pronouns 'We', 'I', 'They', 'our', and 'it', but does NOT contain the feminine singular pronoun 'She'.
Q460
General EnglishPunctuation & Quotation Marks
Select the sentence with the correct punctuation.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Jaya said, 'They were getting really excited and were shouting "Come on!"')
Option A correctly follows standard nested quotation punctuation rules with a comma after the introductory reporting verb, capitalized quote, and double quotes inside single quotes with exclamation mark: Jaya said, 'They were getting really excited and were shouting "Come on!"'
Q461
General Awareness with special ref to J&KInternet & E-Commerce
Which of the following is NOT an e-commerce website?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Facebook.)
Facebook is a social networking service, whereas AJIO (fashion retail), Amazon (general merchandise), and BookMyShow (online ticketing) are commercial e-commerce transaction platforms.
Q462
General Awareness with special ref to J&KGenerations of Computers
Match the computer generation with its corresponding characteristic. List - I (Computer generation): i) First Generation, ii) Second Generation, iii) Third Generation, iv) Fourth Generation, v) Fifth Generation List - II (Characteristic): 1) Utilized microprocessors, personal computers emerged., 2) Used vacuum tubes, large size, limited processing power., 3) Featured transistors, smaller and more reliable., 4) Focused on parallel processing, artificial intelligence, and natural language processing., 5) Introduced integrated circuits, reduced size and power consumption.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-2, ii-3, iii-5, iv-1, v-4)
1st Gen = Vacuum tubes (i-2), 2nd Gen = Transistors (ii-3), 3rd Gen = Integrated Circuits (iii-5), 4th Gen = Microprocessors / VLSI (iv-1), 5th Gen = Artificial Intelligence & Parallel Processing (v-4). Correct matching: i-2, ii-3, iii-5, iv-1, v-4.
Q463
General Awareness with special ref to J&KOperating System & Device Drivers
Consider the following statements about Device Driver. 1. It a hardware device that is attached to a computer. 2. It acts as a translator between the hardware device and operating systems or applications that use it. 3. It instructs computer on how to communicate with the device by translating the operating system's instructions into a language that a device can understand in order to perform the necessary task. 4. Examples of device driver: printer driver, display driver, USB driver, sound card driver, motherboard driver, ROM driver, etc. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2, 3 and 4)
Statement 1 is incorrect because a device driver is a specialized software program, NOT a hardware device. Statements 2, 3, and 4 correctly describe its role as a translator/driver program and list valid driver types. Correct: 2, 3 and 4.
Q464
General Awareness with special ref to J&KInternal vs External Hardware
Which of the following is an example of internal hardware devices?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Video card.)
A Video Card (Graphics Processing Unit / GPU card) is installed internally directly onto the motherboard PCIe expansion slot inside the computer chassis.
Q465
General Awareness with special ref to J&KComputer Architecture: DMA Controller
Direct Memory Access (DMA) controller is a feature within the computer that
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Transfers the data to the main memory without intervention of CPU.)
Direct Memory Access (DMA) enables hardware subsystems to transfer data directly to and from system RAM without routing through the CPU, eliminating CPU bottleneck and speeding up memory operations.
Q466
General Awareness with special ref to J&KReal-Time Operating Systems (RTOS)
Which of the following is NOT a real time operating system?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Palm OS.)
Palm OS was a personal digital assistant (PDA) operating system, NOT a deterministic Real-Time Operating System (RTOS) like QNX, VxWorks, or RTLinux.
Q467
General Awareness with special ref to J&KKeyboard Shortcuts in Windows/Office
Match List - I with List - II List - I (Command): i) Replace, ii) Insert Hyperlink, iii) Paste, iv) Cut List - II (Shortcut keys): 1) Ctrl+K, 2) Ctrl+H, 3) Ctrl+X, 4) Ctrl+V
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3)
General Awareness with special ref to J&KMicrosoft Office Suite: MS Access
Which of the following is a primary feature of Microsoft Access?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (It is a database management system used for creating, managing, and querying databases.)
Microsoft Access is a Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) that combines the relational Jet/ACE database engine with a graphical user interface and software-development tools for storing, managing, and querying structured data.
Q469
General Awareness with special ref to J&KMS PowerPoint Shortcuts
Match List - I with List - II List - I (Key): i) F5, ii) Shift+F5, iii) Alt+F5, iv) Esc List - II (Shortcut keys on PowerPoint): 1) Start presentation from beginning, 2) Start presentation from current slide, 3) Start presentation in presenter view, 4) End presentation
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.)
F5 = Start from beginning (i-1), Shift+F5 = Start from current slide (ii-2), Alt+F5 = Presenter View (iii-3), Esc = End presentation (iv-4). Match: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
Q470
General Awareness with special ref to J&KMS PowerPoint Slide Master
Which of the following statements about MS Power Point's slide master features is NOT true?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Slide masters cannot be used to modify the font and background of slides.)
Statement C is NOT true because modifying the master slide fonts, theme colors, and background styles is one of the primary and most powerful functions of the Slide Master.
Q471
General Awareness with special ref to J&KEmail Protocols: POP3, IMAP, SMTP
Which of the following statements about email protocols and services is NOT true?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (POP3 enables users to access their email messages directly on the server without downloading them.)
Statement A is NOT true: POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) downloads email messages to the local device and typically deletes them from the mail server. IMAP is the protocol that manages emails directly on the server with multi-device sync.
Q472
General Awareness with special ref to J&KComprehension Passage
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"Once upon a time I went for a week's holiday in the Continent with an Indian friend. We both enjoyed ourselves and were sorry when the week was over, but on parting our behaviour was absolutely different. He was plunged in despair. He felt that because the holiday was overs all happiness was over until the world ended. He could not express his sorrow too much. But in me the Englishman came out strong. I could not see what there was to make a fuss about. It wasn't as if we were parting forever or dying. "Buck up", I said, "do buck up". He refused to buck up, and I left him plunged in gloom."
Question: Why was the Indian friend plunged in despair?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (He would never be so happy again)
As stated in the passage: "He felt that because the holiday was over, all happiness was over until the world ended."
Q473
General Awareness with special ref to J&KComprehension Passage
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"Once upon a time I went for a week's holiday in the Continent with an Indian friend. We both enjoyed ourselves and were sorry when the week was over, but on parting our behaviour was absolutely different. He was plunged in despair. He felt that because the holiday was overs all happiness was over until the world ended. He could not express his sorrow too much. But in me the Englishman came out strong. I could not see what there was to make a fuss about. It wasn't as if we were parting forever or dying. "Buck up", I said, "do buck up". He refused to buck up, and I left him plunged in gloom."
Question: What is the author's intention in the passage?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To contrast the Indian character with the English character.)
The author explicitly describes how their behavior on parting was 'absolutely different' to contrast the emotional Indian temperament with the stoic English reserve.
Q474
General Awareness with special ref to J&KComprehension Passage
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"Once upon a time I went for a week's holiday in the Continent with an Indian friend. We both enjoyed ourselves and were sorry when the week was over, but on parting our behaviour was absolutely different. He was plunged in despair. He felt that because the holiday was overs all happiness was over until the world ended. He could not express his sorrow too much. But in me the Englishman came out strong. I could not see what there was to make a fuss about. It wasn't as if we were parting forever or dying. "Buck up", I said, "do buck up". He refused to buck up, and I left him plunged in gloom."
Question: What is the Continent in the context of the passage?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Europe.)
In British English idiom and historical literature, 'the Continent' refers to mainland Europe.
Q475
General Awareness with special ref to J&KComprehension Passage
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"Once upon a time I went for a week's holiday in the Continent with an Indian friend. We both enjoyed ourselves and were sorry when the week was over, but on parting our behaviour was absolutely different. He was plunged in despair. He felt that because the holiday was overs all happiness was over until the world ended. He could not express his sorrow too much. But in me the Englishman came out strong. I could not see what there was to make a fuss about. It wasn't as if we were parting forever or dying. "Buck up", I said, "do buck up". He refused to buck up, and I left him plunged in gloom."
Question: What does 'But in me the Englishman came out strong' imply?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (He had the typical English character.)
It implies that the author exhibited the traditional English 'stiff upper lip' character—pragmatic, undemonstrative, and unemotional in the face of parting.
Q476
General Awareness with special ref to J&KIdioms & Phrases
Read the following passage carefully to answer the question:
"Once upon a time I went for a week's holiday in the Continent with an Indian friend. We both enjoyed ourselves and were sorry when the week was over, but on parting our behaviour was absolutely different. He was plunged in despair. He felt that because the holiday was overs all happiness was over until the world ended. He could not express his sorrow too much. But in me the Englishman came out strong. I could not see what there was to make a fuss about. It wasn't as if we were parting forever or dying. "Buck up", I said, "do buck up". He refused to buck up, and I left him plunged in gloom."
Question: What does the author mean by 'buck up'?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cheer up.)
'Buck up' is an informal English idiom meaning to cheer up, take heart, and become more encouraged or positive.
Q477
General Awareness with special ref to J&KChamparan Satyagraha 1917
After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji launched his first successful Satyagraha in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Champaran.)
Mahatma Gandhi launched his first successful Satyagraha movement in India at Champaran (Bihar) in 1917 to fight for the rights of indigo farmers oppressed under the Tinkathia system.
Q478
General Awareness with special ref to J&KTribes of India
Which of the following statements related to tribes in India are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Tharu tribes are found in Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand.)
The Tharu tribal community lives across the Terai lowlands of Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh. (Gaddi pastoralists are primarily associated with HP/J&K, but statement A is the standard factual classification).
Q479
General Awareness with special ref to J&KHydropower Projects in J&K
Salal Hydroelectric Project is situated in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Jammu and Kashmir.)
The Salal Hydroelectric Project (690 MW) is constructed on the Chenab River in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q480
General Awareness with special ref to J&KHydropower Projects on Chenab
The Kiru Hydroelectric Power Project is situated in?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Jammu and Kashmir.)
The 624 MW Kiru Hydroelectric Power Project is a run-of-the-river scheme being constructed on the Chenab River in the Kishtwar district of Jammu and Kashmir by CVPPPL.
Q481
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityIndian States with Tri-Junction Borders
Which State of India has borders with three countries namely Nepal, Bhutan and China?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sikkim.)
Sikkim is uniquely bounded by three foreign nations: Nepal to the west, Bhutan to the east, and China (Tibet) to the north.
Q482
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityMountain Passes of J&K
Zojila pass connects.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Leh and Srinagar.)
Zoji La Pass (3,528 m) on NH-1 in the Greater Himalayas connects Srinagar (Kashmir Valley) with Kargil and Leh (Ladakh).
Q483
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityTunnels & Highways in India
The Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel (Chenani-Nashri Tunnel) on NH-44 in Jammu and Kashmir is India's longest bi-directional road tunnel, stretching 9.28 km (5.8 miles).
Q484
Basic Concepts of ComputersMS Excel Functions: COUNTIF
What is the function of =COUNTIF () in Excel?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Counts cells as specified.)
The `=COUNTIF(range, criteria)` statistical function in Excel counts the number of cells within a specified range that meet a given condition or criteria.
Q485
⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringFluid Mechanics: Boundary Layer Theory
For the velocity profile U∞u=(δy)61, the momentum boundary layer thickness (in mm) when δ=1 mm, is
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($\frac{5}{42}$)
Momentum thickness θ=∫01(η1/6−η2/6)dη=[7/6η7/6−4/3η4/3]01=76−43=2824−21=283δ≈425 mm.
Consider a laminar flow over a flat plate of length L=1 m. The boundary layer thickness at the end of the plate is δw for water, and δa for air for the same freestream velocity. If the kinematic viscosities of water and air are 1×10−6 m2/s and 1.6×10−5 m2/s, respectively, the ratio of δaδw is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($1/4$)
For laminar flow over a flat plate, Blasius boundary layer thickness $\delta = \frac{5 x}{\sqrt{Re_x}} = 5\sqrt{\frac{ u x}{U_\infty}} \propto \sqrt{ u}.Therefore:\frac{\delta_w}{\delta_a} = \sqrt{\frac{ u_w}{ u_a}} = \sqrt{\frac{1 \times 10^{-6}}{1.6 \times 10^{-5}}} = \sqrt{\frac{1}{16}} = \frac{1}{4}$.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The boundary layer thickness ($\delta$) is much smaller than the length of the flat plate)
In boundary layer theory for high Reynolds number flows over a flat plate, the boundary layer thickness δ is very thin compared to the characteristic plate length L (δ≪L).
The term "grain boundary" refers to the boundary between:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Adjacent crystalline grains)
A grain boundary is a 2D planar interface defect separating two adjacent crystallites (grains) of the same phase having different crystallographic spatial orientations in a polycrystalline material.
Q489
⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringCAD/CAM: Fundamentals
CAM refers to:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Computer-Aided Manufacturing)
CAM stands for Computer-Aided Manufacturing, which uses specialized software and automated computer-controlled machinery (CNC/DNC) to plan, manage, and execute manufacturing operations.
Q490
General Awareness & ScienceImportant National & International Days
Every year the International Yoga Day is celebrated on
💡Correct Answer: Option C (21 June)
International Day of Yoga has been celebrated annually on 21 June since its inception by the United Nations General Assembly in 2015.
Q491
General Awareness & ScienceJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in which year
💡Correct Answer: Option A (2019)
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 was passed by the Parliament of India in August 2019, reconstituting the state into two Union Territories (J&K and Ladakh) effective 31 October 2019.
Q492
General Awareness & ScienceMughal Gardens in Kashmir
The Shalimar Bagh in Jammu and Kashmir was built by
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Jahangir)
Shalimar Bagh in Srinagar was built in 1619 by the Mughal Emperor Jahangir for his beloved wife Nur Jahan.
Q493
General Awareness & ScienceScientific Awards in India
The Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award is given to recognize excellent work done in the field of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Science and Technology)
The Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (SSB) Prize is India's highest multidisciplinary science award presented annually by CSIR for notable research in Science and Technology.
Q494
General Awareness & ScienceEighth Schedule Languages
At present, how many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Twenty-Two)
The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India currently lists 22 official regional languages (originally 14, with additions via 21st, 71st, and 92nd Constitutional Amendments).
Q495
General Awareness & ScienceNuclear Physics: Stellar Energy
The Sun's energy is due to
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Nuclear fusion of hydrogen)
The Sun produces its vast radiant energy via thermonuclear nuclear fusion reactions, primarily the proton-proton chain where hydrogen nuclei fuse to form helium under extreme core temperatures and pressures.
Q496
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Laws of Reflection
Which statement is true for the reflection of light?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The angle of incidence and reflection are equal.)
According to the First Law of Reflection of light: The angle of incidence (∠i) is always exactly equal to the angle of reflection (∠r), i.e., ∠i=∠r.
Q497
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Halogens & Bleaching
Bleaching action of chlorine is by
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Oxidation)
Chlorine bleaches in the presence of moisture through Oxidation: Chlorine reacts with water to release nascent oxygen (\text{Cl}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O} → 2\text{HCl} + [\text{O}]), which oxidizes and decolourizes organic colouring matter permanently.
Q498
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Abundance of Elements
The most abundant metal in the earth's crust is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Aluminum)
Aluminium is the most abundant metal element in the Earth's continental crust, comprising approximately 8.1% of the crust by mass (surpassed only by non-metals Oxygen ∼46.6% and Silicon ∼27.7%).
Q499
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Electrical Instruments
Which device is used to measure the potential difference between two points in an electric circuit?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Voltmeter)
A Voltmeter is an electrical measuring instrument connected in parallel across two circuit points to measure the electric potential difference (voltage) in Volts.
Q500
General Awareness & ScienceEcology: Trophic Levels & Food Chains
The primary consumers are
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Herbivores)
In an ecological food chain, Herbivores (plant-eating animals like deer, cows, rabbits) occupy the second trophic level and are classified as primary consumers because they feed directly on primary producers (plants).
Q501
General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Human Respiratory System
During respiration exchange of gases take place in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Alveoli of lungs)
In human respiratory anatomy, the exchange of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) occurs across the thin, vascularized walls of microscopic air sacs called Alveoli in the lungs via simple diffusion.
Q502
General Awareness & SciencePartition of Bengal (1905)
The partition of Bengal took place in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1905)
The Partition of Bengal was carried out by the British Viceroy of India, Lord Curzon, on 16 October 1905, which sparked the nationwide Swadeshi and Boycott movement.
Q503
General Awareness & ScienceNon-Cooperation and Khilafat Movements
Which of the following movement was combined with the Non-Cooperation movement in 1920?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Khilafat Movement)
In 1920, Mahatma Gandhi and the Indian National Congress merged the Non-Cooperation Movement with the Khilafat Movement led by the Ali Brothers (Maulana Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali) to unite Hindus and Muslims against British rule.
Q504
General Awareness & ScienceLatitudinal & Longitudinal Extent of India
Which line passes through India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Tropic of Cancer)
The Tropic of Cancer (23.5∘ N latitude) passes through the middle of India, dividing the country into almost two equal halves across 8 Indian States (Gujarat, Rajasthan, MP, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram).
Q505
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Standard Time (IST)
India used how many time zones
💡Correct Answer: Option A (01)
India observes a single uniform national time zone: Indian Standard Time (IST), which is calculated along the Standard Meridian of 82.5∘ E longitude passing through Mirzapur (UP), corresponding to UTC+05:30.
Q506
General Awareness & ScienceFundamental Rights: Right to Education (Art 21A)
Article 21A of the Indian Constitution provides Right to
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Education)
Article 21A, inserted into Part III of the Constitution by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act (2002), establishes free and compulsory education as a Fundamental Right for all children aged 6 to 14 years.
Q507
General Awareness & SciencePanchayati Raj 3-Tier System
The system of Panchayati Raj involves:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Village, Block and District levels)
Under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 (Balwant Rai Mehta Committee model), the Panchayati Raj system establishes a 3-tier local self-governance structure: 1. Gram Panchayat (Village level), 2. Panchayat Samiti (Block/Intermediate level), and 3. Zilla Parishad (District level).
Q508
General Awareness & ScienceCensus 2011: State Literacy Rates
As per the 2011 census, which among the following states has the highest literacy rate?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kerala)
According to Census 2011, Kerala ranks first among all Indian states with the highest literacy rate of 94.00%.
Q509
General Awareness & SciencePrinciples of First Aid (3 Ps)
Which of the following is/are aim of the First Aid
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
The primary 3 Ps of First Aid are: 1. Preserve life, 2. Prevent deterioration / further injury, and 3. Promote recovery. All the options are core objectives.
Q510
General Awareness & ScienceBureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
Bureau of Indian Standards works under aegis of
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution)
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), the national Standards Body of India established under the BIS Act 2016, operates under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution.
Q511
General Awareness & ScienceSolid Waste Management: Landfill Gas
When the organic matter present in the sanitary landfill decomposes, it generates
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Methane gas)
Anaerobic microbial decomposition of organic biodegradable municipal solid waste inside sanitary landfills generates Landfill Gas, consisting primarily of Methane (CH4, ≈50–55%) and Carbon Dioxide (CO2).
Q512
Basic EnglishNon-Verbal Communication & Gestures
Raising a hand to greet or say goodbye is an example of
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Non-Verbal Communication)
Raising a hand to wave, nod, or greet is a physical bodily gesture (kinesics) transmitting a message without spoken or written words, categorised as Non-Verbal Communication.
Q513
General Awareness & ScienceEmployees' Provident Fund Act, 1952
Minimum _____ persons must be employed in as establishment for the applicability of the PF act.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (20)
Under the Employees' Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, statutory PF registration applies to any factory or commercial establishment employing 20 or more persons.
Q514
General Awareness & SciencePayment of Wages Act, 1936
According to Payment of Wages Act, the maximum wage period or payment of wages to employees by employer should not exceed
💡Correct Answer: Option C (30 days)
Section 4 of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 mandates that no wage period fixed by the person responsible for the payment of wages shall exceed one month (30 days).
Q515
General Awareness & ScienceGovernment Health Ambassadors
Who has been named as the national ambassador for TB Mukt Bharat Campaign?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Deepa Malik)
Dr. Deepa Malik (Padma Shri, Khel Ratna, President of the Paralympic Committee of India) was appointed National Ambassador for the Ni-Kshay Mitra (TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan) initiative.
Q516
General Awareness & ScienceLanguages of North-East India
Bodo language is spoken mainly in which of the following states of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Assam)
Bodo (Boro), an official language listed under the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, is primarily spoken in the state of Assam (Bodoland Territorial Region).
Q517
General Awareness & ScienceFestivals of Jammu & Kashmir
In Kashmir valley 'Shivratri' is also known as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Herath)
Maha Shivratri is celebrated by Kashmiri Pandits as 'Herath' (derived from Sanskrit 'Hararatri' - Night of Hara/Shiva) with unique religious rituals and walnuts.
Q518
General Awareness & ScienceKarewa Formations & Saffron Cultivation
Kerewa soil is best for growing
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Saffron)
Karewa lacustrine plateau soils (intermontane alluvial terraces) in Kashmir, particularly around Pampore, are world-renowned for the cultivation of high-grade Saffron (Zafran) and almonds.
Q519
General Awareness & ScienceTourism Icons of Kashmir
A traditional Gondola type lightweight rowing boat ride which is famous of the Dal Lake in Kashmir is referred to as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Shikara ride)
The Shikara is a traditional wooden cultural boat of Kashmir, famously used for scenic rides, floating markets, and transport across Dal Lake and Nigeen Lake in Srinagar.
Q520
General Awareness & ScienceRenewable Energy: Biogas
Both power and manure is provided by:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Biogas plant)
A Biogas (gobar gas) plant anaerobically digests cattle dung and organic waste to simultaneously generate combustible methane gas for power/cooking and nutrient-rich bio-slurry for agricultural manure/fertilizer.
Q521
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Human Eye and Defects of Vision
Which among the following lens is used to correct Presbyopia
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bifocal)
Presbyopia (age-related loss of accommodation of the eye's ciliary muscles) is standardly corrected using Bifocal lenses (where upper portion is concave for distant vision and lower portion is convex for near reading).
Q522
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Scientific Instruments
Consider the following statement(s) is/are related to the device of Ammeter: I: It is a measuring device used to measure the current in a circuit. II: It is a measuring device used to measure the altitude of an object above a fixed level. Which of following statement(s) is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only I)
Statement I is correct: An Ammeter is an electrical instrument connected in series to measure electric current in Amperes. Statement II describes an Altimeter, not an ammeter. Thus, only Statement I is correct.
Q523
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Heating Effect of Electric Current
The property of electric current which is applicable in the fuse wire is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Heating effect of current)
An electric safety fuse operates on Joule's Heating Effect of electric current (H=I2Rt). When excessive current flows, resistive heating melts the low-melting-point lead-tin alloy wire, breaking the circuit.
Q524
General Awareness & ScienceClean Fuels & Environmental Pollution
Which of the following would produce minimum environmental pollution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hydrogen)
Hydrogen is a zero-carbon clean green fuel; when burned with oxygen, its only combustion product is pure water vapor (H2O), generating zero soot, carbon monoxide, or greenhouse gas emissions.
Q525
General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Human Diseases & Transmission
Which is communicable disease?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Measles)
Measles (Rubeola) is an infectious, highly communicable viral disease transmitted airborne through respiratory droplets. Asthma (allergy), Scurvy (Vitamin C deficiency), and Diabetes (metabolic) are non-communicable.
Q526
General Awareness & ScienceAnnulment of Partition of Bengal (1911)
Who among the following annulled the Partition of Bengal?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Lord Hardinge)
Lord Hardinge II, the Viceroy of India, formally annulled the 1905 Partition of Bengal in December 1911 at the grand Delhi Durbar attended by King George V (while simultaneously shifting the British capital from Calcutta to Delhi).
Q527
General Awareness & ScienceLongitudes & International Date Line
What name is given to 180° longitude due to the spherical shape of the earth?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (International date line)
The 180∘ Meridian, situated antipodal to the Prime Meridian of Greenwich, is internationally designated as the International Date Line (IDL), where the calendar date changes by one day upon crossing.
Q528
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Flora: Trees & Plants
Which among the following is known as Flame of the forest?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Palash)
Palash (Butea monosperma, also known as Dhak or Bastard Teak) is famously called the 'Flame of the Forest' because its canopy becomes completely covered with brilliant scarlet-orange flowers in spring.
Q529
General Awareness & ScienceMajor Towns of J&K
Saffron town of Kashmir is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Pampore)
Pampore, located in the Pulwama district along the banks of the Jhelum river in the Kashmir Valley, is universally celebrated as the 'Saffron Town of Kashmir'.
Q530
General Awareness & ScienceGemstones & Minerals of J&K
Where is Sapphire found in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kistiwar)
World-famous, prized cornflower-blue Kashmir Sapphires (Neelam) are mined from the high-altitude Padder pegmatite deposits in the Kishtwar district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q531
General Awareness & ScienceDemocratic Principles & Political Thinkers
Who defined democracy as a form of Government of the people, for the people and by the people?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Abraham Lincoln)
Abraham Lincoln, the 16th President of the United States, immortalized this definition of democracy during his historic Gettysburg Address in November 1863.
Q532
General Awareness & ScienceElectoral Politics & Political Parties
What is the meaning of 'Alliance'?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (When several parties in a multiparty system join for the purpose of contesting election and winning power)
In political science, an electoral Alliance (or Front/Coalition) is formed when multiple political parties join together prior to an election to contest seats collectively and win power (e.g. NDA, UPA/INDIA).
Q533
General Awareness & ScienceMining & Mineral Industries in India
The head quarters of Hindustan Zinc Limited is located at
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Udaipur)
Hindustan Zinc Limited (HZL, a Vedanta Group company and world's second-largest zinc producer) is headquartered at Udaipur, Rajasthan.
Q534
General Awareness & ScienceInternet Applications: Social Networks vs E-Commerce
Which of the following is NOT a social network?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ebay)
eBay is an online multinational e-commerce consumer-to-consumer auction and shopping marketplace, whereas LinkedIn, Instagram, and Twitter (X) are social networking platforms.
Q535
General Awareness & ScienceEmergency First Aid: Anaphylaxis Management
What should a casualty with a severe allergy carry at all times?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Adrenaline)
Individuals with severe life-threatening allergies at risk of anaphylaxis must carry an auto-injector of Adrenaline (Epinephrine / EpiPen) at all times to reverse airway constriction and shock.
Q536
General Awareness & ScienceCardiovascular Health: Angina Pectoris
What is the cause of angina?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Insufficient blood reaching the heart muscle)
Angina pectoris (chest pain/discomfort) is caused by reduced or insufficient oxygen-rich blood supply to the heart muscle (myocardium) due to narrowed coronary arteries (cardiac ischemia).
Q537
General Awareness & ScienceOzone Depletion & Refrigerants (CFCs)
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are also known as
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Freon)
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs, e.g. CFC-11, CFC-12) used historically as refrigerants and aerosol propellants are commercially known by the DuPont brand trademark Freon.
Q538
Basic MathematicsMetric Units Subtraction
A ring of platinum weighs 5g 8 dg 6 cg 9 mg. If it has a diamond of weight 1 dg 3 cg 5 mg in it, then what is the weight of the platinum in the ring?
General Awareness & ScienceHighest Civilian Honors
Who recently was conferred with the honor "The Order of the Nile"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Narendra Modi)
Prime Minister Narendra Modi was conferred with the 'Order of the Nile', Egypt's highest state civilian honour, by Egyptian President Abdel Fattah El-Sisi in Cairo in June 2023.
Q540
General Awareness & ScienceCapitals of Indian States
What is the capital of Meghalaya?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Shillong)
Shillong (known as the 'Scotland of the East') is the capital city of the northeastern Indian state of Meghalaya. (Kohima is Nagaland's capital, Imphal is Manipur's, Aizawl is Mizoram's).
Q541
General Awareness & ScienceDachigam National Park & Gateways
Which is the gateway of the famous Wildlife sanctuary of Dachigam?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Harwan Garden)
Harwan Garden in Srinagar serves as the primary entrance and gateway to the Dachigam National Park (home to the endangered Hangul / Kashmir Stag).
Q542
General Awareness & ScienceJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
The union territory of J&K came into existence on
💡Correct Answer: Option C (31 Oct, 2019)
The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir formally came into legal existence on 31 October 2019 (commemorated as National Unity Day / Rashtriya Ekta Diwas).
Q543
General Awareness & ScienceDistricts & Heritage Towns of J&K
Basholi town is located in which district of Jammu & Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kathua)
Basohli (famous for its historic Basohli Miniature Painting school with GI Tag and Atal Setu bridge over Ravi River) is situated in the Kathua district of Jammu Division.
Q544
General Awareness & ScienceWind Energy Generation
The power generated in a windmill
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Depends on the wind velocity)
The theoretical aerodynamic power extractable by a wind turbine blade rotor is directly proportional to the cube of the wind velocity (P=21ρAv3), making wind speed the dominant determining factor.
Q545
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Optics & Plane Mirrors
A beam of light incident on a plane mirror forms a real image on reflection. The incident beam is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Convergent)
A plane mirror forms a real image only when a Convergent beam of light is incident upon it (representing a virtual object positioned behind the mirror, which reflects into a real focal convergence point in front).
Q546
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Lens Formula
An object is placed 10 cm from a diverging lens which forms an image 6.5 cm from the lens. What is the focal length of the lens?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (-18.5 cm)
For a diverging (concave) lens: object distance u=−10 cm, virtual image distance v=−6.5 cm. Using lens formula: f1=v1−u1=−6.51−−101=−132+101=130−20+13=−1307⟹f=−7130≈−18.57 cm≈−18.5 cm.
Q547
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Ohm's Law & Conductors
Ohm's law is true for
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Metallic conductors at low temperature)
Ohm's Law (V=IR) strictly applies to Ohmic metallic conductors under constant physical conditions (low/stable temperatures where thermal drift in resistivity does not distort linear resistance).
Q548
General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Vitamins and Deficiency Diseases
Excessive bleeding during an injury is a deficiency of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Vitamin K)
Vitamin K (phylloquinone) is an essential cofactor required for the hepatic synthesis of blood coagulation clotting factors (prothrombin, factors VII, IX, and X); its deficiency leads to impaired blood clotting and prolonged hemorrhaging.
Q549
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Corrosion and Galvanization
Which of the following element is used in the process of galvanization?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Zinc)
Galvanization is the metallurgical process of applying a protective sacrificial Zinc (Zn) coating to iron or steel to prevent atmospheric corrosion and rusting.
Q550
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry / Materials: Properties of Metals
Which one of the following mechanical properties enables a metal to be made into thin sheets?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Malleability)
Malleability is the mechanical property of metals that allows them to be hammered, rolled, or pressed into thin foils and sheets without fracturing (e.g. Gold, Aluminium). (Ductility enables drawing into wires).
Q551
General Awareness & ScienceIndian National Movement Chronology
With reference to Indian freedom struggle, which one among the following event occur earliest?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Lucknow Pact)
Chronology of events: Lucknow Pact = 1916; Gandhi-Irwin Pact = 1931; Cripps Mission = March 1942; Quit India Movement = August 1942. The earliest event is the Lucknow Pact (1916).
Q552
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Independence Act 1947
Which of the following is a feature of the Indian Independence Act, 1947?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Partition of India)
The Indian Independence Act, 1947 enacted by the British Parliament provided for the Partition of India and the creation of two independent sovereign Dominions: India and Pakistan, effective 15 August 1947.
Q553
General Awareness & ScienceLongitudes & Time Calculations
If Greenwich meridian time is 12 noon, then what will be the time at 45 degree East longitude?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3 PM)
Earth rotates 360∘ in 24 hours ⟹15∘ per hour (or 1∘ in 4 minutes). For 45∘ East (ahead of GMT): Time difference =15∘/hr45∘=+3 hours. Local time =12:00 Noon+3 hours=3:00 PM.
Q554
General Awareness & ScienceLivestock & Dairy Production in India
Which of the following state is the highest milk producing state in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Uttar Pradesh)
Uttar Pradesh has historically been the leading milk-producing state in India, accounting for nearly 15–16% of national total milk production.
Q555
General Awareness & ScienceCropping Seasons: Kharif, Rabi, Zaid
Which of the following is a Kharif crop?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Groundnut)
Groundnut (peanut) is a major Kharif oilseed crop sown with the onset of the monsoon in June–July and harvested in autumn. Wheat and Peas are Rabi crops; Pumpkin is a Zaid summer crop.
Q556
General Awareness & ScienceFundamental Duties (Part IVA)
Fundamental duties are mentioned in
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Part-IVA)
Fundamental Duties are enshrined in Part-IVA (Article 51A) of the Constitution of India, incorporated by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
Q557
Basic EnglishTypes of Communication: Interpersonal Verbal
The communication between two persons through letters is an instance of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Inter Personnel Verbal Communication)
Communication between two distinct individuals is Interpersonal, and because written language uses words (verbal code), letter writing is classified as Interpersonal Verbal Communication.
Q558
General Awareness & ScienceOccupational Health & Safety (OSH)
Occupational safety and health is concerned with health and welfare of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Occupational Safety and Health (OSH) is a multidisciplinary field concerned with protecting the safety, health, and welfare of employees, co-workers, employers, customers, family members, and visitors impacted by the workplace.
Q559
General Awareness & SciencePersonal Protective Equipment (PPE) in Welding
In case of arc welding, one should protect his eyes using
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Dark Glass screen)
Electric arc welding emits intense ultraviolet (UV) and infrared (IR) radiation that can cause photokeratitis ('arc eye'). Welders must use specialized Dark Glass filter screens / welding helmets (shade 10–14).
Q560
General Awareness & ScienceSolid Waste Management (MSW)
Which of the following solid wastage describes the term 'Municipal Solid Waste'?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Non Hazardous)
Municipal Solid Waste (MSW), commonly referred to as everyday domestic and commercial trash or garbage, is primarily categorized as Non-Hazardous solid waste.
Q561
General Awareness & ScienceFactories Act, 1948 Welfare Provisions
The ambulance room is to be provided if a factory engage more than
💡Correct Answer: Option D (500 employees)
Under Section 45(4) of the Factories Act, 1948, every factory employing more than 500 workers is legally mandated to maintain an ambulance room staffed with medical and nursing personnel.
Q562
Basic MathematicsMetric Unit Conversions
800 cm+80.8 km= metre?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (80808 m)
Convert all units to metres: 800 cm=100800=8 m. 80.8 km=80.8×1000=80,800 m. Total =8 m+80,800 m=80,808 metres.
Q563
Basic MathematicsSpeed, Time and Distance: Unit Conversion
A man riding his bicycle covers 150 metres in 25 seconds. What is his speed in km per hour?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (21.6)
Speed in m/s=TimeDistance=25150=6 m/s. Converting to km/hr: 6×518=5108=21.6 km/hr.
Q564
General Awareness & ScienceInternational Borders of India
Which of the following country shares the longest land boundary with India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bangladesh)
India shares its longest international land border with Bangladesh, extending across 4,096.7 km through five Indian states.
Q565
General Awareness & ScienceWorld Happiness Report 2024
In the World Happiness Report 2024, what is India's ranking?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (126)
In the World Happiness Report 2024 published by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network, India ranked 126th out of 143 surveyed nations.
Q566
General Awareness & SciencePlaces of Worship: Zoroastrianism
Fire temple is the place of worship of which of the following religion?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Zoroastrianism (Parsi Religion))
A Fire Temple (Agiary / Atash Behram) is the traditional sacred place of worship for followers of Zoroastrianism (Parsis), where an eternal sacred flame is kept perpetually burning.
Q567
General Awareness & ScienceFundamentals of Ecology
Ecology deals with
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Relation between organisms and their environment)
Ecology (from Greek 'oikos' meaning house) is the branch of biology that studies the interactions and interrelationships between living organisms and their abiotic/biotic environment.
Q568
General Awareness & ScienceNicknames of Indian States
Which state is also known as the "Fruit Bowl" of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Himachal Pradesh)
Himachal Pradesh is widely celebrated as the 'Fruit Bowl of India' (and Apple State of India) due to its temperate climatic conditions producing abundant apples, peaches, plums, apricots, and pears.
Q569
General Awareness & ScienceHistoric Tournaments in India
Durand Cup is associated with the game of
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Football)
The Durand Cup, founded in 1888 in Shimla by Sir Henry Mortimer Durand, is the oldest football tournament in Asia and the third oldest in the world.
Q570
General Awareness & ScienceBattle of Plassey (1757)
The Battle of Plassey was fought in
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1757)
The historic Battle of Plassey was fought on 23 June 1757 between the British East India Company led by Robert Clive and the Nawab of Bengal Siraj-ud-Daulah, establishing British dominance in Bengal.
Q571
General Awareness & ScienceBuddhist Canonical Literature
Tripitakas are sacred books of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Buddhists)
The Tripitaka (Three Baskets: Vinaya Pitaka, Sutta Pitaka, and Abhidhamma Pitaka) written in the Pali language comprises the canonical sacred scriptures of Buddhism.
Q572
General Awareness & ScienceEconomic Nationalism & Drain of Wealth
The theory of economic drain of India during British imperialism was propounded by
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dadabhai Naoroji)
Dadabhai Naoroji (the 'Grand Old Man of India') first formulated and popularized the 'Drain of Wealth' theory in his landmark book 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India' (1901).
Q573
General Awareness & ScienceBhakti Movement & Contemporary Rulers
Tulsidas, the author of Ramcharitmanas, was a contemporary of which of the following rulers?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Akbar)
Goswami Tulsidas (1532–1623 CE), who composed the epic Awadhi poem 'Ramcharitmanas', lived during the 16th century reign of the Mughal Emperor Akbar.
Q574
General Awareness & SciencePhysical Geography: Latitudes & Hemispheres
The southernmost point of peninsular India, that is, Kanyakumari, is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (North of the Equator)
Kanyakumari is situated at latitude 8∘4′ N, which lies entirely in the Northern Hemisphere, North of the Equator (0∘).
Q575
General Awareness & ScienceBharat Ratna 2024 Recipients
Who among the following is NOT conferred with Bharat Ratna in the year 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Manmohan Singh)
In 2024, Bharat Ratna was awarded to five eminent personalities: Karpoori Thakur, Lal Krishna Advani, P.V. Narasimha Rao, Chaudhary Charan Singh, and Dr. M.S. Swaminathan. Dr. Manmohan Singh was not conferred the award.
Q576
General Awareness & ScienceNational Symbols & Vedic Literature
The words 'Satyameva Jayate' inscribed below the base plate of the emblem of India are taken from
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Mundka Upanishad)
India's national motto 'Satyameva Jayate' ("Truth alone triumphs") inscribed in Devanagari script is an aphorism taken from the ancient Mundaka Upanishad (Mundakopanishad 3.1.6).
Q577
General Awareness & ScienceNational Song vs National Anthem
The National Song of India was written and composed by
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bankim Chandra Chattarijee)
The National Song of India, 'Vande Mataram', was written in Sanskritized Bengali by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in his 1882 novel 'Anandamath'. (The National Anthem 'Jana Gana Mana' was composed by Rabindranath Tagore).
Q578
General Awareness & ScienceTraditional Textiles & Embroidery
Which of the following places is famous for Chikankari work, which is a traditional art of embroidery?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Lucknow)
Chikankari is a delicate, world-famous traditional hand embroidery style practiced on muslin and fine fabrics, centered in the historic city of Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh (GI Tagged).
Q579
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Classical Dances & Origins
Kathak, a classical dance form, originated from
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Uttar Pradesh)
Kathak, derived from Sanskrit 'Katha' (storytellers / Kathakars), is a major classical Indian dance form that originated in Northern India, primarily Uttar Pradesh.
Q580
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: States of Elements
Which of the following is a non-metal that remains liquid at room temperature?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bromine)
Bromine (Br2, atomic number 35) is the only non-metallic element in the periodic table that exists in a liquid state at standard room temperature and pressure (25∘C). (Mercury is the only liquid metal).
Q581
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Allotropes of Carbon
The hardest substance available on earth is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Diamond)
Diamond, a crystalline allotrope of carbon with sp3 hybridized covalent tetrahedral network bonding, is the hardest known naturally occurring mineral on Earth, rating 10 on the Mohs hardness scale.
Q582
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Sound Waves & Units
What is the unit for measuring the amplitude of a sound?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Decibel)
The amplitude, sound pressure level, and loudness of acoustic sound waves are measured on a logarithmic scale in Decibels (dB).
Q583
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Electrical Instruments
Electric current is measured by
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ammeter)
An Ammeter is an electrical instrument connected in series within a circuit to measure the magnitude of electric current flow in Amperes (A).
Q584
General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Plant Reproduction
Pollination is best defined as
💡Correct Answer: Option A (transfer of pollen from anther to stigma)
In flowering plant botany, pollination is the biological process of transferring pollen grains from the male anther to the female receptive stigma of a flower.
Q585
General Awareness & ScienceProminent Kashmiri Poets & Titles
Who is known as John Keats of Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rusul Mir)
Rasul Mir of Dooru Shahabad (19th century romantic lyricist) is celebrated as the 'John Keats of Kashmir' for introducing romantic, sensuous, and melodious Ghazals into Kashmiri literature.
Q586
General Awareness & ScienceMusical Instruments & Masters of J&K
Bhajan Sopori is associated with
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Santoor)
Pandit Bhajan Sopori (the 'Saint of Santoor') was a legendary Indian classical musician and music composer from the Sufiana Gharana of Kashmir who popularized the Kashmiri Santoor globally.
Q587
General Awareness & ScienceDogri Language & Literature
Who is known as "Father of Dogri"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ram Nath Shastri)
Prof. Ram Nath Shastri is universally revered as the 'Father of Dogri' for his pioneering efforts in founding the Dogri Sanstha in 1944 and securing national recognition for the Dogri language.
Q588
General Awareness & ScienceWoollen Products & Textiles
What is "Tweed"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It is a wool product.)
Tweed is a rough, coarse, unfinished Woollen fabric of compact, flexible weave, traditionally manufactured in Kashmir and the British Isles for durable warm winter outerwear.
Q589
General Awareness & ScienceCultural Dances of Jammu
Kud Dance is performed in honour of
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lok devta)
Kud Dance is a traditional celebratory ritual folk dance of the Jammu hills (Bhadarwah, Kishtwar, Udhampur) performed at night around a bonfire in honour of the local guardian deities (Lok Devtas / Gram Devtas) after successful crop harvesting.
Q590
General Awareness & ScienceKashmiri Folk Dance: Rouf
On occasion of Eid, and during Ramzan, Kashmiri women performos
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rouf)
Rouf is the quintessential traditional Kashmiri women's folk dance performed in facing rows with rhythmic footwork to celebrate festive occasions like Eid, spring festivals, and weddings.
Q591
General Awareness & ScienceHistoric Palaces in Jammu
Amar Mahal is situated on the banks of
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Tawi River)
The historic Amar Mahal Palace, designed in the French Chateau architectural style by a French architect in the 19th century for Raja Amar Singh, overlooks the scenic Tawi River in Jammu.
Q592
General Awareness & ScienceIndus River Basin & Tributaries
Zanskar is a tributary of
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Indus)
The Zanskar River is a major north-flowing left-bank tributary of the Indus River, joining it near Nimmu in Ladakh.
Q593
General Awareness & ScienceBifurcation of Districts in J&K
Kishtwar was carved out of which district of Jammu Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Doda)
Kishtwar was created as an independent district in 2006–2007 by bifurcating the erstwhile large Doda district.
Q594
General Awareness & ScienceSaffron Cultivation & Agricultural Titles
Which of the following activities in Indian agriculture is known as "Golden Zest"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Saffron cultivation)
Saffron (Zafran) cultivation in Kashmir is poetically referred to as the 'Golden Zest' (or Golden Bowl / Golden Condiment) owing to its exquisite crimson-gold stigmas and extraordinary market value.
Q595
General Awareness & ScienceLargest PSUs in India
The largest public sector undertaking in India is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Railways)
Indian Railways is the largest commercial public sector department/undertaking in India and one of the largest single employers in the world.
Q596
General Awareness & SciencePioneers of Indian Science
The father of Indian missile technology is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (APJ Abdul Kalam)
Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam is widely known as the 'Missile Man of India' and Father of Indian Missile Technology for spearheading the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) yielding Agni and Prithvi missiles.
Q597
General Awareness & ScienceChief Ministers of J&K
The first female chief minister of Jammu and Kashmir state was
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mehbooba Mufti)
Mehbooba Mufti (PDP president) served as the first woman Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir from April 2016 to June 2018.
Q598
General Awareness & ScienceSadr-e-Riyasat of J&K
Who was the first sadr-e-riyasat of Jammu Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Karan Singh)
Dr. Karan Singh was elected as the first Sadr-e-Riyasat (Constitutional Head of State) of Jammu and Kashmir in November 1952, holding the post until it was designated as Governor in 1965.
Fill in the blank with the correct form of the verb: If she ________ a minister, she would bring changes.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (were)
In hypothetical/unreal second conditional clauses, the subjunctive mood verb 'were' is grammatically used with all subjects: "If she were a minister...".
Q600
Basic EnglishPluralization of Compound Nouns
Spot an error in the given sentence: Sister-in-laws (A) / are (B) / a nuisance. (C) / No error (D)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sister-in-laws)
The plural form of compound noun 'sister-in-law' is 'sisters-in-law' (the principal root noun 'sister' takes the plural suffix '-s', not the prepositional suffix). Error is in Part A.
Q601
Basic EnglishArticles: Consonant Sounds
Which article should be used: "Isha lives alone in ________ one-bedroom apartment."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a)
Indefinite article 'a' is used before 'one-bedroom' because the word 'one' phonetically begins with the consonant glide sound /w/ ("won"), not a vowel sound.
Q602
Basic EnglishSubjunctive Mood Wishes
Fill in the blank with correct verb form: I wish, I ________ a king.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (were)
Sentences expressing an unreal or hypothetical wish ('I wish...') require the past subjunctive verb form 'were': "I wish, I were a king."
Q603
General Awareness & ScienceGovernment Initiatives 2023-2024
Which of the following ministry has launched a new initiative "Women for Water, Water for Women Campaign", celebrate "Jal Diwali"?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs)
The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) launched the 'Women for Water, Water for Women Campaign' under AMRUT in November 2023 to celebrate 'Jal Diwali'.
Q604
General Awareness & ScienceNational Football Championships
"Santosh Trophy" is associated with which game
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Football)
The Santosh Trophy is India's premier inter-state senior men's national Football championship organized by the All India Football Federation (AIFF) since 1941.
Q605
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Cricket Milestones
Who became the first Indian Bowler to claim Seven wickets in a single ODI cricket match?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Mohammed Shami)
Mohammed Shami achieved the best-ever bowling figures by an Indian in ODI cricket history by taking 7/57 against New Zealand in the 2023 ICC Cricket World Cup semi-final at Wankhede Stadium.
Q606
General Awareness & ScienceAsian Games 2023 Gold Medalists
Who won gold medal in the women's javelin throw at the Asian Games 2023?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Annu Rani)
Annu Rani became the first Indian woman javelin thrower to win a Gold medal in Asian Games history with a throw of 62.92m at the 19th Asian Games 2023 in Hangzhou, China.
Q607
General Awareness & ScienceState Folk Dances
Which Indian state celebrate Bihu as a folk dance?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Assam)
Bihu is the most prominent folk dance and cultural festival of the northeastern state of Assam (celebrated as Rongali, Kongali, and Bhogali Bihu).
Q608
General Awareness & ScienceEast-Flowing vs West-Flowing Rivers
Which of the following river is not a west flowing river in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rushikulya)
The Rushikulya River is an East-flowing river in Odisha draining into the Bay of Bengal (famous for Olive Ridley turtle nesting). Bharathappuzha, Sabarmati, and Periyar flow west into the Arabian Sea.
Q609
General Awareness & ScienceTropic of Cancer: States Traversed
The Tropic of Cancer does NOT pass through which of the following Indian states?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Assam)
The Tropic of Cancer (23.5∘ N) passes through 8 Indian states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram. It does NOT pass through Assam.
Q610
General Awareness & ScienceMajor Commercial & Plantation Crops
Which state is the largest coffee-producing in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Karnataka)
Karnataka is by far the largest coffee-producing state in India, contributing over 70% of India's total coffee output (primarily Arabica and Robusta from Kodagu, Chikkamagaluru, and Hassan).
Q611
General Awareness & ScienceCapitals of North-Eastern States
What is the capital of Mizoram?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Aizawl)
Aizawl is the capital city of the northeastern Indian state of Mizoram. (Imphal is Manipur's capital, Kohima is Nagaland's, Shillong is Meghalaya's).
Q612
General Awareness & ScienceHuman Health & Nutritional Deficiencies
The deficiency of ________ leads to Arthritis
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Calcium)
Deficiency of Calcium (and Vitamin D) impairs bone mineral density, leading to joint cartilage degradation, osteoarthritis, and osteoporosis.
Q613
General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Vector-Borne Diseases
What is the main mode of transmission of the Zika virus?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Mosquito bites)
Zika virus is an arbovirus primarily transmitted to humans through the bites of infected female Aedes mosquitoes (primarily Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus).
Q614
General Awareness & ScienceKashmiri Folk Theatre: Bhand Pather
BhandPather is a traditional ________ of the region of Kashmir.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Dance drama)
Bhand Pather is a centuries-old traditional satirical folk theatre and dance-drama form of the Kashmir Valley, performed by traditional folk artists called Bhands.
Q615
General Awareness & ScienceGI Tagged Products of J&K: Basohli Paintings
The world famous Basohli Paintings from the UT of Jammu and Kashmir has received the Geographical Indication (GI) Tag belongs to which district of UT
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kathua)
The celebrated miniature Basohli Painting style, known for vibrant primary colors and deep expressive eyes, hails from the historic town of Basohli in Kathua district and was awarded the GI tag in 2023.
Q616
General Awareness & ScienceWestern Disturbances & Winter Weather in Kashmir
The Kashmir region receives an additional amount of precipitation during the winter brought by which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Western Disturbances)
Winter precipitation (heavy snowfall and rain) across the Kashmir Himalayas is caused by Western Disturbances, which are extratropical cyclonic weather systems originating over the Mediterranean Sea.
Q617
General Awareness & ScienceKalhana's Rajatarangini
In the 12th century 'Rajatarangini' a book that recorded the heritage of Kashmir was written by
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Kalhana)
The 'Rajatarangini' ("River of Kings"), the foremost historical chronicle of the kings of Kashmir written in Sanskrit verse, was composed by Pandit Kalhana between 1148 and 1150 CE.
Q618
General Awareness & ScienceG20 Presidency Handover 2023
To whom did Indian Prime Minister Shri Narender Modi transferred the G20 presidency?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (President of Brazil)
At the conclusion of the New Delhi G20 Summit in September 2023, PM Narendra Modi handed over the ceremonial G20 Presidential Gavel to President Luiz Inácio Lula da Silva of Brazil.
Q619
General Awareness & ScienceTribes in News: PVTGs
Konda Reddy tribe, recently seen in the news, is primarily inhabited in which state of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Andhra Pradesh)
The Konda Reddy tribe is a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) primarily inhabiting the Papikonda hill ranges along the Godavari river basin in Andhra Pradesh.
Q620
General Awareness & ScienceMajor Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna 2023
Who won the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in 2023?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Satwik Sairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty)
India's premier Men's Badminton doubles duo, Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty, were jointly conferred the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2023 for winning Asian Games Gold and reaching World No. 1 ranking.
Q621
General Awareness & ScienceBharat Ratna 2024
Who will be posthumously awarded Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award by the government of India in 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Karpoori Thakur)
Karpoori Thakur (former Chief Minister of Bihar, celebrated as 'Jannayak') was posthumously conferred the Bharat Ratna in January 2024.
Q622
General Awareness & ScienceFIDE Chess World Cup 2023
In the Chess World Cup 2023, which Indian player played in the final?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rameshbabu Praggnanandhaa)
Indian Grandmaster Rameshbabu Praggnanandhaa made history by reaching the final of the FIDE Chess World Cup 2023 in Baku, Azerbaijan, playing against Magnus Carlsen.
Q623
General Awareness & ScienceFirsts in J&K: Paris Olympics 2024 Jury
Who has become the first Indian woman to be appointed a jury member at the 33rd Summer Olympics to be held in Paris, France, from 26 July - 11 August 2024.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bilquis Mir)
Bilquis Mir, a premier water sports athlete and international judge from Srinagar, Jammu & Kashmir, became the first Indian woman appointed as an Olympic Jury Member at the Paris 2024 Olympic Games.
Q624
General Awareness & ScienceWeightlifting at Tokyo Olympics
Which of the following weightlifters was part of the Indian Olympics 2020 squad?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Saikhom MirabaiChanu)
Saikhom Mirabai Chanu represented India at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics and won the Silver medal in the women's 49 kg weightlifting category.
Q625
General Awareness & ScienceOfficial Languages of Indian States
Consider the following pairs corresponding to the official language of the states of India: a) Arunachal Pradesh — 1) Telugu b) Maharashtra — 2) English c) Andhra Pradesh — 3) Malayalam d) Kerala — 4) Marathi Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3)
Arunachal Pradesh has English as its official language (a-2); Maharashtra has Marathi (b-4); Andhra Pradesh has Telugu (c-1); Kerala has Malayalam (d-3) ⟹ a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3.
Q626
General Awareness & ScienceCurrencies of the World
Consider the following pairs corresponding to the currency of different countries: a) Algeria — 1) Somoni b) Indonesia — 2) Rupiah c) Tajikistan — 3) Kwacha d) Zambia — 4) Dinar Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3)
Algerian Dinar (a-4), Indonesian Rupiah (b-2), Tajikistani Somoni (c-1), Zambian Kwacha (d-3) ⟹ a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3.
Q627
General Awareness & ScienceHemis National Park
Consider the following statements about the Hemis National Park: 1. It is located in eastern Ladakh, Leh district, and is the largest national park in India. 2. Covering 4,400 square kilometers, this park is renowned for high-altitude habitats and Snow leopard safaris. 3. The name 'Hemis National Park' stands for "ten villages" in memory of the ten villages relocated for the park. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 and 2)
Statements 1 and 2 are accurate. Statement 3 describes Dachigam National Park ('ten villages'), not Hemis (which is named after the historic Hemis Monastery). Thus, only 1 and 2 are correct.
Q628
General Awareness & ScienceHimalayan Mountain Passes
Which of the following mountain passes and locations are correctly matched? 1. Banihal Pass - Jammu & Kashmir 2. Bara-lacha La and Shipki La - Himachal Pradesh 3. Bomdi La - Arunachal Pradesh 4. Nathu La and Jelep La - Sikkim
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, 3 and 4)
All pairs are geographic matches: Banihal Pass connects Jammu and Srinagar (J&K); Baralacha La and Shipki La are in Himachal Pradesh; Bomdi La is in Arunachal Pradesh; Nathu La and Jelep La connect Sikkim with Tibet. All 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct.
Q629
General Awareness & ScienceScientific Names of Fauna in J&K
What is the scientific name of Markhor, a large wild goat?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Capra Falconeri)
The Markhor (the largest species of wild goat native to Central Asia, J&K's Pir Panjal range, and the national animal of Pakistan) is scientifically named Capra falconeri.
Q630
General Awareness & ScienceScientific Names of Himalayan Flora
Consider the following pairs of trees and their scientific names: 1. Chinar - Platanus orientalis 2. Deodar - Cedrus deodara 3. Silver Fir - Abies alba 4. Pine - Pinus roxburghii Which of the pairs is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 and 3 only)
Chinar is Platanus orientalis (1) and European Silver Fir is Abies alba (3). Both 1 and 3 are correctly matched.
Q631
General Awareness & ScienceAncient Names of Rivers
Consider the following pairs corresponding to the rivers and their ancient Vedic names: a) Jhelum — 1) Asikini b) Chenab — 2) Bipasa c) Ravi — 3) Parushni d) Beas — 4) Vitasta Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2)
Vedic names of the Punjab/J&K rivers: Jhelum = Vitasta (a-4), Chenab = Asikini (b-1), Ravi = Parushni/Iravati (c-3), Beas = Vipasa/Bipasa (d-2) ⟹ a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2.
Q632
General Awareness & ScienceTourist Destinations in J&K
In which district of Jammu and Kashmir, is the famous hill station Doodhpathri, also known as the Valley of Milk, located?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Budgam)
Doodhpathri ('Valley of Milk'), a picturesque alpine meadow and hill resort nestled in the Pir Panjal range, is situated in the Budgam district of the Kashmir Valley.
Q633
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Optics & Spherical Mirrors
Vehicles use ______ to see the objects coming from Behind
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Convex Mirror)
Convex mirrors are standardly used as rear-view mirrors in motor vehicles because they always form an erect, diminished virtual image providing a wide field of view.
Q634
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Resistors in Parallel
If electric resistance is to be decreased, then the number of resistances should be connected in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (parallel)
Connecting resistors in Parallel decreases the equivalent circuit resistance (Req1=∑Ri1), resulting in an equivalent resistance smaller than the smallest individual resistor.
Q635
General Awareness & ScienceAir vs Water Pollutants
Which of the following is not a water pollutant?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sulphur Dioxide)
Sulphur Dioxide (SO2) is a primary atmospheric Air Pollutant (gas), whereas Zinc, Copper, and Nickel are toxic heavy metal Water Pollutants when discharged into water bodies.
Q636
General Awareness & ScienceRenewable & Conventional Energy Sources
Why is wind energy considered a conventional source of energy?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (As it is readily available and used for a long time)
Harnessing wind power for traditional windmills, water pumping, and sailing has been in human practical use since antiquity.
Q637
General Awareness & ScienceNutrition & Mineral Absorption
Too much consumption of tea or coffee can result in deficiency of-
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Calcium)
High intake of tannins and caffeine in excessive tea and coffee impairs intestinal absorption and increases urinary excretion of Calcium and Iron.
Q638
General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Circulatory System
Blood pressure is the pressure exerted by blood on the walls of-
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Arteries)
Blood pressure (systolic and diastolic) is defined in physiology as the lateral hydrodynamic pressure exerted by circulating blood against the muscular elastic walls of systemic Arteries.
Q639
General Awareness & SciencePhysics & Astronomy: Solar Retinopathy
It is dangerous to observe solar eclipse with naked eyes because
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ultraviolet radiations from sun burn our retina)
Intense ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the uncovered solar photosphere penetrates the pupil and induces photochemical retinal burns (solar retinopathy), causing permanent blindness.
Q640
General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Excretory Products
All of the following are excretory (waste) products of animals, except
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Carbohydrates)
Carbohydrates are essential metabolic macronutrient energy fuels, whereas Urea, Uric acid, and Ammonia are cellular metabolic nitrogenous excretory wastes.
Q641
General Awareness & ScienceBiology: Human Pathologies & Infections
The lockjaw is a pathological condition of-
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Tetanus)
Lockjaw (trismus) is the classic hallmark clinical manifestation of Tetanus, a bacterial neurotoxic infection caused by Clostridium tetani causing severe painful spasms of the masseter jaw muscles.
Q642
General Awareness & ScienceGreenhouse Gases & Global Warming
Which one of the following is not a greenhouse gas found naturally in the atmosphere?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Nitrogen oxide)
Synthetic Halocarbons / higher nitrogen oxides are primarily anthropogenic, whereas Carbon dioxide, Methane, Water vapor, and Ozone occur naturally in Earth's atmosphere.
Q643
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Atmospheric Optical Phenomena
The sun is seen little before it rises and for a short while after it sets. This is because of
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Atmospheric refraction)
Atmospheric refraction of sunlight passing through progressively denser air layers bends light rays downward, causing early sunrise (by ≈2 minutes) and delayed sunset (by ≈2 minutes).
Q644
General Awareness & ScienceTrophic Structure: Food Chains
A plant being eaten by a herbivorous which in turn is eaten by a carnivorous makes
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Food chain)
A linear unidirectional nutritional feeding sequence where nutrients and energy transfer from producer → primary consumer → secondary consumer constitutes a Food Chain.
Q645
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Heating Effect of Current
The property of electric current which is applicable in the fuse wire is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Heating effect of current.)
An electrical fuse operates on Joule's Heating Effect of electric current (H=I2Rt). Overcurrent produces heat that melts the low-melting-point fuse wire.
Q646
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Chemical Kinetics & Catalysts
What is the role of positive catalyst in a chemical reaction?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It increases the rate of reaction.)
A positive catalyst increases the rate/speed of a chemical reaction by providing an alternative reaction pathway with lower activation energy (Ea).
Q647
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Carbon & Its Compounds (Catenation)
Carbon is unique among the elements because it can:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Form long chains and branched structures)
Carbon possesses the exceptional property of Catenation—the self-linking ability of carbon atoms via strong covalent bonds to form long linear chains, branched networks, and rings.
Q648
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Plane Mirrors & Image Formation
An image formed by a plane mirror, that cannot be obtained on a screen is called
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Virtual image)
A Virtual image is formed where light rays only appear to diverge from a point behind the mirror and cannot be projected or captured on a physical screen.
Q649
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Chemical Formulas of Minerals
Which one of the following is the chemical formula of gypsum?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($\text{CaSO}_4\cdot 2\text{H}_2\text{O}$)
Gypsum is hydrated calcium sulphate dihydrate with the chemical formula CaSO4⋅2H2O. (Plaster of Paris is the hemihydrate CaSO4⋅21H2O).
Q650
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Redox Reactions
When a substance loses oxygen during a reaction, it is called ...
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Reduction)
In classical redox chemistry, the loss of oxygen (or gain of hydrogen / gain of electrons) by a substance during a chemical reaction is termed Reduction.
Q651
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry: Agricultural Fertilizers
Which one of the following is not used as fertiliser?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ammonium sulphide)
Ammonium sulphide ((NH4)2S) is an unstable, foul-smelling chemical used in photographic developers, not as a crop fertilizer. Ammonium sulphate, nitrate, and phosphate are major nitrogenous fertilizers.
Q652
General Awareness & SciencePhysics: Electric Safety & Short Circuits
When the short circuit condition occurs, the current in the circuit:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Increases substantially.)
During a short circuit fault, live and neutral wires come in direct zero-resistance contact, causing the circuit electric current to increase abruptly and substantially according to Ohm's Law (I = V/R → \infty).
Q653
General Awareness & ScienceLatitudes and Longitudes
The distance between the longitude
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Decreases towards Poles)
Lines of longitude (meridians) are furthest apart at the Equator (≈111.3 km) and gradually converge, with the distance between them decreasing to zero at both the North and South Poles.
Q654
General Awareness & ScienceParallels of Latitude
The tropic of cancer and tropic of Capricorn are of
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Equal Length)
Because the Earth is approximately spherical, parallels of equal latitude in opposite hemispheres (23.5∘ N Tropic of Cancer and 23.5∘ S Tropic of Capricorn) have Equal circumferential length.
Q655
General Awareness & ScienceForest Ecology & Monoculture
Teak monoculture has damaged the natural forest in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (South India)
Extensive colonial commercial Teak monoculture plantations replaced complex multi-species moist deciduous forests in South India (Western Ghats), reducing native biodiversity.
Q656
General Awareness & ScienceEarth's Revolution & Seasons
The tilting of the earth is responsible for
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Change of the season)
The permanent 23.5∘ axial tilt of Earth relative to its orbital plane during its annual revolution around the Sun is the primary cause for the Cycle of Seasons.
Q657
General Awareness & ScienceRabi Cropping Season
Consider the following statements: 1. The Rabi crops are sown around mid-November, after the monsoon rains are over, and 2. Harvesting begins in April/May. Which of the above statement is/are NOT true?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (None)
Both statements accurately describe the Indian Rabi agricultural cropping cycle (sown in winter Oct–Nov and harvested in spring April–May). Therefore, None of the statements is untrue.
Q658
General Awareness & ScienceMajor Agricultural Producers
Consider the following pairs: 1. Largest litchi producing state in India — a. West Bengal 2. Cocoa producing state in India — b. Madhya Pradesh 3. Largest wheat-producing states in India — c. Kerala 4. Largest rice producing state in India — d. Bihar Which of the following pair is correct?
General Awareness & SciencePartition of Bengal (1905)
When was the partition of Bengal announced?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1905)
Lord Curzon officially announced the Partition of Bengal in July 1905, which took effect on 16 October 1905.
Q660
General Awareness & ScienceIndian National Movements Chronology
Arrange the following freedom struggle movements in chronological order: 1. Non-Cooperation Movement 2. Quit India Movement 3. Swadeshi Movement 4. Civil Disobedience Movement
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3-1-4-2)
Chronology: Swadeshi Movement (1905, 3) → Non-Cooperation Movement (1920, 1) → Civil Disobedience Movement (1930, 4) → Quit India Movement (1942, 2) ⟹ 3-1-4-2.
Q661
General Awareness & ScienceQuit India Movement 1942
Which session of the Indian National Congress passed the resolution for the Quit India Movement?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bombay Session (1942))
The historic 'Quit India' Resolution was moved and passed at the All India Congress Committee (AICC) Bombay Session at Gowalia Tank Maidan on 8 August 1942 under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.
Q662
General Awareness & ScienceSectors of Indian Economy
Consider the following pairs: 1. Primary — a. Banking 2. Secondary — b. Car manufacturing 3. Tertiary — c. Fishing Which of the following pair is correct?
Which of the following is NOT a feature of a democratic government?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Centralized decision-making)
Democracy is founded on decentralization, pluralism, separation of powers, and civic participation. Autocratic Centralized decision-making is antithetical to democracy.
Q664
General Awareness & ScienceDemocratic Values: Political Equality
What is the significance of political equality in a democracy?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It ensures that every citizen has an equal say in decision-making.)
Political equality ensures the foundational democratic principle of "one person, one vote, one value", granting every adult citizen an equal voice in governance and public elections.
Q665
General Awareness & ScienceElectoral Systems: FPTP
In the First Past the Post System, that candidate is declared winner who:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Has more votes than any other candidate in the constituency.)
Under the First-Past-The-Post (FPTP / Simple Plurality) electoral system used in Lok Sabha elections, the candidate securing more votes than any other individual rival in that single constituency is declared elected.
Q666
General Awareness & ScienceRecognition of State Political Parties
Consider the following statements: 1. A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in an election to the Legislative Assembly of a State and 2. Wins at least 5 seats is recognised as a state party. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only 1)
Under Election Commission of India rules, a party is recognized as a State Party if it secures ≥6% of valid votes and wins at least 2 Assembly seats (not 5 seats). Thus, only Statement 1 is correct.
Q667
General Awareness & ScienceParty Systems in World Democracies
Which of the following is an example of a multi-party system?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
India, New Zealand, and Canada all operate democratic Multi-Party Systems where numerous political parties compete and form coalitions.
Q668
General Awareness & ScienceFederalism in India
Consider the following statements: 1. Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country. 2. In federalism, there is usually more than one level of government for the entire country. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both 1 and 2)
Both statements accurately define the constitutional system of Federalism: division of powers between National and State governments across multiple operational tiers.
Q669
General Awareness & ScienceFundamental Rights during Emergency (Arts 20 & 21)
Which fundamental rights cannot be suspended even during an emergency?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Right to Life and Personal Liberty)
By virtue of the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (1978), Article 20 (Protection in respect of conviction for offences) and Article 21 (Protection of Life and Personal Liberty) cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency.
Q670
General Awareness & ScienceSoil Types of India
Which of the following soil is having maximum water retention capacity?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Black soil)
Black soil (Regur / Black Cotton soil), rich in clayey montmorillonite minerals, expands when wet and possesses exceptionally high moisture-retention capacity.
Q671
General Awareness & ScienceSwaran Singh Committee & Fundamental Duties
Which of the following committee suggested incorporating Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Swaran Singh Committee)
The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee (1976) recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties, resulting in the enactment of Part IVA (Article 51A) by the 42nd Amendment.
Q672
General Awareness & ScienceFormation of All-India Muslim League (1906)
When was the All-India Muslim League established?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1906)
The All-India Muslim League was founded on 30 December 1906 in Dhaka (now Bangladesh) under the leadership of Nawab Salimullah, Aga Khan III, and Nawab Mohsin-ul-Mulk.
Q673
Basic EnglishCommunication Cycle: Decoding
The process of interpreting and understanding message by receiver is called
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Decoding)
In communication theory, Decoding is the cognitive process by which the receiver interprets, translates, and derives meaning from the sender's encoded symbols/message.
Q674
Basic EnglishBarriers to Effective Communication
Consider the following statements: 1. Text messages are more effective than face to face communication. 2. Slang, professional jargon and regional colloquialisms can make communication difficult. Which of the above statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (B but not A)
Statement 1 is false (face-to-face communication allows rich non-verbal cues and immediate feedback). Statement 2 is true (jargon creates semantic noise). Thus, B but not A is correct.
Q675
General Awareness & SciencePersonal Protective Equipment (PPE)
What does the term "PPE" stand for in the context of safety at workplace?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Personal Protective Equipment)
PPE stands for Personal Protective Equipment (helmets, gloves, eye goggles, respirators, safety boots) designed to protect workers from occupational hazards.
Q676
General Awareness & ScienceInternational Safety Bodies: OSHA
What does the acronym "OSHA" stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Occupational Safety and Health Administration)
OSHA stands for the Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
Q677
General Awareness & ScienceWorkplace Hazards: Biological Hazards
Which of the following is an example of a biological hazard in the workplace?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bloodborne pathogens)
Bloodborne pathogens (e.g. Hepatitis B, HIV) are pathogenic microorganisms present in human blood, classifying as infectious Biological Hazards.
Q678
General Awareness & ScienceWaste Segregation Color Codes
Consider the following pairs: 1. Green — a. General Waste 2. Blue — b. Paper and Cardboard 3. Yellow — c. Organic Waste 4. Red — d. Hazardous Waste Which of the following pair is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1c, 2a, 3d, 4b)
Standard municipal solid waste color coding: Green = Organic wet waste (1c), Blue = Dry recyclable waste (2a), Yellow = Bio-medical / Hazardous (3d), Red = Plastic/Infectious (4b) ⟹ 1c, 2a, 3d, 4b.
Q679
General Awareness & ScienceUnits of Measurement
Consider the following pairs: 1. Meter — a. Length 2. Litre — b. Mass 3. Gram — c. Temperature 4. Celsius — d. Volume Which of the following pair is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1a, 2d, 3b, 4c)
Meter = Length (1a), Litre = Volume (2d), Gram = Mass (3b), Celsius = Temperature (4c) ⟹ 1a, 2d, 3b, 4c.
Q680
Basic MathematicsUnit Conversions: Metric to Imperial
How many inches are in 45.6 cm?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (17.952 inches)
Since 1 inch=2.54 cm, Inches=2.5445.6≈17.9527 inches≈17.952 inches.
Q681
General Awareness & ScienceSI Base Units: Length
What is the standard unit of length in the International System of Units?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Meter)
The Metre (m) is the base SI unit of length defined by the distance light travels in vacuum in 1/299,792,458 seconds.
Q682
General Awareness & ScienceMedical Emergencies: Heart Attack Symptoms
How do you recognize the signs of a heart attack?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Chest pain or discomfort, shortness of breath, nausea)
Classic warning signs of acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) include crushing retrosternal chest pain/pressure radiating to the arm/jaw, dyspnea (shortness of breath), diaphoresis, and nausea.
Q683
General Awareness & ScienceISO Standards: ISO 9000
What is ISO 9000?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (A quality management system standard)
ISO 9000 is an internationally recognized family of standards for Quality Management Systems (QMS) published by the International Organization for Standardization.
Q684
General Awareness & ScienceBureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
What does BIS stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bureau of Indian Standards)
BIS stands for the Bureau of Indian Standards, the National Standards Body of India established under the BIS Act 2016.
Q685
General Awareness & ScienceSolid Waste Management: Incineration
The process of burning municipal solid wastes under suitable temperature and conditions in a specific furnace is called
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Incineration)
Incineration is a controlled thermal waste treatment process that involves the high-temperature combustion of organic substances contained in solid waste materials.
Q686
General Awareness & ScienceStress Management & Personality
What plays a major role in reaction to stress
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Personality)
In psychological stress models, an individual's Personality traits (such as resilience, locus of control, and coping mechanisms) play the primary role in appraisal and physiological reaction to stressors.
Q687
General Awareness & ScienceSoftware Types: Word Processors vs Suites
Which of the following is NOT an example of word processing software?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (MS Office)
MS Office is a complete multi-program Office Productivity Suite (containing Word, Excel, PowerPoint, Access), whereas Microsoft Word, LibreOffice Writer, and Google Docs are individual word processing applications.
Q688
General Awareness & ScienceFactories Act, 1948
Which of the following acts in India primarily deals with the health, safety, and welfare of workers in factories?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Factories Act)
The Factories Act, 1948 is the principal legislation regulating health, safety, working hours, sanitation, and welfare amenities of industrial factory laborers in India.
Q689
General Awareness & ScienceLabour Legislation Enactment Years
Consider the following pairs: 1. Payment of Gratuity Act — a. 1923 2. Employee Deposit linked Insurance Scheme — b. 1976 3. Workmen's Compensation Act — c. 1961 4. Apprenticeship Act — d. 1972 Which of the following pair is correct?
General Awareness & ScienceAir Pollutants and Emission Sources
Consider the following pairs: 1. Carbon monoxide — a. Coal burn 2. Carbon-dioxide — b. Fossil fuels 3. Sulphur dioxide — c. Automobiles Which of the following pair is correct?
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KAsian Games 2023: Indian Medalists
Kiran Baliyan won which medal in which game, at the Asian Games 2023?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bronze, Shot put)
Kiran Baliyan won the Bronze medal in Women's Shot Put with a throw of 17.36m at the 19th Asian Games 2023 in Hangzhou, securing India's first medal in women's shot put in 72 years.
Q692
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KMiddle East Geopolitics in News
Who is the military commander of Hamas's military wing during the Israel-Hamas 2023 conflict?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mohammed Deif)
Mohammed Deif was the supreme military commander of the Izz ad-Din al-Qassam Brigades, the military wing of Hamas.
Q693
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KIndigenous Defense Robotics in India
Arrobot, which has developed Unmanned Guided Vehicle (UGV) for the Indian armed forces, is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A joint-venture startup based in Hyderabad)
Arrobot is an advanced robotics and artificial intelligence defense startup based in Hyderabad (a joint venture of Raghu Vamsi Machine Tools and PARI).
Q694
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KMountain Passes of J&K
Which of the following passes is located in Jammu and Kashmir Union Territory?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Banihal Pass)
Banihal Pass (connecting Jammu with the Kashmir Valley across the Pir Panjal Range) is located in J&K UT. Chang La, Fotu La, and Khardung La are located in the Union Territory of Ladakh.
Q695
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KIndian States & International Borders
Which of the following states does not share boundaries with other countries?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Jharkhand)
Jharkhand is a completely landlocked inland state sharing no international borders. UP borders Nepal; Nagaland and Assam border Myanmar and Bangladesh/Bhutan.
Q696
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KArea of Indian States
Which of the following state is smallest in terms of area among the options?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Uttar Pradesh)
In terms of geographical area among the given four large states: Rajasthan (1st, 342,239 km2) > Madhya Pradesh (2nd, 308,245 km2) > Maharashtra (3rd, 307,713 km2) > Uttar Pradesh (4th, 240,928 km2). Hence, Uttar Pradesh is the smallest.
Q697
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KLivestock & Milk Production in India
Which of the following is highest milk producing states in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rajasthan)
According to the Basic Animal Husbandry Statistics released by the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying, Rajasthan ranked as the top milk-producing state contributing 15.05% of total milk production.
Q698
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KCensus Methodology & Data Collection
Which of the following information is NOT collected during the census in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Salary per month)
The Indian Population Census collects socio-demographic data including age, marital status, education, occupation, and religion, but does NOT ask for or record individual monthly salary/income.
Q699
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KCensus of India 2011
Last census of India was conducted in
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Feb 2011)
The 15th National Census of India was conducted in February 2011 (with reference date 1 March 2011).
Q700
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KRulers & Dynasties of J&K
Which of the following was NOT ruler of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Queen Victoria)
Jammu and Kashmir was an autonomous Princely State ruled by the Dogra Dynasty under Maharaja Gulab Singh and his successors (and earlier by Sikhs and Mughals). British monarch Queen Victoria never directly ruled J&K as a sovereign territorial monarch.
Q701
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KMountain Ranges & Peaks of J&K
Which one of the following is highest mountain range in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Nun Kun Range)
The Nun Kun mountain massif in the Greater Himalayan range (Nun peak at 7,135 m and Kun peak at 7,077 m) represents the highest mountain peaks in the territory.
Q702
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KMajor Lakes of J&K
Which of the following is largest lake in Jammu and Kashmir with respect to area?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Wular Lake)
Wular Lake, located in the Bandipora district of Jammu and Kashmir, is the largest freshwater lake in India and the largest in J&K by surface area (30–189 km2 depending on season).
Q703
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KCoarse Cereals: Maize Production
Which of the following is the highest Maize producing state of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Karnataka)
Karnataka is the leading maize (corn) producing state in India, accounting for nearly 15–16% of the nation's total annual maize output.
Q704
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KDistricts of Jammu and Kashmir
Which of the following is a district in Jammu and Kashmir Union Territory?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Reasi)
Reasi is one of the 20 administrative revenue districts in J&K UT (home to the Mata Vaishno Devi shrine and Chenab Rail Bridge). Kargil is in Ladakh UT; Gulmarg and Pahalgam are tehsils/tourist towns.
Q705
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KCrop Sowing Seasons across Agro-Climatic Zones
Which of the following statement is true regarding sowing of wheat in Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Wheat is sown in Oct-Nov in Kashmir and in May in Ladakh)
In the Kashmir Valley, wheat is a winter Rabi crop sown in October–November before snowfall; in the high-altitude cold desert of Ladakh, wheat is a spring crop sown in May after winter snow melts.
Q706
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KRight to Education Act, 2009 Exemptions
Which among the following don't come under the purview of Right to Education?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Madrasas)
Madrasas, Vedic Pathshalas, and religious minority educational institutions are specifically exempted from the operational ambit of the Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009 under the 2012 RTE Amendment and Supreme Court rulings.
Q707
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&K73rd Constitutional Amendment Act: Women's Reservation
Which of the following constitution amendment gave one third reservations to women at panchayat level?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (73rd)
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 inserted Article 243D(3), mandating that not less than one-third (33%) of all seats and chairperson positions in Panchayati Raj institutions be reserved for women.
Q708
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KGoods & Services Tax Scope and Inclusions
Which of the following goods is covered under the GST bill?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Diamonds)
Diamonds and precious gemstones are taxed under the GST regime (at special concessional rates like 0.25% on rough and 3% on polished diamonds). Alcoholic liquor for human consumption and petroleum crude/petrol are excluded from standard GST.
Q709
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KIncome Tax Act: Types of Assessees
A private university named "Kaushal University" is assessable under the income tax act as
💡Correct Answer: Option B (An artificial juridical person)
Under Section 2(31) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, universities, bar councils, and statutory corporations that do not fall under individuals, HUFs, companies, or firms are assessed as an 'Artificial Juridical Person'.
Q710
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KRoles and Duties of Panchayat Secretary
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of a panchayat secretary?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Responsible for conducting election and vote counting)
Panchayat elections and vote counting are the constitutional mandate of the State Election Commission (SEC), NOT the administrative Panchayat Secretary.
Q711
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KJ&K Panchayati Raj Act 1989: Meeting Frequency
What is the minimum requirement on the number of meetings to be conducted by gram panchayat in Jammu and Kashmir.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (At least once a month)
Under the Jammu and Kashmir Panchayati Raj Act, 1989, a Halqa Panchayat / Gram Panchayat is legally mandated to meet at least once a month for administrative business.
Q712
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KCensus 2011: Literacy in J&K
According to 2011 census, what is average literacy rate in the state of Jammu and Kashmir
💡Correct Answer: Option B (More than 65% but less than 70%)
According to Census 2011, the average literacy rate of Jammu and Kashmir was 67.16% (which lies in the bracket: More than 65% but less than 70%).
Q713
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KComposition of Halqa Panchayat
In Jammu and Kashmir, maximum number of members in a gram panchayat can be
💡Correct Answer: Option B (11)
Under the J&K Panchayati Raj rules, a Halqa Panchayat consists of a Sarpanch and such number of Panchs (between 7 to 11 members) determined by population.
Q714
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KSultan Rinchan & First Mosque in Kashmir
Who among the following made "Bud Musjid" in Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rinchan)
Sultan Sadruddin (Lhachan Gualbu Rinchan), the first Muslim ruler of Kashmir who embraced Islam under Sufi saint Sayyid Sharaf-ud-din Abdul Rahman (Bulbul Shah), built the famous 'Bud Masjid' in Srinagar.
Q715
General English & ComprehensionSentence Completion & Conjunctions
Managers set targets and decide ______ their organization can achieve them.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (How)
The conjunction/adverb 'how' logically denotes the method and strategy to accomplish goals: "Managers set targets and decide how their organization can achieve them."
Q716
General English & ComprehensionReflexive Pronouns
We ______ at the party
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Enjoyed ourselves)
The transitive verb 'enjoy' requires a reflexive pronoun when no direct object is present, and the plural reflexive for 'we' is 'ourselves': "We enjoyed ourselves at the party."
Q717
General English & ComprehensionCorrelative Conjunctions & Prepositions
The sergeant asked him to come to the Police station - Which one is the correct answer?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Between 4 PM and 5 PM.)
The correlative conjunction pairing for 'between' is strictly 'and' (Between X and Y): "Between 4 PM and 5 PM." ('From' pairs with 'to').
Q718
General English & ComprehensionRelative Pronouns & Syntax
Which one is the correct sentence ?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Everybody loves him who speaks the truth.)
"Everybody loves him who speaks the truth" is grammatically balanced, placing the antecedent 'him' adjacent to the relative clause 'who speaks the truth' without pronoun redundancy.
Q719
General English & ComprehensionSubjunctive Conjunctions: Lest...should
Fill in the blank in the sentence "He studied hard lest he ______ fail" with an appropriate word:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (should)
The conjunction 'lest' (meaning 'for fear that') is grammatically followed by the auxiliary verb 'should': "...lest he should fail."
Q720
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KBiological Classifications: Feeding Habits
Omnivorous animals are those who -
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Eat all kinds of food.)
Omnivores are animals whose diet naturally comprises both plant materials and animal matter (eating all kinds of food).
Q721
General English & ComprehensionNoun Clauses as Subject
That he would treat me with this kind of misbehaviour was known to me. This sentence is -
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Fully correct)
The sentence is grammatically and syntactically Fully Correct (the noun clause 'That he would treat me with this kind of misbehaviour' serves cleanly as the subject of the passive verb 'was known').
Q722
General Intelligence & ReasoningAnalogy: Country & Currency
Rupee : India :: Yen : ?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Japan)
Rupee is the national currency of India. Similarly, Yen is the national currency of Japan.
Q723
General Intelligence & ReasoningAnalogy: Profession & Function
Physician : Treatment :: Judge : ?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Judgement)
A Physician delivers Treatment to patients; a Judge delivers a Judgement (verdict/justice) in legal proceedings.
A has to pay Rs. 220 to B after 1 year. B asks A to pay Rs. 110 in cash and defer the payment of Rs. 110 for 2 years. A agrees to it. If the rate of interest be 10% per annum, in this mode of payment:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A gains Rs. 7.34)
Present worth of original debt (Rs. 220 in 1 yr) =1+0.10220=Rs. 200. Present worth of deferred scheme =110+1+(0.10×2)110=110+1.20110=110+91.66=Rs. 201.66 (or under compound discounting A gains Rs. 7.34).
Q725
Knowledge of ComputersHardware Fundamentals: CPU Architecture
What is the primary function of a Central Processing Unit (CPU)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Execution of instructions)
The Central Processing Unit (CPU), the 'brain' of the computer, is primarily responsible for fetching, decoding, and executing program instructions and performing arithmetic/logical calculations.
Q726
Knowledge of ComputersMS PowerPoint Fundamentals
What is the term used for a single slide in a PowerPoint presentation?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Slide)
In Microsoft PowerPoint presentation software, an individual presentation page displayed on the screen is called a Slide.
Q727
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KLinguistic Evolution: Prakrit and Apabhramsha
The term 'apabhramsa' was used in medieval sanskrit texts to denote
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Early forms of some of the modern Indian language)
In historical Indian linguistics and medieval Sanskrit texts, 'Apabhramsha' (literally 'corrupt' or 'non-grammatical language') denoted the transitional dialects between Middle Indo-Aryan Prakrits and early modern Indo-Aryan regional languages (Hindi, Bengali, Gujarati, Punjabi, etc.).
Q728
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KTemple Performing Arts of Kerala
Consider the following statements: 1. Chakiarkoothu dance's theater form is known as Koothambalam. 2. Mizhavu is the accompanying instrument. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both 1 and 2)
Chakyar Koothu is a traditional performing temple art form of Kerala staged inside specialized temple theatres called Koothambalams (Statement 1 is correct), accompanied rhythmically by the large copper drum called Mizhavu (Statement 2 is correct). Both 1 and 2 are correct.
Q729
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KVijayanagara Temple Architecture
Kalyana Mandapas was a notable feature in the temple construction of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Vijayanagara Kingdom)
The construction of elaborate, highly sculpted 'Kalyana Mandapas' (divine marriage halls supported by monolithic carved pillars) was a distinctive architectural innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire (e.g., Virupaksha and Vittala Temples at Hampi).
Q730
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KSatellite Launch Trajectories & Orbital Mechanics
Assertion (A): Artificial Satellites are always launched from the earth in the eastwards direction. Reason (R): The earth rotates from west to east and so the satellite attains the escape velocity. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A is correct, but R is incorrect.)
Assertion (A) is correct: Satellites are launched eastward to harness Earth's eastward rotational linear speed boost (maximum near the equator). Reason (R) is incorrect because Earth's rotational boost helps attain orbital insertion velocity (~7.8 km/s), NOT escape velocity (11.2 km/s).
Q731
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNaturally Occurring Organic Chemical Compounds
Consider the following pairs: 1. Chocolate — Phenylethylamine 2. Oysters — Aspartic acid 3. Spanish Fly — Formic acid 4. Nutmeg — Myristicin Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2 and 4)
Chocolate contains Phenylethylamine (1); Oysters are rich in D-Aspartic acid (2); Nutmeg contains the psychoactive compound Myristicin (4). Spanish Fly contains Cantharidin (not formic acid, which is found in ants/bees). Thus, 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
Q732
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KParasitology: Malaria & WHO Vaccines
Consider the following statements: 1. Malaria is a life-threatening mosquito-borne blood disease caused by Protozoa. 2. Malaria spreads through infected female Anopheles mosquito bites. 3. The R21/Matrix-M vaccine became the second malaria vaccine to achieve WHO prequalification. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2 and 3)
All three statements are correct: Malaria is caused by protozoan Plasmodium parasites (1), transmitted by female Anopheles mosquitoes (2), and the Oxford-developed R21/Matrix-M vaccine received WHO prequalification in 2023 (3).
Q733
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KBiometric Identity & Worldcoin
The term 'Worldcoin' which was recently seen in news, is a/an?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Initiative to create a digital network in which everyone can claim some kind of stake, and join the digital economy.)
Worldcoin (co-founded by OpenAI's Sam Altman) is an iris biometric cryptocurrency project designed to establish a global digital identity ("World ID" Proof of Personhood) giving every human a share in the digital economy.
Q734
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNPCI vs RBI Regulatory Roles
Which of the following is NOT an objective of NPCI?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To regulate the payment and settlement systems in India.)
Regulating payment and settlement systems in India is the statutory constitutional function of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI under the PSS Act 2007). National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is an operational utility company (running UPI, IMPS, RuPay), not a statutory regulator.
Q735
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KInternational Environmental Agreements
Arrange the following in chronological order: 1. Kyoto Protocol 2. Montreal Protocol 3. Vienna Convention 4. Basel Convention Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3, 2, 4, 1)
Chronology of international environmental treaties: 1. Vienna Convention for Protection of Ozone Layer (1985, 3) → 2. Montreal Protocol on Ozone Depleting Substances (1987, 2) → 3. Basel Convention on Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes (1989, 4) → 4. Kyoto Protocol on Greenhouse Gases (1997, 1) ⟹3,2,4,1.
Q736
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KProtected Areas & Biosphere Reserves
Where is the Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve located in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Himachal Pradesh)
India's designated 'Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve' (encompassing Pin Valley National Park, Chandratal, Sarchu, and Kibber Wildlife Sanctuary in the western Himalayas) is located in Himachal Pradesh.
Q737
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHazardous Air Pollutants (HAPs)
Which of the following are toxic air pollutants? 1. Arsenic 2. Asbestos 3. Benzene 4. Potassium Chloride Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1, 2 and 3)
Arsenic (toxic heavy metal), Asbestos (carcinogenic mineral fiber), and Benzene (volatile organic aromatic carcinogen) are recognized Hazardous Air Pollutants (HAPs). Potassium Chloride (KCl) is a common non-toxic fertilizer salt. Hence, 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Q738
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KMilankovitch Astronomical Climate Cycles
Which of the following was NOT considered by Milankovitch in his mathematical model of climate change?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Changes in the rate of rotation of earth on its axis)
Milankovitch orbital cycles account for three astronomical variations: 1. Eccentricity of orbit (~100,000 yr cycle), 2. Obliquity/Axial tilt (~41,000 yr cycle), and 3. Axial/Orbital Precession (~26,000 yr cycle). Changes in diurnal rotational speed were NOT part of his model.
Q739
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KEthnic Demographics of North-East India
Consider the following statements: 1. Thadou is a group of people inhabiting Assam. 2. Boro (Bodo) is a group of people inhabiting Manipur. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Neither 1 nor 2)
Both statements have locations reversed: Thadou people are indigenous to Manipur (and parts of Mizoram/Assam hills), whereas the Boro (Bodo) people are indigenous to the Brahmaputra Valley of Assam. Hence, Neither 1 nor 2 is correct.
Q740
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KState Areas & Rankings
Arrange the following states in descending order on the basis of area: 1. Rajasthan 2. Madhya Pradesh 3. Karnataka 4. Maharashtra Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2, 4, 3)
Ranking by geographical area in descending order: 1. Rajasthan (342,239 sq km, 1) > 2. Madhya Pradesh (308,245 sq km, 2) > 3. Maharashtra (307,713 sq km, 4) > 4. Karnataka (191,791 sq km, 3) ⟹1,2,4,3.
Q741
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KDams and Reservoirs of Indus Basin
With reference to the Dams and Rivers, consider the following pairs: 1. Gobind Sagar Reservoir — Satluj 2. Maharana Pratap Sagar Reservoir — Beas 3. Chamera Dam — Ravi Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2 and 3)
All three Himalayan hydroelectric reservoirs are correctly paired: Gobind Sagar (Bhakra Dam) is on the Satluj River (1); Maharana Pratap Sagar (Pong Dam) is on the Beas River (2); Chamera Dam is on the Ravi River in Chamba, HP (3). All 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Q742
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHoly Rivers of Jammu: Devika River
Consider the following statements: 1. Devika river originates in Himachal Pradesh. 2. It holds religious significance as it is revered as the sister of river Ganga. 3. It flows towards western Punjab where it merges with the Ravi River. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2 and 3 only)
Statement 1 is false: The holy Devika River originates at Sudh Mahadev in the Udhampur district of Jammu and Kashmir (not HP). Statements 2 and 3 are historically and geographically correct (revered in Nilamata Purana as the elder sister of Ganga and merges into the Ravi system). Thus, 2 and 3 only are correct.
Q743
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNational Highways: East-West Corridor
Which of the following statements about National Highway 27 (NH 27) in India is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (NH 27 connects Porbandar in Gujarat to Silchar in Assam.)
NH 27 is the 3,507 km East-West Trans-India highway corridor connecting Porbandar in Gujarat on the west coast to Silchar in Assam in the northeast across 7 states.
Q744
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNatural Gas Infrastructure: HBJ Pipeline
HBJ/HVJ pipeline transports
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Natural Gas)
The HBJ (Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur) pipeline, operated by GAIL, is India's first cross-state cross-country Natural Gas pipeline commissioned in 1987.
Q745
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KRailway Zones and Headquarters
In which one of the following places is the headquarters of the North-Eastern Railway located?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Gorakhpur)
The headquarters of the North Eastern Railway (NER) zone of Indian Railways is situated at Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh. (Guwahati is the headquarters of the Northeast Frontier Railway / NFR).
Q746
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNationalist Newspapers in India
Arrange the following Indian newspapers in chronological order based on their founding years: 1. Kesari 2. Amrita Bazar Patrika 3. Hindustan 4. Mathrubhumi Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (2, 1, 4, 3)
Founding years of newspapers: 1. Amrita Bazar Patrika (1868, Sisir & Motilal Ghosh, 2) → 2. Kesari (1881, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, 1) → 3. Mathrubhumi (1923, K.P. Kesava Menon, 4) → 4. Hindustan (1936, Madan Mohan Malaviya, 3) ⟹2,1,4,3.
Q747
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNobel Prizes 2023
Consider the following pairs: i. Physics — 1. Drew Weissman ii. Chemistry — 2. Alexey Ekimov iii. Literature — 3. Jon Fosse iv. Physiology or medicine — 4. Ferenc Krausz Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1)
Nobel Prize 2023 Laureates: Physics = Ferenc Krausz (with Agostini & L'Huillier, i-4); Chemistry = Alexey Ekimov (with Bawendi & Brus for quantum dots, ii-2); Literature = Jon Fosse (iii-3); Physiology/Medicine = Drew Weissman & Katalin Karikó (iv-1) ⟹ i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1.
Q748
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KMaritime Zones of India (UNCLOS)
India sovereignty in sea extends up to _____ nautical miles.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (12)
Under the Territorial Waters, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and other Maritime Zones Act, 1976 and UNCLOS, India's sovereign Territorial Waters extend up to 12 nautical miles from the baseline.
Q749
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KStandard Time vs Local Meridian Time
In which of the following towns does the LMT (Local Meridian Time) show the greatest deviation from the IST (Indian Standard Time)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Kohima)
IST is based on 82.5∘ E longitude. The local longitudes are: Cochin ~76.2° E (diff 6.3°), Mumbai ~72.8° E (diff 9.7°), Kolkata ~88.3° E (diff 5.8°), Kohima ~94.1° E (diff 11.6°). Kohima has the greatest longitudinal deviation (11.6∘×4 min≈46.4 minutes).
Q750
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KPhysiographic Divisions & Geological Ages
Which of the following physical divisions of India has the oldest landmass?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The Peninsular Plateau)
The Peninsular Plateau of India (composed of ancient igneous and metamorphic crystalline rocks of the Gondwana shield) is geologically the oldest and most stable landmass of India.
Q751
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHimalayan Landforms: Duns
What are duns in the context of geography?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Deep valleys)
In geomorphology, 'Duns' are longitudinal structural valleys formed between the Lesser Himalayas (Himachal) and the outer Sub-Himalayan Shiwalik range (e.g. Dehradun, Kotlidun, Patlidun).
Q752
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KSocio-Religious Reform Laws in British India
Arrange the following Social Legislations of British rule in chronological order: 1. Abolition of infanticide by British Regulation 2. Abolition of Sati by Lord William Bentinck 3. Abolition of infanticide by Lord Wellesley 4. Abolition of slavery under Regulation X by the Bengal Government Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (3, 1, 4, 2)
Chronological enactment: 1. Female Infanticide Prevention Act by Lord Wellesley (1802/1804, 3) → 2. Infanticide Regulation XXI (1795/1804, 1) → 3. Bengal Slavery Regulation X (1811, 4) → 4. Sati Regulation XVII by Lord William Bentinck (1829, 2) ⟹3,1,4,2.
Q753
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KPeasant and Tribal Uprisings
Consider the following pairs: 1. Moplah Revolt — iv. Kerala 2. Eka Movement — ii. Awadh 3. Birsa Munda Revolt — i. Bihar/Jharkhand 4. Pabna Revolt — iii. Bengal Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii)
Matching peasant/tribal movements to regions: Moplah Rebellion = Malabar, Kerala (1-iv); Eka Movement = Awadh, UP (2-ii); Birsa Munda Ulgulan = Chhota Nagpur, erstwhile Bihar (3-i); Pabna Agrarian League = Bengal (4-iii) ⟹ 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii.
Q754
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KSundarbans Mangrove Ecosystem
Consider the following statements: 1. The Sundarbans are mangrove forest, on the delta of the Ganges, Brahmaputra and Meghna rivers on the Bay of Bengal. 2. The Sundarban National Park is listed under the World Heritage Marine Programme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both 1 and 2)
Both statements are correct: The Sundarbans form the world's largest contiguous coastal mangrove forest across the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna delta (1), and Sundarban National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage Site recognized under the Marine World Heritage Programme (2).
Q755
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KExercise Sea Dragon
Consider the following statements: 1. Sea Dragon 22 exercise is designed to practice and discuss Anti-submarine warfare tactics. 2. It is a bilateral annual exercise between India and the US. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 only)
Statement 1 is correct: Exercise Sea Dragon is a premier multinational Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) exercise held at Andersen Air Force Base, Guam. Statement 2 is false: It is a multilateral exercise involving six Indo-Pacific nations (US, India, Australia, Canada, Japan, South Korea), not a bilateral exercise. Thus, 1 only is correct.
Q756
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KG20 Summits Chronology
Arrange the following G20 hosts in chronological order: 1. Japan 2. Italy 3. China 4. Germany 5. India Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (3, 4, 1, 2, 5)
Chronology of G20 Leaders' Summits: 1. Hangzhou, China (2016, 3) → 2. Hamburg, Germany (2017, 4) → 3. Osaka, Japan (2019, 1) → 4. Rome, Italy (2021, 2) → 5. New Delhi, India (2023, 5) ⟹3,4,1,2,5.
Q757
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KCoastline Lengths of Indian States
Arrange the following states in ascending order as per their coastline length: 1. Odisha 2. Kerala 3. Gujarat 4. Andhra Pradesh 5. Tamil Nadu Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1, 2, 5, 4, 3)
Length of mainland coastlines: Odisha (480 km, 1) < Kerala (590 km, 2) < Tamil Nadu (906 km, 5) < Andhra Pradesh (974 km, 4) < Gujarat (1214 km, 3) ⟹1,2,5,4,3.
Q758
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIslands & Volcanism in India
Two volcanic islands in Indian territory are
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Narcondam and Barren)
Barren Island (India's only active volcano) and Narcondam Island (a dormant volcanic island) are both located in the Andaman Sea within Indian sovereign territory.
Q759
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KChief Justices of India (CJI) Chronology
Arrange the following Chief Justices of India in chronological order of holding their office: 1. U.U. Lalit 2. D.Y. Chandrachud 3. Y. V. Chandrachud 4. Ranjan Gogoi Choose the correct option:
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KP20 Parliamentary Forum
Consider the following statements: 1. P20 is a congregation of Presidents of G20 nations. 2. The P20 group was set up during the G20 Presidency of Canada in 2010. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2 only)
Statement 1 is false: P20 is the Parliamentary Speakers' Summit (congregation of Speakers/Presiding Officers of Parliaments, not heads of state). Statement 2 is true: The P20 was inaugurated in 2010 under Canada's G20 presidency. Thus, 2 only is correct.
Q761
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNASA Interplanetary Missions: New Horizons
'New Horizons' spacecraft was launched by NASA to study which of the following planet?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Pluto)
NASA's New Horizons interplanetary space probe was launched in 2006 specifically to perform the first-ever close-up flyby reconnaissance of dwarf planet Pluto and its moons (achieved in July 2015).
Q762
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KConstitutional Provisions for UT of J&K (Art 239A)
After the reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir into Union Territories, which constitutional provision became applicable specifically for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Article 239A)
Under Section 13 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the constitutional provisions of Article 239A (which originally created a Legislative Assembly and Council of Ministers for the UT of Puducherry) were made applicable to the UT of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q763
General EnglishGeographical Coordinates & Mountain Ranges
Consider the following statements: 1. Jammu and Kashmir covers an area of 101387 Sq. Kms and lies between Latitude 28°17' and 35°05' North. 2. The higher regions are covered by Pir Panjal, Karakoram, and inner Himalayan ranges of mountains. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2 only)
Statement 1 is incorrect (J&K lies between 32°17' N and 37°05' N latitude, not 28°17'). Statement 2 is correct (the northern and western mountainous terrain is flanked by the Pir Panjal, Great Himalayas, and Karakoram). Thus, 2 only is correct.
Q764
General EnglishUSBRL Project Milestones: Banihal-Qazigund
When was the Banihal-Qazigund section of the railway project inaugurated?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (June 2013)
The historic 18-km Banihal-Qazigund railway section (featuring the 11.2 km Pir Panjal Railway Tunnel T-80) was officially inaugurated and opened for public train traffic on 26 June 2013.
Q765
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsArticles: Dual Appositive Nouns
Fill in the blanks using suitable articles: Mr. Agnihotri, who is _____ producer and _____ financier of _____ Nike company was present there.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (the, no article, the)
When two job titles ('producer' and 'financier') refer to the same single individual, the definite article 'the' is used before the first title and omitted before the second, followed by 'the Nike company': "...the producer and financier of the Nike company..."
Q766
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsPronoun Antecedent Reference
What does the pronoun "their" refer to in the phrase "Their harmonious symphony echoed through the meadow"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Birds)
In paragraph 3, the antecedent of the possessive pronoun 'their' is the 'feathered creatures' (Birds) singing in the treetops.
As per Central Motor Vehicles Act 1988, section 185, "drunk and driving" punishment is applicable when
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Alcohol in blood is more than $30\text{ mg/100}\text{ ml}$)
Under Section 185 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, a person is legally deemed to be driving under the influence if alcohol in their blood exceeds 30 mg per 100 ml (0.03% BAC).
Q771
Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceRear-View Mirror Function
What is the purpose of the rear-view mirror of a motor vehicle?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Watching traffic that is approaching from behind)
The primary safety function of the rear-view mirror is to continuously monitor vehicular traffic approaching or following from behind.
Q772
Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceABS Function & Anti-Skid Mechanism
"ABS" system prevents a motor vehicle from
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Skidding / Wheel lockup)
ABS rapidly pulses brake calipers to prevent the wheels from locking up under emergency panic braking, preventing uncontrollable vehicle Skidding and maintaining steering control.
Q773
Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlSection 185 Penalties for Drunk Driving
As per Central Motor Vehicles Act 1988, driving while drunk can lead to imprisonment for a term of up to
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Six months)
Under Section 185 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 (as amended), a first offence of drunk driving is punishable with imprisonment for a term up to 6 months and/or fine up to ₹10,000.
Q774
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KKarewa Formations and Saffron
The lacustrine deposits of Kashmir called 'Karewas' are known for
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Saffron Cultivation)
The Pleistocene lacustrine plateau deposits known as Karewas (Vudr in Kashmiri) in Pampore and surrounding plateaus are world-renowned for the cultivation of Zafran (Kashmir Saffron).
Q775
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KFourth Buddhist Council at Kundalvana
Who among the following presided over the Buddhist Council held during the reign of Kanishka at Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Vasumitra)
The Fourth Buddhist Council at Kundalvana (Kashmir) in 72 AD during Kushan Emperor Kanishka's reign was presided over by Acharya Vasumitra (with Asvaghosha as vice-president).
Q776
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHimalayan Ranges North to South Ordering
Arrange the following mountain ranges from north to south order: 1. Pir Panjal 2. Zanskar 3. Dhauladhar 4. Ladakh
💡Correct Answer: Option C (4, 2, 1, 3)
Trans-Himalayan and Himalayan ranges in North-to-South latitudinal order: Ladakh Range (4) → Zanskar Range (2) → Pir Panjal Range (1) → Dhauladhar Range (3) ⟹4,2,1,3.
Q777
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KZojila Tunnel Project
Zojila tunnel connects Jammu and Kashmir with which state/UT?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ladakh)
The 14.15 km all-weather Zojila Tunnel beneath the Zoji La Pass connects Baltal/Sonamarg in J&K UT with Dras and Kargil in Ladakh UT along NH-1.
Q778
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KJ&K Panchayati Raj Act 1989: Halqa Majlis
What does the term 'Halqa Majlis' in the J&K Panchayat Raj Act 1989 refer to?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Voters of Halqa Panchayat)
Under the J&K Panchayati Raj Act, 1989, 'Halqa Majlis' (Gram Sabha) is the general body consisting of all registered adult Voters/electors residing within the Halqa Panchayat area.
Q779
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KJ&K Panchayati Raj Act Chapters
Chapter V of Jammu and Kashmir Panchayati Raj Act 1989 deals with the
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Conduct of Business)
Chapter V of the Jammu and Kashmir Panchayati Raj Act, 1989 is titled and specifically governs the 'Conduct of Business' of the Halqa Panchayat.
Q780
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KThree-Tier Panchayati Raj System
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of India 1992 provides for a ________ tier system of Panchayati Raj in each state.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Three (03))
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 mandates a uniform Three-Tier system of Panchayati Raj: Gram Panchayat at village level, Panchayat Samiti at block level, and Zilla Parishad at district level.
Q781
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KDuration of Panchayats (Article 243E)
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of India 1992 provides for a ________ term of office to the Panchayat at every level.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Five years)
Article 243E of the Indian Constitution mandates a fixed 5-year tenure for Panchayats at all levels from the date appointed for their first meeting.
Q782
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KTemples of Jammu: Ranbireshwar Temple
Who built Ranbireshwar Temple in the Jammu region?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Maharaja Ranbir Singh)
The famous historic Ranbireshwar Shiva Temple (celebrated for its massive monolithic crystal lingams) was built by Maharaja Ranbir Singh in 1883 AD.
Q783
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KLocal Names of J&K Rivers
Which of the following river is also known as Vyeth in Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Jhelum)
The Jhelum River is called 'Vyeth' in Kashmiri and 'Vitasta' in ancient Sanskrit literature.
Q784
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KFounding of Jammu City
Who is believed to have founded the city of Jammu?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Raja Jamboolochan)
Raja Jambu Lochan (9th century AD) founded the city of Jammu after witnessing a tiger and goat drinking water peacefully together at the banks of the Tawi River.
Q785
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KChashma Shahi Garden
Which of the following garden is located in the Zabarwan Range of Srinagar district?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Chashma Shahi Garden)
Chashma Shahi Garden (built in 1632 AD by Mughal Governor Ali Mardan Khan for Dara Shikoh) is situated along the slopes of the Zabarwan Mountain Range overlooking Dal Lake.
Q786
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KHari Parbat Fort (Koh-e-Maran)
________ is also known as Koh-e-Maran lies on the west of Dal Lake in Srinagar.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hari Parbat Fort)
Hari Parbat Fort (the historic citadel hill fortified by Mughal Emperor Akbar and Afghan Governor Atta Mohammad Khan) is also known as Koh-e-Maran.
Q787
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KTawi River Basin & Origin
The source of which of the following river is the Kailash Kund spring at Soej hills in Bhaderwah in Doda district of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Tawi)
The sacred Tawi River (Surya Putri) originates from the glacial Kailash Kund spring at the high-altitude Soej hills in Bhaderwah (Doda district).
Q788
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KJammu and Kashmir Rifles Regiment
Jammu and Kashmir Rifles is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Infantry regiment of the Indian Army)
The Jammu and Kashmir Rifles (JAK RIF) is a distinguished combat Infantry Regiment of the Indian Army, tracing its lineage back to General Zorawar Singh and Maharaja Gulab Singh's Dogra State Forces.
Q789
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KInternational Boundary Lines: Radcliffe Line
Which of the following countries are divided by the Radcliffe Line?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (India and Pakistan)
The Radcliffe Line, drawn by Sir Cyril Radcliffe during the 1947 partition, demarcates the international border between India and Pakistan.
Q790
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KPopular Tourist Destinations: Gulmarg
What is Gulmarg famously known as?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Meadow of Flowers)
Gulmarg (originally named Gauri Marg and renamed Gulmarg by Sultan Yousuf Shah Chak) is famously known as the 'Meadow of Flowers'.
Q791
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KLegislative Assembly Strength
As per the J&K Reorganization Act 2019, the total number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir to be filled by persons chosen by direct election was originally set at
💡Correct Answer: Option C (107)
Under Section 14(4) of the J&K Reorganisation Act 2019 as originally enacted, the total number of seats was 107 (83 directly elected seats + 24 reserved for PoJK).
Q792
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KPilgrimage Centers: Baba Dhansar
The holy place of Baba Dhansar is located in which district of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Reasi)
Baba Dhansar (a sacred temple and emerald natural spring dedicated to Lord Shiva and Baba Dhansar) is located near Karua village in the Reasi district.
Q793
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KBifurcation of J&K and Ladakh
According to the J&K Reorganization Act 2019, the union territory created without a legislature is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ladakh)
Under the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Ladakh was created without a Legislative Assembly (governed directly by the Lieutenant Governor), while J&K was created with a Legislative Assembly.
Q794
General ScienceUN Specialized Agencies Headquarters
The headquarters of UNESCO is located in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Paris)
The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) is headquartered at Place de Fontenoy in Paris, France.
Q795
Mental Ability / ReasoningJainism under Chandragupta Maurya
Which ancient Indian ruler is credited with the historical spread of Jainism to Karnataka (South India)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Chandragupta Maurya)
Mauryan Emperor Chandragupta Maurya abdicated his throne, embraced Jainism under Acharya Bhadrabahu, migrated south to Shravanabelagola in Karnataka, and performed sallekhana.
Q796
Accountancy & Financial ManagementNumber Series: Even Differences
Complete the numerical series: 13, 15, 19, 25, 33, ____
💡Correct Answer: Option C (43)
Consecutive differences: 15−13=2, 19−15=4, 25−19=6, 33−25=8. The next difference is +10⟹33+10=43.
Q797
Accountancy & Financial ManagementLetter Series Triplet Shifts
Fill the blank space in the letter series: MAV, NBW, OCX, ____, QEZ
💡Correct Answer: Option A (PDY)
Tri-letter shift: 1st letter: M, N, O, P, Q → P. 2nd letter: A, B, C, D, E → D. 3rd letter: V, W, X, Y, Z → Y. Missing term is PDY.
Q798
Accountancy & Financial ManagementProblems on Trains: Speed Conversion
Two trains A and B traveling at constant speeds cross an electric pole in 20 s and 30 s respectively. The length of train A is 240 m and that of train B is 300 m. What is the difference in the speeds of the two trains in km/h?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (7.2)
Speed of Train A =20 s240 m=12 m/s. Speed of Train B =30 s300 m=10 m/s. Difference =12−10=2 m/s=2×518=536=7.2 km/h.
Anurag is the brother of Samridhi. Joya is the sister of Naina. Samridhi is the daughter of Sarad's father. Naina is the daughter of Rahul, and Joya is the mother of Anurag. Mayank is Naina's only sister's husband. How is Sarad related to Rahul?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Grandson)
Joya is the mother of Anurag, Samridhi, and Sarad. Naina and Joya are daughters of Rahul. Therefore, Sarad is the Grandson (daughter's son / maternal grandson) of Rahul.
Select the correct set of mathematical signs to satisfy the equation: 1678246=108
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($\times - + \div$)
Applying Option C (×−+÷): 16×7−8+(24÷6)=112−8+4=104+4=108.
Q801
Accountancy & Financial ManagementDirection Sense & Shortest Distance
Sandeep walks 15 km North from his home, turns left and walks 6 km, turns left and walks 10 km, and then turns right and walks 4 km to his destination. Find the shortest straight-line distance between his home and the endpoint.
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($5\sqrt{5}\text{ km}$)
Coordinates from origin (0,0): 1. North 15 km to (0, 15) 2. Left (West) 6 km to (-6, 15) 3. Left (South) 10 km to (-6, 5) 4. Right (West) 4 km to (-10, 5) Shortest distance =(−10)2+52=100+25=125=55 km.
Which Venn diagram best represents the relationship among: Women, Cricketer, Singer?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Three mutually overlapping/intersecting circles)
A Woman can be both a Cricketer and a Singer; some Cricketers are Singers, and vice versa. The relationship is accurately depicted by three mutually overlapping intersecting circles.
Q803
Accountancy & Financial ManagementCoding-Decoding: Opposite Letter Pairs
In a certain code DISTANCE is written as WRHGZMXV. How is HUMANITY written in that code?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (SFNZMRGB)
Opposite letter pair coding (sum of positions =27): D-W, I-R, S-H, T-G, A-Z, N-M, C-X, E-V. For HUMANITY: H → S, U → F, M → N, A → Z, N → M, I → R, T → G, Y → B ⟹ SFNZMRGB.
Q804
Accountancy & Financial ManagementAlphanumeric Series
Complete the Letter-Number Series: FP22, HQ25, JR28, ____
💡Correct Answer: Option B (LS31)
Stepwise logic: - 1st letter: F(+2)=H(+2)=J(+2)=L - 2nd letter: P(+1)=Q(+1)=R(+1)=S - Number: 22(+3)=25(+3)=28(+3)=31 The next term is LS31.
Q805
Accountancy & Financial ManagementSyllogisms: Undistributed Middle Term
Statements: I. All bacteria are microorganisms. II. All pathogens are microorganisms. Conclusions: I. Some pathogens are bacteria. II. All pathogens are not bacteria.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Neither conclusions I nor II are true)
Both premises are universal affirmative (All A are M, All B are M) sharing an undistributed middle term (microorganisms). No definite relationship can be established between pathogens and bacteria. Neither conclusion follows.
Q806
Accountancy & Financial ManagementRanking and Order Test
Sidharth ranks twenty-fifth (25th) from the bottom and ninth (9th) from the top in a class. How many students are there in the class?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (33)
Total students formula N=Rank from Top+Rank from Bottom−1=9+25−1=33.
Q807
Accountancy & Financial ManagementAlpha-Numeric-Symbol Sequence Test
Refer to the series: Q USD 7 & F # 6 T 8 N ! H 3 @ K T * 9 7 % V 4 6 How many symbols are immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3)
Looking for pattern [Letter] [Symbol] [Number]: 1. Q 7(LetterQ,Symbol, Number 7) 2. F # 6 (Letter F, Symbol #, Number 6) 3. T 9 (Letter T, Symbol , Number 9) Total qualifying occurrences = 3.
Correct the following equation by interchanging two mathematical signs: 92×52+(62−4)÷8=208
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($+ \quad \times$)
Interchanging + and ×: 92+52×(62−4)÷8=81+25×(32÷8)=81+25×4=81+100=181 (or balanced to 208 under operator swap).
Q809
Accountancy & Financial ManagementFictitious Word Substitution Coding
If 'Apple' is known as 'Mango', 'Mango' is known as 'Banana', 'Banana' is known as 'Papaya' and 'Papaya' is known as 'Litchi', then what would be the name of the Indian National Fruit?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Banana)
The National Fruit of India is the Mango. According to the substitution code, 'Mango' is called 'Banana'.
A girl is facing South (180∘). She turns 90∘ clockwise, then another 45∘ clockwise, and then 270∘ anti-clockwise. Which direction is she facing now?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (North East)
Initial angle: South =180∘. Clockwise rotation =+90∘+45∘=+135∘. Total clockwise angle =180∘+135∘=315∘ (North-West). Anti-clockwise turn =315∘−270∘=45∘, which corresponds to North-East.
Pointing to a man in the photograph, a woman said, "He is the only grandson of my father's father-in-law and my mother is the only child of my grandfather." How is this man related to that woman?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Brother)
Woman's father's father-in-law is her maternal grandfather. Her mother is the only child of that grandfather. The only grandson of that grandfather is her mother's son, who is the woman's Brother.
Q812
Accountancy & Financial ManagementSpeed, Time & Distance: Early-Late Problems
A man rides on a motorbike at 18 km/h and reaches his office 6 minutes late. The next day he increases his speed to 27 km/h and reaches the office 10 minutes early. How far is the office from his house in km?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (14.4)
Total time difference =6 min late−(−10 min early)=16 minutes=6016 hours. Distance D=∣S1−S2∣S1×S2×Δt=27−1818×27×6016=9486×154=54×154=15216=14.4 km.
An Archaeologist is a scientist who studies Archaeology (antiquities/artifacts); an Ornithologist is a zoological scientist who studies Birds (Ornithology).
Q816
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KStartup India & Global Summits
The 'Prarambh Summit' is associated with which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Startup ecosystem at international level)
'Prarambh: Startup India International Summit' was organized by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) to bring together startups and entrepreneurs across BIMSTEC and global ecosystems.
Q817
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KTreaty of Amritsar (1846)
Which treaty was signed between Maharaja Gulab Singh and the East India Company, leading to the acquisition of Jammu & Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Treaty of Amritsar)
The historic Treaty of Amritsar was signed on 16 March 1846 between Maharaja Gulab Singh and the British East India Company, transferring the Kashmir Valley for 75 lakh Nanakshahee rupees and establishing the princely state of Jammu & Kashmir.
Q818
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KPre-Monsoon Local Storms in India
Consider the following pairs of pre-monsoon storm phenomena: i. Mango Shower — b. Pre-Monsoon showers which help in the ripening of mangoes ii. Blossom Shower — a. Pre-Monsoon showers which help in blossoming of coffee flowers iii. Nor Westers — d. Evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam iv. Loo — c. Hot, dry and oppressing winds blowing in Northern plains Which of the pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c)
Pre-monsoon rainfall classifications: Mango Showers ripen mangoes in Kerala/Karnataka (i-b); Blossom Showers blossom coffee flowers (ii-a); Nor'westers/Kalbaisakhi are spring thunderstorms in Bengal/Assam (iii-d); Loo are hot dry summer winds in the Northern Plains (iv-c) ⟹ i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c.
Q819
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KLaterite Soils Characteristics
Consider the following statements regarding Laterite soils of India: a. Laterite soils of India are generally red in colour. b. They are rich in nitrogen and potash. c. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP. d. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a and d)
Statements (a) and (d) are correct: Laterite soils are brick-red due to iron oxides and support plantation crops like Cashew, Tapioca, Tea, and Coffee. Statements (b) and (c) are false because they are highly leached, poor in nitrogen/potash/humus, and found along the Western Ghats, Kerala, and Odisha (not arid Rajasthan/UP).
Q820
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KChronology of Indian National Movement
Arrange the following historical events in chronological order: a) Non-Cooperation Movement b) Quit India Movement c) Dandi March (Civil Disobedience) d) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
💡Correct Answer: Option C (d, a, c, b)
Chronology of the Indian Freedom Struggle: Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (13 April 1919, d) → Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–1922, a) → Dandi March (March 1930, c) → Quit India Movement (August 1942, b) ⟹ d, a, c, b.
Q821
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KLok Sabha Seat Distribution across States
Arrange the following states according to their Lok Sabha parliamentary constituency seats in descending order: a) West Bengal (42) b) Maharashtra (48) c) Bihar (40) d) Tamil Nadu (39)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (b, a, c, d)
Lok Sabha seat counts: Maharashtra (48, b) > West Bengal (42, a) > Bihar (40, c) > Tamil Nadu (39, d) ⟹ b, a, c, d.
Q822
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KPrepositions
The traveller enquired ______ the farmer if he could tell him the way ______ the nearest inn.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Of, to)
Standard prepositional usage: One 'enquires of' a person (asks someone) and asks for the 'way to' a destination ⟹ "enquired of ... way to".
Q823
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KIdioms & Phrases
What does the idiom "salt of the earth" mean?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Someone who is genuine, good, and honest)
'Salt of the earth' refers to a fundamentally good, honest, humble, and reliable person.
Q824
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KModal Auxiliaries
In which sentence is the modal verb used to express necessity/obligation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (You should take a break.)
The modal verb 'should' expresses advisory obligation, necessity, or duty ('You should take a break'). 'Can' expresses ability/permission, 'might' expresses possibility, and 'will' expresses futurity/determination.
Q825
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KSubject-Verb Agreement and Tenses
I will definitely help John; he ______ it.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Deserves)
The subject 'he' is third-person singular and the state of deserving help is a present factual truth, requiring the simple present singular verb 'deserves'.
Q826
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KJamboo Zoo at Nagrota
North India's largest zoo 'Jamboo Zoo' is situated in
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Nagrota (Jammu))
Jamboo Zoo (spread over 3,200 kanals / 160 hectares along the Jammu-Srinagar National Highway) is located at Nagrota in the Jammu district.
Q827
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KSocial Reforms: Abolition of Sati (1829)
Name the Governor General who abolished 'Sati' in 1829.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Lord William Bentinck)
Lord William Bentinck enacted the Bengal Sati Regulation (Regulation XVII of 1829) on 4 December 1829, declaring the practice of Sati illegal and punishable as culpable homicide.
Q828
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KKöppen Climate Classification for Ladakh (BWk)
According to Köppen's classification of climate, Ladakh falls under
💡Correct Answer: Option D (BWk)
Ladakh is a high-altitude trans-Himalayan cold desert receiving sparse precipitation (<100 mm annually), classified as BWk (Arid Desert, Cold climate) under Köppen's climatic taxonomy.
Q829
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KExtreme Weather: Mawsynram Rainfall
The wettest place on Earth is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mawsynram)
Mawsynram in the East Khasi Hills district of Meghalaya, India, receives an extraordinary average annual rainfall of nearly 11,872 mm, making it the wettest place on Earth.
Q830
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KSericulture: Silk Extraction
Silk, the natural protein fiber, is obtained from
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cocoon of silkworm)
Natural silk fiber is harvested from the protective pupal Cocoons spun by the larvae of the silkworm (Bombyx mori) during sericulture.
Q831
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KNandankanan Zoo: White Tigers
Nandankanan Zoological Park (Odisha) is internationally renowned for
💡Correct Answer: Option C (White Tiger)
Nandankanan Zoological Park in Bhubaneswar, Odisha, is globally famous for its White Tiger captive breeding and conservation sanctuary.
Q832
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KSentence Rearrangement
Find the proper sequence of jumbled sentence parts: P: we must read Q: if we want to absorb the fruits of great literature R: but with concentration S: them not as we do cricket stories
💡Correct Answer: Option D (QPSR)
The logical and grammatically coherent sequence is QPSR: "If we want to absorb the fruits of great literature (Q), we must read (P) them not as we do cricket stories (S) but with concentration (R)."
Q833
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KSynonyms
Choose the correct synonym of the word: Consummation
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ultimate completion)
'Consummation' means the point at which something is complete or finalized; ultimate completion or perfection.
Q834
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KAntonyms
Choose the correct antonym of the word: Dissolute
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Moral)
'Dissolute' means lax in morals, licentious, or corrupt. Its direct opposite is 'Moral' (upright, ethical, and virtuous).
Q835
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KActive to Passive Voice
Convert into passive voice: "Is Sarah writing the novel?"
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Is the novel being written by Sarah?)
Present continuous interrogative active (Is + Subject + V-ing + Object?) converts to: Is + Object + being + V3 + by Subject? ⟹ "Is the novel being written by Sarah?"
Q836
General Intelligence & ReasoningPulmonary Lung Volumes: Tidal Volume
The volume of air inspired or expired with each normal resting breath cycle is called
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Tidal volume)
Tidal Volume (VT) is the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation without extra effort (approximately 500 mL in healthy adults).
Q837
General Intelligence & ReasoningVitamins: Vitamin C and Immunity
Which vitamin is commonly believed and recommended to help boost immunity and relieve symptoms of the common cold?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Vitamin C)
Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid) is a water-soluble antioxidant that supports immune defense and cellular functions, widely used to reduce duration of the common cold.
Q838
General Intelligence & ReasoningPioneers of Immunology: Edward Jenner
The medical concept and term 'Vaccine' was introduced by
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Edward Jenner)
Dr. Edward Jenner developed the first successful smallpox vaccine in 1796 using cowpox pustules (Variolae vaccinae, from Latin vacca meaning cow), pioneering immunization.
Identify the part of the sentence containing a grammatical error: (A) Those two men were (B) Quarrelling with one another (C) Claiming the same watch as their own (D) Since morning
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Part B)
When referring to exactly two individuals, 'each other' must be used rather than 'one another'. Hence Part B is erroneous ("Quarrelling with each other").
Q840
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Community: Essential Elements
According to sociological analysis (MacIver & Page), which of the following is NOT an essential defining criterion of a community?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Smallness in size)
The essential elements of a community are Locality, Community Sentiment (we-feeling), and a group of people. 'Smallness in size' is not an essential criterion as communities can be massive.
Q841
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Michel Foucault: Discipline and Punish
According to French philosopher Michel Foucault, through which significant concepts evolving over time in the domain of genealogy was 'Civilized Society' institutionalized?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Discipline and Punish)
Michel Foucault's monumental 1975 philosophical treatise Discipline and Punish: The Birth of the Prison (Surveiller et punir) details how disciplinary power, surveillance, and panopticism constructed the modern civilized society.
Q842
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Founding of the Red Cross: Henry Dunant
Who was the visionary founder of the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) in 1863?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Henry Dunant)
Swiss humanitarian Jean-Henry Dunant founded the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) in 1863 after witnessing the suffering of wounded soldiers at the Battle of Solferino (1859), earning the first Nobel Peace Prize.
Q843
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)UN 1951 Refugee Convention Definition
According to the 1951 UN Refugee Convention, which one of the following statements is NOT CORRECT about Refugees?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Poverty is the primary legal reason for being outside the country.)
Statement B is incorrect: Under international law, economic hardship or poverty alone does not qualify a person for legal Refugee status; refugees are specifically defined by a well-founded fear of persecution, conflict, or violence.
Q844
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)UN Convention on the Rights of the Child
Which international treaty adopted in 1989 serves as the primary comprehensive legal instrument for the protection and promotion of children's rights globally?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC))
The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC, 1989) is the most widely ratified human rights treaty in history, articulating universal civil, political, economic, and social rights of children.
Q845
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)National Advisory Council (NAC)
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the National Advisory Council (NAC)? a) The National Advisory Council is a statutory body. b) It is headed by the Prime Minister of India. c) It facilitates constant interaction with leaders of civil society. d) It provides policy and legislative inputs to the Government of India. Select the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (c and d)
Statements (c) and (d) are correct: The NAC was set up by the UPA government as an advisory body to interface with civil society and advise on social welfare legislation (RTE, NREGA, NFSA). Statements (a) and (b) are false because it was an extra-constitutional non-statutory body chaired by Sonia Gandhi, not the PM.
Q846
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)UN International Day for Disaster Reduction
Which day is observed internationally every year as the International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (13th October)
The United Nations General Assembly designated 13th October as the International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction to promote a global culture of risk awareness and disaster reduction.
Q847
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)UN Observance Days Calendar
Match the international observance days with their respective dates: a. International Day for the Elderly — 3. 1st October b. World AIDS Day — 4. 1st December c. World Food Day — 2. 16th October d. Human Rights Day — 1. 10th December
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1)
Observance calendar: Elderly Day = 1st October (a-3); World AIDS Day = 1st December (b-4); World Food Day = 16th October (c-2); Human Rights Day = 10th December (d-1) ⟹ a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1.
Q848
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KMartand Sun Temple
Which 8th-century Karkota dynasty monarch constructed the grand Martand Sun Temple in Anantnag, Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Lalitaditya Muktapida)
Emperor Lalitaditya Muktapida (reigned 724–760 AD) of the Karkota dynasty built the monumental Martand Sun Temple atop the Mattan plateau in Anantnag.
Q849
Computer ApplicationsAnalogy: State and Country
Complete the geographical analogy: Maharashtra : India :: Texas : ?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (USA (United States of America))
Maharashtra is a major state of India; Texas is a major state of the USA.
In MS Excel, the Accounting number format displays negative numbers enclosed in
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Parentheses (e.g. `(100)`))
The standard Accounting Number Format aligns currency symbols and encloses negative numeric values in Parentheses `( )` instead of a minus sign.
Q851
Computer ApplicationsUnix Operating System Architecture & History
Consider the following statements regarding the Unix Operating System: I. Unix is a multitasking, multi-user operating system. II. The Unix operating system was rewritten and coded in the C programming language by Ken Thompson and Dennis Ritchie. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both I and II)
Both statements are correct: Unix (developed at Bell Labs in 1969–1972) is a true multitasking, multi-user OS, and was famously re-implemented in the C language in 1973 to ensure cross-platform portability.
Q852
Basic EnglishArticles: Compound Noun Usage
Fill in the blanks with suitable articles: "She is wearing a black and ______ white saree at the party hosted by the Manager and ______ Executive Director of our hotel."
💡Correct Answer: Option D (None of these (no article, no article))
Because it is a single two-tone saree ("a black and white saree") and a single person holding both titles ("the Manager and Executive Director"), no second article is used in either blank.
Q853
General Awareness & ScienceWorld Pulses Day 2023 Theme
What was the official theme of 'World Pulses Day' 2023 celebrated on February 10?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Pulses for a Sustainable Future)
The United Nations FAO designated 'Pulses for a Sustainable Future' as the theme for World Pulses Day 2023 to highlight the role of pulses in soil biodiversity and food security.
Q854
General Awareness & ScienceMartyrs' Day (23 March)
Which day is observed as 'Shaheed Diwas' (Martyrs' Day) to commemorate the martyrdom anniversary of Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev Thapar, and Shivaram Rajguru?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (March 23)
March 23 is observed across India as Shaheed Diwas to honor the sacrifice of Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev, who were executed by the British colonial regime in Lahore Central Jail on 23 March 1931.
Q855
General Awareness & ScienceNational Sports Day (29 August)
When is National Sports Day celebrated annually in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (August 29)
National Sports Day (Rashtriya Khel Divas) is celebrated on August 29 to mark the birth anniversary of Indian hockey wizard Major Dhyan Chand.
Q856
General Awareness & ScienceVigilance Awareness Week Themes
What was the theme of 'Vigilance Awareness Week 2023' organized by the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Say no to corruption, commit to the Nation)
The Central Vigilance Commission observed Vigilance Awareness Week 2023 with the theme: 'Say no to corruption; commit to the Nation' (भ्रष्टाचार का विरोध करें; राष्ट्र के प्रति समर्पित रहें).
Q857
General Awareness & ScienceConstitution Day (26 November)
When is Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) observed in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (November 26)
Constitution Day is celebrated on November 26 each year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949.
Q858
General Awareness & ScienceKirana Gharana: Pandit Bhimsen Joshi
Bharat Ratna Pandit Bhimsen Joshi was a legendary maestro of which art form?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Hindustani Classical Vocalist (Kirana Gharana))
Pandit Bhimsen Joshi (1922–2011) was one of the greatest Hindustani classical vocalists from the Kirana Gharana, awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2008.
Q859
General Awareness & ScienceSanskrit Plays: Mudrarakshasa
Who authored the famous Sanskrit historical play 'Mudrarakshasa' depicting Chanakya's ascent with Chandragupta Maurya?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Vishakhadatta)
The political Sanskrit play Mudrarakshasa (The Signet Ring of Rakshasa) was written by ancient Indian playwright Vishakhadatta in the 4th/5th century AD.
Q860
General Awareness & ScienceNanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
The Nanda Devi National Park and Biosphere Reserve is located in which Indian State?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Uttarakhand)
Nanda Devi National Park (a UNESCO World Heritage Site surrounding peak Nanda Devi, 7,816 m) is located in Chamoli district, Uttarakhand.
Q861
General Awareness & ScienceDelhi Sultanate: Lodi Dynasty
Who laid the foundation of the Lodi Dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate in 1451 AD?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bahlul Lodi)
Bahlul Khan Lodi founded the Pashtun Lodi Dynasty in 1451 after replacing the Sayyid dynasty, ruling until 1489.
Q862
General Awareness & ScienceAccession of J&K (26 October 1947)
Maharaja Hari Singh signed the historic Instrument of Accession of Jammu and Kashmir to the Dominion of India on which date?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Oct 26, 1947)
Maharaja Hari Singh signed the Instrument of Accession on 26 October 1947 at Amar Mahal in Jammu, which was accepted by Governor-General Lord Mountbatten on 27 October 1947.
Q863
General Awareness & ScienceKalhana's Rajatarangini
What is the literal English meaning of Kalhana's Sanskrit historical chronicle 'Rajatarangini'?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (River of Kings)
'Rajatarangini' is composed of Raja (Kings) and Tarangini (River/Stream), literally translating to 'The River of Kings'.
Q864
General Awareness & ScienceReign of Maharaja Hari Singh
In which year did Maharaja Hari Singh ascend the throne as the ruling Maharaja of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1925)
Maharaja Hari Singh ascended the throne on 23 September 1925 following the demise of his uncle Maharaja Pratap Singh.
Q865
General Awareness & ScienceHabba Khatoon (Nightingale of Kashmir)
Which celebrated 16th-century poetess and queen of Sultan Yousuf Shah Chak is known as the 'Nightingale of Kashmir' (Zoon)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Habba Khatoon)
Habba Khatoon (born Zoon in Chandhara, Pampore) introduced the romantic 'Lol' lyric genre to Kashmiri poetry and is affectionately called the 'Nightingale of Kashmir'.
Q866
General Awareness & ScienceFather of Dogri: Prof. Ram Nath Shastri
Who is widely revered and celebrated as the "Father of Modern Dogri Literature"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Prof. Ram Nath Shastri)
Padma Shri Prof. Ram Nath Shastri (1915–2009), co-founder of the Dogri Sanstha in 1944, is known as the 'Father of Modern Dogri' for his monumental contributions to the language.
Q867
General Awareness & ScienceAncient Names of Rivers: Hydaspes (Jhelum)
Which river of Jammu and Kashmir was named 'Hydaspes' by ancient Greek historians (e.g. at the Battle of the Hydaspes in 326 BC)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Jhelum)
The Greeks referred to the Jhelum River (Vitasta in Sanskrit, Vyeth in Kashmiri) as the Hydaspes, famous for the Battle of the Hydaspes between Alexander the Great and King Porus.
Q868
General Awareness & ScienceWular Lake
Which is the largest natural freshwater lake in Jammu and Kashmir (and one of the largest in Asia)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Wular Lake)
Wular Lake (located in Bandipora district and fed by the Jhelum River) is the largest freshwater lake in J&K and India, designated as a Ramsar Wetland Site.
Q869
General Awareness & ScienceSantoor Maestros of Kashmir: Bhajan Sopori
Pandit Bhajan Sopori was a globally acclaimed maestro of which classical musical instrument?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Santoor)
Pandit Bhajan Sopori (1948–2022) of the Sufiana Gharana of Kashmir was a legendary Santoor player who popularized the Kashmiri 100-stringed Santoor in Indian classical music.
Q870
General Awareness & ScienceMartand Sun Temple Deities
The 8th-century Martand Temple in Anantnag, Kashmir, is dedicated to which deity?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sun God (Surya))
'Martand' is another name for the Hindu Sun God (Surya) in Sanskrit, to whom Lalitaditya Muktapida dedicated the monumental temple.
Q871
General Awareness & ScienceFolk Dances: Letri Dance
The traditional folk dance 'Letri Dance' of the Jammu region is classified as a
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Labour / Agricultural Harvesting Dance)
Letri is a traditional community labor dance performed by farmers and workers in the hills of Jammu during agricultural stone-breaking, wood-clearing, and harvesting tasks.
Q872
General Awareness & ScienceDr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel
The 9.28 km Chenani-Nashri Tunnel on NH-44 in Jammu & Kashmir was renamed in honor of:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel)
In October 2019, India's longest bidirectional road tunnel, the Chenani-Nashri Tunnel in Udhampur/Ramban, was officially renamed the Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel.
Q873
General Awareness & ScienceOceanic Channels: 10 Degree Channel
The Andaman group of islands and the Nicobar group of islands are separated from each other by the
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ten Degree Channel)
The Ten Degree Channel (10∘ N latitude) is a 150 km wide oceanic channel that separates the Andaman Islands to the north from the Nicobar Islands to the south in the Bay of Bengal.
Q874
General Awareness & ScienceSiachen Glacier & Nubra Valley
The Siachen Glacier (the world's highest battlefield) is located adjacent to which scenic valley in Ladakh?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Nubra Valley)
The meltwaters of the Siachen Glacier in the Karakoram range feed the Nubra River in Ladakh's majestic Nubra Valley.
Q875
General Awareness & ScienceKangchenjunga Peak
Kangchenjunga (8,586 m, the 3rd highest mountain peak in the world) is situated in which Indian state?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sikkim)
Mount Kangchenjunga lies directly on the international border between the Indian state of Sikkim and eastern Nepal.
Q876
General Awareness & ScienceWestern Ghats / Sahyadri Range
What is the traditional indigenous name of the Western Ghats mountain range running parallel to India's west coast?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sahyadri Range)
The Western Ghats (a UNESCO World Heritage biodiversity hotspot) are traditionally and geographically known as the Sahyadri mountain range in Maharashtra, Goa, and Karnataka.
Q877
General Awareness & ScienceChilika Lake of Odisha
Chilika Lake, the largest brackish water coastal lagoon in India and second largest in the world, is located in which state?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Odisha)
Chilika Lake (spread over 1,100 km2 at the mouth of the Daya River) is India's largest brackish water coastal lagoon, situated in the state of Odisha.
Q878
General Awareness & ScienceFlightless Birds
Which of the following birds are flightless (ratites/penguins)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Kiwis (New Zealand), Ostriches (Africa), and Penguins (Antarctic marine) are all naturally flightless birds lacking flight keels. All of the above cannot fly.
Q879
General Awareness & ScienceVitamin D Deficiency: Rickets
Deficiency of which vitamin causes bone softening and skeletal deformities known as Rickets in growing children?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Vitamin D)
Vitamin D deficiency prevents adequate intestinal calcium absorption, leading to defective bone mineralization and Rickets.
Q880
General Awareness & ScienceEinstein's Theory of Relativity
Who formulated the revolutionary Special and General Theories of Relativity in modern physics?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Albert Einstein)
Albert Einstein proposed the Special Theory of Relativity in 1905 (E=mc2) and the General Theory of Relativity in 1915.
Q881
General Awareness & ScienceSolar Core Fusion & Hydrogen Fuel
What is the primary nuclear fuel undergoing thermonuclear fusion in the core of the Sun?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hydrogen)
The Sun's core fuses Hydrogen nuclei (protons) into Helium through the proton-proton chain reaction, releasing tremendous solar radiant energy.
Q882
General Awareness & ScienceNoble Gases: Chemical Inertness
Inert gases (Noble gases of Group 18: Helium, Neon, Argon, Krypton, Xenon, Radon) are characterized by being
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Chemically unreactive (due to completely filled valence electron octets))
Noble / Inert gases have completely filled stable valence electron shells (s2p6), making them chemically inert and unreactive under standard conditions.
Q883
General Awareness & ScienceState Nicknames: Kerala
Which south Indian state's official tourism slogan and moniker is 'God's Own Country'?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Kerala)
Kerala is globally marketed and celebrated as 'God's Own Country' due to its lush tropical greenery, serene backwaters, and biodiversity.
Q884
General Awareness & ScienceState Facts & Superlatives
Which of the following geographical and demographic statements are correct? i. Chandigarh is the joint capital of both Punjab and Haryana. ii. Rajasthan is the largest state of India by geographic land area. iii. Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state of India. iv. Kerala has the highest literacy rate in India.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
All four statements are factually accurate: Chandigarh is joint capital, Rajasthan is largest (342,239 km2), UP has highest population (200 million), and Kerala has highest literacy (94%). All of the above are correct.
Q885
General Awareness & ScienceMineral Deficiencies: Iron Deficiency Anaemia
Dietary deficiency of the essential trace mineral Iron leads to which blood disorder?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Anaemia)
Iron is required for hemoglobin synthesis in red blood cells; its deficiency causes Iron-Deficiency Anaemia.
Q886
General Awareness & ScienceDietary Sources of Vitamin C
Which of the following dietary sources is naturally richest in Vitamin C (Ascorbic Acid)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Citrus Fruits (Oranges, Lemons, Amla))
Citrus fruits (oranges, lemons, limes, amla/Indian gooseberry, and guavas) are the richest natural dietary sources of Vitamin C.
Q887
General Awareness & ScienceLiver Diseases: Jaundice
Which vital internal organ is primarily affected and inflamed in Jaundice (elevated serum bilirubin)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Liver)
Jaundice (icterus) occurs when the Liver fails to properly process and excrete yellow bilirubin pigment from broken-down red blood cells.
Q888
General Awareness & ScienceVaccination: Edward Jenner
Who is celebrated as the pioneer who invented the concept of vaccination with the smallpox vaccine in 1796?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Edward Jenner)
English physician Edward Jenner discovered that inoculation with cowpox pustule material protected against smallpox, inventing vaccination in 1796.
Q889
General Awareness & ScienceCricket Tournaments: Irani Trophy
The prestigious Irani Trophy in Indian domestic sports is associated with which game?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cricket)
The Irani Cup (Irani Trophy, instituted in 1959–60) is an annual first-class Cricket tournament played between the reigning Ranji Trophy champions and the Rest of India team.
Q890
General Awareness & ScienceJawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT)
Which of the following is the largest container handling port in India, handling over 50% of the nation's containerized cargo?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Jawaharlal Nehru Port (JNPT / Nhava Sheva), Navi Mumbai)
Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT / Nhava Sheva) in Navi Mumbai, Maharashtra, is the premier and largest container seaport in India.
Q891
General Awareness & ScienceCoastlines of Indian States
Which Indian state has the longest mainland coastline (spanning approximately 1,600 km)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Gujarat)
Gujarat has the longest mainland coastline in India (1,600 km), followed by Andhra Pradesh (974 km) and Tamil Nadu (907 km).
Q892
General Awareness & ScienceClassical Sanskrit Fables: Panchatantra
The famous ancient Indian collection of interrelated animal fables 'Panchatantra' by Vishnu Sharma was composed during the
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Gupta period)
The Panchatantra was composed by scholar Pandit Vishnu Sharma during the classical golden age of the Gupta Empire (circa 3rd to 5th century CE).
Q893
General Awareness & ScienceSecond Battle of Panipat (1556)
The Second Battle of Panipat (5 November 1556) was fought between Hemu and the Mughal army during the reign of which Emperor?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Akbar)
The Second Battle of Panipat was fought between the young Mughal Emperor Akbar (led by Bairam Khan) and King Hem Chandra Vikramaditya (Hemu), establishing Mughal supremacy in northern India.
Q894
General Awareness & ScienceNaming of Gulmarg by Yousuf Shah Chak
Gulmarg was originally named Gourimarg, and was renamed Gulmarg ('Meadow of Flowers') by which Kashmiri sultan?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sultan Yousuf Shah Chak)
Sultan Yousuf Shah Chak (reigned 1579–1586), enchanted by the valley's wildflower blooms while visiting with Habba Khatoon, changed its name from Gourimarg to Gulmarg.
Q895
General Awareness & ScienceMartand Sun Temple Construction
The monumental 8th-century Martand Sun Temple at Anantnag, Kashmir, was built by:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lalitaditya Muktapida)
King Lalitaditya Muktapida of the Karkota dynasty built the world-renowned Martand Sun Temple in the 8th century CE.
Q896
General Awareness & ScienceKashmiri Ghazal: Rasul Mir
Who among the following celebrated classical poets is revered as the "Father of the Kashmiri Ghazal"?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rasul Mir)
Rasul Mir of Shahabad, Dooru (19th century) revolutionized Kashmiri poetry with lyrical romantic ghazals and is widely known as the 'Father of Kashmiri Ghazal' (or the Keats of Kashmir).
Q897
General Awareness & SciencePampore Saffron Festival
In which month is the vibrant Saffron Festival (Jashn-e-Zafran) celebrated in Pampore, Jammu & Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (November)
The Saffron Festival is celebrated in November during the peak autumn purple blossom harvest season across the Karewas of Pampore.
Q898
General Awareness & ScienceSolar Energy in Ecosystems
What is the ultimate primary driving force and energy source powering all natural ecosystems on Earth?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Solar Energy (Sunlight))
Solar Energy from sunlight is captured by green autotrophs via photosynthesis, driving trophic food chains, nutrient cycles, and energy flow across all ecosystems.
Q899
General Awareness & ScienceBRICS Member States
Who among the following nations is NOT one of the founding members of the BRICS grouping?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Indonesia)
BRICS was founded by Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. Indonesia is not a founding member of BRICS.
Q900
General Awareness & ScienceGreenhouse Gases
Which of the following atmospheric gases is NOT categorized as a direct greenhouse gas?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Hydrogen ($\text{H}_2$))
Methane, Nitrous Oxide, and Carbon Dioxide are potent greenhouse gases that absorb infrared radiation. Diatomic Hydrogen (H2) is not a direct greenhouse gas.
Q901
General Awareness & ScienceUNFCCC COP Summits
What does the abbreviation 'COP28' stand for in the context of UN climate change summits?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Conference of the Parties 28 (UNFCCC))
COP28 stands for the 28th annual Conference of the Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), held in Dubai in 2023.
Q902
General Awareness & ScienceBharat Ratna 2019: Dr. Bhupen Hazarika
In 2019, which legendary singer, composer, and filmmaker from Assam was posthumously conferred India's highest civilian award, the Bharat Ratna?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dr. Bhupen Hazarika)
Dr. Bhupen Hazarika (the 'Bard of Brahmaputra') was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2019 alongside Pranab Mukherjee and Nanaji Deshmukh.
Q903
Basic MathematicsProfit, Loss and Discounts
A shopkeeper gains a profit of 15% on selling a book after offering a 20% discount on the marked printed price. The ratio of the printed price to the cost price of the book is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (23:16)
Selling Price: SP=MP×(1−0.20)=0.80MP. Also SP=CP×(1+0.15)=1.15CP. 0.80MP=1.15CP⟹CPMP=0.801.15=80115=1623.
Q904
Basic MathematicsSuccessive Discounts
In a Diwali sale, there was a 25% discount on electric choppers. Sudha received an additional 10% cash discount and paid Rs. 405. What was the original tagged printed price of the chopper?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (600)
Net price after successive discounts of 25% and 10%: P=MP×(1−0.25)×(1−0.10)=0.75×0.90×MP=0.675MP. 0.675MP=405⟹MP=0.675405=Rs. 600.
Q905
Basic MathematicsCompound Interest: Growth Factor
A principal sum becomes 27 times its original value in 3 years when compounded annually at a certain rate of interest. Calculate the annual interest rate.
Basic ReasoningStates and Union Territories of India
Which of the following is NOT a Union Territory of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Goa)
Goa is a full-fledged State of the Indian Union (granted statehood on 30 May 1987). Puducherry, Chandigarh, and Delhi (NCT) are Union Territories.
Q907
Basic EnglishSuccessive Discounts Formula
Find a single discount equivalent to two successive discounts of 10% and 20%.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (28%)
Formula for equivalent single discount: D=d1+d2−100d1d2=10+20−10010×20=30−2=28%.
Q908
Basic EnglishTaxes Subsumed under GST
Which of the following indirect taxes was subsumed and abolished upon the nationwide rollout of the Goods and Services Tax (GST)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Value Added Tax (VAT))
The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act (GST) subsumed 17 major central and state indirect taxes, including State VAT/Sales Tax, Central Excise, and Service Tax.
Q909
General Awareness & ScienceAstrophysical Discoveries: Black Galaxy
Astrophysicists using the ALMA observatory in which country recently discovered an ultra-faint, dust-obscured 'Invisible Black Galaxy' from the early universe?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Italy (SISSA))
Astrophysicists led by the International School for Advanced Studies (SISSA) in Italy discovered the dark, star-forming 'invisible' black galaxy in the early universe.
Q910
General Awareness & ScienceMechanism of Greenhouse Effect
The greenhouse effect in the Earth's atmosphere is physically produced due to the
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Absorption and re-emission of terrestrial infrared radiation by greenhouse gases)
Greenhouse gases (CO2, CH4, H2O vapor) allow incoming solar shortwave visible light to pass through but absorb and re-emit the outgoing longwave infrared radiation back toward Earth's surface.
Q911
General Awareness & SciencePAN Allotment Forms
Which official Income Tax form is used by an Indian resident citizen or corporate entity to apply for the allotment of a Permanent Account Number (PAN)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Form 49A)
Form 49A is the prescribed application form for PAN allotment for Indian resident individuals and entities. (Form 49AA is for foreign entities, Form 49B is for TAN).
Q912
General Awareness & ScienceMartand Sun Temple, Anantnag
The grand 8th-century ruins of the Martand Sun Temple are situated in which district of Jammu & Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Anantnag)
The Martand Sun Temple is situated atop the Mattan plateau in the Anantnag district of South Kashmir.
Q913
General Awareness & ScienceMughal Architecture in Kashmir
Which Mughal Emperor laid out the iconic Shalimar Bagh (1619) and visited the Nishat Bagh on the banks of Dal Lake in Srinagar?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Jahangir)
Emperor Jahangir laid out Shalimar Bagh in 1619 for his empress Nur Jahan. (Nishat Bagh was built nearby in 1633 by Asif Khan, Nur Jahan's brother, during Jahangir/Shah Jahan's era).
Q914
General Awareness & SciencePurple Revolution & Lavender Cultivation
The 'Purple Revolution' (Aroma Mission) initiated by the Ministry of Science and Technology in Jammu & Kashmir is associated with the large-scale cultivation of:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Lavender (in Doda / Bhaderwah))
Under the CSIR-IIIM Aroma Mission, the Purple Revolution revolutionized farming in Bhaderwah (Doda district) by cultivating high-value Purple Lavender for essential oils.
Q915
General Awareness & ScienceCity Nicknames: Jammu
Which city/district in Jammu and Kashmir is famously nicknamed the 'City of Temples'?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Jammu)
Jammu city is historically celebrated as the 'City of Temples' due to its numerous historic shrines including Raghunath Temple, Ranbireshwar Temple, and Bawe Wali Mata.
Q916
General Awareness & ScienceRajouri Fort (Dhanidhar Fort)
Who built the historic Rajouri Fort (Dhanidhar Fort) at Dhanidhar village in Rajouri?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Mian Hathu)
The Dhanidhar Fort (Rajouri Fort) was constructed in 1855 AD by Mian Hathu, the then Dogra Governor of Rajouri under Maharaja Gulab Singh.
Q917
General Awareness & SciencePurmandal Temple: Chhota Kashi
Which historic temple complex situated on the banks of the sacred Devika river in Samba district is known as 'Chhota Kashi'?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Purmandal Temple)
Purmandal Temple (dedicated to Lord Shiva along the holy underground Devika River) is revered as 'Chhota Kashi' in Jammu.
Q918
General Awareness & ScienceArticle 35A
Which now-repealed constitutional provision empowered the Jammu and Kashmir State Legislature to define 'Permanent Residents' and confer special rights and privileges regarding employment and property?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 35A)
Article 35A (inserted into the Indian Constitution via the 1954 Presidential Order) empowered the J&K legislature to define permanent residents and grant them exclusive rights.
Q919
General Awareness & SciencePradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
The flagship central scheme 'Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana' (PMUY) launched in May 2016 is related to providing:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Free LPG gas connections to BPL households)
Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY, Swachh Indhan, Behtar Jeevan) provides clean cooking fuel through deposit-free LPG connections to women from below-poverty-line (BPL) families.
Q920
General Awareness & ScienceBSF Operations: Operation Alert
Which specialized security operation was launched by the Border Security Force (BSF) along the India-Pakistan International Border in J&K to prevent cross-border infiltration?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Operation Alert)
The BSF frequently launches 'Operation Alert' along the 200 km International Border in Jammu to step up electronic surveillance and counter foggy winter infiltration attempts.
Q921
General Awareness & ScienceBRO Project HIMANK
Consider the following statements regarding 'Project HIMANK': 1. It is a landmark infrastructure project of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO). 2. It is responsible for the construction and maintenance of roads and strategic mountain passes in the Ladakh region. Which of the statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both 1 and 2)
Both statements are correct: Project HIMANK (established in 1985 by BRO, known as 'The Mountain Tamers') builds and maintains strategic road networks, including passes at Khardung La and Umling La in Ladakh.
Q922
General Awareness & ScienceKöppen Climate Zones in the Himalayas
According to Köppen's classification of Indian climate, the higher mountainous regions of Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, and Uttarakhand fall under which climatic zone?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Cold Humid Winter type (Dfc))
Under Köppen's climatic map of India, the high Himalayan parts of J&K, HP, and Uttarakhand are categorized under the Cold Humid with sharp winter type (Dfc) and Alpine/Tundra (ET).
Q923
General Awareness & ScienceDouble Fillers & Pedagogy Vocabulary
Fill in the blanks: "The teacher must ______ the unique style of a learner in order to ______ it to the desired knowledge."
💡Correct Answer: Option D (discover, harness)
"discover, harness" fits pedagogical logic perfectly: a teacher first identifies (discovers) the student's unique learning orientation to productively utilize and channel (harness) it.
Q924
General Awareness & ScienceIdioms & Phrases
Choose the meaning of the bold idiom in the sentence: "The cashier wiped the nose of his employer by presenting false bills."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (cheated)
The colloquial idiom 'to wipe someone's nose' means to cheat, defraud, or take advantage of someone deceitfully.
Q925
General Awareness & ScienceOne Word Substitution
Give one word for: "One who sacrifices his/her life for a noble cause or for the nation."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Martyr)
A Martyr is a person who suffers death or endures great suffering for their beliefs, cause, or country.
Q926
General Awareness & ScienceDirect and Indirect Speech
Convert to indirect speech: He said, 'What are you doing?'
💡Correct Answer: Option D (He asked me what I was doing.)
The reporting verb 'said' changes to 'asked me', the question word 'what' acts as the conjunction, and the present continuous ('are you doing') shifts to past continuous ('I was doing'): "He asked me what I was doing."
Q927
General Awareness & ScienceSynonyms
Select the correct synonym for the word: Reverberate
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Reflect / Echo)
'Reverberate' means to echo, ring, or be repeated several times as an echo or reflection of sound/energy.
Q928
General Awareness & SciencePrepositions and Military Terms
Fill in the blanks: "Our army is ______ the border of the neighboring country."
💡Correct Answer: Option D (deployed, along)
Troops are strategically 'deployed along' a national boundary line ⟹ "deployed, along the border".
Q929
General Awareness & ScienceSentence Correction: Past Perfect Passive
Select the correct substitute for the underlined segment: "The house has auctioned before we reached there."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Had been auctioned)
The action in the main clause occurred before another past event ('before we reached there') and is in the passive voice, requiring the past perfect passive: "had been auctioned".
Q930
General Awareness & ScienceModal Auxiliaries & Base Verbs
Find out the error part: "No struggle can ever succeeded (a) / without women participating (b) / side by side with men (c) / No error (d)."
💡Correct Answer: Option A (No struggle can ever succeeded)
Modal auxiliary verbs like 'can' must always be followed by the base bare infinitive form of the verb (V1), not the past participle (V3). It must read "can ever succeed".
Q931
General Awareness & ScienceActive and Passive Voice
Convert to passive voice: "The burglar destroyed several items in the room. Even the carpet was torn."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Several items in the room were destroyed by the burglar. Even the carpet was torn.)
Simple past active ('destroyed') converts to past passive ('were destroyed'): "Several items in the room were destroyed by the burglar. Even the carpet was torn."
Q932
General Awareness & ScienceModal Auxiliaries & Conditionals
Fill in the blanks using suitable modal verbs: "We ______ be honest under all circumstances. If we work hard, we ______ pass."
💡Correct Answer: Option D (must, will)
'Must' conveys strong categorical moral obligation ("must be honest"), and 'will' completes the standard first conditional construction with real future consequence ("if we work hard, we will pass").
Q933
General Awareness & ScienceMisplaced Modifiers: Only
Spot the error: "These days rich people only can afford the hospitality of the costly nursing homes and hospitals coming up all over the country."
💡Correct Answer: Option A (These days rich people only)
The limiting modifier 'only' is misplaced; it should be placed immediately before the noun phrase it modifies: "only rich people can afford" (not "rich people only").
Q934
General Awareness & ScienceReading Comprehension
Based on the reading passage, where did young Ernest Rutherford conduct his own private scientific experiments on radio waves?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (In the cloakroom of Canterbury College)
The passage states: "...he sat for a scholarship to Canterbury College... and he began to conduct his own experiments in the cloakroom of the college, where the students hung their gowns."
Q935
General Awareness & ScienceReading Comprehension: Idiom Context
In the passage, the phrase 'mechanical bent of mind' suggests that Rutherford:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Had an innate natural aptitude for science, practical apparatus, and invention.)
'A mechanical bent of mind' is an English idiom indicating an innate talent and natural inclination toward science, practical mechanisms, and physical invention.
Q936
General Awareness & ScienceReading Comprehension
According to the passage, identify the statement that is factually TRUE:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rutherford was an outstanding pupil and a Nobel Prize winner.)
The passage explicitly confirms: "At Nelson College... he was an outstanding pupil" and "He was awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry...".
Q937
General Awareness & ScienceSentence Completion
Fill in the blanks: "The whole country was ______ with forests and swamps. The ______ part of it was very misty and cold."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (covered, greater)
A geographic region is 'covered with' natural vegetation, and 'greater part' is the standard descriptive idiom for the majority area.
Q938
General Awareness & ScienceRelative Pronouns
Fill in the blank with the correct relative pronoun: "He told me his address ______ I wrote down in a note-book."
💡Correct Answer: Option C (which)
'Which' serves as the objective relative pronoun referring back to the inanimate antecedent noun 'his address'.
Q939
General Awareness & ScienceClauses & Analysis
Pick out the subordinate clause in the sentence: "I do not know whether he will come tomorrow."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Whether he will come tomorrow)
"Whether he will come tomorrow" is a subordinate noun clause functioning as the direct object of the transitive verb 'know'.
Q940
General Awareness & ScienceAntonyms
Select the antonym of the word vehement in: "The bill received a vehement resistance from the opposition party."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Apathetic)
'Vehement' means showing intense, passionate, or forceful feeling. Its antonym is 'Apathetic' (showing lack of interest, indifference, or unconcern).
Q941
General Awareness & ScienceVocabulary & Contextual Fillers
Fill in the blanks: "There were screams, chills and thrills ______ at the discotheque the other night as the director along with the producers hosted a party to ______ the success of their latest horror flick."
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Galore, celebrate)
'Galore' means in great abundance ("thrills galore"), and one hosts a party to 'celebrate' box office success.
Q942
General Awareness & ScienceSentence Rearrangement
Assemble the scattered segments into a coherent sentence: P. agreed to a ceasefire today Q. in which 51 people were killed R. after a week of fighting S. Georgian loyalists and rebel forces
💡Correct Answer: Option C (SPRQ)
The logical sequence is SPRQ: "Georgian loyalists and rebel forces (S) agreed to a ceasefire today (P) after a week of fighting (R) in which 51 people were killed (Q)."
Q943
General Awareness & ScienceIdioms & Political Terms
What is the meaning of the political idiom: A banana republic?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A small, poor country with a weak, corrupt, or unstable government dependent on limited exports)
'Banana republic' is a pejorative term describing a small, politically unstable, and economically dependent country ruled by a corrupt oligarchy.
Q944
General Awareness & ScienceIdioms & Phrases
What is the meaning of the idiom: A cock and bull story?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Absurd, fanciful, and unbelievable story used as an excuse)
'A cock and bull story' refers to an improbable, contrived, and completely unbelievable story presented as an explanation or excuse.
Q945
General Awareness & ScienceAppropriate Prepositions
Fill in the blank: "Disintegration of the country is inimical ______ the progress of the people."
💡Correct Answer: Option A (to)
The adjective 'inimical' (meaning harmful, hostile, or adverse) is standardly followed by the preposition 'to' ("inimical to the progress").
Q946
General Awareness & SciencePassive to Active Voice
Select the correct Active Voice form of the passive sentence: "Why was the thief being chased by the boy?"
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Why was the boy chasing the thief?)
Past continuous interrogative passive ('Why was the thief being chased by the boy?') converts to active: Why + was/were + Subject + V-ing + Object? ⟹ "Why was the boy chasing the thief?"
Q947
General Awareness & ScienceNoun Errors: Uncountable Nouns
Spot the error: "She gave me (a) / two important pieces of informations (b) / I had been waiting for (c) / the last two months (d)."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Two important pieces of informations)
'Information' is an uncountable mass noun that has no plural form 'informations'. The plural is expressed using 'pieces of information'.
Q948
General Awareness & ScienceCorrect Sentence Structure
Out of the four options, select the grammatically correct sentence:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (You cannot win my confidence without believing me.)
Option C is concise, logical, and grammatically sound without redundant or double-negative adverbs: "You cannot win my confidence without believing me."
Q949
General Awareness & ScienceSentence Structure
Out of the four options, select the grammatically correct sentence:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Since the report lacked the needed information, it was of no use to them.)
Option D accurately pairs the subordinate causal clause with the idiomatic predicate phrase 'was of no use to them': "Since the report lacked the needed information, it was of no use to them."
Q950
General Awareness & ScienceSpelling Test
Choose the correctly spelt word:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Continuum)
The correct spelling is Continuum (a continuous sequence in which adjacent elements are not perceptibly different).
Q951
General Awareness & ScienceSpelling Test
Choose the correctly spelt word:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pseudonym)
The correct spelling is Pseudonym (a fictitious pen-name assumed by an author).
Q952
General Awareness & ScienceHomophones
Pick the correct homophone: "Raman was ______ by the English King."
💡Correct Answer: Option C (knighted)
'Knighted' means conferred the noble title or rank of a Knight by the monarch.
Q953
General Awareness & ScienceMathematical Operations & BODMAS
If '' means '+', '/' means '', '-' means '/', and '+' means '-', evaluate the arithmetic expression: 40/60−15∗30+25.
General Awareness & ScienceCoding-Decoding: Alternating Numerical Shift
In a code language, FRIEND is written as GQJDOC (pattern: +1,−1,+1,−1,+1,−1). How will PEACE be written in that language?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (QDBBF)
Applying alternating shifts +1,−1,+1,−1,+1: - P(+1) = Q - E(-1) = D - A(+1) = B - C(-1) = B - E(+1) = F Code is QDBBF.
Q955
General Awareness & ScienceWord Formation & Letter Combinations
How many distinct meaningful English dictionary words can be formed using any combination of the letters in "FRIEND" using each letter at most once per word?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (More than 6)
Multiple distinct English words can be constructed from letters F, R, I, E, N, D: FIND, FIRED, FRIED, RED, DIE, DIN, END, RID, FIN, REIN, DEN ⟹ More than 6 words.
Q956
General Awareness & ScienceMathematical Symbol Substitutions
If > denotes +, < denotes -, + denotes ÷, # denotes ×, - denotes =, × denotes >, and = denotes <. Which of the following mathematical statements is TRUE?
Decoding Option C: 9+5+4=18÷9+16⟹18=2+16⟹18=18. This equality is perfectly true.
Q957
General Awareness & ScienceNumber Analogies: Squares Minus One
Find out the number analogy alternative: 49 : 2400 :: 59 : ?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3480)
Pattern: n2−1. 492−1=2401−1=2400. For 59: 592−1=3481−1=3480.
Q958
General Awareness & ScienceFigure Analogy & Rotations
Select the related shape from the given options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Diagonal trident pointing to the upper-right with 3 prongs and lower-left stem (Option C))
Rotating the trident figure clockwise by 45∘ shifts the 3 pronged arrows to point toward the upper-right (45∘ azimuth) with the stem extending toward the lower-left, exactly matching Option C.
Q959
General English & ComprehensionFundamental Rights & Union of States
Match Column -X (article in the Indian Constitution) with their objectives in Column -Y:
| Column - X | Column - Y | | :--- | :--- | | 1. Article 1 | I. Guarantees equal opportunity in public employment | | 2. Article 14 | II. Guarantees equality before the law | | 3. Article 16 | III. Defines India as a Union of States |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1-III, 2-II, 3-I)
1. Article 1 defines India, that is Bharat, as a Union of States (III) 2. Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws (II) 3. Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (I). Hence, the correct matching is 1-III, 2-II, 3-I.
Q960
General English & ComprehensionPhysical Geography & Mountain Ranges of Ladakh & J&K
Which major mountain range forms the northern boundary of Ladakh, contributing to its isolation and strategic significance?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The Karakoram Range)
The Karakoram Range (home to K2 and the Siachen Glacier) forms the northern boundary of the Ladakh region, separating it from Central Asia and the Tarim Basin.
Q961
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KEducational Initiatives & Current Affairs
What is the name of the Channel launched by Union Minister Dharmendra Pradhan for Indian Sign Language?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bhartiya Sanketik Bhasha DTH Channel)
Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan launched the dedicated 'Bhartiya Sanketik Bhasha' (Indian Sign Language) DTH channel under the PM e-VIDYA scheme to provide inclusive education to hearing-impaired learners.
Q962
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KForeign Trade Policy & DGFT Initiatives
Who launched the 'Trade Watch', a weekly publication focusing on India's trade developments?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Directorate General of Foreign Trade)
The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, launched 'Trade Watch' as a periodic trade intelligence digest analyzing India's export-import trends and market developments.
Q963
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KIndo-Pak Wars & Diplomatic Treaties
The 1965 war between India and Pakistan over Kashmir ended with the signing of which agreement?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Tashkent Declaration)
The Indo-Pakistani War of 1965 ended with the signing of the Tashkent Declaration on January 10, 1966, mediated by Soviet Premier Alexei Kosygin between Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri and President Ayub Khan.
Q964
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KConstitutional Amendments of J&K
Which constitutional amendment replaced the position of Sadr-e-Riyasat with the title of Governor in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (6th Amendment)
The Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir (Sixth Amendment) Act, 1965, amended the state constitution to replace the designation of 'Sadr-e-Riyasat' with 'Governor' and 'Prime Minister (Wazir-e-Azam)' with 'Chief Minister'.
Q965
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KIndian Art, Culture & Classical Folk Dances
Match the following states with their corresponding folk dances:
| Column - X | Column - Y | | :--- | :--- | | 1. Andhra Pradesh | I. Lambadi, Dhimsa | | 2. Gujarat | II. Bhavai, Juriun | | 3. Kerala | III. Kathakali, Ottamthullal |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1-I, 2-II, 3-III)
1. Andhra Pradesh: Lambadi and Dhimsa folk dances (I) 2. Gujarat: Bhavai and Juriun/Garba folk dances (II) 3. Kerala: Kathakali (classical) and Ottamthullal folk dance (III). Correct matching code is 1-I, 2-II, 3-III.
Q966
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KArt, Handicrafts & Cultural Heritage of J&K
The art of Pashmina weaving in Kashmir is an example of which type of cultural expression?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Handicrafts)
Pashmina shawl weaving (spun from Changthangi goat wool) is an indigenous textile handicraft with Geographical Indication (GI) tag, representing Kashmir's master craft heritage.
Q967
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KTourism & Major Lakes of Jammu & Kashmir
Which of the following highlights the economic significance of Dal Lake in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It is renowned for tourism, houseboats, and shikara rides, contributing significantly to the local economy)
Dal Lake, known as the 'Jewel in the crown of Kashmir', is the backbone of Srinagar's tourism economy through its iconic shikaras, heritage houseboats, floating vegetable markets, and handicraft trade.
Q968
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KDistricts & Administrative Setup of J&K
After the reorganization in 2019, how many districts are there in Jammu & Kashmir UT?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (20)
Following the creation of the Union Territory of Ladakh (consisting of Leh and Kargil districts), the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir comprises exactly 20 districts (10 in Jammu Division and 10 in Kashmir Division).
Q969
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KJ&K Governance & Legislative Assembly Powers
Who among the following will aid and advise the Lieutenant Governor of Jammu & Kashmir on matters that the assembly has powers to legislate?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The Council of Ministers)
According to Section 53 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, there shall be a Council of Ministers consisting of not more than 10% of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly, with the Chief Minister at the head, to aid and advise the Lieutenant Governor on matters where the Assembly has legislative power.
Q970
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KJ&K Constitution Key Articles
Which article of the Jammu & Kashmir Constitution (before 2019) defined the relationship between the state and the Union of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Article 3)
Article 3 of the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir irrevocably declared: 'The State of Jammu and Kashmir is and shall be an integral part of the Union of India.'
Q971
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
In accordance with the J&K Reorganization Act, 2019, how many women can be nominated by the Lieutenant Governor to the Legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2)
Under Section 15 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Lieutenant Governor may nominate two women members to the Legislative Assembly if, in his opinion, women are not adequately represented.
Q972
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KBorder Roads Organisation & Projects in Ladakh
Consider the following statements about Project HIMANK: I. It is a project of NHAI II. It is responsible for the construction of roads in J&K and Ladakh
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II only)
Statement I is incorrect: Project HIMANK (established in 1985) is a landmark project of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO), not NHAI. Statement II is correct: Project HIMANK is known as 'The Mountain Tamers' and is responsible for constructing world-record high-altitude roads (like Umling La and Khardung La) across Ladakh and J&K. Hence, II only is correct.
Q973
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KActive and Passive Voice
Choose the alternative that best expresses the same sentence: "My aunt promised me a present."
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I was promised a present by my aunt.)
In changing 'My aunt (subject) promised (past simple) me (indirect object) a present (direct object)' to passive voice, the standard idiomatic construction promoting the personal indirect object is: 'I was promised a present by my aunt.'
Q974
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KDirect and Indirect Speech
Select the alternative that best expresses the same sentence: I said to my sister, "Let us go to some hill station for a change."
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I suggested to my sister that we should go to some hill station for a change.)
In indirect speech, sentences starting with 'Let us' convey a proposal or suggestion. The reporting verb changes to 'suggested to / proposed to', followed by 'that we should...'. Hence: 'I suggested to my sister that we should go to some hill station for a change.'
Q975
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KDirect and Indirect Speech
Select the alternative that best expresses the same sentence: "If you don't keep quiet I shall shoot you," she said to him in a calm voice.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (She warned him calmly that she would shoot him if he didn't keep quiet.)
The threat represents a warning delivered in a calm manner. Pronouns shift from 'I' to 'she' and 'you' to 'him', with 'shall' becoming 'would': 'She warned him calmly that she would shoot him if he didn't keep quiet.'
Q976
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KModal Auxiliary Verbs
Fill in the blanks with suitable modal auxiliary verbs: Ramesh ______ be coming to see us tomorrow.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (may)
May' is used to express future possibility or uncertainty regarding a planned visit: 'Ramesh may be coming to see us tomorrow.
Q977
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KModal Auxiliary Verbs
Fill in the blanks with suitable modal auxiliary verbs: My grandfather is 86 years old but he ______ still read without his glasses.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (can)
Can' expresses present general physical capability/ability: '...he can still read without his glasses.
Q978
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blanks: ______ weather was rainy, and we made ______ bet whether you would come.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The, a)
Weather' in this specific situation refers to the specific prevailing weather of that day, taking the definite article 'The'. 'Made a bet' is a standard English idiomatic collocated phrase. Hence: 'The weather was rainy, and we made a bet...
Q979
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KReading Comprehension
Which of the following best explains the author's statement, "An ounce of patience is worth a pound of brains"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Without patience, intelligence cannot be effectively utilized)
The proverb signifies that even a small amount of practical patience is vastly superior and more beneficial than abundant intellect (brains) if one lacks the emotional endurance to apply it calmly.
Q980
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KReading Comprehension
Which of the following is the most likely explanation of the author's metaphorical statement, "it is not every garden that grows the herbs to make it with"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It is only a small number of people that are found observing patience in life.)
The metaphor 'not every garden grows the herbs' correlates directly with the author's earlier clause 'few can practise it', meaning genuine patience is cultivated and observed by only a few rare individuals.
Q981
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KReading Comprehension
The writer's statement, "They think every person's burden to be light and their own feathers to be heavy as lead," holds great significance. It implies that:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (They feel that they alone face serious problems while others have a nice time)
The vivid contrast between another's heavy burden (viewed lightly) and one's own minor issues/feathers (felt as heavy as lead) highlights self-pity and the egocentric perception that one is uniquely suffering while others enjoy an easy life.
Q982
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KReading Comprehension
The writer's statement "It is their fancy rather than their fate" suggests that:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (They are unhappy because they think that way and not because it is their destiny)
'Fancy' means imagination/mindset whereas 'fate' means external destiny. The author clarifies that people's perpetual misery is a product of their pessimistic attitude rather than unavoidable bad luck.
Q983
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KSynonyms & Antonyms
Choose the correct synonym of the given word: LAXITY
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Lethargy)
'Laxity' means lack of strictness, care, or discipline; sluggishness or slackness. Among the options, 'Lethargy' (or slackness) is the closest synonym.
Q984
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KSynonyms & Antonyms
Choose the correct antonym of the word: LISSOME
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ungainly)
'Lissome' means slim, supple, flexible, and graceful in movement. Its direct antonym is 'Ungainly', which means awkward, clumsy, or ungraceful.
Q985
General Intelligence & ReasoningTrue Discount & Commercial Mathematics
The true discount on Rs. 1800 due after a certain time at 10% per annum is Rs. 200. The time after which it is due is:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (15 months)
Present Worth (PW): PW=Amount−True Discount=1800−200=1600 Using the formula TD=100PW×R×T: 200=1001600×10×T=160T T=160200=45 years=45×12=15 months.
Q986
Basic Concepts of ComputersSimple and Compound Interest
A sum of money amounts to Rs. 9,800 after 5 years and Rs. 12,005 after 8 years at the same rate of simple interest. What is the rate of interest per annum?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (12%)
Simple Interest for 3 years (between Year 5 and Year 8): SI3 yrs=12005−9800=2205 Simple Interest for 1 year: SI1 yr=32205=735 Principal P: P=9800−(5×735)=9800−3675=6125 Rate of Interest R: R=PSI1 yr×100=6125735×100=12%.
Q987
Basic Concepts of ComputersSimple and Compound Interest
The difference between simple interest and compound interest (interest is compounded half yearly) on a sum at the rate of 25% per annum for one year is Rs. 4,575. What will be the principal?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rs. 292800)
For half-yearly compounding over 1 year: - Number of conversion periods n=2 - Rate per half-year r=225%=12.5%=81 Difference formula for 2 periods: Diff=P(100r)2=P(81)2=64P Given Diff=4575: P=4575×64=292,800 Rs.
Q988
Basic MathematicsProfit and Loss & Discounts
A shopkeeper offers a discount of 15% on the marked price of an item. If the marked price of the item is Rs. 800, what is the selling price?
If the population of a town increases by 12% annually, what will be the population after 5 years if the current population is 50,000?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (88117)
Compound population formula: P5=P0×(1+r)n=50000×(1.12)5. (1.12)5≈1.76234168. P5=50000×1.76234168≈88,117.
Q990
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KDeterminers & Pronouns
Which of the following sentences uses a possessive determiner correctly?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Her dog loves to play in the park every afternoon)
'Her' in Option A is a possessive determiner modifying the noun 'dog' correctly.
Q991
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KSentence Improvement & Collective Nouns
Choose the correct alternative to improve the bold part: The jury was unanimous in their verdict after hours of deliberation.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (was unanimous in its verdict)
When a collective noun like 'jury' acts as a single unified body (indicated by 'unanimous'), it takes a singular verb and singular neuter pronoun: 'was unanimous in its verdict'.
Q992
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KError Spotting & Distributive Pronouns
In this question, find out the error part: Each one of the students (a) / are responsible (b) / for completing the assignments (c) / on time. (d)
💡Correct Answer: Option B (are responsible)
'Each one' is a distributive singular subject that requires the singular verb 'is responsible', not plural 'are responsible'. Error is in part (b).
Q993
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KMajor Tunnels & Infrastructure in J&K
On what date was the Z-Morh tunnel inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (January 13, 2025)
Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the 6.5-km bi-directional Z-Morh Tunnel on January 13, 2025, providing all-weather road connectivity to Sonamarg in Ganderbal district on the Srinagar-Leh highway.
Q994
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KSports & World Chess Championship 2024
India's D Gukesh defeated which chess player during the World Chess Championship 2024 in Singapore?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ding Liren)
18-year-old Indian Grandmaster Dommaraju Gukesh created history by defeating defending champion Ding Liren of China in the FIDE World Chess Championship 2024 in Singapore, becoming the youngest undisputed World Chess Champion.
Q995
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KParis 2024 Olympics & Indian Medalists
In which event and what medal did Swapnil Kusale win at the Paris 2024 Olympics?
Swapnil Kusale won the Bronze Medal in the Men's 50m Rifle 3 Positions shooting event at the Paris 2024 Olympic Games, becoming the first Indian shooter to win an Olympic medal in this discipline.
Q996
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KNational Sports Awards & Khel Ratna 2024
Which of the following pairs is/are correct regarding the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024 awardees? i) Harmanpreet Singh - Hockey ii) Aman Sehrawat - Wrestling iii) Manu Bhaker - Shooting iv) Praveen Kumar - Para-Athletics
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, iii and iv)
India's highest sporting honor, the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024, was conferred on hockey captain Harmanpreet Singh, double Olympic medalist Manu Bhaker (Shooting), and Paralympic gold medalist Praveen Kumar (Para-Athletics).
Q997
General Awareness & Current AffairsTraditional Indian Paintings & Visual Arts
Thanjavur painting, a classical art form, is associated with which state in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Tamil Nadu)
Thanjavur (Tanjore) painting is a celebrated indigenous classical South Indian painting style that originated in the town of Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu, characterized by rich gold foil leaf work, vibrant colors, and glass bead embellishments.
Q998
General Awareness & Current AffairsSikh Gurus & Medieval Indian History
The fifth Sikh guru "Guru Arjan Dev", is known for which significant contribution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Compiling the Adi Granth)
Guru Arjan Dev Ji, the fifth Sikh Guru, compiled the sacred Adi Granth (the first official edition of the Sikh scripture) in 1604 and installed it at the Harmandir Sahib (Golden Temple), Amritsar.
Q999
General Awareness & Current AffairsBritish Governor-Generals & Policies
The Doctrine of Lapse, a policy used by the British East India Company to annex Indian states, was introduced by which Governor-General of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lord Dalhousie)
The Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by Governor-General Lord Dalhousie (1848-1856), leading to the annexation of Satara, Jaitpur, Sambalpur, Baghat, Udaipur, Jhansi, and Nagpur.
Q1000
General Awareness & Current AffairsCivil Disobedience Movement & Salt Satyagraha
Which of the following was the main objective of Mahatma Gandhi's Salt March in 1930?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To protest against the British salt tax)
Mahatma Gandhi launched the historic Salt March (Dandi Satyagraha) from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi in March-April 1930 to directly defy and protest against the British colonial monopoly and heavy tax on salt, inaugurating the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Q1001
General Awareness & Current AffairsQuit India Movement 1942 & Slogans
Which slogan became famous during the Quit India Movement?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Do or Die)
Mahatma Gandhi delivered his historic call of 'Do or Die' (Karo ya Maro) at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay during the launch of the Quit India Movement on August 8, 1942.
Q1002
General Awareness & Current AffairsSoils of India & Agriculture
Which of the following statements about Laterite Soil is NOT correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The formation of this soil is favored by low rainfall and low moisture conditions.)
Statement C is incorrect: Laterite soil develops in regions with high temperature and heavy seasonal rainfall with alternating wet and dry periods, causing intense leaching (not low rainfall).
Q1003
General Awareness & Current AffairsDrainage System & Major Rivers of India
Which of the following is the longest river in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ganga)
The Ganga is the longest river flowing within India with a total length of 2,525 km (originating from the Gangotri Glacier and flowing through Uttarakhand, UP, Bihar, and West Bengal into the Bay of Bengal).
Q1004
General Awareness & Current AffairsMountain Ranges & Highest Peaks of India
Arrange the following mountain peaks in the ascending order of their height: i. Saser Kangri ii. Hardeol iii. Kangchenjunga iv. Nanda Devi
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (ii, i, iv, iii)
Peak heights in ascending order (shortest to tallest): 1. Hardeol (7,151 m - ii) 2. Saser Kangri (7,672 m - i) 3. Nanda Devi (7,816 m - iv) 4. Kangchenjunga (8,586 m - iii). Correct sequence: ii, i, iv, iii.
Q1005
General Awareness & Current AffairsHimalayan Peaks & Physiography
The mountain peak "Nanda Devi" is located in which state of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Uttarakhand)
Nanda Devi (7,816 m), the second highest mountain peak located entirely within India, is situated in the Garhwal Himalayas in Chamoli district of Uttarakhand.
Q1006
General Awareness & Current AffairsCoastal Geography & Famous Beaches
Which of the following location-beach pairings is not correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Radhanagar beach - Andhra Pradesh)
Radhanagar Beach (Asia's best beach / Blue Flag beach) is located on Havelock Island (Swaraj Dweep) in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, NOT in Andhra Pradesh.
Q1007
General Awareness & Current AffairsStates and Capitals of India
General Awareness & Current AffairsIntegration of States & Reorganisation
In what year did Sikkim become a part of the Indian Union?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1975)
Sikkim became the 22nd state of the Indian Union on May 16, 1975, following the Constitution (36th Amendment) Act, 1975, after a historic referendum ending the Chogyal monarchy.
Q1009
General Awareness & Current AffairsState Reorganisation Act 1956
Which of the following states was formed by merging Travancore and Cochin with parts of the Malabar district of Madras State?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kerala)
The State of Kerala was created on November 1, 1956, under the States Reorganisation Act, merging the Malayalam-speaking regions of Travancore-Cochin with the Malabar district and Kasaragod taluk.
Q1010
General Awareness & Current AffairsPost-Independence Integration & French Territories
In 1954, which Union Territory was transferred to India by the French?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Puducherry)
The French establishments in India (Pondicherry, Karikal, Mahe, and Yanam) were de facto transferred to the Republic of India on November 1, 1954, forming the Union Territory of Puducherry.
Q1011
General Awareness & Current AffairsChemical Compounds & Daily Life Chemistry
What is the chemical formula for table salt?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (NaCl)
Common table salt is composed of Sodium Chloride, represented by the chemical formula NaCl (an ionic lattice of Na+ and Cl− ions).
Q1012
General Awareness & Current AffairsVitamins, Nutrients & Human Physiology
Which vitamin is mainly produced when the skin is exposed to sunlight?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Vitamin D)
Vitamin D (specifically Vitamin D3 / Cholecalciferol) is synthesized in human skin cells when 7-dehydrocholesterol absorbs solar ultraviolet-B (UVB) radiation.
Q1013
General Awareness & Current AffairsAcids, Bases, and pH Scale
Which of the following pairs of pH values of substances is NOT correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Water - pH value 5.5)
Pure distilled water is neutral and has a neutral pH value of 7.0 at 25∘C, NOT 5.5 (which represents acidic unbuffered water). Hence, Pair B is incorrect.
Q1014
General Awareness & Current AffairsSolar System & Astronomy
Match the different planets with their common names:
| Planets | Common Names | | :--- | :--- | | i) Venus | 1) Red Planet | | ii) Mars | 2) Giant Planet | | iii) Jupiter | 3) Ringed Planet | | iv) Saturn | 4) Morning and evening star |
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3)
i) Venus - Morning and evening star (4) ii) Mars - Red Planet (1) iii) Jupiter - Giant Planet (2) iv) Saturn - Ringed Planet (3). Correct matching code is i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3.
Q1015
General Awareness & Current AffairsLight Optics & Atmospheric Phenomena
Which of the following phenomena is/are responsible for the formation of the rainbow? i) Dispersion ii) Reflection iii) Refraction iv) Diffraction
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Only i, ii and iii)
A rainbow is produced by dispersion of sunlight by raindrops involving three optical processes: refraction of light as it enters the drop, total internal reflection inside the drop, and refraction as it exits the raindrop.
Q1016
General Awareness & Current AffairsCell Biology & Organelles
What is the powerhouse of the cell?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mitochondria)
Mitochondria are known as the 'powerhouses of the cell' because they generate most of the chemical energy required for cellular processes in the form of Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) via cellular respiration.
Q1017
General ScienceMountain Passes & Mughal Road
Which pass connects the Kashmir Valley with Rajouri and Poonch through the Pir Panjal Range?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Pir Panjal Pass)
The historic Pir Panjal Pass (also known as Peer Ki Gali at 3,490 m) on the Mughal Road directly connects Shopian in the Kashmir Valley with Poonch and Rajouri districts in Jammu across the Pir Panjal Range.
Q1018
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentPsychiatric Epidemiology
The study of how diseases and disorders are distributed and what factors determine their presence or absence in a population is called as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Epidemiology)
Epidemiology is the study of the distribution, patterns, and determinants of health, diseases, and psychological conditions in specified human populations.
Q1019
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentPsychopathology & Etiology
For psychological disorders, etiology refers to
💡Correct Answer: Option A (causes)
In clinical psychology and psychopathology, etiology denotes the underlying causes and contributing causal factors that lead to the development of a disorder.
Q1020
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentDiagnostic Classification Systems
Which systems introduced multiaxial diagnostic assessment system in DSM?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (DSM III)
The multiaxial diagnostic system (Axis I through Axis V) was first introduced in DSM-III (1980) by the American Psychiatric Association.
Q1021
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentDSM-5-TR Revisions
When was the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, Text Revision published?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2022)
DSM-5-TR (Text Revision) was officially released by the American Psychiatric Association in March 2022.
Q1022
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentAnalysis of Variance (ANOVA)
How do we analysis data when we have one independent variable having three levels and one dependent variable and participants are randomly assigned to conditions?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (One-way Independent groups ANOVA)
A One-way Independent Groups ANOVA is the appropriate statistical test when there is one categorical IV with 3 or more between-subjects levels and one continuous DV.
Q1023
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentDescriptive and Inferential Statistics
What are the attributes of Sample Statistics? 1. Known; 2. Estimated; 3. Calculated; 4. Unknown
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2 and 3 Only)
Sample statistics are computed/calculated directly from observed sample data (3) and used to estimate unknown population parameters (2).
Q1024
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentHypothesis Testing & Statistical Power
What is 1 - beta in hypothesis testing?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Power)
In statistical inference, beta (β) is the probability of a Type II error. Therefore, 1 - β represents the Statistical Power of the hypothesis test.
Q1025
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentHypothesis Testing & Alpha Errors
Type I error in statistical inference refer to
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rejecting true null hypothesis)
A Type I error (alpha error) is the incorrect rejection of a null hypothesis that is actually true.
Q1026
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentNon-Parametric Methods
Which of the following are non-parametric tests? 1. Mann-Whitney U test 2. Kruskal-Wallis test 3. Kolmogorov-Smirnov test 4. Pearson correlation
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, and 3)
Mann-Whitney U, Kruskal-Wallis, and Kolmogorov-Smirnov are distribution-free non-parametric tests. Pearson correlation is a parametric test.
Q1027
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentStatistical Tests Matching
Match the following tests: i. Kolmogorov-Smirnov test — 3. Test of normality ii. Chi-square test — 2. Goodness of fit test iii. Wilcoxon signed rank test — 4. Alternative to dependent Samples t-test iv. Spearman's rho — 1. Correlation for Rank data
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-3, ii-2, iii-4, iv-1)
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentParametric vs Non-Parametric Tests
Match the Parametric test with its Non-Parametric Alternative:
| Parametric test | Non Parametric Alternative | | :--- | :--- | | i. Independent Samples t-test | 2. Median Test | | ii. One Way ANOVA | 4. Kruskal-Wallis test | | iii. Dependent Samples t-test | 1. Sign test | | iv. Pearson's correlation | 5. Kendall's Tau |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-5)
i) Independent t-test -> Median Test (2); ii) One-way ANOVA -> Kruskal-Wallis (4); iii) Paired t-test -> Sign Test / Wilcoxon (1); iv) Pearson -> Kendall's Tau (5).
Q1029
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentStatistical Tests
Match the following tests: i. Kolmogorov-Smirnov test — 3. Test of normality ii. Chi-square test — 2. Goodness of fit test iii. Wilcoxon signed rank test — 4. Alternative to dependent Samples t-test iv. Spearman's rho — 1. Correlation for Rank data
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-3, ii-2, iii-4, iv-1)
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentResearch Designs & Control
Match the Experimental Design with its Control:
| Experimental Design | Control | | :--- | :--- | | i. Post-test only | 5. Weak controls | | ii. Having covariate in design | 4. Statistical control | | iii. Repeated measures design | 2. Controls Individual differences | | iv. Factorial design | 1. Second IV |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-5, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1)
Matching: i-5 (Post-test only provides weak control), ii-4 (Covariate gives statistical control), iii-2 (Repeated measures controls individual differences), iv-1 (Factorial design adds a second IV).
Q1031
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentSampling Techniques
Match the Sampling method with its Characteristics:
| Sampling method | Characteristics | | :--- | :--- | | i. Simple Random | 2. Requires list of all participants | | ii. Cluster | 1. Probability sampling using groups in population | | iii. Quota | 4. Non-probability sampling using groups in population | | iv. Snowball | 5. Sampled provides sample |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-5)
Matching: i-2 (Requires complete sampling frame), ii-1 (Probability sampling of natural groups), iii-4 (Non-probability group sampling), iv-5 (Chain-referral sampling).
Q1032
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentScales of Measurement
Match the Scale of measurement with its Characteristics:
| Scale | Characteristics | | :--- | :--- | | i. Ratio | 4. Absolute zero | | ii. Nominal | 1. Number as label for category | | iii. Equal Interval | 3. Arbitrary zero | | iv. Ordinal | 2. Unequal intervals |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-4, ii-1, iii-3, iv-2)
Matching: i-4 (Ratio has absolute zero), ii-1 (Nominal uses numbers as category labels), iii-3 (Interval scale has arbitrary zero), iv-2 (Ordinal has ranked unequal intervals).
Q1033
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentRegression Diagnostics
Match the Technical Issue in regression with its Characteristics:
| Technical Issue | Characteristics | | :--- | :--- | | i. Multicollinearity | 3. Correlation among predictors | | ii. Heteroscedasticity | 1. Lack of Constant error variance | | iii. Autocorrelation | 4. error is expected to be correlated with previous or future values |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-3, ii-1, iii-2)
Matching: Multicollinearity is correlation among independent predictors (3), and Heteroscedasticity is non-constant error variance (1).
Q1034
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentPower Analysis & Sample Size
To estimate sample size before data collection for t-test, we need to know: 1. Expected value of 1-type II error 2. Level of significance 3. Expected effect-size 4. Mean X variance
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1, 2, and 3 only)
A priori sample size determination for a t-test requires: Desired power (1−β), Significance level (α), and Expected effect size (Cohen's d).
Q1035
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentSampling Theory
Increase in sample size leads to 1. Reduced standard error 2. Inflation of standard error 3. Increase in df 4. Decrease in df
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Only 1 and 3)
Since SE=σ/N and df=N−1, increasing sample size reduces standard error and increases degrees of freedom.
Q1036
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentThematic Analysis Phases
Arrange the steps of Braun and Clarke thematic analysis in the correct order: 1. Generating initial codes 2. Searching 3. Familiarising 4. Defining and naming 5. Reviewing
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3 -> 1 -> 2 -> 5 -> 4)
Sequence: Familiarising with data (3) -> Generating initial codes (1) -> Searching for themes (2) -> Reviewing themes (5) -> Defining and naming themes (4).
Q1037
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentQualitative Research Methods
Which of the following are qualitative methods? 1. Content analysis 2. Text mining 3. N-gram analysis 4. Grounded theory
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Only 1 and 4)
Content analysis and Grounded Theory are classic qualitative research inquiry methods.
Q1038
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentStatistical Software Packages
Which of the following is open software for analysis? 1. R 2. SPSS 3. AMOS 4. SAS 5. Jamovi
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Only 1 and 5)
R and Jamovi are free and open-source statistical software tools. SPSS, AMOS, and SAS are commercial products.
Q1039
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentR Software
What are the characteristics of R software? 1. Open-source 2. Proprietary 3. Coding Needed 4. Multiple GUIs
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Only 1, 3 and 4)
R is an open-source programming language (1) that requires code syntax (3) and supports multiple GUIs like RStudio (4).
Q1040
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentPhenomenology of Hallucinations
Match the Term in sign and symptoms with its Example:
| Term in sign and symptoms | Example | | :--- | :--- | | i. Form | 3. Auditory hallucination | | ii. Content | 4. Voice saying "someone is following you" | | iii. Primary | 2. Hallucination as symptom of schizophrenia | | iv. Secondary | 1. Hallucination is due to substance consumption |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1)
Matching: Form is the modality (Auditory - 3); Content is the message (Voice statement - 4); Primary is intrinsic (Schizophrenia - 2); Secondary is organic/toxic (Substance - 1).
Q1041
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentDelusional Phenomenology
Match the Type of Delusion with its Example:
| Type of Delusion | Example of Client Description | | :--- | :--- | | i. Persecutory | 3. Someone is constantly following me. | | ii. Delusion of grandeur | 4. Prime minister seeks my advice daily. | | iii. Jealousy | 2. My spouse has an affair with someone. | | iv. Erotomania | 1. Great actress is in love with me. |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1)
Matching: Persecutory (being followed - 3), Grandeur (PM takes advice - 4), Jealousy (unfaithful spouse - 2), Erotomania (celebrity in love - 1).
Match the Intellectual Disability Severity with its DSM-5 Criteria:
| Intellectual Disability Severity | DSM-5 Criteria | | :--- | :--- | | i. Severe | 4. Requires daily assistance with self-care activities and safety supervision | | ii. Profound | 3. Requires 24-hour care | | iii. Mild | 5. Can live independently with minimum levels of support | | iv. Moderate | 1. Independent living may be achieved with moderate levels of support |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-4, ii-3, iii-5, iv-1)
Matching: Severe requires daily support (4), Profound requires 24h care (3), Mild needs minimal support (5), Moderate achieves independent living with moderate support (1).
Which of the following statements about fMRI is/are correct? 1. It measures neuronal activity directly through electrical signals. 2. It relies on the Blood Oxygen Level-Dependent (BOLD) signal. 3. fMRI provides high spatial resolution compared to EEG
Choose the correct statements:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Only 2 and 3 are correct)
fMRI measures hemodynamic changes using the Blood Oxygen Level-Dependent (BOLD) contrast (2 - True) and offers millimetric high spatial resolution superior to EEG (3 - True). Statement 1 is false because fMRI measures indirect metabolic blood flow, not direct electrical signals (EEG does direct electrical).
Q1044
Psychotherapy & Interventions (CBT, Behavioral)Counseling Skills & Active Listening
What is the role of active listening in therapy?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To fully understand and validate the client's thoughts)
Active listening serves to deeply comprehend, clarify, reflect, and validate the client's emotional experience and narrative, fostering rapport and unconditional positive regard.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Acknowledging and respecting the client's cultural background)
Cultural competence requires therapists to maintain cultural awareness, knowledge, and clinical skills to respectfully recognize and integrate a client's cultural background, values, and worldview.
Q1046
Basic Electrical Concepts & DC CircuitsNouns & Parts of Speech
The abstract noun in the below sentence is: It requires immense determination to pursue your dreams despite obstacles.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (determination)
'Determination' is an abstract noun denoting the quality of being resolute and firmness of purpose.
Q1047
Basic Electrical Concepts & DC CircuitsPronouns & Parts of Speech
The indefinite pronoun in the below sentence is: Mohan in the audience expressed concern about whether anything could be done to improve the situation.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (anything)
'Anything' is an indefinite pronoun referring to an unspecified thing or matter.
Q1048
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsAverages
The average weight of a group of 10 boys is 52 kg. When a boy weighing 60 kg leaves the group and is replaced by another boy, the average weight of the group decreases by 0.5 kg. Determine the weight of the boy who replaced him.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (55 kg)
Initial total weight =10×52=520 kg. New total weight =10×(52−0.5)=10×51.5=515 kg. Weight of new boy =60+(515−520)=60−5=55 kg.
Q1049
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsLCM and HCF
The LCM of two numbers is 120, and their HCF is 6. If the sum of the two numbers is 54, find the two numbers.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (24, 30)
Let the numbers be 6a and 6b where gcd(a,b)=1. 6ab=120⟹ab=20. 6(a+b)=54⟹a+b=9. The co-prime factors of 20 that add up to 9 are 4 and 5. The numbers are 6×4=24 and 6×5=30.
Q1050
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsModular Arithmetic & Powers
Find the value of 5^1234 (mod 16)
💡Correct Answer: Option C (9)
Modulo 16 powers of 5: - 51≡5(mod16) - 52=25≡9(mod16) - 53=45≡13(mod16) - 54=65≡1(mod16). Since 1234=4×308+2: 51234≡(54)308×52≡1308×25≡9(mod16).
Q1051
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsCompound Ratios
What is the smallest natural value of a + b + c if a:b = 4:7 and b:c = 6:5?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (101)
Combining the ratios: a:b=4:7=24:42 b:c=6:5=42:35 Thus, a:b:c=24:42:35. Smallest natural sum =24+42+35=101.
Q1052
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsLinear vs Non-Linear Resistors
Which of the following is NOT a type of non-linear resistor?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Wire-wound resistor)
A wire-wound resistor is a linear resistor whose resistance follows Ohm's law (V=IR) proportionally. Thermistors, varistors (VDRs), and photoresistors (LDRs) are non-linear components whose resistance changes non-linearly with temperature, voltage, or light.
Q1053
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsElectrical Energy & Tariff Calculation
In her house, Anita installed 4 new fans with each fan consuming 70 W in addition to the 6 fans already installed with each fan consuming 50 W. She uses the new fans for 10 hours daily and the older fans for 20 hours daily. Calculate the electricity bill for one month (30 days) if the cost of one unit of electricity is Rs. 10.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rs. 2640)
Daily energy consumption: - New fans: 4×70 W×10 h=2800 Wh=2.8 kWh - Old fans: 6×50 W×20 h=6000 Wh=6.0 kWh - Daily total =2.8+6.0=8.8 kWh (units) - Monthly units (30 days) =8.8×30=264 units - Total bill =264×10=Rs. 2640.
Q1054
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsOhmic vs Non-Ohmic Conductors
Which of the following statements is correct regarding non-ohmic conductors?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Non-ohmic conductors have a resistance that varies with current, voltage and temperature changes.)
Non-ohmic conductors do not obey Ohm's law; their dynamic resistance changes non-linearly with applied voltage, current magnitude, or operating temperature (e.g. diodes, transistors, thermistors).
Q1055
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsKirchhoff's Laws & Limitations
Which of the following conditions could result in the violation of Kirchhoff's laws?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Influence of a varying magnetic field in the closed loop.)
Kirchhoff's Voltage Law (KVL) assumes an irrotational electrostatic field (∮E⋅dl=0). In the presence of a time-varying magnetic field inside the loop, Faraday's law applies ($\oint \vec{E} \cdot d\vec{l} = -d\Phi_B/dt eq 0$), causing apparent violation of KVL.
Q1056
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsKirchhoff's Laws (KCL & KVL)
Which of the following statements about Kirchhoff's first and second law is NOT correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kirchhoff's first law is applicable to circuits with resistive components only.)
Statement B is incorrect: Kirchhoff's Current Law (KCL, First Law) is universally applicable to any electrical junction or node in any network (linear, non-linear, AC, DC, capacitive, inductive, or resistive).
Q1057
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsResistors in Parallel
The equivalent resistance of n resistors in parallel combinations will always be:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (less than the least value of resistance in the combination)
In a parallel combination, the equivalent resistance Req=(∑Ri1)−1 is always strictly less than the smallest individual resistance in the combination.
Q1058
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsResistance & Resistivity
The resistance of the wire is 10 ohms. What will be the effect on resistance and resistivity of the wire, if the wire is stretched to 10 times its original length?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Resistance increases by 100 times, resistivity remains unchanged.)
When a wire of length L and area A is stretched to 10L, its volume V=A⋅L remains constant, so its cross-sectional area becomes A/10. New resistance R′=ρA/1010L=100(ρAL)=100R. Resistivity (ρ) is an intensive intrinsic material property and remains completely unchanged.
Q1059
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsEarth Resistance Measurement
When measuring the resistance of an earthing system, which of the following factors is/are most important for ensuring accurate readings? 1. Length/Depth of the earthing electrode 2. Distance between measurement points 3. Type of soil surrounding the electrode
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Accurate earth resistance testing (Fall-of-Potential method) depends critically on electrode insertion depth (1), proper auxiliary electrode spacing distances (2), and surrounding soil resistivity/composition (3) (All of the above).
Q1060
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsGrounding vs Earthing
Which statement correctly differentiates between grounding and earthing in electrical systems?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Grounding connects electrical systems to the earth, while earthing refers to creating a reference point within the system.)
Earthing connects non-current carrying metallic equipment enclosures directly to ground for personnel safety against shock, whereas Grounding provides a zero-potential reference point (such as neutral grounding) for system balancing.
Q1061
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsHeating Appliances & Joule Heating
Which of the following statements correctly describes the principle of operation of an electric heater? 1. Electric heaters work by converting electrical energy into heat energy through a heating element or coil. 2. Electric heaters operate on the principle of electromagnetic induction to generate heat. 3. Electric heaters utilize the heating effect of electric current, where resistance in the heating element produces heat. 4. Electric heaters rely on chemical reactions in the filament or coil to produce heat for heating purposes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Only 1 and 3)
Electric heaters function via Joule's heating effect of electric current (H=I2Rt), converting electrical energy directly into thermal heat energy across a resistive alloy coil (Statements 1 and 3 are correct).
Q1062
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsHeating Elements (Nichrome)
Which material is commonly used as the heating element in an electric iron and why is it preferred?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Nichrome, due to its high resistance and ability to withstand high temperatures)
Nichrome (an alloy of 80% Nickel and 20% Chromium) is preferred because of its high electrical resistivity, high melting point (~1400°C), and formation of a protective chromium oxide layer that prevents oxidation at high temperatures.
Q1063
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsElectric Water Heaters & Geysers
Match the different types of electric water heaters with their working principle:
| Types of Heater | Working Principle | | :--- | :--- | | i) Normal Plate Heater | 2) Consists of two round-shaped nickel plates separated by a gap of 2 mm with an insulator | | ii) Immersion Water Heater | 3) Tube is shaped like a U or a coil and filled with magnesium oxide that acts as an insulator | | iii) Geyser Water Heater | 1) Consists of an electric heating element made of Nichrome |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-2, ii-3, iii-1)
Matching: i) Normal plate heater uses spaced nickel plates (2); ii) Immersion heater features a copper/sheathed U-tube packed with magnesium oxide (MgO) insulation (3); iii) Storage geysers feature heavy-duty enclosed nichrome heating elements (1). Code: i-2, ii-3, iii-1.
Q1064
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsFuzzy Logic in Modern Appliances
What is the primary function of the Fuzzy Inference Unit (FIU) in a fuzzy controller used in a washing machine?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To apply fuzzy logic rules for decision-making based on input conditions)
The Fuzzy Inference Unit (FIU) processes fuzzified input sensor variables (such as load weight, fabric type, dirt level) by evaluating IF-THEN linguistic fuzzy rules to determine optimal wash duration, water level, and spin speed.
Q1065
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsWashing Machines Working Principle
What is the primary working principle of a washing machine?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Agitation - The process where clothes are moved vigorously in water to enhance cleaning.)
The primary mechanical principle of a washing machine is agitation (or pulsator/tumbling motion) where vigorous mechanical turbulence forces water and detergent through fabric weave to dislodge dirt particles.
Q1066
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsRefrigeration Cycle Components
Match the components in the refrigerator system with the corresponding functions:
| Components | Function | | :--- | :--- | | i) Evaporator | 2) Features tubes with high thermal conductivity that absorbs heat rejected in the system. | | ii) Compressor | 3) Condenses the low-pressure, low-temperature vapor into a high-temperature, high-pressure vapor. | | iii) Condenser | 4) Comprises a set of tubes with external fins placed back of refrigerator to convert gaseous refrigerant into liquid form. | | iv) Expansion Valve | 1) Helps to sense temperature change and regulates the flow of refrigerant |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1)
Matching: i) Evaporator absorbs heat from inside compartment (2); ii) Compressor compresses low-pressure vapor into high-pressure vapor (3); iii) Condenser cools and condenses gas to liquid via rear fins (4); iv) Expansion valve drops pressure and regulates refrigerant flow (1). Code: i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1.
Q1067
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsLaws of Illumination (Lambert's Law)
A surface is inclined at an angle of 45° to the rays and is kept 5 m away from a 150 candle power lamp. Calculate the average intensity of illumination on the surface. (Value of square root of 2 = 1.414)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (4.2 Lux)
According to Lambert's Cosine Law of Illumination: E=d2Icosθ=52150×cos45∘=25150×1.4141=1.4146≈4.24 Lux≈4.2 Lux.
Q1068
Wiring Systems, Earthing & SafetyUniversal Motor & Series Motor on AC
Which type of DC motor can operate on a single-phase AC supply and why?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (DC series motor because the torque is always positive)
A DC Series Motor (Universal Motor) can operate on AC because when current alternates, the armature current Ia and field flux Φ reverse simultaneously, keeping the developed electromagnetic torque (T∝ΦIa) unidirectional in the same direction.
Q1069
Power Generation & DistributionDamper Windings & Hunting
What is the function of the damper winding in an alternator?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (To eliminate hunting and suppress the negative sequence field)
Damper (amortisseur) windings in synchronous machines suppress rotor oscillations (hunting) during load surges and damp out unbalanced negative-sequence armature reaction magnetic fields.
Q1070
Power Generation & DistributionAmmeter Shunt Resistance
What is the purpose of using a shunt resistor in an ammeter?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To bypass excess current)
A low-resistance shunt (Rsh) is placed in parallel with the delicate galvanometer movement to bypass the vast majority of the circuit current, allowing only a safe fractional current to pass through the meter coil.
Q1071
General English & Quantitative AptitudeResistive AC Circuits & Unity Power Factor
When the current is in phase with the circuit voltage, the power factor of the circuit is unity. This condition occurs in which type of circuit?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Purely resistive circuit)
In a purely resistive AC circuit (and an RLC circuit at series resonance), current and voltage are exactly in phase (ϕ=0∘), so the power factor is cos0∘=1.0 (Unity).
Q1072
General English & Quantitative AptitudeOperating System Kernel & Functions
In an operating system, what is the primary role of a kernel?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Act as a bridge between hardware and applications.)
The kernel is the foundational core of an Operating System that manages system hardware resources (CPU, RAM, I/O devices) and provides a secure abstraction bridge for user application programs.
Q1073
Data Structures & AlgorithmsFunction Pointers in C
Which of the following is a correct declaration of a pointer to a function in C?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (int (*func)(int a);)
A function pointer returning `int` and accepting `int a` is declared with parentheses around the pointer symbol: `int (func)(int a);` (or `int (func)(int);`). Without parentheses, `int *func(int a);` declares a function returning a pointer to int.
Q1074
Data Structures & AlgorithmsC Functions & Recursion
Consider the following statements about functions in C: 1. Functions can return only one value. 2. Recursive functions can call themselves. 3. The void keyword is used to indicate that a function does not return a value. 4. Functions must always have a return type specified.
Choose the correct Statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1, 2, and 3 are correct)
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. In C89, functions without a return type defaulted to `int` (implicit int), so statement 4 is not strictly universal in legacy C. Thus, 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
Q1075
Data Structures & AlgorithmsSQL Aggregate Functions (COUNT)
What is the result of the following SQL query?
```sql SELECT COUNT(*) FROM Employee WHERE Salary > 50000; ```
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The number of employees with a salary greater than 50,000)
`COUNT(*)` aggregates and returns the total number of matching rows in the `Employee` table where `Salary > 50000`.
Q1076
Data Structures & AlgorithmsCandidate Keys & Functional Dependencies
A table has 5 attributes. If the table is in 1NF, how many candidate keys can it have?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Depends on the table)
The number of candidate keys is determined by the functional dependencies (FDs) between attributes, which varies from 1 up to many combinations depending on the relation's semantic schema.
Q1077
Database Management Systems (SQL)SQL Fundamentals
What does SQL stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Structured Query Language)
SQL stands for Structured Query Language, the standard domain-specific language used for managing data held in relational database management systems.
Q1078
Operating Systems & System ArchitectureRuntime Polymorphism & Virtual Functions
Which of the following C++ features implements the concept of runtime polymorphism?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Virtual Functions)
Virtual Functions in C++ enable dynamic binding (late binding / runtime polymorphism) via virtual method tables (vtable and vptr). Function overloading and templates provide compile-time polymorphism.
Q1079
Operating Systems & System ArchitectureVirtual Function Overriding in C++
What is the output of the following C++ code?
```cpp #include <iostream> using namespace std;
class Base { public: virtual void display() { cout << "Base" << endl; } };
class Derived: public Base { public: void display() { cout << "Derived" << endl; } };
int main() { Base* b; Derived d; b = &d; b->display(); return 0; } ```
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Derived)
Because `display()` is declared `virtual` in `Base`, the call `b->display()` dynamically resolves at runtime to the overriding method in `Derived`. Output is `Derived`.
Q1080
Operating Systems & System ArchitectureFriend Functions & Classes in C++
What is the purpose of the friend function in C++?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (To access private and protected members of a class)
A `friend` function in C++ is granted special non-member access permissions to read and modify the `private` and `protected` members of the class in which it is declared a friend.
Q1081
Operating Systems & System ArchitectureFunction & Operator Overloading in C++
Which of the following statements about overloading in C++ are correct? 1. Function overloading allows functions with the same name but different parameters. 2. Operator overloading enables custom behavior for built-in operators 3. Function overloading can be based on the return type alone 4. Overloaded functions must differ in their parameter list
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2, and 4)
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Statement 3 is false because functions differing only in return type cannot be overloaded (the compiler cannot distinguish which overload to invoke without context). Thus, 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
Arrange the following steps for creating a pure virtual function in C++: 1. Declare a function as virtual 2. Use the = 0 syntax to make it pure virtual 3. Implement the function in the derived class 4. Create an abstract class containing the function
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (4 → 1 → 2 → 3)
Order: 4 (Create abstract base class) → 1 (Declare function with `virtual` keyword) → 2 (Append `= 0;` specifier) → 3 (Override and implement in concrete derived classes). Order: 4 → 1 → 2 → 3.
Q1083
Web Technologies, Networking & Software EngineeringObject-Oriented Design Fundamentals
Which of the following statements about Object-Oriented Programming are true? 1. It supports inheritance 2. It emphasizes reusable code 3. It requires writing all logic in one function 4. It uses classes and objects
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1, 2, and 4)
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are true. Statement 3 describes poor procedural monoliths and violates modular object-oriented encapsulation. Thus, 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
Q1084
Web Technologies, Networking & Software EngineeringTurnaround Time Calculations
What is the turnaround time if a process takes 20 ms for execution and waits 10 ms in the ready queue?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (30 ms)
Turnaround Time is the total interval from submission to completion: Turnaround Time=Burst Time+Waiting Time=20 ms+10 ms=30 ms.
Q1085
Indian Classical Music: History & EvolutionMountain Folk Dances
What is the famous folk dance of the mountain regions?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Najerad)
Najerad (along with Kud) is a prominent traditional ritualistic folk dance celebrated across the mountainous terrains of the Jammu division.
Q1086
Indian Classical Music: History & EvolutionBhand Community Dance Forms
Which folk dance is performed by the "Bhand" community of Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bachi Nagma)
Bachi Nagma (and Bhand Pather) is performed by the professional folk artists and dancers of the Bhand community.
Q1087
Sangeet Shastra & Technical Terminology (Raga, Swara)Wanwun Folk Singing
Wanwun is a form of folk song generally sung on which of the following occasions:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Wedding)
Wanwun (Vanvun) is a rhythmic choral wedding song sung exclusively by women during marriage festivities across both Kashmiri Muslim and Kashmiri Pandit traditions.
Q1088
Musical Instruments & Vocal Traditions12-TET Tuning System
Which of the following options is correct and completes the statement given below appropriately? Statement: A Twelve Tone equal temperament system is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (An octave is divided into 12 semi tones)
In 12-TET (Twelve-Tone Equal Temperament), an octave is mathematically divided into 12 equal logarithmic semitones with a frequency ratio of 21/12≈1.05946.
Q1089
Musical Instruments & Vocal TraditionsHarmonium Tuning Systems
In terms of tuning which type of harmonium is generally preferred for Indian Classical Music?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Equal Tempered)
Modern keyboard harmoniums are tuned to the 12-Tone Equal Tempered scale (Equal Tempered), allowing seamless modulation across multiple keys.
Q1090
Radiation Physics & Atomic StructureAtomic Mass Unit (amu) Definition
An atomic mass unit (amu) is defined as _____.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1/12 of the mass of a 6C12 atom)
The unified atomic mass unit (1 u / amu) is standardly defined as exactly 1/12 of the mass of an unbound neutral Carbon-12 (12C) atom at rest (1 amu≈1.66054×10−27 kg≈931.5 MeV/c2).
Q1091
Radiation Physics & Atomic StructureHDR Brachytherapy Unit Safety Standards
In compliance with the NRC regulations, the leakage radiation levels outside the HDR unit:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Should not exceed 1 mR/h at a distance of 10 cm with the source in the Shielded position)
Under NRC / IAEA radiation safety regulations for High Dose Rate (HDR) remote afterloader brachytherapy units with the source in the shielded home storage position, radiation leakage must not exceed 1 mR/h at a distance of 10 cm from the surface.
Q1092
Radiation Detection & DosimetryTransuranic Elements & Natural Abundance
Why are there no naturally occurring isotopes with an atomics number greater than 92?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (They exist, but their half-lives are too short to exist naturally)
Transuranic elements (Z>92, beyond Uranium) have unstable nuclei with half-lives vastly shorter than the 4.5-billion-year age of the Earth; any primordial isotopes formed during nucleosynthesis have completely decayed away.
The speed of ultrasound propagation (c=B/ρ) is determined exclusively by the acoustic properties of the propagation medium (bulk modulus elasticity and density), independent of wave frequency or amplitude.
Q1094
Clinical Oncology & Treatment PlanningDuane-Hunt Law & Maximum Photon Energy
Maximum energy an x-ray photon can have is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (eV)
According to the Duane-Hunt Law, the maximum kinetic energy transferred to a Bremsstrahlung photon corresponds to the full tube potential: Emax=hνmax=eV (where e is electron charge and V is applied peak tube voltage).
Q1095
Clinical Oncology & Treatment PlanningUltrasound Pulse-Echo Distance Formula
Bone thickness is equal to:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (c * Delta t / 2)
In pulse-echo ultrasound, sound travels to the reflecting bone interface and back (two-way transit time Δt). The one-way anatomical thickness is d=2c⋅Δt.
Q1096
Clinical Oncology & Treatment PlanningUltrasound Pulse Repetition Frequency (PRF)
In ultrasound a 4 MHz transducer has a useful range of 10cm. What is the maximum pulse repetition frequency of this transducer?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (7.7 KHz)
Speed of sound in soft tissue c=1540 m/s=154,000 cm/s. Round-trip transit distance for depth d=10 cm is 2d=20 cm. Time required per pulse Δt=154,000 cm/s20 cm≈1.2987×10−4 s. Maximum PRF=Δt1=20154000=7700 Hz=7.7 kHz.
Q1097
Clinical Oncology & Treatment PlanningHounsfield Unit (HU) Calibration
Two materials used to calibrate the CT number scale of CT scanner are:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Water and Air)
The Hounsfield unit (HU / CT number) scale is fundamentally calibrated using Water (extCTnumber=0 HU) and Air (extCTnumber=−1000 HU).
An ultrasound transducer which utilizes a series of elements that transmit sequential sound waves in order to form a rectangular image is called:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Linear array)
A Linear Sequenced Array transducer fires sequential groups of parallel transducer crystals along a flat bar to produce a wide, rectangular field-of-view image format.
Q1099
Radiation Safety, Protection & Quality AssuranceBremsstrahlung Radiation Production
When high energy electrons decelerate in a high Z target, the predominant radiation emitted is?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bremsstrahlung)
When relativistic electrons decelerate in the strong nuclear Coulomb fields of heavy target atoms (Tungsten, Z=74), the dominant radiation produced is continuous Bremsstrahlung ('braking radiation').
Q1100
Radiation Safety, Protection & Quality AssuranceRadiation Units (Sievert)
A sivert is :
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The SI unit of dose equivalent)
The Sievert (Sv) is the SI unit of radiation Equivalent Dose (H) and Effective Dose (E), defined as 1 Joule of energy absorbed per kilogram of tissue multiplied by radiation weighting factors (1 Sv=1 J/kg=100 rem).
Q1101
Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologyHead Measurement Unit
When drawing the human figure, which of the following is an important consideration to ensure accurate proportions?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The head height is typically used as a measurement unit for the body's proportion.)
The height of the head serves as the universal proportional unit (the 7.5 to 8 heads canon).
Q1102
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingRelief Sculpture
Which of the following best defines a "Relief sculpture"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A sculpture carved or modelled on a flat surface, projecting partially from the background.)
Relief sculpture projects sculpted elements from a solid background plane.
Q1103
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingTypes of Relief
Match the following types of Relief sculpture with their descriptions :
Column A (Type of Relief): i. Bas-Relief ii. High Relief iii. Sunken Relief iv. Intaglio Relief.
Column B (Description): 1. Figures project prominently from the background. 2. Figures are slightly raised from the background. 3. Carvings are made below the level of the background. 4. A form of engraving where the design is cut into the surface.
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4)
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingBas-Relief Features
Which of the following is a characteristic features of a bas - relief sculpture?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Figures are slightly raised from the background.)
Bas-relief (low relief) features shallow projections where forms remain close to the background plane.
Q1107
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingRelief Composition
Which of the following statements about sculptural Composition (Relief) are correct?
i. Relief sculptures are always carved on falt surfaces like walls or slabs. ii. High relief sculptures have figures projecting significantly from the background. iii. Sunken reliefs are primarily associated with ancient Egyptian art. iv. Bas - relief sculpture have figures slightly raised from the background.
Choose the correct options
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii and iv)
Statements i, ii, and iv correctly define the structural categories of relief sculpture.
Q1108
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingSculpture in the Round
What is a characteristic feature of a round sculpture?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (It can be viewed from all sides.)
Sculpture in the round is free-standing and intended to be viewed from 360 degrees.
Q1109
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingIconic Round Sculptures
Which of the following is an example of a round sculpture?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The statue of David by Michelangelo)
Michelangelo's David is a monumental masterpiece of free-standing sculpture in the round.
Q1110
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingRound Sculpture Mediums
Which material is commonly used in creating round sculptures?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Wood)
Wood (along with stone and bronze) is a premier traditional medium for free-standing round sculptures.
Q1111
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingRound Sculpture Attributes
Which of the following statements about sculptural composition (Round) are correct?
i. Sculptures in the round are fully three - dimensional and can be viewed from all angles. ii. They are often attached to a flat background for support. iii. Materials like marble, bronze, and wood are commonly used for creating sculptures in the round. iv. Sculptures in the round are typically used in architectural decoration.
Choose the correct options
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, iii)
Statements i and iii are correct. Round sculptures are free-standing (not attached to flat backgrounds).
Q1112
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingRound Sculpture Presentation
Identify the correct statements regarding the process and presentation of sculptural composition (Round).
i. Sculptures in the round require careful attention to details from all viewing angles. ii. They are commonly placed in niches or recessed spaces. iii. Balance and structural stability are crucial design considerations in round sculptures. iv. These sculptures are primarily designed for frontal viewing only.
Choose the correct options
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, iii)
Statements i and iii are correct. Round sculptures demand complete 360-degree consideration and structural stability.
Q1113
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingChronology of Iconic Sculptures
Arrange the following famous round sculptures in chronological order (earliest to latest):
i. The Great sphinx of Giza (Egypt). ii. Discobolus (The Discus Thrower) by Myron (Greece) iii. David by Michelangelo (Italy). iv. The Thinker by Auguste Rodin (France)
Choose the correct options
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i -> ii -> iii -> iv)
Chronology: Great Sphinx (c. 2500 BCE, i) -> Discobolus (c. 450 BCE, ii) -> David (1504 CE, iii) -> The Thinker (1904 CE, iv).
Q1114
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingPortraiture Purpose
What is the primary purpose of a portrait?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To represent a person's likeness and personality.)
A portrait aims to capture the individual likeness, mood, status, and personality of a specific person.
Q1115
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingFamous Portraits
Which of the following is an example of a famous portrait painting?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The Mona Lisa by Leonardo da vinci.)
Leonardo da Vinci's Mona Lisa is the most famous portrait in art history.
Q1116
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingFacial Expression in Portraits
In portraiture, what is commonly emphasized to capture the subject's personality?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Facial expression and eyes.)
Facial expressions, gaze, and eye rendering convey psychological depth and personality in portraiture.
Q1117
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingMaster Portrait Artists
Match the following famous portrait artists with their notable works :
Column A (Artist): i. Leonardo da Vinci ii. Johannes vermeer iii. Frida kahlo iv. Vincent van Gogh.
Column B (portrait): 1. Girl with a pearl Earring. 2. Self - portrait with a Straw Hat. 3. Mona Lisa. 4. The Two Fridas
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2)
Da Vinci -> Mona Lisa (3), Vermeer -> Girl with a Pearl Earring (1), Frida Kahlo -> The Two Fridas (4), Van Gogh -> Self-portrait with Straw Hat (2).
Q1118
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingPortrait Types
Match the following portraiture terms with their correct descriptions :
Column A (Term): i. Self - portrait ii. Profile portrait iii. Group portrait iv. Miniature portrait
Column B (Description): 1. A portrait depicting a group of people. 2. A portrait showing only the subject's side view 3. A portrait created by the artist of themselves. 4. A small, detailed portrait often worn as jewelry
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4)
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingPortraiture History
Identify the correct statements about historical portraiture traditions :
i. Portraiture was primarily reserved for royalty and nobility in early history. ii. Renaissance artists revolutionized portraiture with lifelike detail and realism. iii. Portraits in ancient Egypt focused heavily on capturing emotional expressions. iv. Modern portraiture often includes abstract and experimental styles.
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, ii and iv.)
Statements i, ii, and iv are correct. Ancient Egyptian portraits were formalized and idealized, not focused on transient emotions.
Q1120
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingMetal Sculpture Mediums
Which of the following metals is most commonly used in traditional metal sculpture making?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bronze.)
Bronze (copper-tin alloy) is the historic standard for metal sculpture casting.
Q1121
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingBronze Sculpture Civilizations
Which ancient civilization is well - known for its mastery of bronze sculptures?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ancient Greece.)
Ancient Greece is renowned for masterworks in bronze (e.g., Artemision Bronze, Riace Bronzes).
Q1122
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingMetal Casting
What is the process called where molten metal is poured into a mould to create sculptures?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Casting)
Casting is the manufacturing process where liquid metal is poured into a hollow mould.
Q1123
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingChronology of Famous Metal Sculptures
Arrange the following famous metal sculptures in chronological order (earliest to latest):
i. Dancing Girl of Mohenjo - Daro (India). ii. The Riace Bronzes (Greece) iii. The Statue of Liberty (USA). iv. Cloud Gate (USA)
Choose the correct options
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i -> ii -> iii -> iv)
Chronology: Dancing Girl of Mohenjo-Daro (c. 2300 BCE, i) -> Riace Bronzes (c. 450 BCE, ii) -> Statue of Liberty (1886 CE, iii) -> Cloud Gate (2006 CE, iv).
Q1124
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingMetal Sculpture Techniques
Identify the correct statements about the techniques and significance of metal sculptures:
i. Forging involves heating metal and hammering it into shape. ii. Patina is a naturally occurring layer that forms on metal sculptures over time. iii. Metal sculptures are limited to small - scale indoor artworks. iv. Welding is a common technique in assembling large metal sculptures.
Choose the correct options
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii and iv)
Statements i, ii, and iv are correct. Metal sculptures are widely used for monumental outdoor public monuments.
Q1125
Relief & Round Sculpture, Portraiture & Metal CastingMetal Sculpture Properties
Which of the following statements about metal sculptures are correct?
i. Bronze is one of the most commonly used metals for sculptures due to its durability and ability to capture fine details. ii. The lost - wax casting technique is a traditional method used in creating metal sculptures. iii. Metal sculptures cannot be used for outdoor installations due to corrosion. iv. Stainless steel is commonly used in modern metal sculptures for its resistance to rust.
Choose the correct options
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii and iv)
Statements i, ii, and iv are correct. Bronze and stainless steel are premier outdoor installation materials.
Q1126
Entomology, Microbiology & Plant PathologyChemical Communication in Insects
Which chemicals do insects use to communicate messages at the following three levels, respectively: within the insect body, intra-specifically (between members of the same species), and inter-specifically(between members of different species)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hormone, pheromone and allomone, respectively)
Insects communicate internally via Hormones, among conspecifics via Pheromones, and across different species via Allelochemicals (Allomones/Kairomones).
Q1127
Entomology, Microbiology & Plant PathologyHistory of Immunology
Term vaccine was coined by .....?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Louis Pasteur)
Louis Pasteur coined the term 'vaccine' in 1881 to honor Edward Jenner's pioneering discovery using cowpox (Variolae vaccinae).
HIV selectively binds to the CD4 receptor and CCR5/CXCR4 coreceptors on helper T-lymphocytes (CD4+ T cells).
Q1129
Entomology, Microbiology & Plant PathologySanctuaries and Fauna
Flying squirrels are reported in which of this sanctuary:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sitamata Sanctuary)
Sitamata Wildlife Sanctuary in Pratapgarh district, Rajasthan, is renowned for its nocturnal Indian giant flying squirrel population.
Q1130
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsBee Communication & Ethology
When honey bee discovers a food source less than 250 feet away from the hive, it passes on the information to other bees by performing?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Round dance)
Karl von Frisch proved that honeybees perform the round dance (Rundtanz) for nearby food sources (<50–100m) and the waggle dance (Schwänzeltanz) for distant sources.
Q1131
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsFoundations of Ethology
Term 'ethology' was introduced by
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Niko Tinbergen)
Niko Tinbergen and Konrad Lorenz established ethology as the scientific study of animal behavior in natural environments.
Q1132
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsPheromone Functions
Functions of pheromones are
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Pheromones serve diverse semiochemical functions including mate attraction, trail marking, alarm signaling, and reproductive caste suppression in eusocial insects.
Q1133
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsCommunity Ecology
Identify the correct match: Column-I: i) Species diversity ii) Species dominance iii) Stratification iv) Key stone Species
Column-II: 1. Great influence on community stability 2. Zonation according to the need of light 3. Different type of species in a community 4. Highest no.of one type of species
Choose the correct Answer
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1)
Which one of the following is a lymphoepithelial organ?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Thymus)
The thymus is a primary lymphoepithelial lymphoid organ in which lymphoid progenitor cells interact with endodermal and ectodermal epithelial reticular cells.
The antigen and antibody binding does not involve:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Covalent bonds)
Antigen-antibody interactions rely exclusively on non-covalent forces (hydrogen bonds, electrostatic ionic interactions, van der Waals, and hydrophobic effects).
P53 protein is associated with all of the following except
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Post-transcription modifications)
p53 functions as a sequence-specific transcription factor orchestrating cell cycle arrest, DNA repair, and apoptosis; it does not perform post-transcriptional RNA splicing or modifications.
Q1141
Immunology, Cell Biology & Assertion AnalysisHallmarks of Cancer
Which of the following is not a property of cancer cells?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Increased requirement of extracellular growth factors)
Transformed cancer cells exhibit self-sufficiency in growth signals, markedly reducing or eliminating their dependency on external growth factors.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (MHC class II molecules are present on all nucleated cells)
MHC Class I is expressed on all nucleated cells, whereas MHC Class II expression is strictly restricted to professional Antigen Presenting Cells (APCs: dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells).
Q1143
Immunology, Cell Biology & Assertion AnalysisTypes of Immunity
Match the type of immunity listed in column I with the examples listed in column II. Column I (Type of immunity): 1. Natural active 2. Artificial passive 3. Artificial active 4. Natural passive
Column II (Example): i. Immunity developed by heredity ii. From mother to foetus through the placenta iii. Injection of antiserum to travellers iv. Fighting infections naturally v. Induced by vaccination
Choose the correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-iv; 2-iii; 3-v; 4-ii)
Natural active -> Fighting natural infection (iv), Artificial passive -> Antiserum/antibodies injection (iii), Artificial active -> Vaccine induction (v), Natural passive -> Transplacental maternal IgG transfer (ii).
Q1144
Immunology, Cell Biology & Assertion AnalysisEffective Population Size
Which of the following best defines effective population size (Ne)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The number of breeding individuals in a population who contribute to the gene pool.)
Effective population size (Ne) is the number of sexually breeding individuals in an idealized population that would experience the same rate of genetic drift or inbreeding as the actual population.
Assertion(A): T-helper cells are critical in coordinating adaptive immune responses. Reason(R) : They produce antibodies to target pathogens directly.
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A is true, but R is false)
Assertion is true (T-helpers coordinate cell-mediated and humoral immunity via cytokine signaling). Reason is false because plasma B-cells synthesize antibodies, not T-cells.
Assertion (A): Mammals are the only vertebrates that exhibit diaphragmatic breathing. Reason (R) : The diaphragm in mammals is crucial for oxygen supply during high-energy activities.
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A)
The muscular diaphragm is a unique mammalian evolutionary innovation separating thoracic and abdominal cavities to support high endothermic metabolic oxygen demands.
Assertion (A): Natural selection is the only mechanism responsible for evolutionary change. Reason(R) : Genetic drift and mutations play minimal roles in shaping populations.
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A is true, but R is false.)
Assertion is false (evolution is also driven by genetic drift, mutation, and gene flow). In typical JKSSB keys, A is false and R is false.
Assertion (A): Primary succession occurs faster than secondary succession Reason (R) : Soil is already present in secondary succession, whereas it needs to develop in primary succession.
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A is false, but R is true.)
Primary succession on bare rock/lava takes hundreds to thousands of years because soil must form first. Secondary succession is much faster due to pre-existing soil and seed banks.
Assertion(A): Altruistic behavior is exclusively seen in social insects. Reason(R) : Kin selection explains altruistic acts towards close relatives in both insects and vertebrates.
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A is false, but R is true)
Assertion is false because altruism is widespread in birds, canids, and primates. Reason is true (Hamilton's kin selection theory explains altruism across all taxa).
Assertion(A): Gram-negative bacteria have a thicker peptidoglycan layer than Gram positive bacteria. Reason(R) : The outer membrane in Gram-negative bacteria adds an additional barrier, reducing permeability.
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A is false, but R is true)
Assertion is false (Gram-positive bacteria have a thick 20–80 nm peptidoglycan wall, while Gram-negatives have a thin 2–7 nm layer). Reason is true (outer LPS membrane serves as a permeability barrier).
Assertion (A): Plasmodium vivax can infect individuals who lack the Duffy antigen on their red blood cells. Reason(R) : The Duffy antigen acts as a receptor for Plasmodium vivax in erythrocytes.
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A is false, but R is true)
Assertion is false because Duffy-negative (Fy/Fy) erythrocytes are refractory to Plasmodium vivax merozoite invasion. Reason is true (the Duffy antigen/DARC is the obligate receptor).
Assertion (A) : Tumor suppressor genes function by promoting uncontrolled cell division. Reason (R) : Loss of function mutations in tumor suppressor genes are associated with cancer.
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A is false, but R is true)
Assertion is false (tumor suppressor genes brake the cell cycle and prevent uncontrolled division). Reason is true (inactivating loss-of-function mutations eliminate checkpoints).
Q1154
Immunology, Cell Biology & Assertion AnalysisEndomembrane System
Assertion(A) : The Golgi apparatus is involved in synthesizing proteins. Reason (R) : It modifies, packages, and sorts proteins synthesized by ribosomes.
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A is false, but R is true)
Assertion is false (ribosomes synthesize proteins; Golgi modifies, glycosylates, and packages them). Reason is true.
Assertion(A) : All point mutations lead to observable phenotypic changes. Reason (R) : Silent mutations do not alter the amino acid sequence of a protein
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A is false, but R is true.)
Assertion is false due to genetic code degeneracy where silent/synonymous mutations yield identical amino acid sequences and wild-type phenotypes. Reason is true.
Assertion(A) : A Population exhibiting exponential growth will have a J-shaped growth curve. Reason (R) : Exponential growth occurs under ideal conditions of unlimited resources.
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A))
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation. When resources are non-limiting (dN/dt=rN), population growth accelerates exponentially into a classic J-shaped curve.
Which of the following is emphasized during counselling of a patient newly diagnosed with leprosy?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The disease is curable with multi-drug therapy)
Counselling stresses that leprosy is completely curable with standard Multi-Drug Therapy (MDT) and transmission ceases within days of initiating treatment.
Q1158
Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Immunology of Lepra Reactions
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved in Type 1 lepra reaction?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Type IV (Cell-mediated))
Type 1 lepra reaction is a Type IV delayed hypersensitivity response caused by an acute upgrade or downgrade of cell-mediated immunity against M. leprae antigens.
Match the fungal infection with its clinical presentation: i. Tinea pedis ii. Tinea capitis iii. Tinea corporis iv. Candidiasis
Clinical Presentation: 1. Ring-shaped lesions on the trunk 2. Scaling and maceration of web spaces of toes 3. White patches in the oral cavity or moist areas 4. Scaling and hair loss on the scalp
Select the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3)
Tinea pedis -> Athlete's foot / web space maceration (2), Tinea capitis -> Scalp scaling and alopecia (4), Tinea corporis -> Ringworm of trunk (1), Candidiasis -> Oral thrush / white plaques (3).
Q1160
Cutaneous Infections, Infestations & STIsCandidiasis and Antifungal Resistance
Consider the following statements about Candida infections: i. Candida is a part of the normal flora of the human body and can become pathogenic under certain conditions. ii. Pseudohyphae formation is a demonstrable feature of Candida albicans in KOH preparations. iii. Inhaled or systemic corticosteroids predispose to oral candidiasis. iv. Fluconazole is the first-line treatment for Candida auris infections.
Which of the above statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, and iii)
Statements i, ii, and iii are correct. Statement iv is false because Candida auris is multidrug-resistant and frequently resistant to fluconazole (Echinocandins are first-line).
Match the following skin appendages (Column A) with their associated functions (Column B): Column - A: 1. Sebaceous glands 2. Eccrine sweat glands 3. Hair follicles 4. Nails
Column - B: i. Regulates body temperature ii. produces anti-inflammatory, antibacterial lipids iii. Provides protection from UV rays iv. Assists in fine motor functions
Select the correct match:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv)
1-ii (Sebaceous = sebum lipid barrier), 2-i (Eccrine = thermoregulation via evaporative cooling), 3-iii (Hair = UV and mechanical protection), 4-iv (Nails = distal digit support for fine pinch grasp).
Which of the following is an autoimmune bullous disorder?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Chronic bullous disease of childhood)
Chronic Bullous Disease of Childhood (Linear IgA Bullous Dermatosis) is an autoimmune blistering disorder characterized by linear IgA deposition along the basement membrane zone.
Consider the following statements about the basic structure and function of the skin: i. The epidermis is avascular and relies on diffusion from the dermis for nutrients. ii. Melanocytes are present in the stratum spinosum of the epidermis. iii. The dermis contains collagen and elastin fibers that provide strength and elasticity to the skin. iv. The stratum corneum plays a major role in preventing water loss from the skin.
Which of the above statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i, iii, and iv)
Statements i, iii, and iv are correct. Statement ii is false because melanocytes reside in the basal layer (stratum basale).
Arrange the following steps in the correct order for performing an indirect immunofluorescence test: i. Application of secondary antibody conjugated with a fluorescent dye ii. Application of the patient's serum containing primary antibody iii. Incubation of the tissue section iv. Observation under a fluorescence microscope
Select the correct order:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (ii, i, iii, iv)
Indirect IF sequence: Substrate overlay with patient serum (ii) -> Incubation & washing (iii) -> Secondary FITC-conjugated anti-human antibody (i) -> Fluorescence microscopy (iv).
Consider the following pairs: Technique: i. Direct Immunofluorescence (DIF) ii. Indirect Immunofluorescence (IIF) iii. Western Blot iv. Immunohistochemistry
Purpose: 1. Detection of antibody in serum - two step 2. Detection of proteins, using gel electrophoresis 3. Antigen detection in tissue sections 4. Detecting antibody deposition in tissue - single step
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3)
DIF -> In vivo tissue antibody deposition (4), IIF -> Circulating serum autoantibodies (1), Western blot -> Size-separated protein detection (2), IHC -> Tissue antigen visualization with enzyme chromogen (3).
Q1168
Diagnostic Mycology, Clinical Procedures & EmergenciesKOH Mount Examination
Consider the following statements about the KOH preparation test: i. Skin scrapings, hair, or nail samples may be examined using this test. ii. The test relies on the ability of potassium hydroxide to dissolve keratin and leave fungal hyphae intact. iii. A positive KOH test is definitive for a bacterial infection. iv. Clusters of yeast with short mycelial forms are diagnostic of dermatophytosis
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i and ii only)
Statements i and ii are correct. Statement iii is false (KOH tests for fungal elements); Statement iv is false (spaghetti and meatball pattern is diagnostic of Pityriasis versicolor / Malassezia, not dermatophytes).
Q1169
Basic EnglishPronouns
Identify the pronoun used in the given sentence. They themselves agreed that they were the ones responsible for the accident.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Themselves)
'Themselves' is an intensive/reflexive pronoun emphasizing the subject 'They'.
Q1170
Basic EnglishError Spotting - Pronoun Case
Find the error in the following sentence. He was much more surprised than me to see the dancing girl coming towards us.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (more surprised than me)
In formal comparative clauses with subject pronoun comparison, subjective case follows 'than': 'than I (was)'.
Q1171
Basic EnglishGender Nouns
Change the gender of a given noun. DUKE
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Duchess)
The feminine equivalent of the noble title 'Duke' is 'Duchess'.
Q1172
Basic EnglishCollective Nouns Agreement
Which of the following verbs fits the sentence and agrees with the subject ? The top management _______ divided on their suggestions regarding investment strategies.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Are)
When a collective noun ('management') acts as individuals with conflicting views (indicated by plural pronoun 'their'), it takes a plural verb: 'were/are divided'.
Q1173
Basic EnglishConjunctions
Choose the appropriate option that fills in the given sentence correctly: Smoking will never be given up, _______ the Tobacco industry thrives.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (As long as)
'As long as' (condition/duration conjunction) means 'provided that' or 'during the whole time that'.
Q1174
Basic EnglishInvariable Plural Nouns
Choose the incorrect sentence from the given options.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The space agency has created many types of aircrafts)
The noun 'aircraft' is an invariable plural (the plural form is 'aircraft', never 'aircrafts').
Q1175
General ScienceUniform Circular Motion
Suppose a boy is moving with a uniform velocity of 10 m/s on a merry-go-round ride. Which of the following is true of the given scenario?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The boy is moving with accelerated motion)
Uniform circular motion involves a continuous change in the direction of velocity, which creates a centripetal acceleration (a=rv2).
Q1176
History of India & Freedom StruggleTrade Union Movement
Who among the following personalities associated with the formation of All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) in 1920?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
AITUC was founded on October 31, 1920 with Lala Lajpat Rai as first President, Joseph Baptista as Vice-President, and N.M. Joshi as General Secretary.
Q1177
Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTGroundwater Pollutants
Which of the following element is responsible for groundwater pollution in various states?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Fluoride)
Excess fluoride (and arsenic) is a major geogenic groundwater pollutant across several Indian states, causing endemic fluorosis.
Q1178
Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTTunnels and Infrastructure in J&K
Which of the following options is the longest all weather road tunnel that has enabled increase in trade and tourism in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel)
Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel (Chenani-Nashri Tunnel on NH-44) spans 9.28 km, making it India's longest bi-directional all-weather road tunnel.
What is the method of varying inductance in a coil?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Adjusting the core)
Inductance L=lμN2A is varied physically by adjusting the position or magnetic permeability of the ferromagnetic core inside the coil.
Q1180
Refrigeration Cycles, Tools & PsychrometricsAccumulator Function
What role does the accumulator play in a refrigerator system?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Prevents liquid flood back to compressor)
A suction line accumulator traps unevaporated liquid refrigerant exiting the evaporator, ensuring that only dry gas enters the compressor suction port, preventing liquid slugging.
Match List-I (Electronic component) to List-II (Function) and select correct answer List-I: i. Resistor ii. Capacitor iii. Diode iv. Transistor v. LED
List-II: 1. Stores electric charge 2. Regulates current flow and provides resistance 3. Amplifies signals or acts as a switch 4. Emits light when current flows through it. 5. Allows current to flow in one direction only
Choose the correct Answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-1, iii-5, iv-3, v-4)
Inclusive Pedagogy, Sensory Impairments & Legal ActsPhilosophical Foundations of Education
According to Aristotle, what is the primary goal of education?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To develop virtuous citizens.)
Aristotle maintained that the ultimate aim of education is the cultivation of moral and intellectual virtue to create good, rational, and virtuous citizens living in eudaimonia (well-being).
Q1183
Curriculum Development & Teaching MethodologiesCurriculum Foundations
The curriculum construction is based on -
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Curriculum construction relies on fundamental axioms of learning, pedagogical principles of child development, and contextual psychological/societal factors.
Q1184
Curriculum Development & Teaching MethodologiesClassroom Communication
The nature of interaction in classroom is -
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Verbal and non-verbal)
Classroom communication involves verbal transactions (lectures, questions) and non-verbal cues (gestures, eye contact, facial expressions).
Which of the following Upanishads emphasizes the importance of self - knowledge?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Mundaka Upanishad)
The Mundaka Upanishad distinguishes between lower empirical knowledge (Apara Vidya) and higher transcendental self-knowledge of Brahman (Para Vidya: 'Satyameva Jayate').
Q1186
Educational Policies, Philosophies & RehabilitationUN Sustainable Development Goals
Which of the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) directly addresses the issue of quality education?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (SDG 4)
United Nations Sustainable Development Goal 4 (SDG 4) aims to 'Ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all'.
Q1187
Educational Policies, Philosophies & RehabilitationUNCRPD International Treaty
What is the full form of UNCRPD?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities)
UNCRPD stands for the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities, adopted in 2006 (ratified by India in 2007).
Q1188
Educational Policies, Philosophies & RehabilitationRehabilitation Council of India (RCI)
What is the primary function of the Rehabilitation Council of India (RCI)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (To regulate the education and training of professionals in the field of rehabilitation of persons with disabilities.)
The Rehabilitation Council of India (RCI) is the statutory body regulating training curricula, standardizing qualifications, and maintaining the Central Rehabilitation Register for professionals in disability rehabilitation.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the RCI?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Providing vocational training to persons with disabilities.)
RCI regulates training institutions and professionals (registers personnel, recognizes degree/diploma colleges); it does not directly provide grassroots vocational training to PwDs.
Q1190
Assistive Tech & Special Education StrategiesUniversal Design for Learning
What is the most effective way to create a positive and inclusive classroom environment for CWSN?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Using universal design for learning (UDL) principles.)
Universal Design for Learning (UDL) provides multiple means of representation, engagement, and expression, creating an accessible environment for Children With Special Needs (CWSN).
Q1191
Assistive Tech & Special Education StrategiesHearing Impairment Communication
How can a teacher effectively communicate with a student who has a hearing impairment?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Using sign language or an interpreter.)
Effective communication with deaf students relies on Indian Sign Language (ISL), certified interpreters, visual aids, and clear lip-reading facial cues.
Q1192
Human Anatomy, Physiology & Public Health ProgrammesUniversal Immunization Programme
Which of the following is the primary aim of the National Immunization Programme in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To ensure herd immunity against vaccine-preventable diseases through mass immunization)
The Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) aims to achieve >90% full immunization coverage across infants and pregnant women to establish community herd immunity against vaccine-preventable diseases (VPDs).
Which of the following is the primary mechanism by which vaccines induce long lasting immunity against infectious diseases?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Activation of T and B lymphocytes, leading to the formation of memory cells)
Vaccination introduces harmless pathogen antigens, stimulating clonal expansion of antigen-specific helper/cytotoxic T cells and B cells which differentiate into long-lived memory T and memory B lymphocytes.
Which of the following immunoglobulins is most commonly associated with providing immunity against pathogens at mucosal surfaces, such as the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (IgA)
Secretory IgA (dimeric with secretory component) is the dominant immunoglobulin in mucosal secretions (saliva, tears, mucus, colostrum) neutralizing pathogens before tissue penetration.
Q1195
Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlActive vs Passive Immunity
Which of the following types of immunity is provided by a vaccination with a killed or inactivated pathogen?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Active immunity through antigen exposure)
Administering an inactivated vaccine introduces exogenous antigens that prompt the recipient's own immune system to generate active antibodies and memory cells (Artificially acquired active immunity).
Q1196
Nutrition, Food Hygiene & Epidemic DiseasesHealth Communication & IEC
What is the main function of social mobilization within an Information , Education and Communication campaign?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (To involve communities and stakeholders in promoting the campaign's objectives)
Social mobilization engages community leaders, grassroots institutions, NGOs, and families to collectively build ownership, demand, and participation in health initiatives.
Q1197
Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHASHA Community Health Training
What kind of training do ASHAs typically undergo before starting their duties in the community?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (An 18-day training on maternal and child health, nutrition, immunization, and family planning)
Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs) undergo competency-based modular induction training (23 days in 5 modules) covering maternal-neonatal health, child nutrition, immunization, communicable diseases, and family planning.
Q1198
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationUniversal Health Coverage
Universal Health Coverage, as part of the WHO's global health agenda, aims to ensure that:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (All people have access to essential health services without financial hardship)
Universal Health Coverage (UHC) means that all individuals and communities receive the full spectrum of quality essential health services they need without suffering financial catastrophe.
Q1199
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationHealth Impact Assessment
The Health Impact Assessment is a process used to:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Predict and assess the potential health impacts of policies, programs, or projects before they are implemented)
Health Impact Assessment (HIA) is a multidisciplinary combination of procedures and methods that prospectively evaluates the potential health effects of a proposed infrastructure project or policy on a community.
Q1200
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationClimate Change & Global Health
Which of the following is a major challenge in global health that is directly related to climate change?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rising food insecurity and malnutrition , particularly in developing countries)
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationGlobal Health Equity
The Lancet Commission on Global Health has emphasized the importance of:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Reducing health inequalities and providing equitable health services globally)
The Lancet Commission emphasizes planetary health, addressing social determinants of health, and dismantling structural health inequities to guarantee equitable universal health systems.
Q1202
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationBasic Pharmacology - Beta Blockers
Which of the following is a "beta-blocker" used to treat high blood pressure and heart problems?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Metoprolol)
Metoprolol (and Atenolol, Propranolol) is a selective β1-adrenergic receptor blocker that reduces heart rate, cardiac output, and arterial blood pressure.
Q1203
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationAntipyretics and Anti-inflammatories
Which of the following drug classes is used to reduce fever and inflammation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Antipyretics)
Antipyretics (and NSAIDs like Paracetamol, Ibuprofen) lower elevated body temperature by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis in the hypothalamic thermoregulatory center.
Q1204
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationAnticoagulant Drugs
Which of the following drugs is used as an "anticoagulant" to prevent blood clot formation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Warfarin)
Warfarin is an oral vitamin K epoxide reductase inhibitor anticoagulant prescribed to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism.
Q1205
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationDiuretic Medications
Which of the following drugs is classified as a "diuretic" to help reduce swelling by increasing urine output?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Furosemide)
Furosemide (Lasix) is a potent loop diuretic that inhibits the Na+−K+−2Cl− cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of Henle's loop, increasing renal water and sodium excretion to relieve edema.
Q1206
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationGastrointestinal Pharmacology
Ranitidine is used to treat:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Stomach acid problems, such as heartburn or ulcers)
Ranitidine is a histamine H2-receptor antagonist that decreases gastric parietal cell hydrochloric acid secretion, treating gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and peptic ulcers.
Q1207
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationFirst Aid for Seizures
What is the best position for someone experiencing a seizure to prevent injury?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Place the person on their side and support their head with a soft object)
During a generalized seizure, gently roll the individual into the recovery lateral side position to maintain a patent airway and prevent aspiration of saliva or vomit; cushion their head and never force objects into their mouth.
Q1208
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationFirst Aid for Burns
If a person has a burn from hot water, what is the first step in first aid treatment?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Submerge the burned area in cold water for at least 10 minutes)
Immediate first aid for thermal burns is cooling the injured area under gentle, cool running tap water (10∘C−20∘C) for 10–20 minutes to dissipate heat and arrest tissue destruction (never apply ice or butter).
Q1209
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationFirst Aid for Fractures
In case of a fracture, what should you do to immobilize the injury before seeking medical help?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Use a splint to stabilize the injured limb)
Fractured limbs must be immobilized using a rigid splint spanning the joints above and below the suspected fracture site in the position found, preventing further neurovascular and soft tissue trauma.
Q1210
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationFirst Aid for Animal Bites
In case of a dog bite, which of the following should be done first?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Clean the wound with water and soap to reduce the risk of infection)
Immediate post-exposure prophylaxis for potential rabies dog bites requires vigorously washing all bite wounds and scratches under running tap water with soap for at least 15 minutes to wash out viral inoculum.
Q1211
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationFirst Aid for Snakebites
A person has been bitten by a venomous snake. What is the most important first aid step before getting medical help?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Keep the affected limb immobilized and at or below heart level)
Standard snakebite first aid (Right Care protocol): Keep the patient calm, immobilize the bitten limb using a broad splint, maintain the limb at or slightly below heart level, and transport immediately to a hospital (never cut, suck, or apply arterial tourniquets).
Q1212
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationInventory Valuation Methods
Which of the following stock valuation methods calculates the cost of inventory based on the most recent purchase price?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (LIFO (Last-In-First-Out))
Under LIFO (Last-In, First-Out), the cost of goods issued is charged at the most recently acquired replacement purchase prices.
Q1213
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationPerpetual Inventory System
Which of the following is an example of perpetual inventory system?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Continuous tracking of stock levels with each transaction)
A perpetual inventory system maintains continuous real-time ledger/software records of inventory quantities and costs, updating automatically with every receipt and issue transaction.
Q1214
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationFIFO Method Disadvantages
Which of the following is a disadvantage of the FIFO (First-In-First-Out) inventory method?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It results in higher taxes during periods of inflation)
During inflationary periods, FIFO matches older lower costs against current high revenues, resulting in inflated reported gross profits and correspondingly higher corporate income tax liabilities.
Q1215
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationEconomic Order Quantity (EOQ)
The Economic Order Quantity model in inventory management is primarily used to:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Minimize the number of orders and reduce the storage costs)
The Economic Order Quantity (EOQ=H2DS) determines the optimal purchase order quantity that minimizes the total annual sum of ordering costs and holding/carrying storage costs.
Q1216
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationSafety Stock & Inventory Control
Which of the following terms refers to the minimum quantity of stock below which inventory should not be allowed to fall?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Safety stock)
Safety stock (buffer stock) is the minimum reserve level maintained in inventory to mitigate against stockout risks caused by demand spikes or supplier delivery lead-time delays.
Q1217
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationMunicipal Corporation Administration
Which of the following is the highest executive authority in a Municipal Corporation in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Municipal Commissioner)
In Indian municipal administration, the Municipal Commissioner (usually a senior IAS officer appointed by the State Government) is the chief executive authority wielding statutory administrative powers.
Q1218
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal Administration74th Constitutional Amendment Act
The Ward Committee in a Municipal Corporation is formed under which of the following laws?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act)
Article 243S of the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act 1992 mandates the constitution of Wards Committees in all municipal areas having a population of 300,000 or more.
Q1219
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationDissolution of Municipal Corporations
In the case of financial mismanagement or misconduct, who can dissolve the Municipal Corporation?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The State Government)
Under state municipal corporation statutes, the State Government possesses the statutory authority to supersede or dissolve a Municipal Corporation on grounds of persistent incompetence or financial mismanagement.
Q1220
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationMayor Term of Office
The Mayor of a Municipal Corporation is elected for a term of how many years?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (5 years)
Under the standard provisions of the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act (and most state municipal corporation acts), the term of the Municipal Corporation and its elected council is 5 years.
Q1221
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationMunicipal Vacancy Procedures
In case of a vacancy in the position of Mayor, who is responsible for appointing an interim Mayor in a Municipal Corporation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The General Body of the Municipal Corporation)
When a casual vacancy occurs in the office of Mayor, the General Body of elected municipal corporators/councillors convenes in a special meeting to elect a successor or interim Mayor from among its members.
Q1222
Principles of Museology & Museum ManagementMuseum Communication Strategy
What is the primary purpose of the communication policy of a museum?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To promote the museum's collection and exhibitions to the public)
A museum's communication policy is structured to convey educational knowledge, promote exhibits, engage diverse communities, and project the institution's public mission.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a reaction mechanism?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It involves a sequence of elementary steps that show how the reaction occurs.)
A reaction mechanism is the stepwise sequence of elementary microscopic steps detailing bond-breaking, bond-forming, intermediate formation, and electron movement leading from reactants to products.
Q1224
Advanced Reaction Mechanisms & Organic SynthesesSN1 vs SN2 Fundamentals
Which of the following statements correctly describes the key features of the SN1 and SN2 nucleophilic substitution mechanisms? i. SN1 reactions involve a two-step mechanism with a carbocation intermediate, resulting in racemization of chiral centers. ii. SN2 reactions occur via a single-step mechanism, where the nucleophile attacks the substrate in a backside attack, leading to inversion of configuration. iii. The rate of SN1 reactions depends only on the concentration of the nucleophile. iv. SN2 reactions are favoured by polar protic solvents. Options :
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i and ii are correct)
Statements i and ii are correct: SN1 produces planar carbocations with racemization; SN2 proceeds via a concerted backside attack with Walden inversion.
Which of the following statements is true regarding Aromatic Nucleophilic Substitution reactions? i. Aromatic nucleophilic substitution is more common in activated aromatic systems, where electron-withdrawing groups stabilize the intermediate anion. ii. In the SNAr mechanism, nucleophilic substitution proceeds via a carbanion intermediate formed at the meta position relative to the leaving group. iii. The SNAr mechanism requires the aromatic ring to be electron-donating, as it stabilizes the negative charge on the intermediate anion. iv. The SNAr mechanism involves a direct displacement of the leaving group by the nucleophile without the formation of an intermediate. Options :
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i and ii are correct)
Statements i and ii describe SNAr (Addition-Elimination via Meisenheimer σ-complex) where ortho/para EWGs strongly stabilize the negative charge in the carbanionic intermediate.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the free radical substitution mechanism? i. The initiation step involves the homolytic cleavage of a bond to generate two free radicals. ii. Propagation involves the formation of new bonds between the radicals and substrates, regenerating reactive radicals. iii. The termination step involves the combination of two free radicals to form a stable product. iv. Free radical substitution mechanisms are most common in polar solvents, such as water. Options :
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i, ii, and iii are correct)
Statements i, ii, and iii correctly describe homolytic initiation, radical propagation chain cycles, and termination quenching (statement iv is false because radicals are non-polar and typically run in gas phase or non-polar solvents like CCl4).
Q1227
Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationFungal Growth Prevention
Which of the following is crucial to prevent fungal growth in a museum collection?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Maintaining a stable and controlled environment with low humidity (below 60% RH))
Mold and fungal spores germinate actively when relative humidity (RH) exceeds 65%; maintaining stable ambient RH between 45% and 55% strictly inhibits fungal growth.
Q1228
Heritage Legislation, Antiquities & J&K Heritage SitesUNESCO World Heritage Convention
World Heritage Convention is another name for :
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Convention concerning the protection of the world cultural and natural heritage)
The UNESCO World Heritage Convention, adopted in Paris on 16 November 1972, is formally titled the 'Convention Concerning the Protection of the World Cultural and Natural Heritage'.
Q1229
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentPsychological Defense Mechanisms
Individuals with disability may reduce their distress related to their condition, by avoiding their medical treatment, by considering it not necessary, they are engaging in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Denial)
Denial is a primary psychological defense mechanism wherein individuals refuse to acknowledge the painful reality or severity of an acquired impairment, often avoiding essential medical intervention.
Q1230
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentDepression in Disability
Depression in persons with disabilities is characterized by the following: i. A state of panic ii. Helplessness and hopelessness iii. Excessive arguing iv. Dejection and discouragement Which of this is True?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ii and iv)
Clinical depression following disabling trauma is centrally characterized by feelings of helplessness, hopelessness (ii), persistent dysphoria, dejection, and discouragement (iv).
Q1231
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentPsychosocial Factors in Disability
Match the following pairs related to psychosocial factors of disability : i. Stigma ii. Body image iii. Self - concept iv. Anger
Psychosocial description: 1. Depreciation and devaluation emancipating from prejudice 2. Blaming themselves for their condition 3. Culturally influenced personal conceptions of attractiveness 4. Perceptions of their own strengths and weaknesses 5. Evaluative component of self
Options :
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-1, ii-3, iii-4, iv-2)
i -> 1 (Stigma = societal prejudice devaluation), ii -> 3 (Body image = cultural conception of physical appearance), iii -> 4 (Self-concept = perception of personal strengths/weaknesses), iv -> 2 (Anger = internal self-blame and external hostility).
Q1232
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentFamily Systems in Rehabilitation
Direct familial influence on treatment goals and rehabilitation outcomes of persons acquiring a disability are observed due to the following: i. The level of resources of the family ii. Family members adjustment to new roles iii. Family members level of involvement with healthcare / rehabilitation professionals iv. The emotional strain among family members Which of these are applicable?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ii and iii)
Family systems therapy emphasizes that family role adaptability (ii) and proactive, collaborative engagement with the multidisciplinary rehabilitation team (iii) directly dictate therapeutic compliance and community reintegration outcomes.
Q1233
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentSocial Isolation Determinants
Which of these is an external factor which influences social isolation in persons with disabilities?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Environmental barriers / difficulty entering community facilities)
Architectural inaccessibility, lack of ramps, inaccessible public transport, and physical community infrastructure barriers constitute external environmental determinants of social isolation.
Q1234
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentPsychosocial Adjustment Models
Arrange the following in order of progression in terms of adjustment to acquired disability, as suggested by social psychologist Dana Dunn: 1. Mourning 2. Shock 3. Adaptation 4. Depression 5. Denial Options :
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2, 5, 1, 4, 3)
Dana Dunn's psychosocial adaptation model progresses sequentially through: (2) Initial Shock -> (5) Defensive Denial -> (1) Acknowledgment / Mourning -> (4) Reactive Depression -> (3) Final Adaptation / Integration.
Q1235
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentSexuality and Disability
Physical limitations, lack of energy and pain affect which aspect of sexuality of persons with disability?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sexual expression)
Chronic neuropathic pain, spasticity, fatigue, and limited joint mobility directly restrict the physical ability to engage in intimate sexual behaviors and physical sexual expression.
Q1236
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentInsider-Outsider Paradigm
Based on the social psychological insider-outsider distinction for persons with disabilities, if the insider refers to persons with disabilities, who is perceived as the outsider?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Able-bodied people)
In disability social psychology (Beatrice Wright's insider-outsider paradigm), the 'insiders' share the lived experience of impairment, while non-disabled ('able-bodied') individuals are perceived as outsiders.
Q1237
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentEthics in Rehabilitation
Providing a rationale for psychological intervention to a client with disability in the context of the rehabilitation teams treatment is an aspect of which ethical principle?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Informed consent)
Informed consent ethically mandates that clients receive a clear, comprehensible explanation of the nature, purpose, rationale, anticipated benefits, and potential risks of psychological interventions.
Q1238
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentEthical Dilemmas in Rehabilitation
Which of this is a specific ethical dilemma a rehabilitation professional is likely to face?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Balancing patients' right to autonomy with their safety)
Rehabilitation psychologists constantly navigate the classic ethical tension between respecting client self-determination/autonomy versus paternalistic duty to ensure safety (beneficence/non-maleficence).
Q1239
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentMaladaptive Coping Hierarchies
Arrange the following starting from most severe form of maladaptive coping mechanism to psychological loss as a result of disability? i. Self-harm ii. Compulsive eating iii. Social withdrawal iv. Substance abuse Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i, iv, ii, iii)
Severity hierarchy of destructive maladaptive coping: (i) Non-suicidal/suicidal self-harm -> (iv) Chemical substance abuse/dependence -> (ii) Compulsive eating disorders -> (iii) Passive social isolation/withdrawal.
Q1240
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentICF WHO Model
The international classification of Functioning, Disability and Health (ICF), by World Health Organization (2001) is based on the perspective of which of these models of disability?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Biopsychosocial Model)
WHO's ICF framework (2001) integrates the biological medical model with the social environmental model into a unified Biopsychosocial Model of functioning, disability, and health.
Q1241
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentRehabilitation Psychologist Scope
Which of this is NOT a role of a Rehabilitation Psychologist?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Occupational therapy)
Occupational therapy is a distinct licensed allied healthcare profession focused on restoring motor coordination, biomechanics, and ergonomic task performance.
Q1242
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentResilience Models
'A person with disability having a stable family support, is more likely to be resilient', can be explained by which model of resilience?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Protective factor model)
The Protective Factor (Moderating) Model posited by resilience theory posits that external social assets (like cohesive family support) buffer and mitigate the detrimental impact of stress.
Q1243
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentMastery and Self-Efficacy
Helping a person with disability achieve a strong sense of mastery can have direct effects on the following: i. Self-efficacy ii. Perceived optimism iii. Greater life satisfaction iv. Internal locus of control Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, ii and iv)
Achieving behavioral mastery and autonomy directly strengthens Bandura's self-efficacy beliefs (i), instills optimism (ii), and reinforces an internal locus of control (iv).
Q1244
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentPsychoanalytic Model of Disability
According to the psychoanalytical model of disability, loss of a limb can have an effect on the ego similar to
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sense of 'castration')
In classical Freudian psychoanalytic theory, traumatic amputation or bodily loss symbolizes a severe narcissistic blow to body integrity, unconscious bodily mutilation, and reactivation of castration anxiety.
Q1245
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentRisk Domains in Disability
'Stressful living conditions' can be classified into which domain of risk factors which affect adjustment to disability?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Environmental)
Inaccessible living spaces, poverty, overcrowded housing, and hazardous living environments belong to the Environmental risk domain affecting disability adaptation.
Q1246
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentAPA Division 22
The division of rehabilitation psychology in the American Psychological Association (APA) is referred to as
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Division 22)
APA Division 22 is the dedicated Division of Rehabilitation Psychology, established in 1958 to advance psychological practice, research, and policy for individuals with disabilities.
Q1247
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentSelf-Determination Theory
Nurturing self-determination in a person with disability, is related to which psychological mechanism?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Motivation)
Self-Determination Theory (Deci & Ryan) posits that fulfilling the core psychological needs for autonomy, competence, and relatedness fosters intrinsic Motivation and self-directed agency.
Q1248
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentLandmark Literature in Rehab Psychology
One of the pioneering books on psychosocial aspects of disability "Physical Disability: A Psychological Approach" was authored by which social psychologist?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Beatrice Wright)
Dr. Beatrice A. Wright authored the landmark, foundational text 'Physical Disability: A Psychological Approach' in 1960 (revised in 1983 as 'Physical Disability: A Psychosocial Approach').
Q1249
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentNeurological Classifications of Paralysis
A condition in paralysis patients, where only both the lower limbs are affected is referred to as
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Paraplegia)
Paraplegia is the impairment or loss of motor and sensory function in the thoracic, lumbar, or sacral neurological segments affecting both lower extremities.
Q1250
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentCerebral Palsy Types
In cerebral palsy abnormality of muscle tone resulting in muscle stiffness and exaggerated muscle contraction is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Spasticity)
Spastic cerebral palsy (affecting ≈80% of cases) is characterized by velocity-dependent upper motor neuron hypertonia, muscular stiffness, hyperreflexia, and resistance to passive stretch.
Q1251
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentAcquired Brain Injuries
What is the abbreviation which is commonly used to refer to a condition which is caused by outside force that impacts the head hard enough to cause damage to the brain?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (TBI)
TBI stands for Traumatic Brain Injury, an acquired intracranial insult resulting from external biomechanical forces (blunt impact, penetration, or blast trauma).
Q1252
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentNeuropsychology of Language
Broca's aphasia is consequence of brain damage which affects which area of functioning?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Communication)
Damage to Broca's area in the posterior inferior frontal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere causes non-fluent, expressive expressive language impairment, halting speech output, and communication deficits.
Q1253
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsLocomotor Functional Deficits
Which of the following areas of functional limitations is less likely to manifest in locomotor disabilities?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Communication limitation)
Pure locomotor (orthopedic/musculoskeletal) disabilities directly impair ambulation, joint motion, and weight-bearing, but typically do not intrinsically affect expressive or receptive communication.
Q1254
Experimental Designs, Psychological Assessment & PsychometricsFunctional Assessment of ADL
Which of these types of assessment can help up gain a good understanding of a person with disabilities engagement with activities of daily living? (ADL)? i. Cognitive assessment ii. Behavioural assessment iii. Functional assessment iv. Vocational assessment Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ii and iii)
Functional assessment evaluates independent self-care ADL/IADL task execution (Barthel index/FIM), and Behavioral assessment analyzes specific observational environmental adaptations.
Q1255
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsREBT ABCDE Model
In the ABCDE model of REBT, C stands for?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Consequences)
In Albert Ellis's Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT) framework: A = Activating event, B = Belief system, C = Emotional/behavioral Consequences, D = Disputation, E = Effective new philosophy.
In which core condition of person-centered counselling, Carl Rogers speaks about the "As if" condition?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Empathy)
Carl Rogers defined accurate Empathy as perceiving the internal frame of reference of another with accuracy and emotional components 'as if' one were the other person, without losing the 'as if' boundary.
Which factor of counselling is influenced by rapport and trust?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Therapeutic relationship)
A strong therapeutic relationship (therapeutic alliance) is the cornerstone of counseling outcome, built directly upon mutual rapport, safety, and deep unconditional trust.
Q1258
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsOrigins of Cognitive Therapy
Aaron Beck's earliest work on cognitive therapy was conceptualized on which mental health condition?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Depression)
Aaron T. Beck initially developed Cognitive Therapy in the early 1960s based on his clinical research identifying automatic negative cognitive triads (self, world, future) in patients with Depression.
Q1259
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsCouples and Family Therapy Modalities
In couples therapy, sessions where both partners are invited to appear together is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Conjoint session)
A conjoint session in marital/couples counseling is a clinical meeting where both partners are seen and treated together in the same therapeutic space by the therapist.
Q1260
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsBowen Family Systems (Triangulation)
In family systems therapy when two family members are experiencing conflict or uncontrolled anxiety and they bring in another family member to dilute the tension, this process is called as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Triangulation)
In Murray Bowen's Family Systems Theory, Triangulation is the defensive interpersonal process where a two-person system under acute tension pulls in a third person to stabilize anxiety.
Q1261
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsSystemic Family Interventions
Which of this is an interviewing technique specifically used in systemic therapies such as family therapy?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Circular questioning)
Circular questioning (developed by the Milan Systemic Family Therapy team) asks family members about interpersonal relationships and differences among other family members to uncover relational patterns.
Q1262
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsLimits of Confidentiality (Duty to Warn)
In which of these conditions do the ethically bounded rights of autonomy and confidentiality given to the client in psychotherapy are limited?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Suicide threat)
Confidentiality and autonomy must be legally and ethically breached (duty to protect/warn) when there is clear, imminent danger of self-harm, suicide, or violence toward others.
Q1263
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsEthics: Professional Competence
According to which ethical principle of counselling, does the counsellor need to keep upgrading their skills, train themselves to meet professional standards and for the welfare of the client?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Competence)
The ethical principle of Competence dictates that practitioners operate only within their professional scope and continuously engage in continuing professional education to maintain clinical excellence.
What is one of the primary techniques used in REBT to work with irrational beliefs?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Disputation)
Disputation (D in REBT) is the active philosophical and cognitive challenging of rigid irrational beliefs (iBs) through logical, empirical, and functional arguments.
Which of these is an emotive technique used in REBT?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Shame attacking exercises)
Shame-attacking exercises are a hallmark emotive/behavioral technique invented by Albert Ellis where clients deliberately engage in minor socially awkward actions to overcome irrational shame.
The phrase "Once an alcoholic, always an alcoholic" in alcohol addicts points towards a focus on what aspect of rehabilitation counselling?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Relapse prevention)
The disease model and traditional 12-step recovery recognize substance dependence as a chronic recurring vulnerability, focusing counseling intensely on lifelong Relapse Prevention strategies.
How does the concept of 'group think' affect group therapy?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Conformity and consensus are preferred over critical thinking and personal expression)
Groupthink (Janis) occurs when the desire for group conformity and harmony stifles individual dissenting viewpoints, genuine emotional expression, and critical self-reflection.
Which of the following are potential disadvantages of group therapy: i. Risk to confidentiality ii. High degree of client involvement required iii. Limited individual attention iv. Managing conflicts in group Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i and iii)
Core inherent limitations of the group therapy format include the risk of breaches of peer confidentiality (i) and reduced individualized therapeutic attention (iii).
Q1271
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsIndian Family Sociocultural Contexts
From a family systems therapy point of view in the Indian society, which is the biggest challenge to building resilience as a system of care to a child with disability?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Familial schema about raising a child with disability)
In traditional sociocultural contexts, entrenched fatalistic or stigmatizing familial schemas, parental guilt (karma beliefs), and distorted expectations present the primary barrier to family systemic resilience.
Q1272
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsSystemic Advocacy in Rehabilitation
While working with persons with disabilities in a rehabilitation set up, which of these issues requires moving beyond traditional roles, processes and techniques in counselling, to help solve the problem?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (There is a lack of jobs available for the client)
Structural environmental deficits like systemic unemployment and job scarcity require rehabilitation psychologists to expand beyond intrapsychic counseling into community advocacy, job engineering, and systemic policy liaison.
While working with a clients with a physical disability experiencing loneliness and depression, what would a culturally sensitive counsellor prioritize?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Social integration strategies, focusing on accessible community resources, extended family and peers)
In collectivist cultures, culturally sensitive interventions leverage extended family support networks, peer cohorts, and accessible community spaces to overcome social isolation.
Q1274
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsSocial vs Instrumental Skills
As a part of skills training, you have train persons with disabilities with social skills and instrumental skills. Which of these are instrumental skills: i. Creating a resume ii. Initiating a conversation iii. Refusing a request iv. Managing a conflict Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only i)
Instrumental skills involve concrete task-oriented actions for vocational and independent living (e.g., creating a resume, budgeting, cooking), whereas conversation initiation, refusal, and conflict management are social/interpersonal skills.
Q1275
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsIn-Vitro vs In-Vivo Skills Training
In skills training, which of these is considered an in vitro technique?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Visualization)
'In vitro' skills practice refers to internal cognitive simulation or mental visualization occurring entirely within the imagination, in contrast to 'in vivo' (real-world) or behavioral role-play execution.
Q1276
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsTheoretical Foundations of Behaviorism
Behavioural principles are based on which of this theoretical position?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Environmental determinism)
Classical and operant behaviorism fundamentally rests on Environmental Determinism—the premise that overt behavior is acquired, maintained, and modified through environmental stimuli, conditioning, and reinforcement contingencies.
Encouraging clients to employ relaxation techniques when gradually exposing them to anxiety provoking stimuli in systematic desensitization is based on the concept of
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Reciprocal inhibition)
Joseph Wolpe's principle of Reciprocal Inhibition states that an anxiety response cannot occur simultaneously with an incompatible physiological state (e.g. deep somatic relaxation).
Which behavioural principle refers to withdrawing the previously present reinforcement which maintained an undesirable behavior in hopes of reducing or eliminating it?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Extinction)
Extinction is the operant process of withholding or terminating the reinforcing consequences that previously maintained a target behavior, leading to its gradual reduction and cessation.
A rehabilitation counselor working with physiotherapist uses shaping to help a client with polio learn to walk and balance using a caliper. Here shaping involves
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Reinforcing successive approximations of the desired behavior)
Shaping (method of successive approximations / B.F. Skinner) involves systematically reinforcing small, progressive approximations toward a complex terminal target behavior.
Q1281
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsBehavioral Interventions in Rehabilitation
In a rehabilitation set up, behavioural interventions can be used for the following: i. Assistive technology training ii. Interview skills training iii. Training to used coping self-statements iv. Functional training Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, ii and iv)
Behavioral techniques (prompting, chaining, shaping, role-playing, reinforcement) are directly applied to Assistive technology operation (i), Job interview mastery (ii), and Functional ADL mobility training (iv).
Q1282
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsAssertiveness Training
A rehabilitation counselor uses assertiveness training to help a client with cerebral palsy, who has difficulty communicating. Here the main purpose of assertiveness training is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Teaching the client to express their needs directly and respectfully, despite their communication difficulty.)
Assertiveness training empowers individuals to communicate their personal rights, opinions, and care needs directly, honestly, and respectfully without becoming passive or aggressive.
Q1283
Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Token Economy Systems
Token economies are being used in a psychiatric rehabilitation facility to effectively maintain or change a broad range of behaviors. What is the underlying concept of behaviourism which is operating here?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Contingency management)
A token economy is a formal Contingency Management system based on operant conditioning, where tokens earned as secondary reinforcers for target behaviors are exchanged for backup reinforcers.
Which skills learning intervention will not be suitable for an older child with dyslexia?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bibliotherapy)
Bibliotherapy relies on reading and reflecting on literary books/texts; for a child with severe dyslexia and phonological decoding deficits, text-heavy reading interventions are counterproductive and frustrating.
Which of these therapies stem from behaviour therapy?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Acceptance and Commitment therapy)
Acceptance and Commitment Therapy (ACT, developed by Steven Hayes) is a major third-wave behavior therapy grounded in Relational Frame Theory and functional contextualism.
One of the strongest merits of behaviour therapy over other traditional therapies is that
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It is based on observable and measurable behaviors)
The primary scientific strength of behavior therapy is its rigorous operationalization and empirical measurement of overt, observable, and quantifiable target behaviors.
Which of these exposure-based interventions is the most contemporary?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Virtual reality therapy)
Virtual Reality Exposure Therapy (VRET) is the most contemporary, technologically advanced exposure paradigm, immersing clients in controlled, interactive computer-generated virtual environments.
Q1289
Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Single-Subject Research in ABA
Which of these is a primary research method employed for testing the effectiveness for Applied Behavioural Analysis (ABA) intervention?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Single subject design)
Applied Behavior Analysis (ABA) predominantly utilizes Single-Subject Experimental Designs (SSED, such as ABAB reversal or multiple-baseline designs) where the participant serves as their own baseline control.
Which of this is a method devised to understand the underlying reasons or functions behind challenging or problematic behaviors exhibited by individuals?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Functional behaviour assessment)
Functional Behavior Assessment (FBA) systematically identifies the underlying communicative functions, antecedents, and maintaining consequences of challenging behaviors.
Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) is most widely used as an intervention with which group of children?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Autism spectrum disorders)
ABA (specifically Discrete Trial Training and Natural Environment Teaching) is the most extensively researched, evidence-based gold-standard intervention for children with Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD).
What is the difference between positive and negative reinforcement?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Positive reinforcement provides something desirable, while negative reinforcement takes away something undesirable.)
In operant conditioning, both forms of reinforcement strengthen target behavior: Positive reinforcement presents a rewarding stimulus (+S), while Negative reinforcement removes or avoids an aversive stimulus (−S−).
Q1293
Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Generalization in ABA
When do we say 'generalization' occurs in Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The child can perform the learnt behavior in different settings and with different people.)
Stimulus and response generalization occurs when a newly acquired target behavior is spontaneously demonstrated across untrained physical environments, untrained stimuli, and with different individuals.
Community-based rehabilitation programmes are based on
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A participatory approach by including persons with disability, their families and community resources)
Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR) is fundamentally built upon a grassroots participatory strategy empowering persons with disabilities, their families, local organizations, and indigenous resources.
In principle what is community-based rehabilitation opposed to?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Institutionalised and segregated rehabilitation care)
CBR originated as a direct philosophical and structural reaction against centralized, institutionalized, medicalized, and segregated rehabilitation facilities.
Q1296
Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)CBR Community Assessment
When we speak on Community Based Rehabilitation Assessment, what are we referring to?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Surveying the community to understand specific needs, opportunities and resources.)
A CBR assessment is a participatory community appraisal surveying local disability prevalence, unmet needs, existing environmental barriers, economic opportunities, and available local community assets.
Which international organization was the first to conceptualized and promote the idea of community-based rehabilitation?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (World Health Organization (WHO))
The World Health Organization (WHO) pioneered and launched the Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR) strategy following the 1978 Alma-Ata Declaration to provide accessible primary rehabilitation in developing nations.
Arrange the steps in which community-based rehabilitation should be implemented: i. Select coordinators ii. Determine objectives and indicators iii. Write a proposal iv. Choose a method v. Test the Method Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (iii, ii, i, iv, v)
Logical implementation cycle for a CBR initiative: (iii) Draft initial project concept proposal -> (ii) Establish clear objectives and measurable indicators -> (i) Form steering committee and select coordinators -> (iv) Select intervention methodologies -> (v) Pilot-test the methods in the field.
What is one of the benefits of the sustainability goal of Community-based rehabilitation?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Can help address the problem of unemployment through identified income-generating activities)
Economic sustainability in the WHO CBR matrix fosters long-term financial self-reliance by linking disabled individuals and self-help groups (SHGs) to microfinance, vocational skills, and sustainable livelihoods.
Match the Factors of implementing Community Based Rehabilitation with their specific aspects: i. Policies ii. Strategies iii. Activities iv. Challenges
Specific aspects: 1. Providing technical aids and services 2. Helping rural persons with disabilities migrate to city rehabilitation centers 3. Determining mainstreaming and participation 4. Planning programme coverage 5. Inadequate access
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-5)
i -> 3 (Policies = establishing inclusive mandates for mainstreaming and participation), ii -> 4 (Strategies = planning multi-sectoral programme coverage), iii -> 1 (Activities = delivering technical aids and local services), iv -> 5 (Challenges = structural inadequate access and geographical barriers).
Q1301
Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Social Work in CBR
What is one role of social workers in community-based rehabilitation?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Resource Mobilization)
Social workers in CBR primarily mobilize community assets, build multisectoral inter-agency partnerships, form community disability committees, and secure financial/material resources.
Q1302
Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Self-Advocacy in Disability Rights
What is one of the role of people with disabilities within community-based rehabilitation?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Self-advocacy)
In alignment with 'Nothing About Us Without Us', persons with disabilities are empowered as key leaders and agents of change through Self-Advocacy, peer counseling, and rights defense.
Which is one of the methods used to understand the effectiveness of community-based rehabilitation programmes?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Baseline studies)
Baseline studies (pre-intervention demographic, economic, and functional surveys) provide the benchmark data against which longitudinal community progress, empowerment, and outcomes are measured.
Which of this is NOT a parameter of impact assessment evaluation in Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Financial resources generated for CBR)
Financial resources generated reflect project input/funding, whereas true impact assessment evaluates qualitative and quantitative outcome changes in beneficiaries' quality of life, community participation, and service coverage.
Q1305
Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Disability Rights and Empowerment
Community Based Rehabilitation (CBR) can be a source of empowerment for persons with disabilities only if
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The rights and dignity of persons with disabilities are recognized)
CBR fosters authentic empowerment when it shifts from charity to a human-rights framework that unconditionally respects and upholds the equal rights, dignity, and autonomy of persons with disabilities.
What is one aspect of Justice that is realized in Community Based Rehabilitation?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Equalization of opportunities and social inclusion)
Social justice within the UN Convention and CBR guidelines is achieved through the Equalization of Opportunities—ensuring equitable access to education, healthcare, employment, and full social inclusion.
What do we mean by the concept of "appropriate technology" within the context of CBR?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Adapting existing technology and providing assistive technology to meet specific needs of persons with disabilities)
Appropriate Technology in CBR denotes designing and producing low-cost, durable, locally fabricated assistive devices utilizing indigenous materials that can be easily repaired and maintained in the community.
Q1308
Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Rehabilitation Council of India Act 1992
In India under which act can a Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR) professional be trained and receive appropriate qualification to be certified as a CBR professional?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rehabilitation council of India act (1992))
The Rehabilitation Council of India (RCI) Act 1992 is the statutory legislation that regulates, standardizes training curricula, and registers/licenses all rehabilitation professionals and personnel in India.
Q1309
General English & ComprehensionSubjunctive Mood
She insisted that he _______ (attend) the meeting despite his busy schedule.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (attend)
Verbs of demand or insistence ('insisted that...') require the present subjunctive mood, using the base form of the verb ('attend').
Q1310
Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISHospital Admitting Office Functions
What is the primary function of the Central Admitting Office in a healthcare facility?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Coordinating patient admissions and maintaining their records)
The Central Admitting Office (CAO) coordinates inpatient bed allocation, registers patient demographics and insurance data, generates unique admission numbers, and initiates the medical record file.
Q1311
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationMRD Statistical Functions
Which department is typically responsible for generating hospital statistics?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Medical Records Department)
The Medical Records Department (MRD) compiles, analyzes, and publishes daily, monthly, and annual inpatient census, morbidity, mortality, and hospital statistical returns.
Q1312
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeMedical Records Indexing Functions
What is the role of indexing in medical records?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To systematically arrange and retrieve records based on specific criteria)
Medical indexing creates structured lookup files (Disease Index, Operation Index, Physician Index) that allow rapid systematic retrieval of patient charts based on diagnosis, surgical procedure, or clinician.
Q1313
History & Evolution of Percussion (Avanaddha & Pushkar Vadya)Fundamental Layas
How many Layas are there in Indian Classical Music?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Three)
Indian classical music recognizes three fundamental speeds/layas of rhythm: Vilambit (slow), Madhya (medium), and Drut (fast).
Q1314
History & Evolution of Percussion (Avanaddha & Pushkar Vadya)Lucknow Gharana Founders
Which among the following are the founders of Lucknow Gharana?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Modu Khan and Bakshu Khan)
Ustad Modu Khan and Ustad Bakshu Khan (grandsons of Ustad Siddhar Khan who moved from Delhi to Awadh) founded the Lucknow Tabla Gharana (Khula Baaj / Thap Baaj).
Q1315
Tabla Gharanas, Tala Pranas & Layakari MathematicsFarrukhabad Founder
Who was the originator of Farrukhabad Gharana?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Vilayat Ali)
Ustad Vilayat Ali Khan (famously known as Haji Vilayat Ali Khan, son-in-law of Ustad Bakshu Khan) founded the Farrukhabad Tabla Gharana.
Q1316
Tabla Gharanas, Tala Pranas & Layakari MathematicsPunjab Gharana History
Which Tabla Gharana is known for Lala Bhawani Das?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Punjab Gharana)
Lala Bhawani Das, a great Pakhawaj and Tabla master of Punjab, heavily influenced the creation and repertoire of the Punjab Tabla Gharana.
Q1317
Tabla Gharanas, Tala Pranas & Layakari MathematicsTigun Layakari
How many matras are required for Tigun of Sool Taal?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Three and one third of a Matra)
Sooltaal has 10 matras. In Tigun (3 times speed), the entire 10-matra cycle requires 310=331 (Three and one third of a Matra).
Q1318
Classical Talas, Aesthetics (Rasa-Bhava) & StylisticsPunjab Gharana Features
Energetic, bold, and intricate rhythmic patterns in Tabla playing is the key feature of which one of the following gharanas?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Punjab Gharana)
The Punjab Gharana (steeped in the martial Pakhawaj tradition of Lala Bhawani Das and Mian Qadir Baksh) is celebrated for its powerful, bold, open-handed, and complex mathematical layakaris.
Q1319
Carnatic Tala System, Acoustics of Tabla & MaestrosTabla Tuning Mechanics
Which portion of table can be struck for minute tuning?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Gajra)
Tuning the Tabla to precise pitch is accomplished by tapping the woven leather rim collar braid known as the Gajra with a brass tuning hammer (Hathori).
Q1320
Carnatic Tala System, Acoustics of Tabla & MaestrosPunjab Gharana Maestros
Which among the following arists belongs to the Punjab Tabla Gharana?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ustad Zakir Hussain)
Ustad Zakir Hussain is the foremost contemporary torchbearer of the Punjab Tabla Gharana.
Q1321
Carnatic Tala System, Acoustics of Tabla & MaestrosPadma Vibhushan Tabla Artists
Which Table Artist is honoured by Padma Vibushan?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ustad Zakir Hussain)
Ustad Zakir Hussain was conferred India's second-highest civilian honor, the Padma Vibhushan, in 2023 (and Padma Bhushan in 2002).
Q1322
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsUstad Alla Rakha Birthdate
What is the birthdate of Ustad Alla Rakha?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (29th April, 1919)
Ustad Alla Rakha was born on 29 April 1919 in Ghagwal, Jammu district (now Samba district), Jammu & Kashmir.
Q1323
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsPunjabi Taal Repertoire
Which singing style is performed in Punjabi Taal?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Thumari)
Punjabi Taal (16 matras) is predominantly used to accompany light classical Thumri, Dadra, and Ghazal singing.
Q1324
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsDhrupad Accompaniment
Which Taal is used in Dhrupad Singing?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sool Taal)
Sooltaal (10 matras), alongside Chautaal and Dhamar, is a standard classical Pakhawaj rhythm for fast Dhrupad and Sadra compositions.
Q1325
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsPadma Shri Awards
In which Ustad Alla Rakha got Padma Shree Award?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1977)
Ustad Alla Rakha was honoured with the prestigious Padma Shri national award in 1977.
Q1326
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsUstad Alla Rakha Lifespan
What was the age of Ustad Alla Rakha at the time of his death?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (80 Years)
Ustad Alla Rakha passed away on February 3, 2000 in Mumbai at the age of 80 years (1919–2000).
Q1327
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsPt. Kishan Maharaj Honors
In which year , Pt. Kishan Maharaj was honoured with Padma Vibushan Award?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2002)
Pandit Kishan Maharaj of Banaras Gharana received the Padma Vibhushan in the year 2002.
Q1328
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsBanaras Musical Families
Which singer got married to Pt. Kishan Maharaj?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Girija Devi)
Pt. Kishan Maharaj had deep artistic ties with Girija Devi in Banaras music circle.
Q1329
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsPt. Kishan Maharaj Guru
Who was the Guru of Pt. Kishan Maharaj?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Pt. Kanthe Maharaj)
Pandit Kishan Maharaj received his extensive, rigorous training under his uncle, the legendary Banaras maestro Pandit Kanthe Maharaj.
Q1330
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsPt. Kishan Maharaj Birthdate
What is the birthdate of Pt. Kishan Maharaj?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3rd September , 1923)
Pandit Kishan Maharaj was born on 3 September 1923 on the auspicious festival of Krishna Janmashtami in Kabir Chaura, Varanasi.
Q1331
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsTabla in Indian Cinema
In which film, Pt. Kishan Maharaj played Tabla?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Neecha Nagar)
Pt. Kishan Maharaj played the Tabla soundtrack for Chetan Anand's pioneering award-winning realistic Hindi film 'Neecha Nagar' (1946).
Q1332
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsPt. Kishan Maharaj Awards
Which award was received by Pt. Kishan Maharaj in 1973?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Padma Shree)
Pandit Kishan Maharaj was conferred the Padma Shri award by the Government of India in 1973.
Q1333
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsGudai Maharaj Disciples
Which music director was the disciple of Pt. Samta Prasad?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (R.D. Burman)
Legendary Bollywood music director R.D. Burman (Pancham Da) was an ardent disciple who trained in Tabla under Pt. Samta Prasad (Gudai Maharaj).
Q1334
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsIconic Film Accompaniments
Who was the Table Accompaniment in the song "Jhanak Jhanak Tori Baje Payaliya"?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Pt. Samta Prasad)
Pandit Samta Prasad (Gudai Maharaj) provided the electrifying classical Tabla accompaniment for the iconic song in the film 'Meri Surat Teri Aankhen' (1963).
Q1335
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsGudai Maharaj Lineage
Who was the father of Gudai Maharaj?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Pt. Bhagwan Prasad)
Pandit Samta Prasad (Gudai Maharaj) was born to Pandit Bhagwan Prasad Mishra (Bacha Maharaj), a respected maestro of Banaras.
Q1336
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsSNA Awards
In which year was Pt. Samta Prasad honoured with Sangeet Natak Academy Award?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1979)
Pandit Samta Prasad was awarded the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award for Hindustani Instrumental Music (Tabla) in 1979.
Q1337
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsPadma Bhushan 1991
Who was honoured with Padma Bhushan Award in 1991?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pt. Samta Prasad)
Pandit Samta Prasad (Gudai Maharaj) received the prestigious Padma Bhushan award in 1991.
Q1338
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsPt. Samta Prasad Guru
Who was the Guru of Pt. Samta Prasad?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bikku Maharaj)
Following the early demise of his father, Pt. Samta Prasad was trained extensively under his uncle Pandit Bikku Maharaj of Banaras.
Q1339
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsPt. Samta Prasad Birthplace
Which among the following is the birthplace of Pt. Samta Prasad?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Banaras)
Pandit Samta Prasad was born on 20 July 1921 in the historic Kabir Chaura neighborhood of Banaras (Varanasi), Uttar Pradesh.
Q1340
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsGharana Distinctions
Which among the following Tabla Artists is NOT from Punjab Tabla Gharana?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ustad Inam Ali)
Ustad Inam Ali Khan is a legendary doyen of the Delhi Gharana (Ustad Alla Rakha, Mian Qadir Baksh, and Ustad Zakir Hussain are Punjab Gharana).
Q1341
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsFarrukhabad Maestros
Ustad Karamatullah Khan belongs to which among the following Gharana?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Farrukhabad Gharana)
Ustad Karamatullah Khan (son of Ustad Masit Khan) was one of the greatest Khalifa maestos of the Farrukhabad Gharana.
Q1342
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsLucknow Maestros
Which Tabla Artist belongs to Lucknow Tabla Gharana?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Munne Khan)
Ustad Munne Khan (disciple of Abid Hussain Khan) was a renowned master of the Lucknow Tabla Gharana.
Q1343
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsCross-Gharana Maestros
Which Tabla Artist belongs to both Ajrada and Delhi Gharana?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ustad Habibuddin)
Ustad Habibuddin Khan of Ajrada received extensive training in both Delhi and Ajrada traditions under his father Shammu Khan and Delhi masters.
Q1344
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsAddha Trital Matras
How many matras are there in Addha Trital?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Twelve Matras)
Addha Taal (Sitarkhani / Addha Trital) is played in 16 matras (or 8/12 matras in specific regional forms).
Q1345
Biographies of Virtuosos, Tala Structures & AwardsBasant Taal Structure
How many parts and matras are there in Basant Taal?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Nine Parts and Nine Matras)
Basant Taal is a 9-matra rhythm divided into 9 single-beat parts (1∣1∣1∣1∣1∣1∣1∣1∣1).
Q1346
Basic English & GrammarRelative Pronouns
The boy _______ came to see me this morning had come from Mumbai.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Who)
The subjective relative pronoun 'Who' is required as the subject of the subordinate clause verb 'came'.
Q1347
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsInternational Organizations
Which of the following Country is not a member of BRICS?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Indonesia)
BRICS was originally founded by Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa (Indonesia is not a founding member).
Q1348
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsSports & Olympic Games
Olympics Games 2024 were held in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Paris, France)
The Games of the XXXIII Olympiad (Paris 2024 Summer Olympics) were celebrated in Paris, France from 26 July to 11 August 2024.
Q1349
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsWorld Physical Geography
The mysterious Bermuda Triangle is located in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (North Atlantic Ocean)
The Bermuda Triangle (Devil's Triangle) is loosely defined region in the western part of the North Atlantic Ocean between Florida, Bermuda, and Puerto Rico.
Q1350
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsWorld Currencies
_______ is the national currency of New Zealand.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Dollar)
The official legal tender currency of New Zealand is the New Zealand Dollar (NZD / NZ\).
Q1351
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsWorld Currencies
_______ is the national currency of Bhutan.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ngultrum)
The official legal currency of the Kingdom of Bhutan is the Bhutanese Ngultrum (BTN / Nu.), pegged at par with the Indian Rupee.
Q1352
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsWorld Capitals
Nestled amidst the Himalayas, which city serves as the capital of Nepal?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Kathmandu)
Kathmandu is the historic capital and largest metropolis of Nepal.
Q1353
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsWorld Capitals
Home to the Kremlin and Red Square, what city serves as the capital of Russia?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Moscow)
Moscow is the capital and largest city of the Russian Federation, housing the Kremlin and Red Square.
Q1354
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsNobel Prizes 2024
In 2024, Nobel Prize in Literature has been awarded to
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Han Kang)
South Korean author Han Kang was awarded the 2024 Nobel Prize in Literature 'for her intense poetic prose that confronts historical traumas and exposes the fragility of human life'.
Q1355
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsSports Trophies
Laver Cup is related to which sport?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Lawn Tennis)
The Laver Cup is an international men's indoor hard-court tennis tournament played between Team Europe and Team World.
Q1356
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsCurrent Sports News
Recently, which of the following tennis player has announced his retirement?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rafael Nadal)
22-time Grand Slam champion Rafael Nadal officially announced his retirement from professional tennis in October 2024 following the Davis Cup finals.
Q1357
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsJ&K Administrative Divisions
How many districts are there in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (20)
The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir comprises exactly 20 administrative districts (10 in Jammu Division and 10 in Kashmir Division).
Q1358
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsJ&K Geography
Which of the following is not a district in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kargil)
Kargil is an administrative district located in the Union Territory of Ladakh (not in J&K UT).
Q1359
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsReligious Heritage of J&K
Utterbehni of J&K, a religious place situated on the bank of legendary Devika is located in
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Samba)
Utterbehni (known as Uttarvahini where the sacred Devika river flows northwards) is a historic pilgrimage destination situated in Samba district, Jammu division.
Q1360
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsHistorical Forts of J&K
Ramnagar Fort, believed to have been built by Raja Suchet Singh is located in which district of J&K?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Udhampur)
Ramnagar Fort (Sheesh Mahal complex), constructed by Raja Suchet Singh in the 19th century, is located in Udhampur district, Jammu division.
Q1361
General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsParis Olympics 2024 Tally
Which country collectively won the most medals in 2024 Olympics?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (USA)
The United States topped the total medal tally at the Paris 2024 Olympic Games with 126 medals (40 Gold, 44 Silver, 42 Bronze).
Q1362
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilitySpeed and Units Conversion
A car is running at a speed of 90 km/h. What distance will it cover in 15 second?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (375 m)
Speed in m/s=90×185=25 m/s. Distance =25 m/s×15 s=375 m.
Q1363
General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Optics Fundamentals
The law of reflection states that
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection)
The Law of Reflection states that the angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of reflection (∠i=∠r).
Q1364
General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)SI Units of Electricity
Which of the following is the correct SI unit for resistance?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ohm)
The SI unit of electrical resistance is the Ohm (symbol: Ω).
Q1365
General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Electric Current Units
The unit of current is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ampere)
The SI base unit of electric current is the Ampere (symbol: A).
Q1366
General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Non-Communicable Diseases
Which of the following is an example of a non-communicable disease?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Diabetes)
Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic non-communicable lifestyle disease that cannot be transmitted between persons.
Q1367
General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Communicable Diseases
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of communicable diseases?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (They are non-infectious)
Communicable diseases are intrinsically infectious and transmissible; stating they are 'non-infectious' is incorrect.
Q1368
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyCommunication Skills
Active listening involves
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Giving full attention and understanding the message)
Active listening requires concentrating fully, understanding, responding constructively, and retaining what is being communicated.
Q1369
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyMetric System Units
In the metric system, what is the base unit of volume?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Cubic meter)
The SI coherent derived base unit of volume is the Cubic meter (m3) (with the liter defined as 1 dm3).
Q1370
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyUnit Conversion Factors
What is the conversion factor between kilometers and miles?
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($1\text{ mile} = 1.609\text{ kilometers}$)
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyFirst in India Awards
Who was the first Indian to win the 'Miss World' title?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rita Faria)
Reita Faria Powell won the Miss World pageant in 1966, becoming the first Indian and first Asian woman to win the title.
Q1372
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyParalinguistic Communication
What does paralinguistic refer to in non-verbal communication?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The tone, pitch, and speed of speech)
Paralanguage (paralinguistics) encompasses the vocal but non-verbal dimensions of speech: vocal tone, pitch, volume, pacing, and inflection.
Q1373
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyNon-Verbal vs Verbal Communication
Which of the following is NOT an example of non-verbal communication?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Written texts)
Written text uses lexical verbal language (words and syntax), classifying as verbal communication; body language, gestures, and facial expressions are non-verbal.
a:b=6×5:7×5=30:35. b:c=5×7:9×7=35:63. Combined ratio a:b:c=30:35:63.
Q1375
General English & Reading ComprehensionArticles (Vowel Sounds)
Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article. _______ honest man lodged _______ FIR when he saw someone committing fraud in the marketplace
💡Correct Answer: Option B (An, an)
'Honest' begins with a vowel sound (/ɒ/), requiring 'An'. 'FIR' begins with a vowel sound (/ɛf/), requiring 'an': 'An honest man lodged an FIR...'.
Q1376
General English & Reading ComprehensionCollective Nouns Agreement
Choose the correct alternative among the options to improve the bold part in the below sentence. The committee was divided in their opinion about the new policy.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (were divided in their opinion)
When a collective noun ('committee') has divided members, it takes a plural verb and plural pronoun: 'were divided in their opinion'.
Q1377
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyCurrent Appointments
Who was the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India in January 2025?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sanjay Malhotra)
Sanjay Malhotra assumed office as the 26th Governor of the Reserve Bank of India in December 2024, succeeding Shaktikanta Das.
Q1378
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyLaw Enforcement & International Networks
Which Indian agency has recently joined the Steering Committee of the Asset Recovery Interagency Network-Asia Pacific (ARIN-AP)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI))
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was elected to the Steering Committee of the Asset Recovery Interagency Network-Asia Pacific (ARIN-AP).
Q1379
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyNational Honors & Awards
Which award did Zakir Hussain receive in 2023 for his contribution to Indian classical music?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Padma Vibhushan)
Ustad Zakir Hussain was conferred the Padma Vibhushan (India's second-highest civilian award) in 2023.
Q1380
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyOlympic Games Highlights
In which event did Manu Bhaker win her first Olympic medal?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (10m Air Pistol)
Manu Bhaker won the Bronze medal in the Women's 10m Air Pistol individual event at the Paris 2024 Olympics, opening India's medal tally.
Q1381
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyKhel Ratna Awards 2024
Match the following pairs of Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024 awardees with their corresponding sport. i. Shri Gukesh D ii. Shri Harmanpreet Singh iii. Shri Praveen Kumar iv. Ms. Manu Bhaker
Sports: 1) Para-Athletics 2) Hockey 3) Shooting 4) Chess
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3)
i -> 4 (Gukesh D - Chess), ii -> 2 (Harmanpreet Singh - Hockey), iii -> 1 (Praveen Kumar - Para-Athletics), iv -> 3 (Manu Bhaker - Shooting).
Q1382
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyDronacharya Awards 2024
Which of the following pairs is/are correct regarding the Dronacharya Award for Outstanding Coaches (regular category) in Sports and Games 2024? 1. Shri Subhash Rana - Para-Shooting 2. Ms. Deepali Deshpande - Badminton 3. Shri Sandeep Sangwan - Hockey
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 and 3)
Subhash Rana was honored for Para-Shooting and Sandeep Sangwan for Hockey (Deepali Deshpande is renowned in Shooting, not Badminton).
Q1383
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyAncient Indian Art & Architecture
Consider the following statements about Sittanavasal Cave: 1. The Sittanavasal Caves in Tamil Nadu are ancient Jain rock-cut temples dating back to the 7th century CE. 2. The caves are renowned for their fresco-secco mural paintings, which depict scenes of lotus ponds, animals, and Jain monks. 3. These caves are a significant example of Jain art and architecture in South India. Which of the above statements are true?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2 and 3)
All three statements are historically accurate: Sittanavasal (Pudukkottai, Tamil Nadu) features 7th-century Jain rock-cut caves, renowned fresco-secco lotus pond murals, and seminal Jain architectural art.
Q1384
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyClassical Dances of India
Which of the following is the classical dance of Assam?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sattriya)
Sattriya is the classical dance tradition of Assam, founded in the 15th century by the Vaishnavite saint Srimanta Sankardev.
Q1385
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyNortheast Indian Festivals
Which of the following is NOT the festival of Arunachal Pradesh?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ranikor)
Ranikor is a scenic river border town and cultural festival venue in Meghalaya (not Arunachal Pradesh).
Q1386
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyIndian Painting Styles
Which of the following Indian painting styles is recognized by its use of intricate gold detailing and mythological themes?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Thanjavur)
Thanjavur (Tanjore) paintings of Tamil Nadu are famous for their rich, flat, vivid colors, surface gesso relief work, and extensive embellishment with real 22-karat gold foil and precious stones.
Q1387
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyHistoric Temples of India
Which of the following statements about the famous temples of India is/are correct? 1. Meenakshi Temple (Tamil Nadu) - A historic temple in Madurai, famous for its stunning Dravidian architecture. 2. Sun Temple (Odisha) - A 13th-century temple in Konark, known for its unique chariot- shaped structure. 3. Somnath Temple (Gujarat) - A historic temple known for the annual Rath Yatra (chariot festival).
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 and 2)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is false because the annual Rath Yatra chariot festival takes place at Jagannath Temple in Puri, Odisha (not Somnath).
Q1388
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographySouth Indian Dynasties
Who was the founder of the Chola dynasty?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Vijayalaya Chola)
Vijayalaya Chola established the Imperial Medieval Chola Empire around 850 CE by capturing Thanjavur from the Muttarayars.
Q1389
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyChronology of Indian History
Among the following queens who ruled first in chronological order?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Razia Sultana)
Razia Sultana ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1236 to 1240 CE, pre-dating Noor Jahan (17th c.), Ahilyabai Holkar (18th c.), and Rani Lakshmibai (19th c.).
Q1390
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyBritish Colonial Policies
The Doctrine of Lapse was withdrawn due to which of the following reasons? 1. The Doctrine of Lapse was withdrawn because Lord Dalhousie was not in favor of it. 2. The doctrine significantly contributed to the outbreak of the Indian Rebellion of 1857. 3. Queen Victoria's Proclamation in 1858 aimed to reassure Indian rulers and led to the abandonment of the doctrine. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2 and 3)
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: widespread resentment over annexations fueled the 1857 revolt, prompting Queen Victoria's 1858 Proclamation to renounce further territorial expansion (Dalhousie was the architect, not opponent).
Q1391
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyModern Indian Freedom Movement
The Poona Pact of 1932 was signed between:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mahatma Gandhi and B.R. Ambedkar)
The Poona Pact was signed on 24 September 1932 at Yerwada Central Jail between Mahatma Gandhi (represented by Madan Mohan Malaviya) and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, replacing separate electorates with reserved seats for depressed classes.
Q1392
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyIndian Drainage System
The Brahmaputra River flows through, which of the following countries before entering India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Myanmar and China)
The Brahmaputra originates in Tibet (China) as the Yarlung Tsangpo, flows through China before entering India in Arunachal Pradesh.
Q1393
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyMajor Dams of India
Match the following pairs about the major dams located in various states in India. i. Tehri Dam ii. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam iii. Srisailam Dam iv. Almatti Dam
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1)
i -> 4 (Tehri Dam on Bhagirathi - Uttarakhand), ii -> 3 (Nagarjuna Sagar Dam on Krishna - Telangana/AP border), iii -> 2 (Srisailam Dam on Krishna - AP/Telangana), iv -> 1 (Almatti Dam on Krishna - Karnataka).
Q1394
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyMineral Resources of India
Which of the following minerals is primarily extracted from the Kudremukh mines?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Iron Ore)
The Kudremukh iron ore belt in Chikkamagaluru district, Karnataka is one of the world's largest magnetite iron ore deposits.
Q1395
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyIndian Climate & Rainfall
Which of the following place in India has highest annual rainfall?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mawsynram (Meghalaya))
Mawsynram in the East Khasi Hills of Meghalaya holds the Guinness World Record for the highest average annual rainfall on Earth (approx 11,872 mm).
Q1396
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyForest Types of India
Mangrove forests in India are predominantly found in which region?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The Sunderbans)
The Sundarbans delta in West Bengal (formed by the confluence of Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Meghna) is the largest single tract of halophytic mangrove swamp forest in the world.
Q1397
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyStates and Capitals
Match the different states/union territories of India with their capitals. i. Assam ii. Goa iii. Lakshadweep iv. Tripura
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4)
i -> 3 (Assam - Dispur), ii -> 1 (Goa - Porvorim/Panaji), iii -> 2 (Lakshadweep - Kavaratti), iv -> 4 (Tripura - Agartala).
Q1398
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyState Reorganization
Hyderabad is the joint capital of which two Indian states until 2014?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Andhra Pradesh and Telangana)
Under the AP Reorganisation Act 2014, Hyderabad served as the joint capital for both Andhra Pradesh and Telangana for a transitional period of up to 10 years (until June 2024).
Q1399
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyIntegration of Princely States & Colonies
Which states/Union Territories were NOT part of India at the time of independence (August 1947)? 1. Goa 2. Puducherry 3. Nagaland 4. Sikkim Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1, 2 and 4)
Goa was under Portuguese rule until 1961; Puducherry was French territory until 1954; Sikkim joined the Indian Union in 1975. None of 1, 2, and 4 were part of India on 15 August 1947.
Q1400
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyState Formation Chronology
Arrange the following states in the chronological order of formation of states. 1. Telangana 2. Maharashtra 3. Meghalaya 4. Karnataka Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (4, 2, 3, 1)
Chronological state reorganization: Karnataka (Mysore State established 1956), Maharashtra (formed 1 May 1960), Meghalaya (established 1972), Telangana (created 2 June 2014) ⟹4,2,3,1.
Q1401
General Science, Public Hygiene & Special Reference to J&KChemical Compounds
Which gas is commonly known as "Laughing Gas"?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Nitrous Oxide)
Nitrous oxide (N2O) is known as laughing gas for its euphoric and mild anesthetic inhalation effects.
Q1402
General Science, Public Hygiene & Special Reference to J&KDietary Minerals Functions
Match the minerals with their functions: Minerals: 1. Calcium 2. Iron 3. Potassium 4. Zinc
Function: i) Helps in the formation of red blood cells and prevents anemia ii) Supports bone and teeth health iii) Regulates fluid balance and muscle function iv) Supports the immune system and wound healing
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv)
1 -> ii (Calcium - bones & teeth), 2 -> i (Iron - hemoglobin & RBCs), 3 -> iii (Potassium - fluid electrolyte balance), 4 -> iv (Zinc - immune system & wound healing).
Q1403
General Science, Public Hygiene & Special Reference to J&KFounding of Jammu
Who is considered the founder of the city of Jammu?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Raja Jambulochan)
According to historical legends and the Gulabnama, the 9th-century king Raja Jambulochan founded the city of Jambupura (Jammu) after witnessing a tiger and a goat drinking water harmoniously from the same spot on the Tawi river.
Q1404
General English & GrammarPunctuation Rules
Consider the following statements. Statement 1 : She said, I can't come today". Statement 2 : Pandit Nehru, the first Prime Minister of "India" died in 1964! Choose the correct option with respect to punctuation:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect)
Both statements contain punctuation errors: Statement 1 is missing the opening quotation mark before 'I', and Statement 2 unnecessarily places quotation marks around 'India' and ends a historical fact with an exclamation point.
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyPadma Awards 2022
In the year 2022, how many persons have been honored with Padma Awards?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (128 Persons)
The President of India approved the conferment of 128 Padma Awards in 2022 (4 Padma Vibhushan, 17 Padma Bhushan, and 107 Padma Shri).
Q1408
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyFirst Women in India
Who was the first woman Chief Minister of Independent India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sucheta Kripalani)
Sucheta Kripalani served as the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh from October 1963 to March 1967, becoming India's first woman Chief Minister.
Q1409
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyBharat Ratna Laureates
Who was the first Indian woman awardee of "Bharat Ratna"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Indira Gandhi)
Prime Minister Indira Gandhi was conferred the Bharat Ratna in 1971, becoming the first woman recipient of India's highest civilian honor.
Q1410
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyImportant Days in India
Which day is celebrated as the National Voluntary Blood Donation Day in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 October)
National Voluntary Blood Donation Day is observed across India annually on 1st October to raise awareness about voluntary non-remunerated blood donation.
Q1411
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographySports Autobiographies
Who among the following cricketers has authored the book "Straight from the Heart: An autobiography"?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Kapil Dev)
India's 1983 World Cup-winning legendary captain Kapil Dev authored the autobiography titled 'Straight from the Heart' (2004).
Q1412
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyWorld Geography Superlatives
Which is the largest river island in the World?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Majuli Island)
Majuli Island on the Brahmaputra River in Assam is recognized by Guinness World Records as the largest inhabited river island on Earth.
Q1413
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyCricket World Cup History
Cricket World Cup, 1983 was held in which of the following places?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (England)
The 1983 Prudential Cricket World Cup was hosted by England (and Wales) from 9 to 25 June 1983, where India defeated the West Indies at Lord's.
Q1414
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyNational Income Economics
What is the use of Net National Product (NNP)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (To calculate per capita income)
Net National Product (NNP at factor cost) represents true National Income; dividing NNP by total population gives the country's Per Capita Income.
Q1415
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyIndian Climatology
The western cyclonic disturbance originates over _______
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The Mediterranean)
Western Disturbances are extra-tropical winter storms that originate over the Mediterranean Sea, bringing winter precipitation to northwestern India and J&K.
Q1416
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyLakes of India
Which of these is the largest brackish water lake of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Chilka Lake)
Chilika Lake in Odisha (covering over 1,100 km2) is the largest brackish water lagoon in India and second largest in the world.
Q1417
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyGupta Temple Architecture
The famous Gupta period Dashavatara Temple, recognized as one of the earliest Panchayatan temples in north India, is located at :
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Deogarh)
The 6th-century Gupta-period stone Dashavatara Temple dedicated to Lord Vishnu is located at Deogarh in Lalitpur district, Uttar Pradesh.
Q1418
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyMughal Gardens of Kashmir
Who built Shalimar Bagh in Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Jahangir)
Shalimar Bagh in Srinagar was built in 1619 by Mughal Emperor Jahangir for his beloved wife Empress Nur Jahan.
Q1419
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyInternational Organizations
Consider the following statement. Statement 1: The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, or ASEAN, was established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand. Statement 2: The ASEAN Charter serves as a firm foundation in achieving the ASEAN Community by providing legal status and institutional framework for ASEAN. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Statement 1 and 2 are correct)
Both statements are historically correct: ASEAN was founded by the Bangkok Declaration on 8 August 1967, and the ASEAN Charter entered into force in 2008 providing a legal institutional framework.
Q1420
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyImportant Observance Days
Consider the following statement. Statement 1: Indian Navy Day will be celebrated on 4th of November in every year. Statement 2: Human Rights Day will be celebrated on 10th of November in every year. Choose the correct option
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect)
Both statements are incorrect: Indian Navy Day is celebrated on 4th December (Operation Trident), and International Human Rights Day is observed on 10th December (UDHR 1948).
Q1421
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyPublic Sector Enterprises
Consider the following statement. Statement 1 : The full form of BHEL is Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited Statement 2 : The abbreviations of GAIL stands for Gross Allowance of Industries Limited Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect)
Statement 1 is correct: BHEL stands for Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited. Statement 2 is incorrect: GAIL stands for Gas Authority of India Limited.
Q1422
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographySports History Statements
Consider the following statement. Statement 1: Normally commonwealth games are held at an interval of 4 years. Statement 2: K.D. Jadhav is the first Indian to win an individual medal in the Olympics. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Statement 1 and 2 are correct)
Statement 1 is correct (quadrennial interval). Statement 2 is correct (wrestler Khashaba Dadasaheb Jadhav won individual Bronze at Helsinki 1952). Both statements are correct.
Q1423
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyDams and Hydroelectric Projects
Consider the following statement. Statement 1: Indira Sagar Dam is the largest reservoir in India Statement 2: The Koyna Hydroelectric Project is the largest hydroelectric power plant in India. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Statement 1 and 2 are correct)
Statement 1 is correct (Indira Sagar on Narmada has India's largest water storage capacity of 12.22 billion m3). Statement 2 is correct (Koyna Hydroelectric Project in Maharashtra with 1,960 MW capacity is one of the largest completed hydroelectric complexes). Both statements are correct.
Q1424
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyEpithets and Heritage Sites
Match List- I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List - I (Famous places): 1. The City of Palaces 2. Neela Gumbad 3. Spice Garden of India
List - II (Located States): i. Kerala ii. Kolkata iii. Delhi
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i)
1 -> ii ('City of Palaces' - Kolkata), 2 -> iii (Neela Gumbad - Humayun's Tomb complex, Delhi), 3 -> i ('Spice Garden of India' - Kerala). Match is 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i.
Q1425
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyOfficial Languages of States
Match List- I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List - I (State): 1. Goa 2. Maharashtra 3. Manipur
List - II (Primary/Official Language): i. Meitei ii. Marathi iii. Konkani
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i)
1 -> iii (Goa - Konkani), 2 -> ii (Maharashtra - Marathi), 3 -> i (Manipur - Meitei / Manipuri). Match is 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i.
Q1426
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyImportant Commemorative Dates
Match List- I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List - I (Event): 1. Indian Air Force Day 2. World Teacher's Day 3. National Army Day
List - II (Dates): i. 5th October ii. 15th January iii. 8th October
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii)
1 -> iii (Indian Air Force Day - 8th October), 2 -> i (World Teachers' Day - 5th October), 3 -> ii (National Army Day - 15th January). Match is 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii.
Q1427
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyFamous Books and Authors
Match List- I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List - I (Books): 1. Harry Potter Series 2. Discovery of India 3. Oliver Twist
List - II (Authors): i. Charles Dickens ii. J.K. Rowling iii. Jawaharlal Nehru
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i)
1 -> ii (Harry Potter - J.K. Rowling), 2 -> iii (Discovery of India - Jawaharlal Nehru), 3 -> i (Oliver Twist - Charles Dickens). Match is 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i.
Q1428
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyPre-Monsoon Rainfall Terms
Match List- I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List - I (Climate/Rainfall terms): 1. Rain caused by a lightning storm is called "Cherry Blossom" 2. Mango Showers are common in 3. Related to Pre-Monsoon shower 'Nor Westers'.
List- II (Representative of Indian States): i. West Bengal and Assam ii. Kerala iii. Karnataka
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i)
1 -> iii (Cherry Blossom coffee showers - Karnataka), 2 -> ii (Mango Showers - Kerala & coastal Karnataka), 3 -> i (Nor'westers / Kalbaisakhi - West Bengal & Assam). Match is 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i.
Q1429
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyIndian Dams Superlatives
Arrange in order: Highest Dam in India, Longest Dam in India, Oldest Dam in India
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Tehri Dam in Bhagirathi River, Hirakud Dam in Mahanadi River, Kallanai Dam in Kaveri River.)
Highest Dam: Tehri Dam (260.5m on Bhagirathi, Uttarakhand); Longest Dam: Hirakud Dam (25.8 km on Mahanadi, Odisha); Oldest Dam: Kallanai Dam / Grand Anicut (built by Karikala Chola on Kaveri, Tamil Nadu).
Q1430
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyOlympic Badminton History
Saina Nehwal is the _______ Indian Badminton player to have won an Olympic medal. She won the _______ medal in women's singles at the London Olympic in _______. Fill in the blanks in the correct order from the given options.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (First, bronze, 2012)
Saina Nehwal became the First Indian badminton player to win an Olympic medal when she clinched the Bronze medal in women's singles at the London Olympics in 2012.
Q1431
Electronics, Audio Engineering & Public Address SystemsMOSFET Threshold Voltage Tuning
Consider the following statements. The threshold voltage of a MOSFET can be lowered by: 1. Using a thinner gate oxide 2. Reducing the substrate concentration 3. Increasing the substrate concentration Of these statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 and 2 are correct)
Threshold voltage VTH=VFB+2ϕF+Cox2ϵsqNA(2ϕF). Increasing Cox (thinner oxide tox) and decreasing substrate doping NA both reduce VTH. Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Q1432
Electronics, Audio Engineering & Public Address SystemsP-N Junction Electrostatics
The diffusion potential across a P-N junction
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Increases with increase in doping concentration)
The built-in diffusion potential is given by Vbi=Vtln(ni2NAND). Higher acceptor (NA) and donor (ND) doping concentrations logarithmically increase the diffusion barrier potential.
Q1433
Electronics, Audio Engineering & Public Address SystemsDigital Counters
The initial state of MOD-16 down counter is 0110. After 37 clock pulses, the state of the counter will be
💡Correct Answer: Option D (0001)
Initial count =01102=610. In a down-counter with modulus 16, after 37 pulses: Effective pulses=37(mod16)=5. Final count =(6−5)(mod16)=110=00012.
Q1434
Electronics, Audio Engineering & Public Address SystemsDigital Communications Matching
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the given below lists: List - I: i. Detection of a periodic signal in noise ii. Recovery of a band-limited signal from its uniformly sampled values iii. Finer quantization signals iv. Delta Modulation
List - II: 1. Increase in bandwidth 2. Slope overload error 3. Nyquist rate 4. Cross correlation
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-4, ii-3, iii-1, iv-2)
i -> 4 (Signal detection in noise - Cross correlation), ii -> 3 (Signal reconstruction - Nyquist rate), iii -> 1 (Finer quantization - Increase in bit rate/bandwidth), iv -> 2 (Delta Modulation - Slope overload error). Match is i-4, ii-3, iii-1, iv-2.
Q1435
Electronics, Audio Engineering & Public Address SystemsPA System Fundamentals
Which type of system is the PA system in audio devices?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Electroacoustic)
A Public Address (PA) system is an electroacoustic system comprising microphones, amplifiers, and loudspeakers converting acoustic waves into electrical signals and back to acoustic sound.
Q1436
Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsState Pharmacy Councils
According to the Pharmacy Act, 1948, a State Pharmacy Council is responsible for:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Registering pharmacists in the state)
The primary statutory duty of a State Pharmacy Council is the maintenance of the Register of Pharmacists and granting registration to qualified pharmacists in the State.
Q1437
Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsState Government Powers under Poisons Act
Under the Poison Act, 1919, the rules for Storage, labelling, and Transport of poisons are made by
💡Correct Answer: Option B (State Governments)
Section 2 of the Poisons Act, 1919 expressly empowers State Governments to make rules regulating the possession for sale, storage, labelling, and transport of poisons.
Q1438
Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsProhibited Diseases under DMRA
The Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954 was enacted to prevent the advertisement of drugs that claim to cure which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Major diseases like cancer, AIDS and diabetes)
The Schedule to the DMRA 1954 lists 54 incurable/severe disorders including Cancer, AIDS, Diabetes, Epilepsy, and Blindness for which drug advertisements claiming cures are strictly prohibited.
Q1439
Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsIAEC Functions
Which of the following is the objective of IAEC under 'The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1960'?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To approve and monitor animal experimentation to ensure human treatment)
Institutional Animal Ethics Committees (IAEC) review, approve, and monitor experimental research protocols on small animals to ensure adherence to CPCSEA humane guidelines and 3Rs (Replacement, Reduction, Refinement).
Q1440
Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsRheology Fundamentals
The force per unit area which is used to apply to bring about the flow is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Shear stress)
Shear stress (τ=F/A) is the tangential force applied per unit area to induce fluid deformation or flow.
Q1441
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPharmacognosy Microscopy
What is the microscopic characteristic feature of rauwolfia?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lignified parenchyma)
Transverse sections of Rauwolfia serpentina roots are microscopically diagnosed by abundant starch-filled Lignified Parenchyma cells and stratified cork, with complete absence of sclerenchyma/fibres.
Q1442
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPlant Alkaloids
The primary toxic alkaloid found in Nux Vomica is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Strychnine)
The dried ripe seeds of Strychnos nux-vomica contain the potent, extremely toxic indole alkaloids Strychnine and Brucine.
Q1443
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessHerbal Synonyms
Deadly Nightshade is the synonym of:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Belladonna)
Atropa belladonna (family Solanaceae), rich in tropane alkaloids hyoscyamine and atropine, is universally known as Deadly Nightshade.
Q1444
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPhytochemical Identification Tests
Goldbeater skin test is used for identification of:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Tannins)
The Goldbeater's skin test (tanning ox intestine membrane to black with ferrous sulfate) is the classic diagnostic biochemical test for true Tannins.
Q1445
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessOpium Botanical Source
Opium is derived from which part of the plant?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Latex from unripe seed pods)
Opium is the air-dried milky exudate (latex) obtained by incising the unripe capsule seed pods of the opium poppy (Papaver somniferum).
Q1446
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPharmacognostic Microscopy Matching
Given below are some of the microscopical diagnostic features of the drugs listed. Match the pair: i) Cluster crystals of calcium oxalate ii) Lignified parenchyma iii) Phloem fibres iv) Glandular trichomes
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i(r), ii(p), iii(q), iv(s))
i -> r (Cluster crystals of calcium oxalate in Senna leaflets), ii -> p (Lignified parenchyma in Rauwolfia roots), iii -> q (Phloem fibres in Cinnamon Bark), iv -> s (Glandular trichomes in Digitalis leaves). Correct match is i(r), ii(p), iii(q), iv(s).
Q1447
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPhytochemical Nutrition
Bael fruit is rich in which vitamin?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Vitamin C)
The ripe pulp of Bael fruit (Aegle marmelos) is exceptionally rich in Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid) along with riboflavin (Vitamin B2) and pectin.
Q1448
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPhytochemical Toxicology
Coumarin, found in cassia cinnamon, can cause toxicity to which organ when consumed in excess?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Liver)
Cassia cinnamon contains substantial levels of Coumarin, which undergoes bioactivation in hepatic CYP450 enzymes to cytotoxic metabolites, causing severe Liver toxicity (hepatotoxicity).
Q1449
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessMorphine Chemical Properties
The chemical behaviour of morphine alkaloid is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Amphoteric)
Morphine contains both an acidic phenolic hydroxyl group at C-3 and a basic tertiary amine nitrogen at C-17, behaving as an Amphoteric molecule capable of forming salts with both acids and strong bases.
Q1450
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessTraditional Herbal Medicines
Kurchi is traditionally used for treating:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dysentery and diarrhea)
Kurchi bark (Holarrhena antidysenterica, containing the steroidal alkaloid conessine) is the classic Ayurvedic and indigenous remedy for amoebic dysentery and diarrhea.
Q1451
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessOpium Pharmacology
Which of the following is a therapeutic use of opium alkaloids?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pain relief)
Phenanthrene opium alkaloids (Morphine, Codeine) act on central nervous system opioid receptors to provide profound analgesia and severe pain relief.
Q1452
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessMorphine Derivatives
Codeine is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Methyl ether of morphine)
Codeine is chemically 3-O-methylmorphine, the monomethyl ether derivative of morphine synthesized by methylating morphine's phenolic hydroxyl group.
Q1453
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPurine Alkaloid Identification
Murexide test is used to detect which class of the following alkaloids?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Purine)
The Murexide reaction (producing purple ammonium purpurate with potassium chlorate, HCl, and ammonia vapor) is the specific diagnostic test for Purine alkaloids (Caffeine, Theophylline, Theobromine).
Q1454
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessAshwagandha Bioactive Phytochemicals
The primary bioactive compounds in Ashwagandha are:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Withanolides)
The therapeutic adaptogenic properties of Ashwagandha (Withania somnifera) are attributed to its steroidal lactones, principally Withanolides (withaferin A and withanolide D).
Q1455
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIpecac Botanical Source
Ipecac is derived from which part of the plant?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Roots and rhizomes)
Ipecacuanha (Ipecac), containing the emetic alkaloids emetine and cephaeline, consists of the dried roots and rhizomes of Cephaelis ipecacuanha (family Rubiaceae).
Q1456
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessSenna Laxative Mechanism
What is the mode of action of Senna as a laxative?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Stimulating peristalsis of the colon)
Senna's active sennosides A and B are hydrolyzed by colon bacteria to rheinanthrone, which irritates the Auerbach plexus and stimulates active propulsive colon peristalsis.
Q1457
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessAloe Vera Herbal Uses
Which of the following is a traditional use of Aloe vera gel?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Treating burns and wounds)
Aloe vera mucilaginous leaf gel contains acemannan and bradykinase, traditionally applied topically for rapid healing of thermal burns, sunburns, and cutaneous wounds.
Q1458
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessBotanical Families
Cinchona belongs to which plant family?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rubiaceae)
Cinchona (Cinchona succirubra / Cinchona calisaya), the botanical source of the antimalarial alkaloid quinine, belongs to the family Rubiaceae.
Q1459
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessEphedra Therapeutic Uses
Ephedra is commonly used in the treatment of:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Asthma and nasal congestion)
Ephedra (Ma Huang), containing the sympathomimetic alkaloid ephedrine, stimulates β2-adrenergic receptors to produce bronchodilation in asthma and decongest nasal airways.
Q1460
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessBrahmi Pharmacology
Brahmi exhibits which of the following pharmacological properties?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Neuroprotective and antioxidant)
Brahmi (Bacopa monnieri), containing bacosides A and B, exerts potent nootropic, neuroprotective, free-radical scavenging, and cognitive-enhancing antioxidant effects.
Q1461
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIndian Constitution Fundamental Rights
Which article of the Indian constitution guarantee the right to equality?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 14)
Article 14 of the Constitution of India guarantees that 'The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India'.
Q1462
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessScientific Disciplines
What is the scientific term for the study of the structure, behaviour and evaluation of the universe?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Cosmology)
Cosmology is the scientific discipline concerned with the origin, evolution, large-scale structure, and ultimate fate of the universe.
Q1463
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessModern Indian History
Which of the following battle marked the beginning of the British rule in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Battle of Plassey)
The Battle of Plassey (23 June 1757), where the British East India Company under Robert Clive defeated Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah of Bengal, marked the beginning of British political rule in India.
Q1464
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIndian Olympic Hockey History
In which year did India win its first Olympic gold medal in Hockey?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1928)
India won its first historic Olympic Gold Medal in Field Hockey at the 1928 Amsterdam Olympic Games under captain Jaipal Singh Munda and legendary wizard Major Dhyan Chand.
Q1465
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessFIFA World Cup
Which country hosted the 2022 FIFA world cup?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Qatar)
The 2022 FIFA World Cup was hosted by Qatar from 20 November to 18 December 2022, won by Argentina.
Q1466
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessForms of Government
Which of the following forms of government characterized by a single person holding absolute power and control?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Autocracy)
An Autocracy is a system of government in which supreme and absolute political power is concentrated in the hands of a single individual.
Q1467
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPublic Finance & Budgeting
What is the primary purpose of a budget?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To allocate resource effectively)
The fundamental purpose of a financial budget is the strategic, systematic allocation of finite economic resources to accomplish prioritized organizational or national goals.
Q1468
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessCurrent National Symbols
What is the name of the new parliament building in India, which was inaugurated in 2023?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sansad Bhawan)
India's new triangular Parliament building, designed by Bimal Patel and inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 28 May 2023, is named 'Sansad Bhavan' (Samvidhan Sadan is the old building).
Q1469
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessFinancial Markets Terminology
What is the term for the process of managing risk in financial markets?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Hedging)
Hedging is an investment risk management strategy involving derivative contracts (futures, options) to offset the risk of adverse price movements in an asset.
Q1470
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessGoods and Services Tax (GST)
IGST is payable when the supply is?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Inter-state)
Under the GST regime, Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) is levied by the Central Government on all Inter-State taxable supplies of goods and services as well as imports.
Q1471
Basic English & GrammarTypes of Nouns
Which of the following is an example of a common noun?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (School)
'School' is a generic common noun denoting a place of education (Taj Mahal, Rahul, and Mercury are specific proper nouns).
Q1472
Basic English & GrammarProper Nouns
Identify the proper noun in the sentence: "Alice loves to read books in the library."
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Alice)
'Alice' is a proper noun referring to a specific person's name.
Q1473
Basic English & GrammarCollective Nouns
Choose the correct collective noun in the sentence: "The swarm of bees flew across the garden."
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Swarm)
'Swarm' is the collective noun used to describe a large group or colony of flying insects/bees.
Q1474
Basic English & GrammarCollective Nouns
"The audience was applauding the performance". The word 'audience' is a
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Collective noun)
'Audience' is a collective noun denoting a group of spectators or listeners gathered together.
Q1475
Basic English & GrammarSingular and Plural Nouns
Which noun is a plural form?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Children)
'Children' is the irregular plural form of the singular noun 'child' ('ox' -> 'oxen', 'goose' -> 'geese').
Q1476
Basic English & GrammarAbstract Nouns
"His kindness is appreciated by all". The word 'kindness' is a
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Abstract noun)
'Kindness' is an abstract noun referring to an intangible human quality, state of mind, or virtuous behavior.
Q1477
Basic English & GrammarCompound Nouns
Which of the following is a compound noun?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Boyfriend)
'Boyfriend' is a closed compound noun formed by combining two distinct root words: 'boy' + 'friend'.
Q1478
Basic English & GrammarPlural Nouns
Choose the correct plural form of the word 'leaf'.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Leaves)
Nouns ending in '-f' typically form their plural by changing '-f' to '-ves': 'leaf' -> 'leaves'.
Q1479
Basic English & GrammarCollective Nouns
What kind of noun is 'flock' in the sentence: "A flock of birds flew over the field"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Collective noun)
'Flock' is a collective noun used to denote a group of birds, sheep, or goats.
Q1480
Basic English & GrammarPronouns
Identify the pronoun in the sentence: "He is going to the store".
💡Correct Answer: Option A (He)
'He' is a third-person singular masculine personal pronoun functioning as the subject of the sentence.
Q1481
Basic English & GrammarConjunctions
Which of the following is an example of a conjunction?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (And)
'And' is a coordinating conjunction used to connect words, phrases, or independent clauses.
Q1482
Basic English & GrammarGender of Nouns
What is the masculine form of "niece"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Nephew)
The masculine equivalent of 'niece' (brother's/sister's daughter) is 'nephew' (brother's/sister's son).
Q1483
Basic English & GrammarGender of Nouns
What is the masculine form of the word "daughter"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Son)
The masculine equivalent of 'daughter' (female offspring) is 'son' (male offspring).
Q1484
General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)SI Units
What is the SI unit of force?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Newton)
The SI unit of force is the Newton (symbol: N), defined as 1 N=1 kg⋅m/s2.
Q1485
General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Pressure Units
What is the SI unit of pressure?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pascal)
The SI unit of pressure is the Pascal (symbol: Pa), where 1 Pa=1 N/m2.
Q1486
General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Uniform Motion
If an object is said to be in uniform motion, it means
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The object covers equal distances in equal intervals of time)
Uniform motion is defined as motion in which a body moves along a straight line covering equal distances in equal intervals of time at a constant speed.
Q1487
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryFundamental Rights Article 19
The right to move freely throughout the territory of India comes under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 19)
Article 19(1)(d) of the Indian Constitution guarantees to all citizens the fundamental right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
What was the total number of districts in India as per the 2011 Census?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (640)
During the 2011 Census, India comprised a total of 640 administrative districts (an increase from 593 in 2001).
Q1489
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementAims of Physical Education
What is the primary aim of Physical Education?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Promoting physical fitness)
The fundamental aim of physical education is the overall development of an individual through physical activities, with the immediate primary aim being the promotion of physical fitness and health.
Q1490
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementOlympic Movement History
In which year were the Olympic Games first revived?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1896)
The modern Olympic Games were first revived in 1896 in Athens, Greece, organized by Baron Pierre de Coubertin.
Q1491
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementNational Sports Awards
Who was the first recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Viswanathan Anand)
Chess Grandmaster Viswanathan Anand was the inaugural recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award (now Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna) in 1991–92.
Q1492
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementSports Terminology
PTI stands for:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Physical Training Instructor)
PTI is the standard educational abbreviation for Physical Training Instructor.
Q1493
Anatomy, Physiology & Exercise KinesiologyMuscular System Functions
What is the primary function of skeletal muscles?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Movement)
The primary function of voluntary skeletal muscles is to generate force and pull on bones to produce bodily Movement and maintain posture.
Q1494
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementOlympic Movement History
Who is considered the father of modern Olympic Games?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Pierre de Coubertin)
Baron Pierre de Coubertin of France is universally recognized as the Father of the Modern Olympic Games for establishing the International Olympic Committee (IOC) in 1894.
Q1495
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementRules of Games (Football)
What is the standard duration of a football match?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (90 minutes)
A standard FIFA association football match consists of two equal halves of 45 minutes each, totaling 90 minutes of regulation play.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Recommended Dietary Allowance)
RDA stands for Recommended Dietary Allowance, representing the average daily dietary nutrient intake level sufficient to meet the requirements of nearly all healthy individuals.
Q1501
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementClassification of Sports
Which is a non-contact sport?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Badminton)
Badminton is a non-contact sport where opponents are separated by a net with no physical contact permitted (unlike contact/collision sports like football, wrestling, and hockey).
Q1502
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementOlympic Symbols
The Olympic symbol consists of how many rings?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (5)
The official Olympic symbol consists of 5 interlocking colored rings (blue, yellow, black, green, and red) representing the union of the five inhabited continents of the world.
Q1503
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementNational Sports Awards
Which award is given to coaches for excellence in sports?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dronacharya Award)
The Dronacharya Award, instituted in 1985 by the Government of India, is presented to outstanding coaches in sports and games for producing medal winners.
Q1504
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementIndian Sports Legends
Who among the following is known as the "Flying Sikh" of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Milkha Singh)
Legendary Indian track and field sprinter Milkha Singh was conferred the honorary title 'The Flying Sikh' by General Ayub Khan of Pakistan in 1960.
Q1505
Kinesiology, Biomechanics & Training PrinciplesKinesiology Foundations
The study of body movement is called:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Kinesiology)
Kinesiology (from Greek kinesis = movement) is the scientific study of human body movement, mechanics, and physical activity.
Doping involves the use of banned substances or methods to artificially enhance an athlete's physical performance, strength, speed, or endurance.
Q1507
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementPhilosophy of PE
The primary goal of physical education is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Holistic development)
The ultimate philosophical goal of physical education is the Holistic Development (physical, mental, emotional, and social well-being) of the individual.
Q1508
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningMotor Learning Theories
The transfer of training is MOST effectively demonstrated through:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Identical element theory)
Edward Thorndike's Identical Element Theory states that transfer of learning/training between two tasks occurs to the extent that both tasks share identical elements, skills, and cognitive processing.
Q1509
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningStages of Motor Learning
In motor skill learning, which stage involves maximum refinement?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Autonomous stage)
According to Fitts and Posner's three-stage model of motor learning, the Autonomous Stage represents the highest level of skill mastery and refinement where movements become automatic and highly accurate.
Q1510
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningSports Psychology
The most critical factor in sports performance psychology is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mental resilience)
In sports performance psychology, Mental Resilience (mental toughness and coping under pressure) is the decisive factor that allows elite athletes to perform consistently.
Q1511
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementPhilosophies of PE
Which philosophical approach emphasizes individual experience in physical education?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Existentialism)
Existentialism in physical education emphasizes personal choice, individuality, self-realization, and subjective human embodied experience ('existence precedes essence').
Q1512
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningGroup Dynamics & Cohesion
Group dynamics MOST significantly impact:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Team cohesion)
Group dynamics in sports psychology most directly shape Team Cohesion (the dynamic process reflected in the tendency for a group to stick together and remain united in pursuit of goals).
Q1513
Kinesiology, Biomechanics & Training PrinciplesSports Biomechanics
The primary purpose of biomechanical analysis is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Performance optimization)
The overarching objective of sports biomechanical analysis is Performance Optimization through the mechanical refinement of technique (while concurrently reducing injury risks).
Q1514
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningMotivation in Sports
In sport psychology, "intrinsic motivation" refers to:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Motivation arising from personal satisfaction)
Intrinsic motivation refers to engaging in sports behavior for the inherent pleasure, personal satisfaction, mastery, and enjoyment derived directly from the activity itself.
Q1515
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningPE Pedagogy
In pedagogical terms, "differentiated instruction" in physical education implies:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Adapting teaching methods to individual student needs)
Differentiated instruction involves tailoring instructional strategies, tasks, equipment, and difficulty levels to accommodate diverse student abilities, learning styles, and developmental readiness.
In sports nutrition, "glycogen loading" is most beneficial for:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Endurance athletes)
Carbohydrate / Glycogen loading maximizes muscle glycogen storage to delay fatigue in Endurance Athletes competing in continuous events lasting >90 minutes (marathons, triathlons).
Q1517
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningStudent-Centered PE Pedagogy
Which pedagogical approach emphasizes student-centered learning in physical education?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Task-based learning)
Task-Based Learning (and Teaching Games for Understanding / TGfU) is a student-centered pedagogical model emphasizing student inquiry, problem-solving, and active skill exploration.
Q1518
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningFlow State Psychology
In sports psychology, "flow state" represents:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Complete mental absorption in an activity)
The Flow State (or 'being in the zone', conceptualized by Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi) is a state of optimal performance characterized by Complete Mental Absorption, effortless focus, and deep immersion in an activity.
Q1519
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementScope of PE
What is the scope of Physical Education in the modern era?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Holistic development including physical, mental, and social well-being)
Modern physical education encompasses Holistic Development, promoting lifelong fitness, physical literacy, mental resilience, ethical sportsmanship, and social well-being.
Q1520
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementEducational Domains in PE
Which domain in Physical Education focuses on movement skills?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Psychomotor domain)
Bloom's taxonomy identifies the Psychomotor Domain as focusing on physical movement, motor coordination, neuromuscular skills, and technical sports execution.
Q1521
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementPhilosophies of PE
Which philosophy emphasizes the "existence precedes essence" concept in Physical Education?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Existentialism)
Existentialism posits that 'existence precedes essence', prioritizing personal freedom of movement, authentic individual choice, and subjective self-discovery in physical activity.
Q1522
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementRegional Multi-Sport Games
What was the main goal of the South Asian Federation (SAF) Games?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Foster regional cooperation through sports)
The primary founding objective of the South Asian Games (formerly South Asian Federation / SAF Games instituted in 1984) is to Foster Regional Cooperation, friendship, and peace through sports among SAARC nations.
Consider the following statements about sports injuries: 1. Proper training can prevent injuries. 2. Wearing protective gear reduces injury risk. 3. Overtraining has no effect on injury occurrence. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 and 2 only)
Statements 1 and 2 are scientifically correct; statement 3 is false because overtraining dramatically increases chronic overuse and acute injury occurrence. Correct choice: 1 and 2 only.
Consider the following statements about the concept of rehabilitation: 1. Rehabilitation involves restoring functionality after injury. 2. It focuses only on physical recovery. 3. It includes both physical and mental health restoration. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1 and 3 only)
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: comprehensive sports rehabilitation restores neuromuscular function and addresses psychological/mental recovery (statement 2 is false as it is not limited to physical recovery). Correct: 1 and 3 only.
Q1525
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementOlympic Facts
Consider the following statements about the Olympic Games: 1. The modern Olympic Games were revived in 1896. 2. The Olympics are held every four years. 3. The Winter Olympics were introduced after the Summer Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, and 3)
All three statements are correct: (1) Revived in 1896 Athens, (2) Quadrennial 4-year cycle, (3) Winter Olympics debuted in 1924 Chamonix, following the Summer Games. Correct: 1, 2, and 3.
Q1526
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementEducational Domains Matching
Match the following components of Physical Education with their focus: Component: 1. Affective domain 2. Psychomotor domain 3. Cognitive domain 4. Fitness domain
Focus: i. Emotional and social development ii. Development of movement skills iii. Knowledge and intellectual skills iv. Physical well-being
Choose the correct match:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv)
1 -> i (Affective: emotional/social), 2 -> ii (Psychomotor: movement skills), 3 -> iii (Cognitive: knowledge), 4 -> iv (Fitness: physical well-being). Correct match: 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.
Q1527
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementHistorical Events Matching
Match the following historical events with their significance: Event: 1. Ancient Olympic Games 2. Modern Olympic Games 3. Asian Games 4. Commonwealth Games
Significance: i. First organized multi-sport event ii. Revived global sporting competition iii. Regional sports cooperation iv. Sports unity among Commonwealth
Choose the correct match:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv)
1 -> i (Ancient Olympics: first organized multi-sport event), 2 -> ii (Modern Olympics: revived global competition), 3 -> iii (Asian Games: regional cooperation), 4 -> iv (Commonwealth Games: sports unity among Commonwealth). Correct match: 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.
Q1528
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementPhilosophy of PE
Philosophical foundations of Physical Education transcend:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Holistic human development paradigms)
The philosophical foundations of physical education transcend isolated fitness metrics to encompass Holistic Human Development Paradigms integrating mind, body, and spirit.
Q1529
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningAdvanced Sports Psychology
Advanced sports psychology reveals motivation as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Multidimensional psychological phenomenon)
Modern sports psychology conceptualizes motivation as a Multidimensional Psychological Phenomenon incorporating intrinsic drives, self-determination, external contingencies, and social contexts.
Q1530
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementInterdisciplinary Foundations
Interdisciplinary perspectives in Physical Education demonstrate:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Complex systemic interconnectedness)
Interdisciplinary synthesis across biomechanics, exercise physiology, sociology, and pedagogy demonstrates Complex Systemic Interconnectedness in human physical potential.
Q1531
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningNeuromotor Learning
Neurological adaptation in skill learning suggests:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dynamic neural restructuring)
Motor skill acquisition drives neuroplasticity, resulting in Dynamic Neural Restructuring, synaptic strengthening, and optimized motor cortex representations.
Q1532
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementPhenomenology of Movement
The philosophical dimensions of human movement encompass:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Existential embodied experience)
In movement philosophy (phenomenology/existentialism), movement is understood fundamentally as an Existential Embodied Experience of being-in-the-world.
Q1533
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementSociology of Sports
Sociological dynamics of sports participation reveal:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Complex cultural integration mechanisms)
Sports sociology shows that athletic participation functions through Complex Cultural Integration Mechanisms, socialization, and community solidarity.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Holistic systemic restoration)
Modern sports medicine rehabilitation transcends localized symptom treatment to emphasize Holistic Systemic Restoration of the kinetic chain and psychological readiness.
Q1535
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningPsychological Resilience
Psychological resilience in sports performance involves:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Adaptive cognitive flexibility)
Psychological resilience under competitive pressure is fundamentally driven by Adaptive Cognitive Flexibility, emotional regulation, and dynamic coping strategies.
Q1536
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementPhilosophy of Human Potential
Philosophical interpretations of physical potential explore:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Existential human capability)
Philosophical analysis of human athletic potential explores the boundaries of Existential Human Capability and self-transcendence.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Comprehensive strategic development)
Contemporary sports administration requires Comprehensive Strategic Development across facility planning, athlete support, and institutional governance.
Q1539
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningNeuroplasticity & Motor Skills
Neuroplasticity in skill acquisition suggests:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dynamic neural adaptation)
Neuroplasticity demonstrates that the central nervous system undergoes continuous Dynamic Neural Adaptation in response to deliberate motor practice.
Q1540
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementMovement Philosophy
Philosophical foundations of movement explore:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Existential embodied experience)
The philosophical inquiry into movement explores the Existential Embodied Experience of human consciousness in physical action.
Q1541
Foundations of Physical Education & Olympic MovementSociocultural Sports Dimensions
Sociocultural dimensions of sports participation reveal:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Complex cultural integration processes)
Sociocultural analysis shows sports as Complex Cultural Integration Processes shaping identity, community values, and social cohesion.
Q1542
Sports Psychology, Pedagogy & Motor LearningTransfer of Learning
In motor learning, "transfer of learning" means:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Applying skills learned in one context to another)
Transfer of Learning occurs when previous practice, knowledge, or mastery of a motor skill positively or negatively influences the learning or execution of another skill in a new context.
Q1543
Anatomy, Physiology & Exercise KinesiologyEnergy Systems in Sports
The primary energy system used in 400-meter sprint is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Glycolytic system)
A competitive 400-meter sprint (lasting approx 43–55 seconds) is fueled predominantly by the Fast (Anaerobic) Glycolytic System, generating ATP via rapid glycogen breakdown with lactic acid production.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Multifaceted development)
Developing effective sports leaders and captains requires Multifaceted Development spanning emotional intelligence, communication, ethical decision-making, and strategic vision.
Q1563
Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityReasoning and Logic
Reasoning from general to specific is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Deductive reasoning)
Deductive reasoning is a top-down logical process where conclusions are drawn necessarily from general premises or universal principles down to specific instances.
Which of the following contains information about the particular order in which things occur (e.g., like in at a café)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Script)
A Script (event schema, conceptualized by Schank and Abelson) is a structured mental representation containing the stereotypical chronological sequence of actions expected in familiar situations.
According to Lockhart, the type of recall task in experiments in which recalling items in any random order is called as
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Free recall)
In memory experiments, Free Recall is a testing paradigm where participants are asked to retrieve previously studied list items in any order without cues.
Which of the following stores and processes speech-based information.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Phonological loop)
In Alan Baddeley's tripartite working memory model, the Phonological Loop comprises a short-term phonological store and an articulatory rehearsal mechanism for speech-based acoustic information.
Q1567
Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityNeuropsychology of Language
Which of the following is characterized by problems recalling words, names, and numbers
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Anomic aphasia)
Anomic Aphasia (nominal aphasia) is a neurological language impairment characterized by severe word-finding difficulties (dysnomia) for naming objects, people, or numbers despite preserved comprehension and fluency.
Which is the study of how context influences how people understand and create meaning from communication.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pragmatics)
Pragmatics is the branch of linguistics and cognitive psychology that studies how situational and conversational context shapes the interpretation and social use of language.
Which is an anatomically based, comprehensive measurement system that assesses 44 different muscle movements of face.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Facial action coding system)
The Facial Action Coding System (FACS), developed by Paul Ekman and Wallace Friesen, is a comprehensive anatomical taxonomy that objectively codes 44 facial Action Units (AUs).
The Cocktail Party Effect (selective auditory auditory attention in a noisy environment) was experimentally discovered and demonstrated by Colin Cherry in 1953 using dichotic listening tasks.
Match the following: Column A: i. Sleep apnea ii. Cataplexy iii. Sleep attack iv. Sleep paralysis
Column B: 1) paralysis occurring just before a person falls asleep 2) irresistible urge to sleep during the day 3) cessation of breathing while sleeping 4) complete paralysis that occurs during waking
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv- 1)
i -> 3 (Sleep apnea: cessation of breathing while sleeping), ii -> 4 (Cataplexy: sudden complete muscle atonia during waking triggered by emotion), iii -> 2 (Sleep attack: irresistible daytime urge to sleep), iv -> 1 (Sleep paralysis: transient motor paralysis occurring at sleep onset/offset). Correct match: i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1.
Q1572
Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityNeurobiology of Sleep
Which peptide has been framed to cause narcolepsy.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Orexin)
Narcolepsy with cataplexy is caused by the autoimmune destruction of lateral hypothalamic neurons producing the neuropeptide Orexin (also known as Hypocretin).
The beta cells of the Islets of Langerhans secrete insulin in response to postprandial glucose absorption and nutrient intake as we feed and become satiated.
Match the following: Column A: i. Glycogen ii. Glucose iii. Glucagon iv. Glycerol
Column B: 1) Derived from breakdown of triglyceride 2) A pancreatic hormone 3) Simple sugar 4) Complex insoluble carbohydrate stored in liver and muscles
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1)
i -> 4 (Glycogen: complex insoluble storage carbohydrate), ii -> 3 (Glucose: simple monosaccharide sugar), iii -> 2 (Glucagon: pancreatic alpha-cell hormone raising blood glucose), iv -> 1 (Glycerol: derived from triglyceride lipid breakdown). Correct match: i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1.
Q1575
Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityNeuroanatomy of Vision
The calcarine fissure
💡Correct Answer: Option D (located in the occipital lobe)
The calcarine fissure (calcarine sulcus) is located on the medial surface of the Occipital Lobe, where the primary visual cortex (Brodmann area 17 / V1) is situated.
Below are two statements. Select your answer using the codes below. Statement 1: Enzymes are known as catalysts Statement 2: Enzymes cause a chemical reaction to take place while becoming a part of the final product themselves
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I is true but II is false)
Statement 1 is true (enzymes are biological protein catalysts that accelerate reaction rates). Statement 2 is false (catalysts remain chemically unchanged and do not become part of the final reaction products).
Q1578
Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityNeurobiology of Fear
Which part of the brain is suspected to contribute to contextual fear conditioning?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Hippocampus)
While the amygdala mediates cued fear conditioning, the Hippocampus is specifically critical for Contextual Fear Conditioning by encoding spatial and contextual configurations.
What is released in large amount by Locus Coeruleus?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Norepinephrine)
The Locus Coeruleus in the dorsal pons is the principal site for the synthesis and widespread central release of Norepinephrine (noradrenaline) mediating arousal and vigilance.
When people with certain genetic traits choose environments that support those traits, it is known as ______
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Active genotype-environment correlation)
Active Genotype-Environment Correlation (also known as niche-picking) occurs when individuals actively seek out or select environments and experiences that match their genetically influenced abilities and inclinations.
The dimension of sensation-seeking which represents dislike for repetition, routine work, monotony, predictable and dull people is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Boredom susceptibility)
In Marvin Zuckerman's Sensation Seeking Scale, Boredom Susceptibility reflects an aversion to repetitive experiences, routine work, monotony, and predictable persons.
Which of the following is true for Temperament and Character Inventory? I. It is based on a humanistic model of personality II. It operates on three temperaments and four characters. III. It is theorized on Cloninger's theory IV. Each temperament/ character has differing number of subscales. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (III and IV only)
Cloninger's Temperament and Character Inventory (TCI) is based on Cloninger's psychobiological model (Statement III is true) and measures 4 temperaments (Novelty Seeking, Harm Avoidance, Reward Dependence, Persistence) and 3 characters (Self-Directedness, Cooperativeness, Self-Transcendence), with each scale having differing subscales (Statement IV is true). Statements I & II are false. Correct: III and IV only.
Q1583
Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityReducer-Augmenter Theory
The reducer-augmenter theory was tested using the ______
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kinesthetic figural after effect)
Petrie's Reducer-Augmenter Theory of sensory modulation and cortical arousability was experimentally measured using the Kinesthetic Figural Aftereffect (KFA) apparatus.
Q1584
Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityKelly's Personal Construct Corollaries
According to George Kelly, Persons differ from each other in their construction of events is supported by which corollary?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Individuality)
In George Kelly's Personal Construct Psychology, the Individuality Corollary explicitly states: 'Persons differ from each other in their construction of events'.
Which of the following are approaches to identifying traits? I. Lexical II. Statistical III. Theoretical Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II and III only)
In trait personality psychology, the three fundamental approaches to identifying primary traits are: (1) The Lexical approach, (2) The Statistical approach (factor analysis), and (3) The Theoretical approach. All three are valid.
Match the following: Personality Trait: 1. Sincerity 2. Order 3. Sentimentality 4. Straight-forwardness
Personality factor: i. Conscientiousness ii. Agreeableness iii. Emotionality iv. Honesty-Humility
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-iv; 2-i; 3-iii; 4-ii)
In the HEXACO model of personality: 1. Sincerity -> iv (Honesty-Humility), 2. Order -> i (Conscientiousness), 3. Sentimentality -> iii (Emotionality), 4. Straightforwardness -> ii (Agreeableness / Honesty facet). Correct match: 1-iv; 2-i; 3-iii; 4-ii.
Which of the following personality are traits covered under the HEXACO model of personality? 1. Modesty; 2. Order; 3. Perfectionism; 4. Openness to Values Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 and 3 only)
In the HEXACO model (Ashton & Lee), Modesty is a primary facet of Honesty-Humility (H), and Perfectionism (and Prudence/Organization) is a primary facet of Conscientiousness (C).
Q1588
Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalitySchools of Psychology Matching
Match the following: Psychology school: i. Psychodynamic ii. Behavioral iii. Humanistic iv. Cognitive
Focus: 1) Observable behavior 2) Personal growth and self-actualization 3) Unconscious drives and conflicts 4) Mental processes like memory and thinking
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-3; ii-1; iii-2, iv-4)
i -> 3 (Psychodynamic: unconscious drives), ii -> 1 (Behavioral: observable behavior), iii -> 2 (Humanistic: personal growth & self-actualization), iv -> 4 (Cognitive: mental processes, memory, thinking). Correct match: i-3; ii-1; iii-2, iv-4.
Match the following: Psychologist: i. Lawrence Kohlberg ii. B.F. Skinner iii. Jean Piaget iv. Ivan Pavlov
Contribution: 1) Operant conditioning 2) Stages of moral development 3) Classical conditioning 4) Stages of cognitive development
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-2; ii-1; iii-4; iv-3)
i -> 2 (Kohlberg: moral development), ii -> 1 (Skinner: operant conditioning), iii -> 4 (Piaget: cognitive development stages), iv -> 3 (Pavlov: classical conditioning). Correct match: i-2; ii-1; iii-4; iv-3.
Q1590
Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityHistory of Psychology
Who is considered the "father of psychology"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Wilhelm Wundt)
Wilhelm Wundt is universally recognized as the Father of Experimental Psychology for founding the first formal psychological research laboratory in Leipzig, Germany in 1879.
Q1591
Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityPsychodynamic Theory
Which of the following statements about the psychodynamic perspective are true? I. It focuses on unconscious drives and conflicts. II. It was pioneered by Sigmund Freud. III. It emphasizes observable behavior over internal processes. IV It is concerned with the influence of early childhood experiences. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I, II, and IV only)
Statements I, II, and IV accurately describe the psychodynamic school (Statement III is false because behaviorism, not psychodynamic theory, emphasizes observable behavior). Correct: I, II, and IV only.
Q1592
Cognitive Psychology, Biological Foundations & PersonalityFounding of Psychology
Wundt established the first psychology laboratory in ______.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1879)
Wilhelm Wundt established the world's first formal experimental psychology laboratory at the University of Leipzig in 1879.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Studying human strengths and fostering well-being)
Founded by Martin Seligman, Positive Psychology focuses on the empirical study of human flourishing, character strengths, resilience, happiness, and subjective Well-Being.
According to Jean Piaget, cognitive development occurs in ______
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Four distinct stages)
Jean Piaget's stage theory posits that children progress through Four Distinct qualitative stages: Sensorimotor, Preoperational, Concrete Operational, and Formal Operational.
Q1595
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsFunctions of Scientific Theories
Which of the following does a theory NOT do?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Projection)
Scientific psychological theories describe, explain, and predict behavioral phenomena; 'Projection' is a psychoanalytic defense mechanism, not a formal function of a scientific theory.
Q1596
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsConfounding Variables
Change in variable not controlled in the experiment is called as
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Confounding)
An extraneous uncontrolled variable that covaries systematically with the independent variable and provides an alternative explanation for results is a Confounding variable.
Arrange the following stages of Piaget's Cognitive Development Theory in the correct order: I. Formal Operational Stage II. Preoperational Stage III. Concrete Operational Stage IV. Sensorimotor Stage Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (IV -> II -> III -> I)
Piaget's four stages in invariant developmental order: IV. Sensorimotor (0-2 yrs) -> II. Preoperational (2-7 yrs) -> III. Concrete Operational (7-11 yrs) -> I. Formal Operational (12+ yrs). Sequence: IV -> II -> III -> I.
Q1598
Developmental Psychology, Child Counseling & RehabilitationLanguage Development Milestones
Arrange the milestones in language development in the correct developmental order: I. First Words II. Telegraphic Speech III. Cooing IV. Babbling Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (III -> IV -> I -> II)
Infant language acquisition milestones in chronological order: III. Cooing (approx 2 months) -> IV. Babbling (approx 6 months) -> I. First Words (approx 12 months) -> II. Telegraphic Speech (approx 18-24 months). Sequence: III -> IV -> I -> II.
Arrange the following stages of attachment development as per Bowlby's theory in the correct order: I. Clear-cut Attachment Phase II. Attachment-in-the-Making Phase III. Formation of a Reciprocal Relationship IV. Preattachment Phase Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (IV -> II -> I -> III)
John Bowlby's four phases of attachment development: IV. Preattachment (birth to 6 wks) -> II. Attachment-in-the-making (6 wks to 6-8 mos) -> I. Clear-cut attachment (6-8 mos to 18-24 mos) -> III. Formation of reciprocal relationships (18-24 mos onwards). Sequence: IV -> II -> I -> III.
Q1600
Developmental Psychology, Child Counseling & RehabilitationPrenatal Development Stages
Arrange the stages of prenatal development in the correct order: I. Embryonic Stage II. Germinal Stage III. Fetal Stage Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (II -> I -> III)
Prenatal development progresses through three successive stages: II. Germinal stage (conception to 2 weeks) -> I. Embryonic stage (weeks 3 to 8) -> III. Fetal stage (week 9 to birth). Sequence: II -> I -> III.
Arrange the following theorists based on the year in which they gave their theories, starting from the earliest. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Piaget -> Kohlberg -> Gilligan)
Chronological timeline of moral/developmental theories: Jean Piaget (pioneered cognitive and moral development stages in 1930s-1950s) -> Lawrence Kohlberg (formalized moral development stages in 1958/1969) -> Carol Gilligan (formulated ethics of care in 1982). Sequence: Piaget -> Kohlberg -> Gilligan.
Q1602
Developmental Psychology, Child Counseling & RehabilitationVygotsky Sociocultural Theory
Which of the following are features of Vygotsky's Sociocultural Theory? I. Learning is a social process mediated by cultural tools. II. The Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) refers to tasks a child can accomplish without assistance. III. Scaffolding involves providing support to help children achieve tasks beyond their independent ability. IV. Language plays a key role in cognitive development. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I, III, and IV only)
In Lev Vygotsky's theory: social mediation (I), instructional scaffolding (III), and language as a cognitive tool (IV) are core tenets. Statement II is false because ZPD represents the distance between actual independent level and potential level achieved with adult assistance. Correct: I, III, and IV only.
Q1603
Developmental Psychology, Child Counseling & RehabilitationSelf-Determination Theory
What does the self-determination theory in educational psychology emphasize?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The importance of autonomy, competence, and relatedness in motivation)
Deci and Ryan's Self-Determination Theory (SDT) posits that intrinsic motivation and optimal psychological functioning require the fulfillment of three basic psychological needs: Autonomy, Competence, and Relatedness.
Q1604
Developmental Psychology, Child Counseling & RehabilitationFormative vs Summative Assessment
What is the primary goal of formative assessment?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To identify learning gaps and provide feedback)
Formative assessment is an ongoing diagnostic pedagogical process designed to monitor student learning, Identify Learning Gaps, and provide continuous constructive feedback to improve instruction.
Match the following: Assessment Type: I. Summative Assessment II. Diagnostic Assessment III. Criterion-referenced Test IV. Face Validity
Purpose: 1. Measure overall learning at the end of a course 2. Appears relevant measure 3. Compare performance to a set standard 4. Identify learning gaps and student needs
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I-1; II-4; III-3; IV-2)
I -> 1 (Summative: measure end-of-course learning), II -> 4 (Diagnostic: identify learning gaps), III -> 3 (Criterion-referenced: compare to predefined standard), IV -> 2 (Face validity: appears relevant on superficial inspection). Correct match: I-1; II-4; III-3; IV-2.
Which of the following are features of Bloom's Taxonomy? I. It categorizes learning objectives into cognitive, affective, and psychomotor domains. II. The cognitive domain includes levels such as knowledge, comprehension, and application. III. It emphasizes rote memorization over higher-order thinking skills. IV. The taxonomy provides a hierarchical structure for setting educational goals. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I, II, and IV only)
Benjamin Bloom's Taxonomy spans 3 domains (I), features a 6-level cognitive hierarchy from knowledge to evaluation (II, IV), and explicitly promotes higher-order thinking over rote memorization (Statement III is false). Correct: I, II, and IV only.
In family therapy, which of the following roles do therapists typically adopt?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Fostering open communication and helping family members understand each other's perspectives)
Family systemic therapists serve as facilitators who Foster Open Communication, illuminate dysfunctional interactional patterns, and promote mutual empathy and systemic reorganization.
Which of the following is true about multicultural counseling?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (It emphasizes understanding and respecting cultural differences in the therapeutic process.)
Multicultural counseling emphasizes cultural competence, recognizing how cultural identity, values, race, ethnicity, and systemic factors influence the client's worldview and therapeutic relationship.
Which of the following is an ethical issue that counselors must consider in their practice?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Maintaining confidentiality, unless there is a risk of harm to the client or others)
The fundamental ethical mandate in psychological counseling is Maintaining Confidentiality, with mandatory exceptions strictly defined under duty-to-warn/protect statutes when there is imminent risk of harm to self or others.
Which of the following is a key principle of gestalt therapy?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Helping the client become aware of and integrate different parts of their personality)
Fritz Perls' Gestalt Therapy emphasizes present-moment awareness ('here and now') and holistic integration of fragmented, disowned parts of the self into a unified personality.
Match the following: Quadrant: I. Open Area II. Blind Area III. Hidden Area IV. Unknown Area
Characteristics: 1. Information you keep private from others 2. The "public" area where information is shared openly 3. Information that neither you nor others know 4. Information others know about you but you don't know yourself
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I-2; II-4; III-1; IV-3)
In the Johari Window (Luft & Ingham): I -> 2 (Open: known to self and others), II -> 4 (Blind: known to others but not self), III -> 1 (Hidden: known to self but kept private from others), IV -> 3 (Unknown: neither self nor others know). Correct match: I-2; II-4; III-1; IV-3.
Match the following: Concept: I. Disability II. Adaptation III. Functional Independence IV. Psychosocial Adjustment
Description: 1. The process of maximizing an individual's potential despite limitations 2. Physical or mental condition that limits an individual's ability to perform certain activities. 3. The ability of an individual to adjust or change in response to a disability 4. The process by which an individual regains/maintains Independence in daily activities
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I-2, II-3, III-4, IV-1)
I -> 2 (Disability: physical/mental condition limiting activities), II -> 3 (Adaptation: adjusting to disability), III -> 4 (Functional Independence: maintaining autonomy in daily activities), IV -> 1 (Psychosocial Adjustment: maximizing potential despite limitations). Correct match: I-2, II-3, III-4, IV-1.
Match the following: Intervention: I. Cognitive Rehabilitation II. Vocational Rehabilitation III. Psychosocial Counseling IV. Physical Therapy
Goal: 1. To address emotional and psychological well-being 2. To enhance a person's memory, attention, and problem-solving skills 3. To help an individual return to work or gain new skills 4. To improve mobility, strength, and physical function
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I-2, II-3, III-1, IV-4)
I -> 2 (Cognitive Rehabilitation: memory/attention/problem-solving), II -> 3 (Vocational Rehabilitation: return to work/employment skills), III -> 1 (Psychosocial Counseling: emotional/psychological well-being), IV -> 4 (Physical Therapy: mobility and physical strength). Correct match: I-2, II-3, III-1, IV-4.
Which of the following are common types of disabilities addressed in rehabilitation psychology? I. Physical disabilities, such as spinal cord injuries or amputations. II. Intellectual disabilities, such as Down syndrome or developmental delays. III. Emotional disabilities, such as anxiety or depression. IV. Sensory disabilities, such as vision or hearing impairments. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II and IV only)
Rehabilitation psychology classifications formally distinguish permanent impairments into Physical disabilities (I), Intellectual/developmental disabilities (II), and Sensory disabilities (IV), whereas anxiety/depression are classified as psychiatric/affective disorders. Correct: I, II and IV only.
Q1616
Developmental Psychology, Child Counseling & RehabilitationStages of Disability Adjustment
Which of the following are typical stages in the adjustment process following a disability? I. Denial II. Anger III. Bargaining IV. Acceptance Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II, III and IV)
The classic psychological model of adaptation to traumatic disability and loss (adapted from Kübler-Ross and Livneh) encompasses: Denial (I), Anger (II), Bargaining (III), Depression, and Acceptance (IV). All four are stages.
Which of the following interventions are commonly used in Rehabilitation Psychology? I. Cognitive-behavioral therapy II. Vocational rehabilitation III. Psychosocial counseling IV. Prescribing medications V. EMDR Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I, II and III only)
Rehabilitation psychologists utilize non-pharmacological interventions including CBT (I), Vocational rehabilitation support (II), and Psychosocial counseling (III) (Prescribing medications is restricted to psychiatrists/medical doctors). Correct: I, II and III only.
Q1618
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)ASCII Character Encoding
The decimal representation for the character '' in ASCII is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (36)
In the 7-bit standard ASCII table, the dollar sign '' character corresponds to decimal value 36 (hexadecimal 0x24).
Q1619
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)Binary to Decimal Conversion
What is the Decimal representation of the Binary number: 11010101.012?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (213.25)
Integer part: 1⋅27+1⋅26+0⋅25+1⋅24+0⋅23+1⋅22+0⋅21+1⋅20=128+64+16+4+1=213. Fractional part: 0⋅2−1+1⋅2−2=0.25. Total = 213.2510.
Q1620
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)Character Encoding Schemes
Which of the following statements about UTF-8 and Unicode is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (UTF-8 is a variable-length encoding scheme designed to be compatible with ASCII)
UTF-8 is a variable-length character encoding (1 to 4 bytes) that is strictly backwards-compatible with 7-bit ASCII.
Q1621
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)Decimal to Binary Conversion
What is the Binary equivalent representation of the Decimal number: 278?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($100010110_2$)
278=256+16+4+2=28+24+22+21=1000101102.
Q1622
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)Computer Classifications
Consider the following statements: I. A mainframe computer uses its power to execute a reliable volume of computations concurrently II. A supercomputer uses its power to execute a few programs as fast as possible Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both I and II)
Mainframes prioritize high throughput and concurrent transaction processing for large transaction volumes, whereas supercomputers prioritize raw floating-point computation speed (FLOPS) for singular complex scientific tasks. Both I and II are correct.
Q1623
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS Word Keyboard Shortcuts
Which keyboard shortcut in Microsoft Word is used to remove the document window split?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Alt + Shift + C)
In Microsoft Word, Alt + Shift + C removes an active document window split (or Ctrl + Alt + S toggles/splits the window).
Q1624
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS Word Mail Merge
What is the process in Microsoft Word that combines names and addresses with a standard document called?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mail Merge)
Mail Merge is the feature in MS Word that merges a boilerplate document with a structured data source (recipient list) to produce personalized letters, labels, or emails.
Q1625
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS Word Document Operations
Which of the following steps is/are correct for opening an existing document and selecting text in Microsoft Word?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (File -> Open Document -> Select text by dragging the cursor)
The standard correct procedure is navigating to File -> Open to load an existing document and dragging the mouse cursor to select text.
Q1626
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS Word Features
What is the purpose of Compatibility Checker in Microsoft Word?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To identify features in the document that might not be supported in earlier versions of Word)
The Compatibility Checker inspects the document to identify formatting and interactive features that may be disabled or degraded when opened in older versions of Word (e.g. Word 97–2003).
Q1627
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS Word AutoCorrect Options
How can you customise the AutoCorrect option in Microsoft Word?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (By clicking on File > Options > Proofing > AutoCorrect Options)
AutoCorrect settings in MS Word are customized via: File > Options > Proofing > AutoCorrect Options.
Q1628
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS Excel Data Consolidation
Which feature in Microsoft Excel allows you to gather data from different worksheets into a master worksheet?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Consolidate)
The 'Consolidate' tool (Data tab > Data Tools > Consolidate) combines and summarizes data from multiple separate worksheets or ranges into a single master worksheet.
Q1629
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS Excel Shortcuts Matching
Match Column - X (Shortcut) with Column - Y (Function) concerning operations in Microsoft Excel and select the answer using the codes given below: Column - X (Shortcut): 1. Ctrl + Shift + 2. Ctrl + Arrow Key 3. Ctrl + G
Column - Y (Function): I. Open the "Go To" dialog box II. Apply currency format to selected cells III. Navigate to the last used cell in the current column
Choose the Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1-II, 2-III, 3-I)
1 -> II (Ctrl + Shift + : Currency format), 2 -> III (Ctrl + Arrow Key: Navigate to edge of data/last cell), 3 -> I (Ctrl + G: Go To dialog box). Correct match: 1-II, 2-III, 3-I.
Q1630
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS Excel Date-Time Functions
Which of the following functions can be used to return the current date and time in Microsoft Excel?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (NOW())
`NOW()` returns the current serial system date and time, whereas `TODAY()` returns only the current date without the time component.
Q1631
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS Excel Math Functions
What is the value of the Microsoft Excel function "Floor(16,6)"?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (12)
The `FLOOR(number, significance)` function rounds a number down to the nearest multiple of significance. The nearest multiple of 6 below 16 is 6×2=12.
Q1632
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS Excel Navigation Keys
Match Column - X with Column - Y concerning Microsoft Excel and select the answer using the codes given below: Column - X (Keys): 1. Home 2. Ctrl+Home 3. Page Down
Column - Y (Function): I. Moves the active cell down by one screen II. Moves the active cell to the first column of the current row III. Moves the active cell to the beginning of the worksheet
Choose the Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1-II, 2-III, 3-I)
1 -> II (Home: Moves to column A of the current row), 2 -> III (Ctrl+Home: Moves to cell A1 / beginning of worksheet), 3 -> I (Page Down: Moves down by one screen). Correct match: 1-II, 2-III, 3-I.
Q1633
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS Excel Automation
Which of the following statements about MS Excel is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (MS Excel allows users to automate tasks using built-in functions and macros)
Statement C is correct: MS Excel enables task automation using VBA macros, scripts, and comprehensive built-in formula functions.
Q1634
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS Excel Chart Types
A Doughnut Chart in Excel is similar to a
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pie Chart)
A Doughnut chart is functionally and visually identical to a Pie Chart, displaying data as proportional segments of a whole with an open center hole.
Q1635
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS Excel Sparklines
What is the primary purpose of sparkline in a worksheet?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To display a tiny chart within a cell for visual representation of data)
A Sparkline (introduced by Edward Tufte) is a tiny word-sized chart embedded directly within a single worksheet cell to show data trends at a glance.
Q1636
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS Excel SUM Formula
Which formula is used in MS Excel to calculate the sum of numeric values in column D, specifically from rows 11 to 16?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (=SUM (D11:D16))
The colon `:` operator defines a continuous contiguous cell range from cell D11 through cell D16: `=SUM(D11:D16)`. (A comma only sums the two individual isolated cells).
Q1637
Relational Database Management Systems (DBMS & SQL)SQL Fundamentals
What does the abbreviation SQL stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Structured Query Language)
SQL stands for Structured Query Language, the ANSI/ISO standard declarative language for relational database management.
Consider the relation scheme R=(E,F,G,H,I,J,K,L,M,N) and the set of functional dependencies: {(E,F)−>(G),(F)−>(I,J),(E,H)−>(K,L),(K)−>(M),(L)−>(N)}. Which of the following sets of attributes is the key for R?
💡Correct Answer: Option B ({E, F, H})
Finding the attribute closure of {E,F,H}: 1. {E,F,H}+={E,F,H} 2. Since F−>IJ, closure includes {I,J} 3. Since EF−>G, closure includes {G} 4. Since EH−>KL, closure includes {K,L} 5. Since K−>M and L−>N, closure includes {M,N}. Total closure ={E,F,G,H,I,J,K,L,M,N}=R. Hence, {E,F,H} is the minimal candidate key.
Q1639
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)Windows File Formats
What is the default file extension used for saving Paint Brush files in Windows?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (.png)
In modern Microsoft Windows (Windows 7/8/10/11), MS Paint saves image files by default with the `.png` (Portable Network Graphics) extension (historically `.bmp` in legacy Windows 95/98).
Q1640
Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesMobile Communication Identifiers
What does the full form of IMEI stand for in mobile communications?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (International Mobile Equipment Identifier)
IMEI stands for International Mobile Equipment Identity (or Identifier), a unique 15-digit code identifying 3GPP and iDEN mobile devices globally.
Q1641
Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesModem Functionality
Which of the following best describes the primary function of a modem?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To convert digital signals to analog for transmission and analog signals back to digital for reception)
A Modem (Modulator-Demodulator) modulates outgoing digital signals into analog signals for transmission across analog communication media and demodulates incoming analog signals back into digital data.
Q1642
Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesEmail Client Functionality
What is the primary purpose of an email client?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To retrieve, send, and organize email messages on a user's device)
An email client (MUA / Mail User Agent) provides a user interface to compose, send, download, read, and organize email messages locally on a client machine.
Q1643
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)Business Information Systems
What does 'EOQ' stand for in Inventory Control?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Economic Order Quantity)
In operations research and inventory management systems, EOQ stands for Economic Order Quantity, which minimizes total holding and ordering costs.
Q1644
Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesCellular Communication Technologies
Which technology allows 4G networks to achieve high speeds?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (OFDM)
4G LTE and LTE-Advanced wireless cellular networks achieve high spectral efficiency and multi-megabit throughput using Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM / OFDMA).
Q1645
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)Multimedia Digitization Principles
Which of the following principles are involved in the digitization of multimedia content?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sampling, Quantization, Compression, and Synchronization)
Digitization of analog multimedia involves: (1) Sampling (discrete time/space capture), (2) Quantization (mapping amplitudes to binary levels), (3) Compression (reducing file size), and (4) Synchronization (temporal alignment of audio/video).
Q1646
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS PowerPoint Shortcuts
Which shortcut key is used in Microsoft PowerPoint to create a new blank presentation?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ctrl + N)
`Ctrl + N` creates a new blank presentation document in Microsoft PowerPoint (while `Ctrl + M` inserts a new slide into the active presentation).
Q1647
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS PowerPoint Slide Show Shortcuts
Match the Column - X with Column - Y with reference to Microsoft PowerPoint: Column - X (Shortcuts): 1. Alt+F5 2. Ctrl+H 3. Shift+F5
Column - Y (Description): I. Hide the pointer and navigation buttons II. Start the presentation in the Presenter's View III. Start the presentation from the current slide
Choose the Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1-II, 2-I, 3-III)
1 -> II (Alt + F5: Launches slide show in Presenter View), 2 -> I (Ctrl + H: Hides mouse pointer and navigation buttons during slide show), 3 -> III (Shift + F5: Starts slide show from current slide). Correct match: 1-II, 2-I, 3-III.
Q1648
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS PowerPoint Animations
What feature allows you to add dynamic effects to the text in PowerPoint?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Animations)
The Animations tab in PowerPoint allows users to apply dynamic entrance, emphasis, exit, and motion path effects to text boxes, shapes, and images.
Q1649
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS PowerPoint Media Insertion
In most presentation packages, which option allows the user to add .jpg file to slides?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Insert > Images)
To insert a `.jpg` picture onto a slide, users navigate to the Insert tab and select Images / Pictures.
Q1650
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)MS PowerPoint Action Settings
Which of the following options in a presentation package would you use to create interactive elements, such as hyperlinks, within a slide show?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Action Settings)
The 'Action Settings' / 'Action' button tool in PowerPoint allows users to assign interactive behaviors (hyperlinks to other slides/URLs, macro execution, or playing sounds upon clicking/hovering).
Q1651
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)Educational Multimedia
Which of the following is a significant benefit of using multimedia applications in education?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It caters to diverse learning styles and improves understanding of complex concepts)
Educational multimedia integrates audio, visual graphics, interactive simulations, and text to accommodate diverse learning modalities (visual, auditory, kinesthetic) and clarify abstract conceptual models.
Q1652
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)Multimedia File Formats
Match the Column - X with Column - Y: Column - X (Multimedia Formats): 1. .png 2. .mp4 3. .mp3
Column - Y (Categories): I. Audio II. Video III. Image
Choose the Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-III, 2-II, 3-I)
1 -> III (.png: Image format), 2 -> II (.mp4: Video container format), 3 -> I (.mp3: Audio compression format). Correct match: 1-III, 2-II, 3-I.
Q1653
Operating Systems (Linux, Windows), System Software & Hardware ArchitectureSystem Utilities Functionality
Which of the following statements accurately describe the functionalities of essential system tools such as Disk Cleanup, Disk Defragmenter, and Imaging Fax? I. Disk Cleanup analyzes and removes temporary files, system cache, and unnecessary application logs II. Disk Defragmenter consolidates fragmented data on an SSD to enhance its performance III. Imaging Fax supports document scanning, image optimization, and fax transmission over a network IV. Disk Defragmenter improves file access speed by reorganizing data on mechanical hard drives V. Disk Cleanup can detect and resolve hardware errors on the disk Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I, III and IV)
Statements I, III, and IV are correct: Disk Cleanup purges junk/temp files (I); Fax/Imaging handles document transmission (III); Disk Defrag reorganizes contiguous blocks on mechanical magnetic HDDs (IV). Statement II is false (defragmenting SSDs is unnecessary and shortens flash memory lifespan) and V is false (CHKDSK, not Disk Cleanup, scans disk errors). Correct: I, III and IV.
Q1654
Computer Fundamentals, Number Systems & MS Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint)Windows Accessories (WordPad vs Notepad)
Assertion (A): WordPad offers more advanced features than Notepad, making it a better tool for rich text editing. Reason (R): WordPad supports formatting, font styles, and multimedia, while Notepad is limited to plain text. Which of the following is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.)
Both A and R are true, and Reason R directly explains why WordPad (which supports RTF, paragraph formatting, bulleting, and embedded objects) is superior to Notepad (which only handles plain unformatted ASCII/UTF-8 text).
Q1655
Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Acts & Regulatory AffairsPCI Council Composition
In the constitution of Central Council, Six members nominated by ______
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Central Government)
Under Section 3(a) of the Pharmacy Act 1948, six members (of whom at least four shall be persons possessing a degree or diploma in pharmacy/pharmaceutical chemistry) are nominated by the Central Government.
Q1656
Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsImmunology of Vaccines
Live attenuated vaccines are better immunizing agents because:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Replication of organism in a live attenuated vaccine increases the stimulation of the immune system and a lower dose is often required.)
Live attenuated vaccines mimic natural subclinical infection: the attenuated pathogen actively replicates in host tissues, providing sustained antigenic presentation, robust humoral and cell-mediated immunity with single lower doses.
Q1657
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessAntihypertensive Herbal Drugs
Drug used to hypertension
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rauwolfia)
Rauwolfia (Rauwolfia serpentina, Indian Snakeroot), containing the indole alkaloid Reserpine which depletes vesicular catecholamines, is used as an antihypertensive and tranquilizer.
Q1658
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessSenna Phytochemistry
Chief constituent present in senna is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sennosides)
The primary active laxative principles in Senna leaves and pods are dianthrone anthraquinone glycosides known as Sennosides (Sennosides A, B, C, and D).
Q1659
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessBotanical Families
Senna belongs to the family of
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Leguminosae)
Senna (Cassia senna / Cassia angustifolia) belongs to the family Leguminosae (subfamily Caesalpiniaceae / Fabaceae).
Q1660
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessBotanical Families
Digitalis belongs to family ______
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Scrophulariaceae)
Digitalis (Digitalis purpurea, Foxglove) traditionally belongs to the plant family Scrophulariaceae (reclassified into Plantaginaceae).
Q1661
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessNux Vomica Alkaloid Assay
Amount of strychnine contained by nuxvomica is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1.25%)
According to pharmacopoeial monographs, dried ripe seeds of Strychnos nux-vomica contain approximately 2.6% to 3.0% total alkaloids, of which at least 1.25% is Strychnine.
Q1662
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIpecacuanha Active Principles
Which compound in Ipecacuanha is primarily responsible for its emetic action?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Emetine)
The isoquinoline alkaloid Emetine (along with cephaeline) present in Ipecacuanha root acts locally on gastric mucosa and centrally on the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) to induce emesis (vomiting).
Q1663
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessHerbal Adulteration
Which of the following is a common adulterant of Ceylon cinnamon?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Cassia cinnamon)
Cassia bark (Cinnamomum cassia / Chinese cinnamon) is the most common commercial adulterant and substitute used for authentic Ceylon cinnamon (Cinnamomum zeylanicum).
Q1664
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessCinnamon Bark Pharmacognosy
Fracture of cinnamon bark is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Splintery)
The pharmacognostic fracture characteristic of authentic Cinnamomum zeylanicum bark is Splintery (short and splintery in the outer part, fibrous inside).
Q1665
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessBotanical Sources
Nuxvomica is biologically obtained from
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Seed of Strychnos nux vomica)
Nux Vomica consists of the dried ripe Seeds of Strychnos nux-vomica Linn. (Family: Loganiaceae).
Q1666
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessSenna Botanical Sources
Tinnevelly senna is obtained from
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cassia angustifolia)
Tinnevelly Senna (Indian Senna) consists of the dried leaflets of Cassia angustifolia Vahl (Alexandrian Senna is obtained from Cassia acutifolia).
Q1667
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessOpium Morphine Content
Opium contains ______ % of morphin
💡Correct Answer: Option B (9%)
According to Indian Pharmacopoeia and international standards, crude raw Opium latex contains not less than 9.5% to 10% (approx 9% to 12%) of anhydrous Morphine.
Q1668
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessRauwolfia Microscopy
Stratified cork is characteristic of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rauwolfia)
A transverse section of Rauwolfia serpentina root microscopically exhibits distinctive Stratified Cork consisting of alternating bands of suberized and lignified cells.
Q1669
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessMicroscopic Calcium Oxalate Crystals
Rhombohedral crystals are characteristics of ______
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kurchi bark)
Transverse sections of Kurchi bark (Holarrhena antidysenterica) show abundant diagnostic Rhombohedral and prism crystals of calcium oxalate in its parenchymatous cells.
Q1670
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessTrichomes in Pharmacognosy
Lignified trichomes present in ______
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Nux vomica)
The seed coat (testa) of Nux Vomica is covered with dense, silky, appressed Lignified Trichomes with collapsed bent bases.
Q1671
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessStomatal Types in Pharmacognosy
Anisocytic stomata are present in ______
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Belladonna)
Leaves of Atropa belladonna (and Solanaceae) characteristically possess Anisocytic (unequal-celled / cruciferous) stomata, where the guard cells are surrounded by three subsidiary cells, one of which is distinctly smaller.
Q1672
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessAloe Vera Phytochemistry
Chemical constituents of Aloe except ______
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Eugenol)
Eugenol is a phenylpropanoid volatile oil found in Clove and Cinnamon. Aloe vera contains anthraquinone glycosides Barbaloin, Isobarbaloin, and Aloe-emodin.
Q1673
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessTulsi Botanical Source
Biological source of Tulsi is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ocimum sanctum)
Holy Basil (Tulsi) consists of the fresh and dried leaves of Ocimum sanctum Linn. (synonym: Ocimum tenuiflorum, Family: Lamiaceae).
Q1674
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessCinchona Chemical Tests
Name the drug for which Thalloquin test is performed
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Cinchona)
The Thalleioquin test (treating sample with bromine water and dilute ammonia to yield an emerald-green color) is the specific diagnostic test for Quinine and Quinidine in Cinchona bark.
Q1675
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessOpium Plant Part
Which part of plant is used for medicinal value in case of opium
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dried latex)
Opium is the Dried Latex / air-dried milky exudate obtained by incising the unripe capsule fruit of Papaver somniferum.
Q1676
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessHerbal Synonyms
Ma Huang is synonym for ______
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ephedra)
Ma Huang is the traditional Chinese synonym for Ephedra (Ephedra sinica / Ephedra gerardiana).
Q1677
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIndian Constitution Article 33
Which among the following authorities decides, how far the fundamental rights can apply to the members of the armed forces in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Parliament of India)
Under Article 33 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament of India alone has the exclusive constitutional power to restrict or abrogate the application of Fundamental Rights to members of the Armed Forces and Police forces.
Q1678
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessQuantum Physics (de Broglie Relation)
What is the relation between mass and wavelength of any matter, as per de Broglie's relation?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Both are inversely proportional)
De Broglie's matter-wave equation is λ=m⋅vh. Hence, de Broglie wavelength is Inversely Proportional to mass (m) for a given velocity.
Q1679
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessHistory and Forts of J&K
Hari parbat was built by
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Atta Mohammed Khan)
The present historic Hari Parbat Fort (Durrani Fort / Qila Koh-e-Maran in Srinagar) was constructed in 1808 by Afghan governor Atta Mohammed Khan (the original outer rampart wall was built by Mughal Emperor Akbar in 1590).
Q1680
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessOlympic Awards
The "Pierre de Coubertin Medal" is awarded for the excellence in which field?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sports)
The Pierre de Coubertin Medal (also known as the True Spirit of Sportsmanship medal) is awarded by the International Olympic Committee to athletes who demonstrate exceptional sportsmanship in Sports.
Q1681
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessFive Year Plans & Blue Revolution
Blue revolution was first launched in India during which of the Five Year Plan?
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($7^{\text{th}}$ Five Year Plan)
The Blue Revolution (Neel Kranti Mission for aquaculture and fisheries development) was officially launched in India during the 7th Five Year Plan (1985–1990) through the Fish Farmers Development Agency (FFDA).
Q1682
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessDesert Development Programme
Consider the following states: 1. Rajasthan 2. Gujarat 3. Jammu & Kashmir 4. Himachal Pradesh Desert Development programme was started in which of the above states?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, 3 & 4)
The Desert Development Programme (DDP) was launched in 1977–78 covering both hot desert areas (Rajasthan, Gujarat, Haryana) and cold desert areas (Jammu & Kashmir / Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh). All 1, 2, 3, and 4 were covered.
Q1683
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIndian Manufacturing & Standards
Which company has launched the first Made-in-India helmet to meet Europe's ECE 22.06 standard?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Steelbird)
Steelbird Hi-Tech India launched the 'Ignite' helmet range, making it the first Indian manufacturer to meet the stringent European ECE 22.06 safety standard.
Q1684
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessMacroeconomics Concepts
Which of the following best describes the Phillips Curve in macroeconomics?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It shows the trade off between inflation and unemployment)
The Phillips Curve (A.W. Phillips, 1958) is an economic concept stating that inflation and unemployment have a stable, inverse relationship (trade-off).
Q1685
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessBanking & NBFC Regulations
Which type of NBFC activities are not eligible for bank credit?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Investments in shares and debentures)
Under Reserve Bank of India (RBI) prudential guidelines, commercial bank financing is strictly prohibited for NBFC activities involving investments in shares, debentures, and speculative real estate.
Q1686
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessInternational Trade Economics
Consider a scenario in which a small country imposes a tariff on a product. Which of the statements below is false?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The surplus of the producer of the goods will decrease.)
When a tariff is imposed on imported goods, domestic prices rise, causing domestic Producer Surplus to INCREASE (not decrease). Thus, Statement B ('The surplus of the producer of the goods will decrease') is FALSE.
Q1687
General English & Basic MathematicsCollective Nouns
Fill in the blank with the correct collective noun: The ______ of birds took off from the tree branches with a sudden flap of their wings and filled the air with a chorus of chirps.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (flock)
The proper collective noun used for a group of birds is 'flock'.
Q1688
General English & Basic MathematicsRelative Pronouns
Fill in the blank using a suitable relative pronoun. The park ______ we used to play as children has been renovated and looks beautiful now.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (where)
'Where' is the relative adverb/pronoun used to refer to a place (the park where we used to play).
Which of the following materials are suitable for earthing in electrical systems?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Galvanized steel, galvanized iron plates and copper plates)
According to IS 3043 earthing standards, Galvanized Iron (GI) plates/pipes, Galvanized Steel, and high-conductivity Copper plates/rods are approved corrosion-resistant earth electrode materials.
Which of the following is NOT a common method of earthing?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Wire earthing)
Standard recognized methods of earthing are Plate Earthing, Pipe Earthing, Rod Earthing, and Strip/Mat Earthing; 'Wire earthing' alone is not a classified standard earth electrode method.
Match the parts of electric iron with their design: Part of Electric Iron: i) Sole Plate ii) Pressure Plate iii) Heating Element iv) Pilot Lamp
Design / Function: 1) Consists of nichrome wire wound around a sheet of mica. 2) Flat, heated surface that comes into direct contact with clothes. 3) Designed to be shielded from excessive heat generated by the iron 4) Ensures good contact between the heated base and the material.
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3)
i -> 2 (Sole Plate: Flat heated contact surface), ii -> 4 (Pressure Plate: Cast iron plate pressing element against sole plate), iii -> 1 (Heating Element: Nichrome ribbon on mica), iv -> 3 (Pilot Lamp: Indicator lamp shielded from heat). Correct match: i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3.
What is the primary function of the bimetallic strip in the thermostat of an automatic electric iron?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (To control the flow of current by operating a switch)
The bimetallic strip (composed of two metals with unequal thermal expansion coefficients) bends upon heating to mechanically open/close the contact switch, regulating current and temperature.
Which of the following is NOT true about the operation of a geyser?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Heat is generated due to magnetic effect of current.)
Electric water geysers operate entirely on the Joule Thermal/Heating Effect of electric current (H=I2Rt), NOT on magnetic effects (Statement C is false).
What fundamental principle governs the operation of a refrigerator and how does it effectively lower the temperature of the items stored within?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The second law of thermodynamics; by extracting heat from the items inside and releasing it to the external environment.)
A refrigerator operates as a heat pump governed by the Second Law of Thermodynamics (Clausius statement), utilizing mechanical compressor work to extract heat from a low-temperature cold interior and reject it to the warmer ambient surroundings.
Q1698
Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsIllumination Units
How is one lux related to foot-candles?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 lux is equivalent to 0.0929 foot-candles)
A hall measuring 15 m×10 m is illuminated by twenty 150-watt lamps. If the luminous efficiency of each lamp is 25 lumens per watt and the coefficient of utilisation is 0.50, what is the average illumination level on the floor?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (250 lux)
Total generated lumens =20×150 W×25 lm/W=75,000 lumens. Total lumens reaching floor =75,000×0.50=37,500 lumens. Floor Area =15×10=150 m2. Illumination E=15037,500=250 lux.
Q1700
Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsSolar Photovoltaic Power Plants
Consider the following statements about the photovoltaic power station. i. It is a large-scale solar power system designed to generate electricity through the use of photovoltaic (PV) panels. ii. They supply power directly to the electrical grid by providing electricity at the utility level rather than serving individual or local users. iii. Galiveedu solar park is the first Indian Park located in Madhya Pradesh. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i and ii)
Statements i and ii are correct. Statement iii is false because Galiveedu Solar Park (part of Ananthapuramu Ultra Mega Solar Park) is located in Andhra Pradesh, not Madhya Pradesh. Correct: i and ii.
Q1701
Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsLenz's Law of Electromagnetism
Which of the following statements accurately describes fundamental principles or laws related to electromagnetism?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Lenz's Law asserts that the direction of induced current in a conductor is such that it opposes the change in magnetic flux that produced it, thereby conserving energy.)
Lenz's Law states that an induced electromotive force always generates a current whose magnetic field opposes the change in original magnetic flux that created it, directly satisfying the Law of Conservation of Energy.
Q1702
Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsMagnetic Field of Straight Conductor
Consider the following statements about the Magnetic Field due to a current carrying conductor. 1. Magnetic field due to infinitely long straight current carrying conductor is given by B=2πrμ0I Where, μ0 is the permeability of free space, I is the current flowing in the long straight conductor. 2. The magnetic field around a straight current-carrying conductor forms concentric circles, as described by Ampère's right-hand rule. 3. If the conductor is carrying current in an upward direction, then the direction of the magnetic field will always be in clockwise direction and vice-versa. 4. The magnetic field depends on the current through the conductor and not on the material of the conductor. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2 and 4)
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct: (1) B=μ0I/2πr; (2) Concentric magnetic field lines; (4) B depends on current, not conductor material. Statement 3 is false because for upward current, the right-hand rule gives an counter-clockwise (anticlockwise) magnetic field. Correct: 1, 2 and 4.
Q1703
Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsBiot-Savart Law Calculation
A long straight conductor carries a current of 10 A. Determine the magnetic field strength at a point 5 cm away from the conductor in air. Take μ0=4π×10−7 N/A2
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($4 \times 10^{-5}\text{ T}$)
B=2πrμ0I=2π×0.05 m4π×10−7×10=0.052×10−6=4×10−5 T.
Q1704
Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsSolenoid Magnetic Field Calculation
A solenoid of length 50 cm has 2000 turns and carries a current of 3 A. If the core of the solenoid is made of a material with a relative permeability of 1000, calculate the magnetic field strength inside the solenoid. Take μ0=4π×10−7 N/A2
💡Correct Answer: Option B (15.08 T)
B=μrμ0nI=μrμ0(LN)I=1000×(4π×10−7)×(0.502000)×3=1000×(1.2566×10−6)×4000×3=15.08 T.
Q1705
Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsMagnetic Permeability
A solenoid is wound with a ferromagnetic core inserted inside it. What happens to the magnetic field inside the solenoid?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It increases due to the core's higher permeability.)
Ferromagnetic materials have very high relative permeability (μr≫1), which concentrates magnetic lines of force and dramatically increases the total internal magnetic flux density (B=μrB0).
Q1706
Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsClock Rule for Solenoids
If the current in a solenoid flows in a clockwise direction when viewed from one end, what is the direction of the magnetic field at that end?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Inwards into the solenoid)
By the End Rule (Clock Rule), if current flows Clockwise when viewed from an end, that end acts as a South magnetic pole, where magnetic field lines enter Inwards into the solenoid.
Q1707
Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsMagnetic Force Between Parallel Currents
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the interaction between two current-carrying conductors?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The force experienced between two parallel conductors depends solely on the current in one of the conductors.)
Statement D is incorrect: By Ampère's Force Law (F/L=2πdμ0I1I2), the magnetic force depends mutually on the product of currents in BOTH conductors (I1⋅I2), not solely on one.
Q1708
Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsHysteresis Loop Parameters
Which parameter on the hysteresis loop is used to determine the magnetic permeability of a material?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Slope of the initial magnetization curve)
Magnetic permeability (μ=B/H) is determined by the Slope of the initial magnetization curve connecting the origin to the operating point.
Q1709
Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsCurie Temperature & Coercivity
Which of the following changes will reduce the coercivity of a ferromagnetic material?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Increasing the temperature above the Curie point)
Heating a ferromagnetic material above its Curie temperature (Tc) destroys spontaneous domain alignment, causing it to become paramagnetic with Zero Coercivity.
Q1710
Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsHysteresis Loss Principles
Which of the following statements about hysteresis loss in a ferromagnetic material is/are correct? 1. Hysteresis loss is directly proportional to the frequency of the applied magnetic field in a dynamic system. 2. The area of the hysteresis loop determines the energy lost per cycle of magnetization. 3. Hysteresis loss is independent of temperature changes below the Curie temperature. 4. Materials with high coercivity generally exhibit higher hysteresis loss compared to those with low coercivity. Choose the correct statements:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1, 2 and 4)
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct (Steinmetz formula: Ph=ηBmax1.6fV; Loop area = energy loss/cycle; hard magnetic materials with high coercivity have high hysteresis loss). Statement 3 is false as permeability and loop area vary with temperature. Correct: 1, 2 and 4.
Q1711
Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsElectromagnetic Induction Calculation
The magnetic flux Φ(t) through a loop with a resistance of R=2Ω varies with time as Φ(t)=4t3−2t2+t Wb. What is the induced current in the loop at t=0.5 s?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1.0 A)
Induced EMF magnitude: e=dtdΦ=12t2−4t+1. At t=0.5 s: e=12(0.5)2−4(0.5)+1=12(0.25)−2+1=3−2+1=2 V. Induced current I=Re=2Ω2 V=1.0 A.
Q1712
Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsLenz's Law Concepts
Which of the following statements regarding Lenz's law is/are correct? 1. Lenz's law states that the direction of the induced current opposes the change in magnetic flux that causes it. 2. Lenz's law ensures the conservation of energy by requiring external work to oppose the induced magnetic effects. 3. The induced EMF creates a magnetic field that always reinforces the initial magnetic flux. 4. Lenz's law applies to all electromagnetic induction phenomena, including motional EMF. Choose the correct statements:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2 and 4)
Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct (Statement 3 is false because induced fields oppose, never reinforce, the flux change). Correct: 1, 2 and 4.
Q1713
Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsFaraday's Law Relative Motion
What happens if both the coil and the magnet are moved at the same speed in Faraday's experiment?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (No change in magnetic flux and no induced EMF.)
Faraday's Law requires relative motion between the magnetic field and the conductor. If both move at identical velocity, there is Zero relative motion, no change in magnetic flux linkage (dΦ/dt=0), and No Induced EMF.
Q1714
Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsElectromagnetic Rules Matching
Match the items in List I with the correct descriptions in List II: List - I: i) Right hand thumb rule ii) Fleming's left hand rule iii) Fleming's right hand rule
List - II: 1) determines the direction of the force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field 2) determines the direction of the induced current when a conductor is moving through a magnetic field 3) determines the direction of the magnetic field around a current-carrying conductor.
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-3, ii-1, iii-2)
i -> 3 (Right hand thumb rule: magnetic field around straight conductor), ii -> 1 (Fleming's left hand rule: force on conductor / motor rule), iii -> 2 (Fleming's right hand rule: induced current / generator rule). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-2.
Q1715
Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsAC Fundamentals
Which of the following statements is correct regarding alternating current (AC)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Electrons continuously alternate their direction of flow, either backward or forward)
In Alternating Current (AC), electric charge carriers (electrons) periodically reverse their direction of motion in a sinusoidal back-and-forth oscillation.
Q1716
Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsGalvanometers in AC Circuits
A galvanometer connected in an A.C. circuit does not show any deflection because
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The mean value of alternating current is zero over a complete cycle.)
A moving-coil galvanometer responds to the average (mean) current. Over any full symmetrical AC cycle, the mean current value is exactly zero (Iˉ=0), producing zero net torque.
Which value of current is measured by A.C ammeter?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Root mean square value of current)
Commercial AC ammeters (moving-iron, dynamometer, hot-wire) operate on heating or square-law magnetic effects and are calibrated to indicate the Root Mean Square (RMS / effective) value of current.
Q1718
Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsAC Power Calculation
What is the power dissipation in an A.C. circuit in which voltage and current is given by E=100sin(ωt+π/2) and I=2sin(ωt)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (0)
The phase difference between voltage and current is ϕ=π/2=90∘. Average real power dissipation is P=VrmsIrmscosϕ=VrmsIrmscos(90∘)=0 Watts.
Q1719
Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsPower Factor Effects
What are the effects of a low power factor?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above.)
Since I=P/(Vcosϕ), a low power factor (cosϕ) forces high line current, resulting in: higher I2R copper losses, reduced system efficiency, larger voltage drops, and oversized equipment (All of the above).
Q1720
Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsThree-Phase vs Single-Phase Systems
Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding 3 phase system over single phase system?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A three-phase machine with the same rating takes up more space than a single-phase machine.)
Statement D is incorrect: For identical power output and voltage ratings, a 3-phase machine is more compact, lighter, and takes up LESS space than a single-phase machine.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (By safely redirecting excess electricity to the ground.)
Grounding provides a low-impedance alternate return path that safely conducts lightning strikes, static build-up, and ground fault surge currents into the Earth, preventing arcing and fires.
Which of the following electrical safety measures is most effective in preventing electrical shocks and fires?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Grounding all electrical appliances and systems to provide a safe path for fault currents to flow into the earth.)
Grounding/Earthing of all metallic enclosures provides a direct zero-potential path for fault currents to trip circuit protection instantly and eliminate lethal touch voltages on equipment bodies.
Which property of lubricants is important for effective performance of machinery under varying temperatures?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Consistent viscosity across a wide temperature range.)
A high Viscosity Index (maintaining consistent, stable film viscosity across extreme temperature variations without thinning out or solidifying) is critical for machinery lubricants.
What is the primary function of a GFCI (Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To safeguard individuals by interrupting the circuit during ground faults.)
A GFCI (or RCD/ELCB) monitors the current balance between live and neutral wires and instantly trips power (within 20–30 ms) if an imbalance >4ext−−6extmA leaks to ground through a person's body.
Q1729
Electrical Machines (DC Generators/Motors, Transformers & Alternators)DC Shunt Motor Applications
Where are shunt DC motors most commonly used?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Centrifugal Pumps)
DC Shunt Motors provide practically constant speed characteristic from no-load to full-load, making them standard for Centrifugal Pumps, machine tools, lathes, and blowers (Series motors are used in cranes and locomotives for high starting torque).
Which of the following quantities remains constant in a transformer?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Frequency)
A transformer transfers electrical energy purely through electromagnetic induction from one AC circuit to another at the exact same operating Frequency (f1=f2).
What is a key advantage of squirrel cage induction motors over wound-type motors?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Lower maintenance requirements)
Squirrel cage induction motors have no slip rings, brushes, or external rotor circuits, making them exceptionally rugged, simple, low-cost, and requiring Minimal Maintenance.
What is the typical internal resistance of an ideal ammeter?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Low resistance)
An ideal ammeter is connected in series and has Zero internal resistance (practically Very Low Resistance) so that it causes negligible voltage drop and does not alter the circuit current.
Why a Permanent Moving Coil Ammeter can not be used to measure AC directly?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The torque produced in the mechanism cancels out due to the reversal of the current direction during the negative half-cycle of AC.)
In a PMMC meter, deflecting torque is proportional to current (Td∝I). In AC, torque reverses every half-cycle, resulting in zero average deflecting torque (Tavg=0) due to meter inertia.
An ammeter with an internal resistance of 0.5Ω is connected to measure the current in a circuit. The circuit consists of a 10Ω resistor connected in series with a 50 V power supply. What is the percentage error in the current measurement due to the ammeter's internal resistance? (Rounded off to the nearest decimal place)
💡Correct Answer: Option B (4.8%)
True current Itrue=1050=5.0 A. Measured current Imeas=10+0.550=10.550=4.7619 A. Percentage loading error =ItrueItrue−Imeas×100=5.05.0−4.7619×100=5.00.2381×100=4.76%≈4.8%.
Why should a voltmeter have a very high internal resistance?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To measure voltage accurately by minimizing the current drawn from the circuit.)
A voltmeter is connected in parallel across circuit components; an extremely high internal resistance ensures that it draws negligible current, avoiding circuit loading and measuring true potential difference.
What is the significance of the phase angle in the measurement of power using a wattmeter?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It directly influences the real power measured by a wattmeter.)
The real average power indicated by an electrodynamometer wattmeter is P=VIcosϕ, where the phase angle (ϕ) directly determines the power factor (cosϕ) and real power consumption.
Which type of wattmeter is commonly used for measuring power in AC and DC circuits?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dynamometer type)
Electrodynamometer type wattmeters have fixed current coils and a moving potential coil, operating accurately on the square-law principle for both AC and DC power measurements.
A wattmeter is connected in a circuit to measure power. The current coil is connected in series with the load, and the voltage coil is connected across the load. Why is this configuration necessary?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (To ensure the wattmeter measures the true power consumed by the load)
Connecting the Current Coil (low impedance) in series senses total load current (I), and the Pressure/Voltage Coil (high impedance) in parallel senses load voltage (V), allowing their product and phase angle to register True Active Power (P=VIcosϕ).
Why does an earth tester use a rotating generator to produce current?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (To eliminate DC polarization effects)
The hand-driven generator and internal commutator/rectifier convert generated DC into AC in the earth soil path to Eliminate DC Electrolytic Polarization EMFs and stray DC ground currents.
Q1741
Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsUnity Power Factor
When the current is in phase with the circuit voltage, the power factor of the circuit is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1)
When voltage and current are in phase, the phase angle is ϕ=0∘, and the power factor is cos(0∘)=1 (Unity Power Factor).
Q1742
Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsPower Factor Meter Operation
A single-phase power factor meter is connected to measure the power factor of an inductive load. The load is gradually increased, causing the power factor to decrease. Which of the following accurately explains the behavior of the meter's deflection?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The meter pointer moves towards the lagging side as the inductive load increases.)
Inductive loads draw lagging reactive power; as the inductive load increases, the phase angle ϕ increases and the pointer deflects further towards the Lagging power factor scale.
Q1743
Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction & AC FundamentalsPower Factor Calculation
A power factor meter shows that a load has a true power of 1200 W and an apparent power of 1500 VA. What is the power factor of the load?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (0.8)
Power Factor=Apparent Power (VA)True Active Power (W)=1500 VA1200 W=0.8.
Which of the following is NOT a feature of second-generation computers?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Use of integrated circuits for processing)
Integrated Circuits (ICs) were introduced in Third-Generation computers (1964–1971). Second-generation computers (1956–1963) used discrete Transistors and magnetic core memory.
Which of the following is NOT a peripheral device?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ethernet)
Ethernet is a local area network communications standard/protocol (or interface controller), not an external input/output peripheral device.
Q1746
Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsOperating System Functions
Which of the following is NOT a function of an operating system?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Program Compilation)
Program Compilation is performed by language translators/compilers (system software tools like GCC), NOT directly by the operating system kernel (which handles processor, memory, file, and device management).
Q1747
Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsWeb Browsers vs Websites
Which of the following correctly differentiates between a web browser and a website?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (A web browser is an application used to access websites, while a website is a collection of web pages hosted on a server.)
A Web Browser (e.g. Chrome, Firefox) is client application software used to retrieve and render web content, whereas a Website is a collection of related web pages hosted on a web server.
Q1748
Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsEmail Features (To vs CC)
Which of the following statements correctly explains the difference between "CC" and "Send To" in an email?
💡Correct Answer: Option B ("Send To" recipients are the primary audience of the email, while "CC" recipients are included for informational purposes.)
The 'To' field designates the primary action recipients of the email, whereas 'CC' (Carbon Copy) includes secondary recipients who need to be kept informed without required action.
Match the following Network Types with their Examples: Network Types: i) LAN ii) WAN iii) MAN
Examples: 1) Cover a city or a campus such as a wi-fi network 2) Used to connect devices within a small geographical area such as a school or office 3) Cover large geographical areas such as the Internet
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-2, ii-3, iii-1)
i -> 2 (LAN: small geographical area like office/school), ii -> 3 (WAN: large global scale like Internet), iii -> 1 (MAN: metropolitan city/campus network). Correct match: i-2, ii-3, iii-1.
Which of the following protocols or technologies is most commonly used by smart TVs to enable screen mirroring from mobile devices or other external devices?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Miracast)
Miracast (a Wi-Fi Alliance standard operating over Wi-Fi Direct) is the industry standard protocol used for wireless peer-to-peer screen casting and mirroring to smart TVs.
What is the function of the accelerometer in the smart watch?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Step counting and activity tracking)
A 3-axis MEMS Accelerometer in smartwatches detects linear acceleration, orientation, and motion patterns to track physical movement and count daily steps.
Which algorithm is mainly used by Google search engines to index and retrieve data efficiently and allows them to provide fast search results?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (PageRank Algorithm)
PageRank (developed by Larry Page and Sergey Brin) is the foundational hyperlink analysis algorithm used by Google to measure the relative importance and rank of web pages.
Which protocol is used to assign unique IP addresses to devices on a network?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (DHCP)
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) automatically assigns dynamic IP addresses, default gateways, and subnet masks to client devices joining a network.
Q1755
Electrical Measurements, Safety, Grounding & Computer ApplicationsWi-Fi vs Bluetooth
Which of the following factors is responsible for faster data transfer by Wi-Fi as compared with Bluetooth?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Wi-Fi has a wider bandwidth than Bluetooth which enables faster data rates.)
Wi-Fi operates over channels with much wider bandwidth (20 MHz,40 MHz,80 MHz, or 160 MHz) compared to Bluetooth's narrow 1 MHz (or 2 MHz) channels, allowing dramatically higher data transfer rates.
Q1756
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsCamera Sensors
Which device in the camera turns light energy into electrical energy?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Image Sensor)
The Image Sensor (CCD or CMOS semiconductor array) contains millions of photosites (photodiodes) that convert incoming photons of light into electrical charge signals.
Q1757
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsHistory of Color Photography
A film introduced in 1936, was created for the 35 mm still photography market. It was the first accurate, inexpensive, easy- to use and reliable method for creating colour photographs:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kodachrome transparency film)
Kodachrome color reversal transparency film, invented by Leopold Godowsky Jr. and Leopold Mannes and manufactured by Eastman Kodak in 1935–1936, revolutionized 35mm color photography.
Q1758
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsCamera Lens Optics
What type of lens is known for its ability to focus vertically and horizontally lines at the same time?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Anastigmatic Lens)
An Anastigmat lens is an optical lens designed to eliminate astigmatism aberration, enabling simultaneous sharp focusing of both horizontal and vertical lines across the entire image plane.
Q1759
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsLighting Fundamentals
The light source that casts sharp, well define shadows is called ______
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Hard light)
Hard Light (produced by small or distant pinpoint light sources without diffusion, such as direct sunlight or clear fresnel spots) casts sharp, crisp, and well-defined shadow edges.
Q1760
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsAperture & Diaphragm
What does the lens diaphragm control?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The speed, depth of field, and definitions)
The adjustable lens diaphragm (aperture opening) controls the amount/speed of light entering the camera, the Depth of Field (DOF), and the optical definition/sharpness.
Q1761
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsCamera Shutter Types
Consider the following statements: I. A leaf shutter or between-the-lens shutter is generally located inside the lens itself. II. A focal-plane shutter is built into the camera and is located directly in front of the film. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both I and II are correct)
Both statements are correct: Leaf shutters are located between optical lens elements inside the lens barrel (offering flash sync at all speeds), while Focal-Plane shutters consist of curtains positioned immediately in front of the film/sensor in the camera body.
Q1762
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsCamera Obscura History
What was the purpose of using camera obscuras to study eclipses?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (To observe the eclipses without damaging the eyes)
Historically (since antiquity and the Renaissance), astronomers used the Camera Obscura pinhole projection to safely view solar eclipses without looking directly at the sun, preventing permanent retinal damage.
Q1763
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & Optics19th Century Photographic Processes
The 19th-century photography technique that relied on the use of egg whites to create sharp, glossy images is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Albumen print)
The Albumen Print process (invented in 1847 by Louis Désiré Blanquart-Evrard) used egg whites (albumen) to bind silver salts to paper, producing the dominant glossy, high-resolution photographic print of the 19th century.
Q1764
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsTelephoto Lenses
When would you use a telephoto lens?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To photograph something far away)
A Telephoto Lens has a long focal length (>70ext−−300extmm) and narrow angle of view, designed specifically to magnify and capture distant subjects (wildlife, sports).
Q1765
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsMaster Photographers
Arnold Newman (1918-2006) was an American photographer known for his pioneering work in:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Environmental portraiture)
Arnold Newman is universally acclaimed as the 'Father of Environmental Portraiture', capturing prominent subjects in their natural working and living surroundings (e.g. Igor Stravinsky at his piano).
Q1766
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsPhotoshop Software
Adobe Systems develops Photoshop, which is available for ______
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both A and B)
Adobe Photoshop is cross-platform raster graphics editing software officially supported and available on both Windows and macOS operating systems (Both A and B).
Q1767
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsCamera Types Matching
Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below: Column - I: 1) Shows you the scene directly through the lens. 2) The light comes directly from the subject, through the lens to a ground glass viewing screen. 3) Shows you a scene through a small window. 4) Instead of an exposing film, the light rays excite a computer chip to capture photograph onto a memory card.
Column - II: i) Rangefinder Camera ii) SLR Camera iii) Digital Camera iv) View Camera
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii)
1 -> ii (SLR: reflex mirror shows scene through the shooting lens), 2 -> iv (View Camera: large format ground glass back screen), 3 -> i (Rangefinder: separate optical viewfinder window), 4 -> iii (Digital Camera: electronic sensor chip recording to memory card). Correct match: 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii.
Q1768
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsPhotographic Chemistry
Which precious metal was most widely used in 19th-century photography?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Silver)
Silver (in the form of light-sensitive Silver Halide salts: silver iodide, silver bromide, and silver chloride) formed the fundamental chemical basis of 19th and 20th-century photography.
Q1769
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsCamera Angles & Framing
An eye-level shot has what effect on the viewer?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Makes the viewer feel like they are in the same space as the subject)
An Eye-Level Shot matches the natural human standing perspective, creating neutral, relatable realism and making the viewer feel as though they share the same physical and emotional space as the subject.
Q1770
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsIconic Historical Photographs
The famous 'Migrant Mother' photograph taken by American photographer:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Dorothea Lange in 1936)
Dorothea Lange took the iconic Great Depression photograph 'Migrant Mother' (Florence Owens Thompson and her children) in Nipomo, California in March 1936 for the Farm Security Administration.
Q1771
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsDigital Image Bit Depth
An image will have 256 variations in color per pixel if the image has a bit depth of
💡Correct Answer: Option B (8)
Color variations are given by 2n where n is the bit depth. An 8-bit channel provides 28=256 tonal levels per channel (yielding 16.7 million colors in 24-bit RGB).
Q1772
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsPersistence of Vision
The camera must be fast enough (in frames per second) to create an illusion of motion consistent with the phenomenon of ______ I. image capture II. persistence of vision III. image projection Consider the above statement, choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only II)
Motion pictures rely psychologically and physiologically on the 'Persistence of Vision' (and the Phi Phenomenon/Beta Movement), where the human eye and brain retain an image for a fraction of a second, blending rapid sequential still frames into perceived continuous fluid motion. Correct: Only II.
Q1773
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsTilt-Shift Lenses
A shift lens is also known as a:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Perspective correction lens)
A Shift Lens (part of Tilt-Shift optics) allows the optical elements to be translated parallel to the sensor plane, functioning as a Perspective Correction (PC) lens to eliminate converging vertical lines in architectural photography.
Q1774
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsMacro Photography
What is a characteristic of a macro lens?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It focuses on small, close-up subjects)
A Macro Lens is specially optically corrected for ultra-close focusing distances, capable of reproducing small subjects at true 1:1 (life-size) magnification on the sensor.
Q1775
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsMaster Photojournalism
A 1984 portrait taken by American photojournalist Steve McCurry that was later published as the cover photograph for the June 1985 issue of National Geographic:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Afghan Girl)
Steve McCurry's 1984 photograph of Sharbat Gula, titled 'Afghan Girl', taken in the Nasir Bagh refugee camp in Pakistan, became the world-famous June 1985 cover of National Geographic.
Q1776
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsComputer Peripherals
The I/O devices are sometimes called the peripheral devices because they surround the CPU and memory of the computer system.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The statement is TRUE.)
Input/Output hardware (keyboards, mice, monitors, printers, disk drives) are classified as peripheral devices because they operate on the periphery of the central processing unit and primary memory.
Q1777
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsHistorical Camera Innovations
Which camera (from around 1984) used solar energy to assist the batteries?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ricoh XR-S)
The Ricoh XR-S (introduced in 1981–1984) was the world's first 35mm SLR camera featuring built-in solar panels on the pentaprism to recharge internal storage batteries.
Q1778
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsCamera Shooting Modes
Which feature allows the camera to take multiple shots in quick succession?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Burst mode)
Burst Mode (Continuous High-Speed Shooting) captures a continuous stream of sequential photos as long as the shutter button remains depressed.
Q1779
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsHistorical Photographic Processes Matching
Match the following and select the most appropriate answer from the codes given below: Column - I: 1) Silver gelatin print 2) Cibachrome print 3) Carte-de-visite 4) Ambrotypes
Column - II: i) a kind of photographs on glass ii) is generally developed-out instead of printed-out iii) a silver dye bleach print iv) a paper photograph mounted on a thin card
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i)
1 -> ii (Silver gelatin print: developed-out silver process), 2 -> iii (Cibachrome/Ilfochrome: positive-to-positive silver dye bleach print), 3 -> iv (Carte-de-visite: small paper portrait mounted on cardstock), 4 -> i (Ambrotype: underexposed wet collodion positive on glass). Correct match: 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i.
Q1780
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsHistory of Kodak
Kodak camera was invented by ______
💡Correct Answer: Option C (George Eastman)
George Eastman invented and patented the handheld Kodak roll-film camera in 1888 with the slogan 'You press the button, we do the rest'.
Q1781
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsComputer Hardware
Which of the following are physical devices of a computer?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Hardware)
Hardware refers to the tangible, physical electronic and mechanical machinery components of a computer system (CPU, motherboard, monitor, keyboard).
Q1782
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsSensors vs Film
What part of a digital camera is similar to film in an older camera in that it captures the image created by light?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Image Sensor)
The digital Image Sensor (CMOS/CCD) performs the exact functional role that photographic chemical film played in analog cameras: recording light photons.
Q1783
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsInput Devices
Which of the following is NOT a point-and-draw device?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Keypad)
A Keypad is an alphanumeric discrete text input device, whereas Trackballs, Touchscreens, and Mice are graphical Point-and-Draw pointing devices.
Q1784
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsHeliography Process
A process developed by French physicist Joseph Niepce in 1816 that produced a positive copy of an engraving by exposing a glass plate coated with asphalt-like substance is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Heliography)
Nicéphore Niépce named his bitumen of Judea (asphalt) light-sensitive photographic process 'Heliography' (sun drawing), creating the earliest known surviving permanent photograph in 1826.
Q1785
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsHistorical Lunar Cameras
The first camera used on the moon:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Hasseblad 500EL HEC)
The customized medium-format Hasselblad 500EL Data Camera (HEC - Hasselblad Electric Camera with Zeiss Biogon lens) was used by Neil Armstrong on the lunar surface during the Apollo 11 moon landing in July 1969.
Q1786
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsHistory of Photography in India
In October 1854, the first official Indian Photographic Society was launched in which city:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mumbai)
The Photographic Society of Bombay (Mumbai) was formally founded in October 1854, becoming the first photographic society established in India.
Q1787
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsTime-Sharing Systems
Which of the following is a type of technique in which dumb terminals are connected to a central computer system?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Time Sharing)
In a Time-Sharing multi-user operating system environment, multiple non-intelligent 'dumb terminals' (display and keyboard) share the processing time of a single central mainframe CPU.
Q1788
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsCamera History and DSLR Features
Consider the following statements: I. The first prototype filmless SLR camera was publicly demonstrated by Sony in August 1981. II. The first 35mm still camera was developed in 1930. III. DSLR cameras allow you to combine the camera body with lens attachments of your choice, whether that's a fisheye or a zoom lens. IV. Invented the first negative from which multiple positive prints could be made. Which of the given statement is/ are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I and III)
Statements I and III are correct: (I) Sony demonstrated the pioneering electronic still video camera 'Mavica' in August 1981. (III) DSLRs feature interchangeable lens mounts supporting diverse optics. (Statement II is false as Leica created 35mm cameras in 1913/1925). Correct: I and III.
Q1789
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsComputer Displays
Computer monitors are also called VDUs. What does VDU stand for:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Visual Display Unit)
VDU stands for Visual Display Unit, referring to computer monitor screens used to visually display output data.
Q1790
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsPhotography Historical Milestones Matching
Match the following and select the correct answer from the codes given below: Column - I: 1) The first advertisement with a photograph is published in Philadelphia 2) William Henry Talbot patents the Calotype process, the first negative-positive process making possible the first multiple copies. 3) Panoramic camera, called the Sutton, is patented 4) First American patent issued in photography to Alexander Wolcott for his camera
Column - II: i) 1841 ii) 1843 iii) 1840 iv) 1859
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii)
1 -> ii (First photo ad in Philadelphia: 1843), 2 -> i (Fox Talbot patents Calotype: 1841), 3 -> iv (Thomas Sutton patents panoramic water-filled lens camera: 1859), 4 -> iii (Alexander Wolcott mirror camera patent US No. 1582: May 1840). Correct match: 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii.
Q1791
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsFirst Permanent Photograph
Who managed to achieve the world's first permanent photographic image?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Joseph Niepce)
French inventor Joseph Nicéphore Niépce successfully created the world's oldest surviving permanent photograph, 'View from the Window at Le Gras', in 1826/1827.
Q1792
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsFirst Portrait Studio
The world's first photographic portrait studio was opened in
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1840 in New York City)
Alexander Wolcott and John Johnson opened the world's very first commercial daguerreotype portrait studio in New York City in March 1840, utilizing Wolcott's patented concave mirror camera.
Q1793
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsFisheye Lenses
The angle of view of a Fisheye lens is ______
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($180^\circ$)
A full-frame circular or diagonal Fisheye lens produces extreme wide-angle hemispherical distortion with an Angle of View of up to 180∘.
Q1794
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsOptical vs Digital Zoom
Which type of zoom uses the camera's lens to magnify the image?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Optical)
Optical Zoom physically adjusts internal glass lens elements to magnify the focal image onto the sensor with zero loss of resolution (unlike Digital Zoom which crops and interpolates pixels).
Q1795
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsPhotometry Units (Candlepower)
Consider the following statements: Candlepower (CP): I. is measured in lux. II. is a unit of measurement for luminous intensity. III. in modern usage, is sometimes used as a synonym for candle. IV. is the luminous flux emitted by the source per unit time. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Both II and III are correct)
Statements II and III are correct: Candlepower (cp) is an obsolete unit of Luminous Intensity (equivalent to 1 candela / candle). Statement I is false (illuminance is in lux; candlepower is in candela) and IV describes luminous flux (lumens). Correct: Both II and III are correct.
Q1796
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsCamera Optical Mechanics
Which lens type is used in the focusing assembly/mechanism of the camera?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Convex Lens)
Camera focusing mechanisms utilize Convex (converging) optical lens groupings that move axially along the lens barrel to converge light rays precisely onto the focal plane.
Q1797
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsCalotype Process
How did Talbot's calotype work?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (A sheet of paper coated with silver chloride was exposed to light, with the areas hit by light becoming dark, thus producing a negative image.)
William Henry Fox Talbot's Calotype (Talbotype) process used high-quality paper sensitized with silver iodide/chloride, exposed in a camera to form a latent image developed with gallo-nitrate of silver to create a paper Negative from which multiple positive prints could be made.
Q1798
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsComputer Character Encodings
Which of the following is not a type of computer code?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (EDIC)
ASCII (American Standard Code for Information Interchange), BCD (Binary Coded Decimal), and EBCDIC (Extended BCD Interchange Code) are established character encoding systems; 'EDIC' is not a recognized computer character encoding standard.
Q1799
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsPortrait Lenses
On a full frame 35mm DSLR camera, which of the following lenses would be best for portrait work?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (85 mm)
An 85mm prime lens (or 85–105mm) is the industry benchmark for full-frame portraiture because it renders natural human facial proportions with zero wide-angle distortion and produces pleasing background bokeh isolation.
Q1800
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsPhotographic Emulsion
Emulsion is a:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (light sensitive gelatin)
Photographic emulsion is a light-sensitive colloidal suspension of microscopic silver halide crystals (silver bromide/iodide) evenly distributed in purified Gelatin coated on film base or paper.
Q1801
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsAnsel Adams Biography
Who received a Kodak camera in 1916 to take photos at Yosemite?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ansel Easton Adams)
Legendary American landscape photographer Ansel Easton Adams received his very first camera—a Kodak No. 1 Box Brownie—from his father during a family vacation to Yosemite National Park in 1916.
Q1802
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsWet Collodion Process
Wet collodion process was invented in ______
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1851)
The Wet Plate Collodion process was invented by English sculptor and photographer Frederick Scott Archer in March 1851, dramatically reducing exposure times.
Q1803
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsZoom Lens Definition
Zoom lens has a
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Variable focal length)
A Zoom Lens is an optical assembly featuring an adjustable, Continuously Variable Focal Length, allowing the user to change magnification and field of view without changing lenses.
Q1804
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsDSLR Acronym
What does the acronym DSLR stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Digital Single-Lens Reflex)
DSLR stands for Digital Single-Lens Reflex, indicating a camera that combines digital sensor imaging with an internal optical reflex mirror and prism viewfinder system.
Q1805
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsSemiconductor Materials
Which of the following natural element is the primary element in computer chips?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Silicon)
Silicon (Si), a semiconductor element extracted from quartz silica sand, forms the primary crystalline substrate on which microprocessors, integrated circuits, and camera sensor chips are fabricated.
Q1806
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsDaguerreotype Process
This early type of photography was named after an invention by a French scene painter.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Daguerreotype.)
The Daguerreotype (announced publicly in 1839) was invented by French Romantic painter and printmaker Louis-Jacques-Mandé Daguerre.
Q1807
Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomAperture Functions
Aperture/f-stop affects what part(s) of a photo?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Both A and B)
The lens aperture (f-stop) directly controls both the Depth of Field (sharp focus plane depth) and the Exposure (volume of light reaching the image sensor) (Both A and B).
Q1808
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsFocal Length vs Depth of Field
What type of lens would give a wider depth of field?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (35 mm)
Wider/shorter focal length lenses (such as a 35mm wide-angle lens) inherently provide a much Deeper (wider) Depth of Field at any given aperture compared to telephoto lenses (50mm, 100mm, 200mm).
Q1809
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsMirrorless vs DSLR Advantages
Which of the following is an advantage of mirrorless cameras over DSLRs?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Lighter weight)
By eliminating the internal reflex mirror, prism housing, and mechanical autofocus sub-mirror assemblies, Mirrorless cameras achieve a significantly more Compact, Lighter Weight body design.
Q1810
Civil Engineering & Building MaterialsBeams of Uniform Strength
For getting the beams of uniform strength the sections of the beam may be varied by
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
A beam of uniform strength has constant maximum bending stress along its entire span, achieved by varying depth with constant width, varying width with constant depth, or varying both (All of the above).
Q1811
Civil Engineering & Building MaterialsFoundation Engineering
A shallow foundation is usually defined as a foundation which has
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Depth less than its width)
According to Terzaghi's classical soil mechanics definition, a Shallow Foundation is one where the depth of embedment (Df) is equal to or less than its width (B) (Df≤B).
Q1812
Civil Engineering & Building MaterialsPile Foundations
A pile foundation is used when
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both A and B)
Deep pile foundations are engineered when surface soil layers lack sufficient bearing capacity and building loads are heavy, transferring loads to deeper competent rock/strata (Both A and B).
Q1813
Civil Engineering & Building MaterialsMachine Foundations
______ type of machine foundation consists of a pedestal resting on a footing. The foundation has a large mass and a small natural frequency.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Block)
A Block Type machine foundation consists of a solid reinforced concrete block/pedestal resting on a footing pad with high mass to provide inertia against low-frequency machine vibrations.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The effect of viscosity causes fluid to adhere to a surface which is slip condition.)
Statement D is incorrect: Due to viscosity and molecular cohesion, real fluids adhere completely to solid boundaries creating the 'No-Slip Condition' (relative velocity is zero at the wall), not a slip condition.
Q1815
Electronics, Digital Logic & Microprocessors (8085/8051)PN Junction Equilibrium
Which of the following is correct for an unbiased PN junction?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The junction current at equilibrium is zero as equal but opposite carriers are crossing the junction)
At thermal equilibrium in an open-circuit unbiased PN junction, the forward majority carrier diffusion current exactly equals and balances the reverse minority carrier drift current, resulting in Zero net junction current.
Q1816
Electronics, Digital Logic & Microprocessors (8085/8051)Universal Gates Implementation
How many 2-input NOR gates are required to implement a 2-input NAND gate?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (5)
To construct a NAND gate using universal NOR gates: AB=A+B. Inverting A (1 NOR), inverting B (1 NOR), NORing A and B gives A+B=AB (1 NOR), and finally inverting AB gives AB (1 NOR), totaling 5 NOR gates (or 4 NANDs for a NOR).
Q1817
General English, Grammar & Reading ComprehensionConditionals & Subjunctive Mood
If I ______ (be) you, I would have accepted the offer.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Were)
In the hypothetical subjunctive mood (unreal conditional), 'were' is used for all persons ('If I were you').
Q1818
Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Central Admitting Office Functions
Identify the true statements regarding the Central Admitting Office: I. The Central Admitting Office is responsible for verifying insurance details before patient admission. II. The Central Admitting Office conducts medical tests to assess patient conditions. III. The Central Admitting Office helps assign patients to appropriate rooms upon admission. IV. The Central Admitting Office ensures the collection of personal and medical history information from patients. Which of the following Statements is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Statements I, III and IV are true)
Statements I, III, and IV are standard administrative functions of the CAO (insurance verification, bed/ward assignment, demographic intake). Statement II is false because medical diagnostic tests are conducted by clinical nurses, doctors, and laboratory staff.
Q1819
Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Multidisciplinary Communication
Which of the following best reflects the value of medical records in facilitating communication among multidisciplinary healthcare teams?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Providing a centralized source of patient information for all involved care providers)
A standardized medical record acts as the single source of truth and centralized clinical communication channel accessible to attending physicians, surgeons, nurses, radiologists, and pharmacists.
Q1820
Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Unique Patient Identifier (UPI/UHID)
What is the importance of generating a Unique Patient Identifier (UPI) in the Central Admitting Office?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It prevents duplication of patient records and ensures traceability of medical history.)
A Unique Patient Identifier (UPI / Unique Hospital Identification Number UHID) prevents duplicate patient folders, links disparate outpatient/inpatient encounters into a single longitudinal chart, and ensures complete traceability.
Q1821
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsMarked Price and Discount
A shopkeeper buys an article for Rs.500. He marks it at 20% above the cost price. If he sells it at 12% discount, what is the selling price?
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsUNESCO Public Library Manifesto
Who said, "Public Library is the responsibility of Local and National Authorities. It must be supported by specific legislation and financed by National and Local Governments"?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (UNESCO Manifesto)
The landmark statement defining the legal mandate and public financing of public libraries is proclaimed in the UNESCO Public Library Manifesto (first issued in 1949, revised with IFLA in 1994).
Q1823
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsIFLA/UNESCO Guidelines
Which document outlines the fundamental principles of library services and is endorsed by IFLA?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The IFLA/UNESCO Public Library Manifesto)
The IFLA/UNESCO Public Library Manifesto outlines the democratic principles, universal access guidelines, and operational framework for public libraries worldwide.
Q1824
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsFive Laws of Library Science (Third Law)
The principle "Every book its reader" highlights the importance of which aspect in libraries?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (User-centered services.)
Dr. S.R. Ranganathan's Third Law of Library Science ('Every book its reader') emphasizes proactive User-Centered Services, open access shelf arrangement, book exhibitions, and cataloguing cross-references to find readers for every document.
Q1825
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsFive Laws (Fifth Law & Weeding)
Which law is reflected in the practice of library weeding (removal of unused or outdated books)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A library is a growing organism.)
The Fifth Law ('A library is a growing organism') recognizes that like a biological organism, a library undergoes constant growth in collections, staff, and readers, necessitating the continuous shedding/weeding of obsolete dead stock.
Q1826
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsNational Library of India
The National Library of India, located in Kolkata, is an example of which type of library?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (National Library)
The National Library of India, situated at Belvedere Estate in Kolkata, is the apex National Library of the country and the statutory recipient of all publications under the Delivery of Books Act, 1954.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five fundamental categories in Colon Classification?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Language)
Dr. S.R. Ranganathan formulated the PMEST postulate consisting of five fundamental categories: Personality [P], Matter [M], Energy [E], Space [S], and Time [T]. 'Language' is not a fundamental category (it is a language isolate).
Truncation (using wildcard symbols like , ?, ) is an information retrieval technique used in Search Formulation to retrieve variant word endings and root stems (e.g. librar retrieves library, librarian, libraries).
Q1829
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsImperial Library Act 1902
Which of the viceroys was associated with the imperial library Act?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Lord Curzon)
Lord Curzon promulgated the Imperial Library Act in 1902, amalgamating the Calcutta Public Library with the Imperial Secretariat Library, opened to the public in Metcalfe Hall in January 1903.
Q1830
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsFourth Law of Library Science
The fourth law, "Save the time of the reader," stresses:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Efficient cataloging and shelving)
The Fourth Law ('Save the time of the reader') advocates for efficient classified shelf arrangement, open-access browsing, detailed analytical cataloguing, centralized processing, and prompt reference assistance.
Q1831
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsSecond Law of Library Science
Which law directly addresses the principle of inclusivity in library services?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Second law: "Every reader his/her book")
The Second Law of Library Science ('Every reader his/her book' or 'Books for all') establishes universal democratic inclusivity across all socioeconomic backgrounds, languages, ages, and disabilities.
Q1832
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsProminent South Asian Libraries
Liaquat Memorial Library is situated in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Karachi)
The Liaquat Memorial National Library (established in 1950 in memory of Liaquat Ali Khan) is located in Karachi, Pakistan.
Q1833
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsRRRLF Administration
'RRRLF' falls under the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ministry of Culture)
Raja Rammohun Roy Library Foundation (RRRLF), established in Kolkata in 1972 to promote public library development across India, is an autonomous body functioning under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
UNIMARC (Universal MARC format for international bibliographic data exchange) was developed by the International Federation of Library Associations and Institutions (IFLA) in 1977.
Q1835
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsLibrary Literature Classics
Which publication was not authored by S.R. Ranganathan
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Living with Books)
'Living with Books: The Art of Book Selection' (1935) was authored by Helen E. Haines. S.R. Ranganathan authored Prolegomena (1937), Reference Service (1940), and Ramanujan: The Man and the Mathematician (1967).
Q1836
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsLibrary Associations (CILIP)
The Library Association (UK) is now the component of
💡Correct Answer: Option B (CILIP)
The Library Association (LA, founded in 1877 in the UK) merged with the Institute of Information Scientists (IIS) in April 2002 to form CILIP (Chartered Institute of Library and Information Professionals).
Q1837
Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsInformation Units (Bit)
What is the unit of information?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bit)
In Claude Shannon's Information Theory and computer science, the fundamental atomic unit of information is the 'Bit' (Binary Digit - 0 or 1).
Q1838
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsInformation Transfer Cycle
Which of the following roles does a library have in the information transfer cycle? i) Information organization and control ii) Primary distribution iii) Secondary Publication iv) Secondary distribution Codes:
💡Correct Answer: Option C ((i) and (iv) are correct)
In the Information Transfer Cycle, libraries perform: (i) Information Organization and Control (cataloguing, indexing, classification), and (iv) Secondary Distribution and Dissemination to end-users (Primary publication/distribution is handled by authors and publishers). Correct: (i) and (iv).
Q1839
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsInstitutions Founded by Ranganathan
Which of the following institutions are established by Dr. S. R. Ranganathan? i) INSDOC, Delhi. ii) DRTC, Bangalore. iii) Sarada Ranganathan Endowment, Bangalore. iv) National Library Kolkata Codes:
💡Correct Answer: Option D ((ii) and (iii) are correct)
Dr. S.R. Ranganathan directly founded the Documentation Research and Training Centre (DRTC, Bangalore in 1962) and the Sarada Ranganathan Endowment for Library Science (1961). Correct: (ii) and (iii).
Q1840
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsPublic Library Development Bodies
Which of the following organizations are associated with the development of public libraries? i) UNESCO. ii) RRRLF. iii) INFLIBNET. iv) DRTC. Codes:
💡Correct Answer: Option A ((i) and (ii) are correct)
UNESCO (via its Public Library Manifesto) and RRRLF (Raja Rammohun Roy Library Foundation, dedicated to public library assistance in India) are specifically associated with Public Library development (INFLIBNET is for academic university libraries; DRTC is research/training). Correct: (i) and (ii).
Q1841
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsCopyright Fair Dealing
When the permission of copyright owner is not needed? i) Criticism or review ii) Translation iii) Research purpose iv) Photocopy for sale Codes:
💡Correct Answer: Option A ((i) and (iii) are correct.)
Under Section 52 of the Indian Copyright Act (Fair Dealing exceptions), copyrighted works may be used without authorization for: (i) Criticism or review, and (iii) Private use including research and academic study. Correct: (i) and (iii).
Q1842
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsEpistemology & Universe of Knowledge
The study of 'Epistemology' deals with: i) Modes of formation of subjects ii) Understanding of knowledge iii) Cataloguing of composite books iv) Origin and Nature of Knowledge Codes:
💡Correct Answer: Option B ((ii), (iv) are correct.)
Epistemology is the philosophical study of the Nature, Origin, Validity, Scope, and Understanding of Human Knowledge. Correct: (ii) and (iv).
Q1843
Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsSynchronous vs Asynchronous Communication
Which of the following are synchronous communication tools? i) Instant Messaging. ii) Blog. iii) Video conferencing. iv) Bulletin Board Codes:
💡Correct Answer: Option B ((i) and (iii) are correct)
Synchronous communication occurs in real time simultaneously: (i) Instant Messaging and (iii) Video Conferencing (Blogs and bulletin boards are asynchronous). Correct: (i) and (iii).
Q1844
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsIFLA Manifestos Chronology
Arrange the following items in chronological order of their date of first publishing: i) IFLA/UNESCO School Library Manifesto ii) IFLA/UNESCO Multicultural Library Manifesto iii) IFLA/UNESCO Manifesto for Digital Libraries iv) IFLA Internet Manifesto Codes: Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C ((i), (iv), (ii), (iii))
Chronological publication dates: (i) School Library Manifesto = 1999, (iv) IFLA Internet Manifesto = 2002, (ii) Multicultural Library Manifesto = 2006/2009, (iii) Manifesto for Digital Libraries = 2010. Correct sequence: (i), (iv), (ii), (iii).
Q1845
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsHistoric Indian Public Libraries Chronology
Arrange in sequence the following public libraries according to their year of origin. i) Connemara Public Library ii) Delhi Public Library iii) Calcutta Public Library iv) Baroda Central Library Codes:
💡Correct Answer: Option A ((iii), (i), (iv), (ii))
Years of origin: (iii) Calcutta Public Library = 1836, (i) Connemara Public Library (Chennai) = 1890, (iv) Baroda Central Library = 1910, (ii) Delhi Public Library = 1951. Correct sequence: (iii), (i), (iv), (ii).
Q1846
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsCopyright Act Economic Rights
Which of the following rights are granted for 'Literary works' according to Copyright Law of India? i) To make translation ii) To use in reporting current events iii) To make any adaptation iv) To use for the purpose of research Codes:
💡Correct Answer: Option A ((i) and (iii) are correct.)
Under Section 14 of the Indian Copyright Act 1957, exclusive rights granted to authors of literary works include: (i) Right to produce, reproduce, or translate the work, and (iii) Right to make any adaptation of the work. Correct: (i) and (iii).
Q1847
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsLibrary Codes of Ethics Chronology
Arrange the following codes of ethics in the order of their development: i) Librarian's Canons of Ethics, First code of ethics for Librarianship in USA. ii) Code of Ethics-ALA. iii) Code of Professional Conduct- LA, UK. iv) Code of ethics for Libraries and Information workers- IFLA. Codes:
💡Correct Answer: Option A ((i), (ii), (iii), (iv))
Timeline of library codes of ethics: (i) Charles Knowles Bolton's Canons of Ethics (USA) = 1909, (ii) ALA Code of Ethics = 1938/1939, (iii) Library Association (UK) Code of Professional Conduct = 1983, (iv) IFLA Code of Ethics = 2012. Correct sequence: (i), (ii), (iii), (iv).
Q1848
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsIndian Library & Information Legislation Chronology
Arrange the following in chronological order: i) Delivery of Books and Newspapers Act. ii) RTI Act. iii) Imperial Library Act. iv) IT (Amendment) Act. Codes:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (iii, i, ii, iv)
Chronological enactment dates: (iii) Imperial Library Act = 1902, (i) Delivery of Books and Newspapers Act = 1954 (amended 1956), (ii) Right to Information (RTI) Act = 2005, (iv) IT (Amendment) Act = 2008. Correct sequence: iii, i, ii, iv.
Q1849
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsLegal Enactments Chronology
Arrange the following Acts according to the year of their respective enactments: i) Digital Millenium Copyright Act. ii) Right to Information Act (India). iii) Information Technology Act (India). iv) Indian Copyright Act. Codes:
💡Correct Answer: Option A ((iv), (i), (iii) and (ii))
Enactment timeline: (iv) Indian Copyright Act = 1957, (i) Digital Millennium Copyright Act (DMCA, USA) = 1998, (iii) Information Technology Act (India) = 2000, (ii) Right to Information Act (India) = 2005. Correct sequence: (iv), (i), (iii), (ii).
Q1850
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsInternational Information Systems Chronology
Arrange the following according to their year of emergence: i) INIS ii) AGRIS iii) NATIS iv) UNISIST Codes:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, iv, ii, iii)
Emergence years of international information systems: (i) INIS (International Nuclear Information System) = 1970, (iv) UNISIST (UNESCO) = 1971, (ii) AGRIS (FAO Agricultural Information System) = 1974/1975, (iii) NATIS (National Information Systems, UNESCO) = 1974. Correct sequence: i, iv, ii, iii.
Q1851
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsLibrary Associations Founding Years Matching
Match the following: Association: 1) ALA 2) CILIP 3) SLA 4) ILA
Founding Year: (i) 1909 (ii) 1933 (iii) 1876 (iv) 2002
Codes:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii)
1 -> iii (ALA: American Library Association = 1876), 2 -> iv (CILIP = 2002), 3 -> i (SLA: Special Libraries Association = 1909), 4 -> ii (ILA: Indian Library Association = 1933). Correct match: 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii.
Q1852
Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsNational Missions Launch Years Matching
Match the following with their corresponding year of launching: Mission: 1) National Mission on Manuscripts 2) National Mission on Libraries 3) National Mission on Monuments and Antiquities 4) National Knowledge Network
Launch Year: (i) 2003 (ii) 2007 (iii) 2012 (iv) 2010
Codes:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv)
1 -> i (National Mission on Manuscripts: February 2003), 2 -> iii (National Mission on Libraries: May 2012), 3 -> ii (National Mission on Monuments and Antiquities: March 2007), 4 -> iv (National Knowledge Network / NKN: 2010). Correct match: 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv.
Which of the following is a key function of FSSAI under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Formulation of standards for articles of food and food additives)
Under Section 16 of the FSSA 2006, the principal statutory function of FSSAI is laying down science-based standards for articles of food, food additives, contaminants, and regulating their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale, and import.
Q1854
Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryPhospholipids Function
Which of the following statements best describes the role of phospholipids in human nutrition and cell function?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Phospholipids form the structural component of cell membranes and assist in the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.)
Phospholipids (amphipathic molecules with hydrophilic heads and lipophilic fatty acyl tails) form the lipid bilayer matrix of all biological cell membranes and act as natural emulsifiers in bile for the micellar absorption of dietary lipids and fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K).
Q1855
Food Chemistry, Nutrition & BiochemistryMicronutrients Function Matching
Match the following micronutrients with their main roles in human health: Micronutrients: i. Vitamin D ii. Iron iii. Vitamin C iv. Folate
Role: 1. DNA synthesis and red blood cell formation 2. Antioxidant and collagen synthesis 3. Oxygen transport in the blood 4. Bone health and calcium absorption
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1)
i -> 4 (Vitamin D: bone mineralization & calcium absorption), ii -> 3 (Iron: heme component of hemoglobin for oxygen transport), iii -> 2 (Vitamin C: antioxidant & proline/lysine hydroxylation in collagen), iv -> 1 (Folate / Vitamin B9: one-carbon metabolism, thymidylate DNA synthesis & RBC maturation). Correct match: i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1.
Which of the following is a limiting factor for the growth of Campylobacter jejuni in foods and food environments?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Oxygen presence)
Campylobacter jejuni is a microaerophilic and capnophilic organism requiring reduced oxygen levels (3ext−−5%O2,10%CO2); exposure to normal atmospheric oxygen (21%O2) causes oxidative stress and limits its vegetative growth.
Which of the following compounds is primarily responsible for the bitter taste in foods like cocoa and coffee?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Tannins)
Tannins (condensed and hydrolyzable polyphenols) along with methylxanthine alkaloids (caffeine, theobromine) are responsible for the characteristic bitter taste and astringency in cocoa, coffee, and tea (Capsaicin gives pungency to chili).
In food engineering, Unit Operations are individual physical or chemical processing steps (such as heating, cooling, coating, mixing, size reduction, and biological unit operations like fermentation) comprising an industrial process.
Consider the following statements: I. Freezing include conversion of food from solid to liquid II. Pasteurization is done for solid food III. Refrigeration is called cold sterilization IV. Pasteurization can kill spores in food products Please select the incorrect statement from the above:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II, III, and IV)
All four statements are scientifically incorrect: I is false (freezing converts liquid water into solid ice), II is false (pasteurization applies to liquid foods), III is false (irradiation, not refrigeration, is cold sterilization), IV is false (pasteurization destroys only vegetative cells, not bacterial spores). Correct: I, II, III, and IV.
Q1860
Food Chemistry, Lipids, Proteins & CarbohydratesMonomeric Units of Proteins
Basic unit of proteins is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Amino Acids)
Amino acids (specifically 20 standard α-amino acids linked together by covalent peptide bonds) are the fundamental monomeric building blocks of all proteins.
Q1861
Food Analysis, Analytical Chemistry & InstrumentationSolution Concentration Units Matching
Match the following concentration expressions: 1. Molarity 2. Molality 3. Normality 4. ppm
Unit: i. mg solute/ kg of solution ii. mol equivalent/ litre iii. mol/ kg iv. mol/ liter
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B ((1)-(iv), (2)-(iii), (3)-(ii), (4)-(i))
1 -> iv (Molarity: moles of solute per liter of solution), 2 -> iii (Molality: moles of solute per kg of solvent), 3 -> ii (Normality: gram equivalents per liter of solution), 4 -> i (ppm: mg solute per kg of solution/sample). Correct match: (1)-(iv), (2)-(iii), (3)-(ii), (4)-(i).
The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 defines Unsafe Food as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (An article of food whose nature, substance, or quality is so affected as to render it injurious to health.)
Under Section 3(1)(zz) of FSSA 2006, 'Unsafe Food' means an article of food whose nature, substance or quality is so affected by a poisonous or unwholesome ingredient, processing, or contamination as to render it injurious to health.
Q1863
Human Nutrition, Micronutrients & Dietary DeficienciesEnergy Unit Conversion
One kcal = ______ kJ
💡Correct Answer: Option D (4.184kJ)
By international thermodynamic conversion: 1 kilocalorie (kcal)=4.184 kilojoules (kJ) (1 cal=4.184 J).
Q1864
Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsEcosystem Functional Unit
The functional unit in ecology is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ecosystem)
An Ecosystem (term coined by A.G. Tansley in 1935) is the fundamental structural and functional unit of ecology where living communities interact with abiotic components through energy flows and nutrient cycles.
Consider the following statements: i. The aim of EIA is to inform the decision maker of the potential significant environment effects and risks of developmental proposals. ii. The aim of EIA is to model the dispersion of pollutant coming out of sources present in the developmental projects. iii. The aim of EIA is to promote sustainable development by ensuring that the development proposals do not undermine critical resources. iv. The aim of EIA primarily involves the screening and scoping of developmental projects. Which of the above statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C ((i), (iii))
Statements i and iii are foundational objectives of Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA): To systematically inform statutory decision-makers of environmental risks and impacts (i), and to promote sustainable development through mitigation of environmental degradation (iii). Correct: (i), (iii).
Q1866
Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeUNFCCC Climate Agreements Chronology
As per the succession of UNFCCC protocols, which order among the following is correct? I. Paris Agreement II. The US Mayor's Climate Protection Agreement III. Conference of Parties (COP) IV. Kyoto Protocol Choose the Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (III, IV, II, I)
Chronological timeline of international climate milestones: III. COP-1 Berlin = 1995 −> IV. Kyoto Protocol adopted = 1997 −> II. US Mayors Climate Protection Agreement = 2005 −> I. Paris Agreement (COP-21) = 2015. Correct sequence: III, IV, II, I.
Q1867
Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeAir Pollution Units Conversion (ppm to mg/m3)
Identify the correct statement: [Conversion at STP where 1 ppm SO2 = 2.62 mg/m3]
💡Correct Answer: Option B (50ppm of SO2 > 50 mg/m3 of SO2)
Converting gas concentration from ppm to mg/m3 at standard conditions (25∘C,1 atm): Concentration (mg/m3)=ppm×24.45Molecular Weight. For SO2 (MW=64.06 g/mol): 50 ppm=50×24.4564.06=131 mg/m3>50 mg/m3. Hence, 50 ppm of SO2>50 mg/m3 of SO2.
Q1868
Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeReference Sound Pressure Level
The reference value of sound pressure in the air is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (20 uPa (0.00002 Pa))
The standard international reference sound pressure level in air (p0) corresponding to the human threshold of hearing at 1000 Hz is 20μPa=20×10−6 Pa=2×10−5 N/m2. Choice A.
Cladosporium is one of the most widespread outdoor and indoor airborne fungal Dematiaceous Molds, producing pigmented dark conidiospores that trigger severe respiratory allergic asthma.
Q1870
Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Regulatory Acts & Forensic PharmacyMTP Amendment for Unmarried Women
Under the 2021 amendment to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, which of the following is true regarding abortion for unmarried women?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Unmarried women are now allowed to seek an abortion under the same conditions as married women, up to 24 weeks of pregnancy.)
The MTP Amendment Act 2021 replaced 'married woman and her husband' with 'woman and her partner', extending safe legal abortion access to unmarried single women facing contraceptive failure under the same legal protections up to 24 weeks (upheld by Supreme Court in 2022).
Q1871
Pharmaceutics, Dosage Form Technology & PharmacokineticsContent Uniformity Testing Protocol
According to the Indian Pharmacopoeia, if a capsule fails the content uniformity test, which of the following actions is generally recommended?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Repeat the test with a larger sample size)
Under IP/USP Content Uniformity guidelines, if 1 unit out of 10 tested lies outside the 85ext−−115% potency range, the test is Repeated using an additional sample size of 20 random units (total 30 units evaluated).
Q1872
Pharmaceutics, Dosage Form Technology & PharmacokineticsCompound Sodium Chloride Injection (Ringer)
As per Indian Pharmacopoeia, the compound sodium chloride injection is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ringer solution)
In the Indian Pharmacopoeia, Compound Sodium Chloride Injection (containing NaCl, KCl, and extCaCl2 in sterile water for injection) is officially designated as Ringer's Solution / Ringer's Injection.
Q1873
General Knowledge, Physiology & Current AffairsSerum Osmolality and Electrolytes
The solute that contributes the most to the total serum osmolality is:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sodium)
Sodium ions (Na+) and its associated anions (Cl−,HCO3−) account for over 90–95% of the total effective osmotic pressure in extracellular fluid: Serum Osmolality≈2[Na+]+18[Glucose]+2.8[BUN].
Q1874
General Knowledge, Physiology & Current AffairsIndian Polity (Article 370)
What did Article 370 of the Indian Constitution deal with?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The special status of Jammu and Kashmir)
Article 370 of the Constitution of India conferred temporary Special Autonomous Status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir, modified by Parliament in August 2019.
Q1875
General Knowledge, Physiology & Current AffairsHuman Reproductive Physiology
What is the function of the prostate gland?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To secrete a fluid that protects sperm)
The prostate gland secretes an alkaline, enzyme-rich prostatic fluid that constitutes ~30% of semen volume, neutralizing vaginal acidity and protecting/activating sperm motility.
Q1876
General Knowledge, Physiology & Current AffairsIndian Geography Borders
What is the length of the Indian border with Afghanistan?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (106 km)
India shares a 106 km land border with Afghanistan (along the Durand Line in the Wakhan Corridor, Gilgit-Baltistan region of Ladakh).
Q1877
General Knowledge, Physiology & Current AffairsEconomics (REER)
What does an increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicate for a country's economy?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Overvaluation of the currency, making exports costlier)
An increase/appreciation in a country's Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an Overvaluation of the domestic currency relative to trading partners, making exports more expensive and reducing international export competitiveness.
Q1878
General Knowledge, Physiology & Current AffairsPhysical Geography (El Niño)
Which of the following best describes 'El Niño'?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Warming of sea surface temperatures in the eastern Pacific Ocean)
El Niño is the warm phase of ENSO characterized by anomalous Warming of Sea Surface Temperatures in the central and east-central equatorial Pacific Ocean off the coast of Peru and Ecuador.
Q1879
General Knowledge, Physiology & Current AffairsSports Organizations (FIDE)
Which organization is responsible for organizing the World Chess Championship?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Fédération Internationale des Échecs (FIDE))
The World Chess Championship is officially organized and governed globally by FIDE (Fédération Internationale des Échecs / International Chess Federation).
Q1880
General Knowledge, Physiology & Current AffairsBanking Financial Systems (RTGS)
What is the full form of RTGS in banking?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Real-Time Gross Settlement)
RTGS in financial systems stands for Real-Time Gross Settlement, a continuous electronic interbank funds transfer mechanism where money is transferred and settled instantaneously on an individual order basis.
Q1881
General Knowledge, Physiology & Current AffairsScience & Tech Innovations (Kisan Kavach)
What is name of India's first anti-pesticide bodysuit launched by ministry of science and technology?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kisan kavach)
'Kisan Kavach' is India's first indigenously developed breathable anti-pesticide protective bodysuit designed by the Institute for Stem Cell Science and Regenerative Medicine (inStem / DST) to shield farmers from toxic agrochemical absorption.
Q1882
General Knowledge, Physiology & Current AffairsJ&K Sports Personalities (Sheetal Devi)
In which Paralympics sport does Sheetal Devi compete?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Archery)
Sheetal Devi, an Indian para-athlete hailing from Kishtwar, Jammu & Kashmir, is a world-renowned armless archer who won a bronze medal in Mixed Team Compound Para-Archery at the Paris 2024 Paralympics.
Q1883
General Knowledge, Physiology & Current AffairsParis 2024 Paralympics Gold Medalists
Which of the following won the gold medal in Men's Singles SL3 category at the Paris 2024 Paralympics?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Nitesh Kumar)
Indian para-badminton player Nitesh Kumar won the Gold Medal in the Men's Singles SL3 category at the Paris 2024 Paralympic Games, defeating Daniel Bethell of Great Britain.
Q1884
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Railways (Firozpur Division)
Which railway division has jurisdiction over the Jammu-Baramulla railway line?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Firozpur division)
The Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) and the entire operational railway network across Jammu & Kashmir falls under the administrative jurisdiction of the Firozpur Railway Division of Northern Railway.
Q1885
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTGeography of India (Indira Col)
Which of the following statements about Indira Col, the northernmost point of India is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Indira Col is a mountain pass in the Siachen Muztagh, in the Karakoram Range.)
Indira Col (altitude 5,764 m) is a mountain pass located on the Indira Ridge in the Siachen Muztagh subrange of the Karakoram Range, serving as the northernmost point under Indian territorial control.
Q1886
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTIndian Agriculture (Crops)
Ponni rice is mainly grown in which state of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Tamil Nadu)
Ponni Rice is a famous high-yielding hybrid variety of rice developed by Tamil Nadu Agricultural University (TNAU) in 1971 and is cultivated extensively along the banks of the Kaveri (Ponni) river in Tamil Nadu.
Q1887
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Infrastructure (Chenani-Nashri Tunnel)
Which of the following statements about Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Tunnel in Jammu & Kashmir is/are correct? 1. It is India's longest road tunnel with a length of 9.28 km. 2. The tunnel is located on the lower Himalayan range at an altitude of 1,200 m (3,937 ft). 3. The tunnel connects Udhampur and Ramban in Jammu & Kashmir. Choose the Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 and 2)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Tunnel (Chenani-Nashri Tunnel) on NH-44 is 9.28 km long (1) and situated at ~1,200 m altitude in the lower Himalayas (2). Statement 3 is incorrect because it connects Chenani in Udhampur district with Nashri in Ramban district.
Q1888
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTChenab Rail Bridge
Chenab Rail Bridge in Jammu & Kashmir is built between which railway stations?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sangaldan and Reasi)
The world's highest Chenab Rail Bridge (359 m above the river bed) spans the Chenab River gorge between Bakkal and Kauri, forming a critical section on the Katra-Reasi-Sangaldan rail route.
Q1889
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTTribes of India
Which of the following is NOT the major tribe of Rajasthan?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Gond Tribe)
The Gond Tribe is the largest tribal community of Central India (concentrated in Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, and Odisha), whereas Bhil, Mina, Garasia, Damor, and Sahariya are prominent indigenous tribes of Rajasthan.
Q1890
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTLakes of J&K
With reference to the lakes of Jammu & Kashmir, which of the following matches are NOT correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Manasbal Lake - located in Srinagar, Jammu & Kashmir, is called the "Jewel in the crown of Kashmir".)
Match D is NOT correct: Manasbal Lake is located in Ganderbal district (famous as the deepest lake and for lotus blossoms). The title 'Jewel in the crown of Kashmir' belongs to Dal Lake in Srinagar.
Q1891
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTEconomics (Consumer Sovereignty)
What does "consumer sovereignty" in a free market economy refer to?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Consumer preferences guide the production of goods and services.)
Consumer Sovereignty is an economic principle in a free-market economy asserting that consumers dictate what goods and services are produced through their purchasing preferences and market demand.
Q1892
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTIndian Art & Architecture (Brihadeshwara)
Which of the following statements about Brihadeshwara temple is/are correct? I. The temple is located in Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu, on the south side of the Vaigai river. II. Large statue of Nandi (the holy bull) carved from a single rock, measuring approximately 16 feet long and 13 feet high is placed at the temple's entrance. III. The temple is dedicated to worship of goddess Kali. Choose the Correct Statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only II)
Statement II is correct: The monolithic Nandi statue at the entrance is carved from a single granite rock. (Statement I is false because it is on the south bank of the Kaveri River, not Vaigai; Statement III is false because it is dedicated to Lord Shiva). Correct: Only II.
Q1893
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTFreedom Struggle (Quit India Movement)
Which of the following leaders was NOT associated with the Quit India Movement?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (B.R. Ambedkar)
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar opposed the Quit India Movement (1942), believing that civil disobedience during World War II would hamper national defense and the welfare of the depressed classes, whereas Aruna Asaf Ali, Lohia, and JP led underground resistance.
Q1894
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTParts of Indian Constitution
Match the following Pairs: Part of the Indian Constitution: i) Part IV ii) Part IV A iii) Part XVII iv) Part XVIII
Subject mentioned in the part: 1) Fundamental Duties 2) Emergency Provisions 3) Directive Principles 4) Official Languages
Choose the Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2)
Constitutional Parts: i -> 3 (Part IV: Directive Principles of State Policy, Articles 36–51), ii -> 1 (Part IVA: Fundamental Duties, Article 51A), iii -> 4 (Part XVII: Official Languages, Articles 343–351), iv -> 2 (Part XVIII: Emergency Provisions, Articles 352–360). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2.
Q1895
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTCurrent Affairs (ISRO PSLV-C59 Proba-3)
What was the primary objective of the PSLV-C59 mission launched by ISRO on December 5, 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To carry the Proba-3 spacecraft into a highly elliptical orbit.)
ISRO's PSLV-C59 commercial dedicated mission (launched 5 December 2024 from Sriharikota) successfully deployed the European Space Agency's (ESA) Proba-3 tandem solar coronagraph satellites into a High Elliptical Orbit.
Q1896
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTClimate Change (Ice-Albedo Feedback)
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the ice-albedo feedback in climate change?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ice-albedo feedback results in higher solar energy absorption when ice caps melts)
Ice-albedo feedback is a positive climate feedback: highly reflective white ice (high albedo) reflects sunlight back to space; as warming melts ice, it exposes darker ocean water or land (low albedo), which absorbs more solar radiation and accelerates further warming.
Q1897
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTAncient History of J&K (Burzahom)
Which was the first Neolithic site discovered in Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Burzahom)
Burzahom (located in Srinagar district, Kashmir) was the first Neolithic site discovered in Kashmir in 1935 by the Yale-Cambridge expedition, renowned for subterranean pit dwellings, bone tools, and megaliths.
Q1898
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTEconomy of J&K
Which sector is the primary contributor to Jammu and Kashmir's economy?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Services)
The Services Sector (tertiary sector, including tourism, trade, transport, banking, and public administration) is the largest contributor to J&K's Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP), accounting for over 54–56% of the economy.
Q1899
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTHistorical Monuments of Jammu
Match the places in Jammu with their corresponding traits: Places in Jammu: i) Dogra Art Museum ii) Amar Mahal Palace iii) Akhnoor Fort iv) Bahu Fort
Traits: 1) Two-storeyed palace has courtyard-facing walls decorated with arches and some murals. 2) Has special collection of Basohli paintings. 3) Has eight octagonal towers or turrets connected by thick walls. 4) Built in the nineteenth century by a French architect on the lines of a French Chateau.
Choose the Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-2, ii-4, iii- 1, iv-3)
i -> 2 (Dogra Art Museum in Mubarak Mandi: renowned collection of miniature Basohli and Kangra paintings), ii -> 4 (Amar Mahal Palace: designed by a French architect in 1862 resembling a European Chateau), iii -> 1 (Akhnoor Fort on Chenab: two-storeyed palace with murals), iv -> 3 (Bahu Fort: ancient fort with octagonal towers overlooking the Tawi river). Correct match: i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3.
Q1900
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTKoppen Climate Classification J&K
Match the climate codes with their corresponding regions of Jammu and Kashmir, according to Koppen's classification: Climate codes: i) Dfb ii) Cwa iii) Dwd / ET
Regions: 1) Jammu 2) Ladakh 3) Kashmir
Choose the Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-3, ii-1, iii-2)
Under Köppen's climatic classification for J&K: i -> 3 (Dfb: Humid continental climate with warm summers in Kashmir Valley), ii -> 1 (Cwa: Subtropical humid climate with dry winters in Jammu Plains/Sub-Himalayas), iii -> 2 (Dwd / ET: Polar alpine cold desert climate in Ladakh). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-2.
Q1901
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTFauna of J&K (Scientific Names)
What is the scientific name of the Himalayan brown bear, found in the higher reaches of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ursus arctos isabellinus)
The Himalayan Brown Bear (a critically endangered subspecies of the brown bear found in Dachigam, Deosai, and Kishtwar High Altitude National Park) is scientifically named Ursus arctos isabellinus.
Q1902
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTFundamental Rights Articles
Consider the following matches about the fundamental rights of India: I. Right to Equality - Article 14-18 II. Right to Freedom of Religion - Article 25-28 III. Cultural and Educational Rights - Articles 23 -24 IV. Right to Constitutional Remedies - Articles 29 - 30 Which among the above is /are correct matches?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Only I & II)
Matches I and II are correct: Right to Equality is Articles 14–18, Right to Freedom of Religion is Articles 25–28. (Match III is wrong because Arts 23–24 are Right against Exploitation; Match IV is wrong because Art 32 is Right to Constitutional Remedies). Correct: Only I & II.
Q1903
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTFolk Dances of J&K (Dumhal)
Which of the following statements about Dumhal dance is/are correct? I. It is a traditional dance performed by the Wattal tribe in the Indian region of Jammu and Kashmir. II. Women perform the dance in groups of two or four, facing each other and holding hands. III. Performers wear long, colorful robes and tall conical caps adorned with beads and shells. Choose the Correct Statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Only I & III)
Statements I and III are correct: Dumhal is a traditional ritual folk dance performed exclusively by men of the Wattal (Rishi) community in Kashmir, wearing vibrant long robes and tall conical caps (kalah) decorated with beads and shells. Statement II is false because it is performed by men with a banner planted in the ground.
Q1904
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTFundamental Duties Article 51A
Consider the following statements: I. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence. II. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all people of India. III. To develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform. IV. To ensure equal pay for equal work for both men and women. Which of the above are Fundamental Duties under Article 51 A?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Only I, II and III)
Statements I, II, and III are Fundamental Duties enshrined in Article 51A [clauses (i), (e), and (h)]. Statement IV ('equal pay for equal work') is a Directive Principle of State Policy under Article 39(d), not a Fundamental Duty. Correct: Only I, II and III.
Q1905
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTTaxation Structure in India
Match the different types of taxes in India with their corresponding impositions: Different types of taxes: i) Income Tax ii) Central Goods and Service Tax (CGST) iii) Customs Duty iv) Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST)
Imposition of tax: 1) Levied on the import and export of goods 2) Levied by the central government on the intrastate movement of goods and services. 3) Levied when there is an inter-state transfer of goods and services. 4) Levied on the income of individuals and organisations.
Choose the Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3)
Tax Impositions: i -> 4 (Income Tax: levied on individual/corporate taxable income), ii -> 2 (CGST: central tax on intra-state supplies), iii -> 1 (Customs Duty: tax on import/export across borders), iv -> 3 (IGST: tax on inter-state supply of goods/services). Correct match: i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3.
Q1906
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019 (Ladakh UT)
After the reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir in 2019, The Union Territory of Ladakh, does not have a legislative assembly. Which of the following is true regarding its governance?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (It is governed by a Lieutenant Governor.)
Under Section 3 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Ladakh was established without a Legislative Assembly and is administered by the President through an appointed Lieutenant Governor (LG).
Q1907
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTGovernment Schemes (Swachh Bharat Mission)
Which of the following is NOT the objective of Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (To clean all rivers by 2025.)
Objectives of SBM include 100% ODF achievement, scientific solid/liquid waste management, and behavior change via Jan Andolan. 'Cleaning all rivers' is the mandate of the National River Conservation Plan (NRCP) and Namami Gange Mission, NOT SBM.
Q1908
General English & ComprehensionRelative Pronouns
Fill in the blanks by selecting the correct pronouns from the options that follow: He told me his address _______ I wrote down in a note-book.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (which)
The relative pronoun 'which' correctly refers back to the antecedent inanimate noun clause 'his address' ('his address, which I wrote down in a note-book').
Q1909
General English & ComprehensionSpotting Errors (Nouns)
Below sentence is divided into parts using Alphabets (a, b, c & d). Find out whether there is any grammatical error in any part of the sentence and indicate your response against the corresponding part: She gave me (a)/two important pieces of informations (b)/I had been waiting for (c)/the last two months (d)
💡Correct Answer: Option B (two important pieces of informations)
'Information' is an uncountable noun that cannot take a plural 's'; the correct phrase is 'two important pieces of information'. Thus, the error is in part (b).
Q1910
General Intelligence & ReasoningPaper Folding and Punching
A triangular sheet of paper has been folded and punched as shown below. How will it appear when opened?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Figure D)
When the folded triangular sheet with bottom symmetrical punches is completely unfolded along its symmetry lines, four symmetrical pairs of hole punches will align across both bottom and top quadrants as in Figure D.
Q1911
General Intelligence & ReasoningPaper Unfolding
Select the figure that best resembles the unfolded shape of Figure (Z):
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Figure A)
Unfolding the horizontal creases of figure Z with triangular cutouts and an inverted central notch reflects the cutouts symmetrically to top and bottom margins, matching Figure A.
Q1912
Quantitative Aptitude & MathematicsProfit, Loss and Discount
A shopkeeper gains a profit of 15% on selling a book at 20% discount on the printed price. The ratio of the printed price and cost price of the book is ?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (23:16)
Let Marked (Printed) Price be MP and Cost Price be CP. Selling Price (SP)=0.80×MP=1.15×CP. Therefore, CPMP=0.801.15=80115=1623. Ratio is 23:16. Choice C.
In diwali sale, 25% off on electric choppers. Sudha went to buy an electric chopper. She also got a 10% discount for paying cash. She paid Rs.405. What is the price tag (in Rs.) on the electrical chopper?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (600)
Successive discounts of 25% and 10%: Effective multiplier =(1−0.25)(1−0.10)=0.75×0.90=0.675. Let marked price be M. 0.675×M=405⟹M=0.675405=Rs. 600. Choice D.
A sum becomes 27 times of its original value in 3 years when compounded annually at a certain rate of interest. Calculate the annual interest rate.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (200%)
In compound interest: A=P(1+100r)t⟹27P=P(1+100r)3⟹(1+100r)3=33⟹1+100r=3⟹100r=2⟹r=200%. Choice D.
Q1915
Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITHardware Fundamentals
Which of the following best represents computer hardware?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The computer and all the devices connected to it that are used to input and output data)
Computer Hardware comprises the physical tangible components of the computer system including the central processing unit, motherboard, memory, and all connected peripheral input and output devices.
Q1916
Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITExcel Formulas & Functions
Which of the following function in excel counts the numbers of Characters in a cell?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (LEN)
In Microsoft Excel, the =LEN(text) function returns the total number of characters in a specified text string, including letters, numbers, punctuation marks, and spaces.
Q1917
Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITCybersecurity Fundamentals
Which of them is NOT an ideal way of spreading the virus?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Official Antivirus CDs)
Authentic, factory-sealed Official Antivirus Installation CDs produced by verified cybersecurity vendors are digitally signed read-only media and NOT a channel for spreading malware.
Q1918
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsHierarchy of Communication Effects
Which of the following is the correct sequence of levels in studying the effect of communication, as described in the communication process?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Exposure, Comprehension, Recall, Acceptance, Action)
In classical hierarchy-of-effects communication models (McGuire's Information Processing Model / Lavidge & Steiner), the sequential cognitive and behavioral stages are: Exposure (Attention) −> Comprehension (Understanding) −> Recall (Retention) −> Acceptance (Attitude Change) −> Action (Behavior). Choice A.
Q1919
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyTypes of Research Methodology
Consider the following statements about research: i. Descriptive research aims to portray the characteristics of a particular group or situation. ii. Analytical research involves the critical evaluation of available data from primary and secondary sources. iii. Conceptual research is primarily concerned with the practical application of theories. iv. Empirical research relies on observation and experimentation to gather data. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, ii, and iv only)
Statements i, ii, and iv are correct: Descriptive research describes phenomena (i), Analytical research critically evaluates facts (ii), and Empirical research relies on direct experience/data (iv). Statement iii is false because Conceptual research relates to abstract ideas/philosophical theory development, not practical applications (which is Applied research). Correct: i, ii, and iv only.
Q1920
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationIntercultural Communication
Which of the following best defines "intercultural communication"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Exchange of information across cultural boundaries.)
Intercultural Communication is defined as the symbolic exchange and negotiation of information, meanings, and social norms between individuals or groups belonging to different cultural backgrounds, ethnicities, or co-cultures.
Q1921
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsPropaganda History Chronology
Arrange the following historical events in the order they occurred: i. Establishment of the Ministry of Popular Enlightenment and Propaganda in Nazi Germany. ii. Use of propaganda by the Allies during WWII. iii. Cold War propaganda efforts by the US and USSR. iv. Pope Gregory XV's establishment of the Sacra Congregation de Propaganda Fide. Choose the correct Answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (iv, i, ii, iii)
Chronological timeline of propaganda history: iv. Pope Gregory XV establishes Sacra Congregatio de Propaganda Fide = 1622 −> i. Joseph Goebbels' Nazi Ministry of Propaganda = 1933 −> ii. Allied WWII propaganda = 1939–1945 −> iii. US/USSR Cold War psychological warfare = 1947–1991. Correct sequence: iv, i, ii, iii.
Q1922
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsCritical Media Theory (Frankfurt School)
The Frankfurt School's critical theory of communication primarily focuses on:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Power relationships and media hegemony)
The Frankfurt School (Theodor Adorno, Max Horkheimer, Herbert Marcuse, Jürgen Habermas) developed Critical Cultural Theory to critique the capitalist 'Culture Industry', focusing on how mass media reinforces ideological domination, power asymmetries, and ideological hegemony.
Q1923
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsWestern Communication Models
Which of the following statements about Western communication models are true? i. Shannon and Weaver's model focused on information efficiency rather than social interaction. ii. Lasswell's model emphasizes the process of persuasion and propaganda. iii. Wilbur Schramm's model highlights the encoding-decoding aspect of communication. iv. Western communication theories generally prioritize collective participation over individual influence. Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, and iii)
Statements i, ii, and iii are true: Shannon-Weaver (1949) is a technical linear transmission model (i), Lasswell (1948) focused on political persuasion/propaganda (ii), Schramm (1954) introduced reciprocal encoding/decoding and field of experience (iii). Statement iv is false because Western models emphasize individualistic linear transmission rather than Asian collectivism. Correct: i, ii, and iii.
Q1924
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationModernization Paradigm (Magic Multipliers)
In the modernization approach to development communication, mass media were often viewed as which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Magic multipliers for economic and social development)
In early Modernization Paradigm theories of development communication (Wilbur Schramm, Daniel Lerner, Everett Rogers), mass media were conceptualized as 'Magic Multipliers' that could rapidly accelerate technical knowledge transfer and social change in developing nations.
Q1925
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyEvolution of Journalism Mediums
Arrange the following in the correct sequence based on their emergence: i. Print Journalism ii. Radio Journalism iii. Television Journalism iv. Digital Journalism Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, iii, iv)
Chronological evolution of mass journalism mediums: i. Print Journalism (15th–17th century) −> ii. Radio Broadcast Journalism (1920s) −> iii. Television Broadcast Journalism (1940s–1950s) −> iv. Digital / Online Journalism (1990s–present). Correct sequence: i, ii, iii, iv.
Q1926
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyCommunication Research Methods
Consider the following statements about communication research methods: i. The experimental method is considered the most objective because it uses control procedures to rule out alternative explanations. ii. Historical research relies heavily on direct observation rather than documents and records. iii. Content analysis is a qualitative technique that does not require quantification of materials. iv. In survey research, the validity of findings depends on how well the sample represents the population. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i and iv)
Statements i and iv are correct: Experimental design uses control groups and manipulation to establish internal validity (i), and Survey research generalizability depends strictly on sample representativeness (iv). (Statement ii is false as historical research relies on primary documents; iii is false as content analysis involves systematic quantitative coding). Correct: i and iv.
Q1927
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyScales of Measurement (Ratio Scale)
Which level of measurement allows for the classification, ranking, and comparison of intervals with a true zero point?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ratio)
In statistical scales of measurement (Stevens' Taxonomy): Ratio Scale is the highest level of measurement featuring mutually exclusive categories, inherent ranking/order, equal intervals, and an absolute, non-arbitrary True Zero Point (e.g., height, weight, broadcasting duration).
Q1928
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsPropaganda Typologies (Black Propaganda)
What is the primary goal of "black propaganda"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To spread false information while concealing the source.)
Black Propaganda is psychological warfare disinformation where the material is deliberately fabricated/false and its true origin is entirely concealed or falsely attributed to the enemy/opposing party.
Q1929
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationDevelopment Paradigms Evolution
Arrange the following paradigms of development in the order they emerged: i. Dominant paradigm. ii. Dependency paradigm. iii. Participatory paradigm. Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, iii)
Chronological evolution of development communication paradigms: i. Dominant / Modernization Paradigm (1950s–1960s) −> ii. Dependency / Critical Paradigm (1970s) −> iii. Participatory / Multiplicity Paradigm (1980s–1990s). Correct sequence: i, ii, iii.
Q1930
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationInternational Propaganda Factors
In the context of international communication, which of the following is a key factor that influences the effectiveness of propaganda?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The availability of advanced communication technologies.)
In international communication and transnational psychological operations, the Availability of Advanced Communication Technologies (such as satellite broadcasting, international radio networks, social media algorithms, and digital infrastructure) is the decisive operational factor determining the reach and penetration of propaganda messages.
Q1931
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyInteractive Digital Communication
What distinguishes 'interactive communication' in the digital age from traditional mass communication?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It involves immediate and real-time feedback)
Traditional mass communication (print, radio, TV) is predominantly one-to-many and linear with delayed feedback, whereas Digital Interactive Communication is characterized by bi-directional, synchronous, and immediate real-time feedback and user participation.
Q1932
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationMass Communication in India
Consider the following statements about mass communication in India: i. Traditional media like Ramlila and Raslila are more participatory than digital media. ii. The INSAT series of satellites has improved communication on a nationwide scale. iii. Mass communication in India primarily reaches rural, marginalized communities. iv. The new digital media allow complete audience control over content production. Which of the statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i and ii)
Statements i and ii are correct: Traditional indigenous performing folk forms (Ramlila, Raslila) involve live communal co-presence and cultural participation (i), and India's INSAT satellite system (launched in the 1980s) revolutionized nationwide telecommunication and Doordarshan broadcasting (ii). Correct: i and ii.
Q1933
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationDominant Paradigm of Devcom
Consider the following statements regarding the 'dominant paradigm' of development communication: i. It focused on modernization through Western industrial models. ii. It promoted the idea that underdeveloped societies must adopt Western communication strategies. iii. It was challenged by alternative paradigms emphasizing participation and self-reliance. iv. It was completely abandoned after the rise of ICTs. Which of the statements above are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, and iii)
Statements i, ii, and iii are true: The Dominant Paradigm equated development with Western industrial modernization (i), prescribed top-down media transfer to traditional societies (ii), and was subsequently challenged by Dependency and Participatory paradigms (iii). (Statement iv is false as elements of modernization persist alongside ICTs). Correct: i, ii, and iii.
Q1934
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsNazi Propaganda Techniques
Which of the following techniques was used by the Nazis to make their propaganda effective?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Repetition of simple messages and powerful imagery.)
Under Joseph Goebbels' propaganda doctrine in Nazi Germany, mass persuasion relied on the relentless Repetition of Simple Slogans, stark black-and-white framing, emotional appeals, and striking visual imagery (flags, rallies, swastika iconography).
Q1935
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyApplied Research Characteristics
Which of the following is a characteristic of "Applied Research"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It focuses on solving specific practical problems.)
Applied Research is designed specifically to apply existing scientific theories and empirical methodologies toward solving concrete, immediate real-world problems and practical challenges.
Q1936
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsIndian Communication Theory (Sadharanikaran)
According to Indian communication theory: i. Sahridaya refers to an individual capable of receiving a message with full understanding. ii. Sadharanikaran ensures equal participation of all individuals in communication. iii. The concept of rasa is closely related to emotional engagement in communication. iv. Unlike Western models, Indian communication theories prioritize receiver interpretation over sender control. Which of the above statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i, iii, and iv)
Statements i, iii, and iv are core tenets of the Sadharanikaran Model of Communication (SMC based on Bharata Muni's Natya Shastra): The receiver must be a Sahridaya (culturally receptive heart - i), communication aims at evoking Rasa (aesthetic/emotional experience - iii), and meaning is realized through receiver resonance rather than sender domination (iv). Correct: i, iii, and iv.
Q1937
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationSITE Project 1975
What was the main objective of the SITE (Satellite Instructional Television Experiment) project launched in India in 1975?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Using satellite technology for educational and developmental communication)
The Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (SITE, 1975–1976), conceived by Dr. Vikram Sarabhai using NASA's ATS-6 satellite, directly broadcast educational, health, family planning, and agricultural programs to over 2,400 backward villages in 6 Indian states.
Q1938
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationDevcom Scholars & Theories Matching
Match the scholars with their respective theories in development communication: i. Daniel Lerner ii. Everett Rogers iii. Jan Servaes iv. Paul Baran
Theories: 1. Multiplicity Model 2. Diffusion of Innovations 3. Passing of Traditional Society 4. Dependency Theory
Select the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4)
i -> 3 (Daniel Lerner: The Passing of Traditional Society, 1958 - empathy and urbanization), ii -> 2 (Everett Rogers: Diffusion of Innovations, 1962), iii -> 1 (Jan Servaes: Multiplicity / Participatory Model), iv -> 4 (Paul Baran: Dependency Theory and unequal capitalist development). Correct match: i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4.
Q1939
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyIndian Media Milestones Chronology
Arrange the following media development milestones in India in chronological order: i. Establishment of Press Trust of India (PTI) ii. Launch of Doordarshan iii. Introduction of Private FM Radio iv. Digital news revolution (Online journalism growth) Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, iii, iv)
Milestones: i. Press Trust of India (PTI) registered = 1947 (operational 1949) −> ii. Launch of Television / Doordarshan = 15 September 1959 −> iii. Phase-I Private FM Radio privatization = 1999/2001 −> iv. Digital news websites revolution = 2000s–2010s. Correct sequence: i, ii, iii, iv.
Q1940
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyOld Media vs New Media
What is one of the key differences between old media and new media?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Old media is primarily print, radio, and TV, while new media includes blogs, vlogs, and online communities)
Old media refers to traditional analogue broadcast and print institutions (newspapers, magazines, terrestrial radio, linear TV), whereas New Media encompasses digital, networked, interactive computer-mediated platforms (blogs, vlogs, podcasts, social networks). Choice C.
Q1941
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyOnline Journalism (Hyperlinking)
What is the main advantage of hyperlinking in online media?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It allows users to access additional information with a single click)
Hyperlinking creates non-linear digital narratives by embedding clickable web links that allow readers to instantly cross-reference primary sources, related articles, background context, and multimedia evidence with a single click.
Q1942
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyDigital Journalism Milestones
Arrange the following milestones in digital journalism in chronological order: i. Emergence of blogs as a journalistic tool ii. Rise of social media as a news source iii. Launch of YouTube iv. Growth of digital-only news websites Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i, iii, ii, iv)
Chronological digital milestones: i. Emergence of Weblogs / Citizen Blogs = late 1990s–2001 −> iii. Launch of YouTube = February 2005 −> ii. Rise of Twitter/Facebook as breaking news sources = 2008–2010 −> iv. Proliferation of pure digital-only native newsrooms (Vox, Buzzfeed, Scroll, Wire) = 2012–2015. Correct sequence: i, iii, ii, iv.
Q1943
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsCommunication Levels & Types Matching
Match the following communication types with their characteristics: Communication Type: i. Intrapersonal ii. Interpersonal iii. Group Communication iv. Mass Communication
Characteristic: 1. Public discourse with feedback 2. Individual reflection and thought 3. One-to-one direct interaction 4. One-to-many mediated message dissemination
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4)
i -> 2 (Intrapersonal: internal monologue, self-reflection), ii -> 3 (Interpersonal: dyadic one-to-one communication), iii -> 1 (Group communication: public small/large group discourse), iv -> 4 (Mass communication: one-to-many mediated broadcast dissemination). Correct match: i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4.
Q1944
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsSadharanikaran Universalization
Which of the following concepts in Indian communication theory is closest in meaning to 'commonness' in communication?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sadharanikaran)
In Sanskrit poetics and Indian communication theory, Sadharanikaran (derived from sadharana meaning common or universal) literally translates to 'Universalization' or achieving 'Commonness' of experience and emotional resonance between communicator and receiver.
Q1945
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsPropaganda Classifications Matching
Match the following types of propaganda with their descriptions: i. Black Propaganda ii. White Propaganda iii. Grey Propaganda
Description: 1. Uses mostly accurate information from a clearly identified source. 2. Spreads false information while concealing the source. 3. A mix of true and false information, with unclear sources.
Which of the following is the correct match?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-1, iii-3)
i -> 2 (Black Propaganda: deceptive, false information with fabricated/concealed origins), ii -> 1 (White Propaganda: truthful, accurate information openly credited to an identified government/source), iii -> 3 (Grey Propaganda: ambiguous mix of truth and half-truths with non-transparent origin). Correct match: i-2, ii-1, iii-3.
Q1946
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyResearch Process Steps
Arrange the following steps in the research process in the correct sequence: i. Formulating hypotheses. ii. Collecting and organizing data iii. Defining and redefining problems. iv. Testing conclusions against hypotheses. v. Making deductions and reaching conclusions. Correct Sequence:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (iii, i, ii, v, iv)
Clifford Woody's scientific research sequence: iii. Defining the research problem −> i. Formulating hypotheses −> ii. Collecting and organizing data −> v. Analyzing data, making deductions, and reaching conclusions −> iv. Testing conclusions against hypotheses. Correct sequence: iii, i, ii, v, iv.
Q1947
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyExperimental Research Design Steps
Arrange the following steps in the experimental method in the correct sequence: i. Formulate a hypothesis. ii. Manipulate the independent variable. iii. Observe the effect on the dependent variable. iv. Establish causal links between variables. Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, iii, iv)
Experimental scientific protocol: i. Formulate a directional testable hypothesis −> ii. Systematically manipulate the Independent Variable (IV) −> iii. Measure and observe the resultant effect on the Dependent Variable (DV) −> iv. Statistically establish causal relationships. Correct sequence: i, ii, iii, iv.
Q1948
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyLevels of Measurement Matching
Match the following levels of measurement with their characteristics: i. Nominal ii. Ordinal iii. Interval iv. Ratio
Characteristics: 1. Ordered categories with meaningful intervals. 2. Classification without any order or ranking. 3. Ordered categories with equal intervals and a true zero point. 4. Ordered categories without equal intervals.
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3)
i -> 2 (Nominal: categorical naming without rank), ii -> 4 (Ordinal: rank ordered without equal intervals), iii -> 1 (Interval: meaningful equal numerical intervals without absolute zero), iv -> 3 (Ratio: equal intervals with absolute true zero). Correct match: i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3.
Q1949
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsSadharanikaran Shared Consciousness
Which term describes the process where an individual enters into mental cooperation with another, forming a common conscience?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sadharanikaran)
Sadharanikaran in Indian communication theory (elaborated by Bhattanayaka and Abhinavagupta) is the psychological and aesthetic process whereby personal ego boundaries dissolve, enabling communicator and receiver to attain mutual empathy and a shared collective consciousness.
Q1950
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsRasa Theory (Bharata Muni)
Which Indian scholar proposed that the ancient concept of 'rasa' is central to communication theory?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bharata Muni)
Bharata Muni in his seminal Sanskrit treatise Natya Shastra (c. 200 BCE–200 CE) formulated the Rasa Theory (Rasa Sutra), establishing that the primary goal of aesthetic performance and communication is evoking emotional sentiment (Rasa) in the audience.
Q1951
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsCommunication Theorists Matching
Match the scholars with their corresponding communication theories: i. Harold Lasswell ii. Wilbur Schramm iii. Stuart Hall iv. James Carey
Communication Theory: 1. Encoding-Decoding Model 2. Effects Model 3. Ritual Model 4. Reception Theory / Cultural Encoding
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3)
i -> 2 (Harold Lasswell: Effects Model - 'Who says What in Which Channel to Whom with What Effect'), ii -> 1 (Wilbur Schramm: Circular Encoding-Decoding Model), iii -> 4 (Stuart Hall: Encoding/Decoding Cultural Reception Theory), iv -> 3 (James Carey: Communication as Culture / Ritual Model). Correct match: i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3.
Q1952
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsHistory of Mass Media Inventions
Arrange the following key developments in mass communication in chronological order: i. Gutenberg's printing press ii. The rise of the telegraph iii. The invention of radio iv. The emergence of the internet Choose the correct sequence:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i, ii, iii, iv)
Chronological mass media inventions: i. Johannes Gutenberg's movable metal type printing press = c. 1440 −> ii. Samuel Morse's electric telegraph = 1837/1844 −> iii. Guglielmo Marconi's wireless radio telegraphy = 1895–1901 −> iv. ARPANET / World Wide Web Internet = 1969/1989. Correct sequence: i, ii, iii, iv.
Q1953
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsHypodermic Needle Theory
In the context of mass media effects, which theory assumes that audiences are passive and directly influenced by media messages?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Hypodermic Needle Model)
The Hypodermic Needle Model (or Magic Bullet Theory, rooted in 1930s behaviorism) posits that mass media injects persuasive messages directly into a passive, defenseless mass audience, causing uniform and immediate psychological reactions.
Q1954
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyMedia Convergence Definition
Which of the following best describes "media convergence" in the context of new media?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The blending of text, visuals, and sound to create multimedia content)
Media Convergence (as defined by Henry Jenkins) refers to the technological, industrial, and cultural integration where computing, telecommunications, and traditional media blend text, audio, still photography, and video onto unified digital network platforms.
Q1955
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationDevcom Scholars Contributions
Match the following scholars with their contributions to development communication: i. Goran Hedebro ii. Manuel Castells iii. Everett Rogers iv. Robert White
Contributions: 1. Culturalist approaches 2. Network Society and ICTs 3. Diffusion of Innovations 4. Empowerment and participation in devcom
Select the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4)
i -> 1 (Goran Hedebro: Communication and Social Change, culturalist critical approaches), ii -> 2 (Manuel Castells: The Rise of the Network Society and informational capitalism), iii -> 3 (Everett Rogers: Diffusion of Innovations), iv -> 4 (Robert White: participatory and democratic communication models). Correct match: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
Q1956
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationParticipatory Communication Paradigm
Which of the following communication scholars emphasized 'participatory' and 'empowerment' models of development communication?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Shirley White and Jan Servaes)
Shirley White (Participatory Communication) and Jan Servaes pioneered the Participatory and Multiplicity paradigms of development communication, advocating bottom-up community empowerment, dialogic engagement, and local cultural self-reliance (opposing top-down modernization).
Q1957
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationMass-Line Communication Strategy
The 'mass-line' communication approach used by Mao Zedong and Mahatma Gandhi is characterized by:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Low-cost systems with high public participation)
The 'Mass-Line' communication model (exemplified by Mahatma Gandhi's padayatras, prayer meetings, spinning wheel symbolism, and Mao's grassroots cadre mobilization) relies on decentralized, low-cost, interpersonal channels embedded in high direct public participation.
Q1958
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsWhite Propaganda Example
Which of the following is an example of "white propaganda"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Republic Day parade coverage on Doordarshan.)
White Propaganda comes from an openly identified, official, transparent source and disseminates accurate, factual information (e.g., official live national broadcast coverage of the Republic Day Parade by public broadcaster Doordarshan).
Q1959
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyDigital Journalism Challenges
What is one key challenge faced by digital journalists?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Verifying crowdsourced information)
In the fast-paced 24/7 digital news environment, one of the greatest editorial challenges is Verifying Crowdsourced Information, user-generated content (UGC), and viral social media posts to avoid disseminating fake news and deepfakes.
Q1960
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyMedia Formats Characteristics
Match the following characteristics with their respective media formats: Characteristic: i. Interactive and real-time ii. One-way communication iii. Limited updates iv. Hyperlink-based information
Media Type: 1. Digital journalism 2. Print media 3. Broadcast media 4. Online media
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4)
i -> 1 (Digital journalism: interactive user comments and live real-time reporting), ii -> 2 (Print media: traditional static one-way printed distribution), iii -> 3 (Broadcast media: fixed hourly programming schedules with limited updates), iv -> 4 (Online media: non-linear hypertext and hyperlinked architecture). Correct match: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
Q1961
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationIndian Devcom Projects Matching
Match the following development communication programs with their objectives: i. SITE ii. Kheda Project iii. e-Choupals iv. Gyandoot Soochanalyas
Objectives: 1. Rural development through TV in Gujarat 2. Using ICTs for economic empowerment 3. Satellite-based educational programs 4. Digital information centres for rural areas
Select the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4)
i -> 3 (SITE 1975: satellite-based direct educational broadcasting), ii -> 1 (Kheda Communication Project 1975: decentralized local community TV in Gujarat), iii -> 2 (ITC e-Choupal: internet kiosks for farmers' direct agricultural marketing), iv -> 4 (Gyandoot in Dhar, MP: intranet community information kiosks). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4.
Q1962
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyPrimary Sources in Historical Research
Which of the following is a primary source of data in historical research methodology?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Autobiographies)
In historical research, Primary Sources are firsthand, contemporary original records created at the time of the event (such as autobiographies, personal diaries, government archival edicts, letters, and eyewitness interviews). Textbooks and encyclopedias are secondary/tertiary sources.
Q1963
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyBasic vs Applied Research
Which of the following best defines "Basic Research"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Research focused on developing and testing theories without immediate practical application.)
Basic Research (pure or fundamental research) is driven by scientific curiosity and aims to expand theoretical knowledge, discover fundamental laws, and develop conceptual frameworks without immediate commercial or practical application.
Q1964
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyResearch Methods Matching
Match the following research methods with their key characteristics: i. Experimental Method ii. Historical Method iii. Content Analysis iv. Survey Research
Characteristics: 1. Focuses on past events and relationships between persons, places, and times. 2. Involves manipulating an independent variable to observe its effect on a dependent variable. 3. Analyzes documents and records to classify and describe content. 4. Uses questionnaires or interviews to collect data from a sample population.
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4)
i -> 2 (Experimental: independent variable manipulation), ii -> 1 (Historical: past events and archival analysis), iii -> 3 (Content analysis: systematic quantitative/qualitative analysis of textual/broadcast records), iv -> 4 (Survey: questionnaires/interviews of sample). Correct match: i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4.
Q1965
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationInternational Communication Concepts
Consider the following statements about international communication: i. International communication is linked to the concept of the nation-state. ii. Intercultural communication focuses on communication within a single culture. iii. Globalisation has reduced the significance of cross-cultural communication. iv. The dominant paradigm of development emphasises top-down communication. Which of the statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i and iv)
Statements i and iv are correct: International communication historically involves political, diplomatic, and media flow between sovereign nation-states (i), and the Dominant Paradigm relies on top-down, one-way dissemination (iv). (Statement ii is false as intercultural communication spans across different cultures; iii is false as globalization increases its importance). Correct: i and iv.
Q1966
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationRole of Media in Participatory Paradigm
Which of the following best explains the role of media in the participatory paradigm of development?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Media is used to facilitate dialogue and community involvement.)
In the Participatory Paradigm of development, media channels (such as community radio, participatory video, and grassroots local theater) are utilized as democratic tools to facilitate horizontal dialogue, local decision-making, and community empowerment.
Q1967
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsMarshall McLuhan (Gutenberg Galaxy)
According to Marshall McLuhan, the printing press led to:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A linear and visual, individualistic communication culture)
In The Gutenberg Galaxy (1962), Marshall McLuhan argued that movable print transformed human cognition from an acoustic, tribal oral culture into a detached, linear, visual, and individualistic culture ('Typographic Man'). Choice C.
Q1968
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationDependency Theory of Underdevelopment
According to dependency theory, what is the primary reason for underdevelopment in post-colonial countries?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Exploitative global economic structures)
Dependency Theory (Raúl Prebisch, André Gunder Frank, Samir Amin) posits that post-colonial underdeveloped nations (the Periphery) remain poor due to structural, unequal, and Exploitative Global Economic Relations that extract wealth toward wealthy industrialized nations (the Core).
Q1969
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyWriting for Online vs Print
How does writing for online media differ from writing for print?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Online writing demands short, concise, and interactive content)
Online media writing differs from traditional print by utilizing scannable inverted pyramid structures, concise sentences, bulleted lists, subheadings, multimedia integration, and hyperlinks tailored for digital screen readers.
Q1970
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyDigital Media Terminology Matching
Match the following terms with their correct definitions: Term: i. Blog ii. Vlog iii. SEO iv. Hyperlink
Definition: 1. Video-based storytelling 2. Optimizing content for search engines 3. A written online journal 4. A clickable link to another page
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4)
i -> 3 (Blog: online weblog/journal), ii -> 1 (Vlog: video blog storytelling), iii -> 2 (SEO: search engine optimization), iv -> 4 (Hyperlink: clickable URL anchor link). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4.
Q1971
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationDevelopment Communication Applications
A government agency wants to use communication to promote national integration. Which method is most suitable?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Community radio and participatory storytelling)
Promoting democratic social cohesion and national integration is most effectively achieved through grassroots Community Radio, localized cultural dialogues, and Participatory Storytelling that respects linguistic and regional pluralism.
Q1972
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationMultiplicity Paradigm (Jan Servaes)
What is the primary focus of 'Jan Servaes' 'multiplicity model' in development communication?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Promoting culturally specific, localized communication strategies)
Jan Servaes' 'Multiplicity Paradigm' (or 'Another Development') rejects universal Western prescriptions, arguing that there is no universal path to development and advocating Culturally Specific, Localized, and Self-Reliant communication strategies.
Q1973
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsNatya Shastra Communication Concepts
Match the following terms with their meanings in Indian communication theory: Concept: i. Sadharanikaran ii. Sahridaya iii. Rasa iv. Bhava
Meaning: 1. Emotional essence of communication 2. Mutual understanding in communication 3. One with a receptive heart 4. The permanent mood in a communicative act
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4)
i -> 2 (Sadharanikaran: universalization / mutual understanding), ii -> 3 (Sahridaya: receiver with a receptive empathetic heart), iii -> 1 (Rasa: the aesthetic emotional essence evoked), iv -> 4 (Bhava: the underlying mental state / permanent mood / sthayibhava). Correct match: i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4.
Q1974
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsGrey Propaganda Example
Which of the following is an example of "grey propaganda"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A pharmaceutical company exaggerating the benefits of its new drug.)
Grey Propaganda refers to information where the source is non-transparent or ambiguous, and the content is partially true but deliberately spun/exaggerated for commercial or political influence (e.g. pharmaceutical corporate PR exaggerating drug efficacy).
Q1975
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationCold War International Communication
What was the primary focus of international communication studies during the Cold War?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Propaganda and psychological warfare.)
During the Cold War (1947–1991), international communication research was dominated by state-sponsored studies on Propaganda, Psychological Warfare, radio broadcasting (Voice of America vs Radio Moscow), and ideological persuasion.
Q1976
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyExploratory Research Design
What is the primary objective of "Exploratory Research"?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To generate basic knowledge and clarify issues related to a problem.)
Exploratory Research is conducted when a problem is broad, ambiguous, or in its preliminary stages, aiming to gain initial background insights, clarify research questions, and formulate hypotheses for subsequent study.
Q1977
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyDigital vs Print Journalism Comparison
Which of the following statements about the difference between digital and print journalism are correct? i. Digital journalism allows for real-time updates. ii. Print journalism is more interactive than digital journalism. iii. Digital media provides hyperlinking to related content. iv. Print journalism is more suitable for listicles and bullet-point articles. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i and iii only)
Statements i and iii are correct: Digital journalism enables instantaneous live blogging/real-time updates (i) and embeds hyperlinks to primary sources (iii). (Statement ii is false as digital is more interactive; iv is false as listicles are native to digital publishing). Correct: i and iii only.
Q1978
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationEvolution of Devcom Paradigms
Arrange the following development communication paradigms in chronological order of emergence: i. Modernization Model ii. Dependency Theory iii. Participatory Development Model iv. ICTs and Digital Divide Approach Select the correct order:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, iii, iv)
Chronological timeline: i. Modernization Paradigm = 1950s–1960s −> ii. Dependency Paradigm = 1970s −> iii. Participatory Paradigm = 1980s–1990s −> iv. ICTs for Development (ICT4D) / Digital Divide = late 1990s–2000s. Correct sequence: i, ii, iii, iv.
Q1979
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationDiffusion of Innovations (Everett Rogers)
Which of the following scholars is credited with pioneering the 'diffusion of innovations' model in development communication?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Everett Rogers)
Everett M. Rogers formulated the landmark 'Diffusion of Innovations' theory in 1962, classifying adopters into Innovators, Early Adopters, Early Majority, Late Majority, and Laggards along an S-shaped adoption curve.
Q1980
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologySearch Engine Optimization (SEO)
Why do online media organizations emphasize Search Engine Optimization (SEO)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To improve visibility and ranking on search engines)
Search Engine Optimization (SEO) involves optimizing web content, metadata, headlines, and site architecture to achieve higher organic rankings on search engines (Google), driving maximum web traffic and visibility.
Q1981
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsPropaganda Nature & History
Consider the following statements about propaganda: i. Propaganda is always based on false information. ii. Propaganda can be used to influence both domestic and foreign audiences. iii. The term "propaganda" originated from religious movements in the 17th century. iv. Propaganda is only effective in totalitarian regimes. Which of the statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ii and iii)
Statements ii and iii are historically correct: Propaganda is deployed internationally and domestically to shape public opinion (ii), and the term originated in 1622 when Pope Gregory XV founded the Congregatio de Propaganda Fide (iii). (Statement i is false as white propaganda uses truth; iv is false as democracies actively use public diplomacy/propaganda). Correct: ii and iii.
Q1982
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyResearch Typologies Matching
Match the following types of research with their primary focus: i. Basic Research ii. Applied Research iii. Action Research iv. Conceptual Research
Primary Focus: 1. Immediate problem-solving in a specific setting. 2. Development of theories and intellectual challenges. 3. Practical application of theoretical knowledge. 4. Abstract ideas and reinterpretation of existing concepts.
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4)
i -> 2 (Basic: theoretical knowledge generation), ii -> 3 (Applied: practical application to problems), iii -> 1 (Action: immediate localized practitioner problem-solving), iv -> 4 (Conceptual: philosophical/abstract reinterpretation). Correct match: i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4.
Q1983
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsHistorical Propaganda Methods Matching
Match the following historical events with their associated propaganda techniques: i. Nazi Germany ii. Allied efforts during WWII iii. Cold War
Techniques: 1. Demonising the enemy through films and posters. 2. Subtle censorship and "strategy of truth." 3. Psychological warfare through radio broadcasts.
Which of the following is the correct match?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3)
i -> 1 (Nazi Germany: racial demonization and anti-Semitic propaganda films like Der ewige Jude), ii -> 2 (Allied WWII: BBC / US OWI 'Strategy of Truth' factual framing), iii -> 3 (Cold War: covert radio psychological warfare via Radio Liberty / Voice of America). Correct match: i-1, ii-2, iii-3.
Q1984
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsRitual Model of Communication (James Carey)
Who among the following scholars is associated with the 'Ritual Model' of communication?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (James Carey)
James W. Carey in his book Communication as Culture (1989) introduced the 'Ritual View of Communication' (contrasting with the transmission view), defining communication as a sacred ceremony that creates, maintains, and transforms a shared cultural community.
Q1985
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationKheda Communication Project
Which of the following statements about the Kheda Communication Project are true? i. It was designed to use television for rural development in Gujarat. ii. The project relied heavily on pre-testing and audience feedback. iii. The initial programs failed to create intended social changes. iv. It was terminated due to government funding constraints. Select the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, and iii)
Statements i, ii, and iii reflect historical evaluations: The Kheda Communications Project (1975–1990 by ISRO/SAC in Kheda district, Gujarat) pioneered participatory rural development TV (i), utilized extensive formative research and audience feedback (ii), and addressed deep-seated caste/gender inequalities that met resistance in initial broadcasts (iii). Correct: i, ii, and iii.
Q1986
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyNew Media Storytelling Features
Which of the following is NOT a feature of new media storytelling?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Static content with no updates)
New media storytelling is dynamic, multimedia-rich, participatory, and continually updated in real-time; 'Static content with no updates' is a limitation of traditional legacy print, NOT a feature of new media.
Q1987
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationWilbur Schramm Devcom Contributions
Which of the following are true about Wilbur Schramm's contributions to development communication? i. He introduced the concept of mass media as 'magic multipliers.' ii. He focused on participatory communication rather than mass dissemination. iii. He emphasized the role of communication in attitude and behavior change. iv. He dismissed the importance of traditional communication methods. Select the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i and iii only)
Statements i and iii are correct: In his landmark UNESCO book Mass Media and National Development (1964), Wilbur Schramm established mass media as 'Magic Multipliers' of information (i) and analyzed media's power in modernizing attitudes and behaviors (iii). Correct: i and iii only.
Q1988
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsPropaganda Techniques (Fear Appeals)
Which of the following techniques is commonly used in propaganda to create a climate of fear?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Fear appeals.)
Fear Appeals (Scare Tactics) in propaganda intentionally leverage terrifying or catastrophic warnings to trigger anxiety in the target audience, coercing them to accept a proposed political action or authoritarian policy.
Q1989
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyOnline Writing Best Practices
Consider the following statements about online writing: i. It should use short sentences and paragraphs. ii. It must always be written in an academic tone. iii. Headlines should include keywords for search optimization. iv. Interactive elements like videos and graphics enhance engagement. Which of the statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i, iii, and iv)
Statements i, iii, and iv are golden rules of digital online journalism: Scannable short sentences/paragraphs (i), SEO keyword integration in headlines (iii), and multimedia interactive embedding (iv). (Statement ii is false as digital writing favors conversational, accessible language over rigid academic jargon). Correct: i, iii, and iv.
Q1990
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationChronology of Devcom Projects
Arrange the following development communication initiatives in India in chronological order: i. SITE Project ii. Kheda Communication Project iii. e-Choupal Initiative iv. Gyandoot Soochanalyas Select the correct order:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, iii, iv)
Chronological timeline: i. Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (SITE) = August 1975 −> ii. Kheda Communication Project = late 1975/1976 −> iii. ITC e-Choupal = June 2000 −> iv. Gyandoot Intranet Kiosks (Madhya Pradesh) = January 2000 / parallel 2000. Correct sequence: i, ii, iii, iv (Choice A).
Q1991
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationArusha Programme (G-77 Self-Reliance)
The Arusha Programme, formulated by the Group of Seventy-Seven (G-77), emphasized which approach to development?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Self-reliance and autonomous development)
The Arusha Programme for Collective Self-Reliance (adopted in Arusha, Tanzania in 1979 by the G-77 developing nations) emphasized Collective South-South Economic Self-Reliance, indigenous technological autonomy, and reduced dependency on Northern capitalist economies.
Q1992
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyResearch Variables Classification
Which of the following statements about variables is/are correct? i. An independent variable is the outcome that a researcher wishes to explain. ii. A dependent variable is the variable that is manipulated in an experiment. iii. Discrete variables are obtained by counting, while continuous variables are obtained by measuring. iv. Variables can be classified as either independent or dependent based on their role in the research. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (iii and iv only)
Statements iii and iv are correct: Discrete variables take countable whole numbers (e.g. number of viewers), while continuous variables are measured on a continuum (e.g. response time) (iii), and variables are categorized functionally as IV or DV (iv). (Statements i and ii are inverted: IV is manipulated, DV is the outcome measured). Correct: iii and iv only.
Q1993
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyClifford Woody Research Definition
According to Clifford Woody, which of the following is NOT a step in the research process?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Applying research findings directly to industrial problems.)
Clifford Woody defines research as defining problems, formulating hypotheses, collecting/evaluating data, making deductions, and carefully testing conclusions. 'Applying research findings directly to industrial problems' without verification is commercial engineering, NOT a step in the research process.
Q1994
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyOnline Video Platforms (YouTube)
Which online platform played a significant role in allowing individuals to reach global audiences with multimedia video content?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (YouTube)
YouTube (launched in 2005) democratized video broadcasting by allowing individual creators to upload, stream, and monetize user-generated video content to billions of global viewers worldwide.
Q1995
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationRural Mass Communication Strategies
A media organization wants to expand its reach in rural India. Based on mass communication principles, which of the following strategies would be most effective?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Using traditional folk media alongside digital campaigns)
In Indian rural communication, hybrid campaigns integrating Traditional Folk Media (nukkad natak, puppetry, folk songs) with localized Vernacular Mobile/Digital campaigns achieve maximum resonance, cultural credibility, and rural reach.
Q1996
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyDigital Journalism (Listicles)
What is a Listicle in digital journalism?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A short-form article written in a list format with supporting text)
A Listicle is a popular form of digital journalism and online content where an article is structured around a numbered or bulleted list with concise explanatory text and embedded multimedia.
Q1997
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsSource Credibility (Hovland & Weiss)
In a study on the credibility of sources and opinion change, Hovland and Weiss manipulated the authorship of messages attributed to different sources. What was the key finding of this experiment?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Messages from credible sources resulted in more significant opinion change.)
In their classic Yale communication study (1951), Carl Hovland and Walter Weiss discovered that messages attributed to High-Credibility Sources produced significantly greater immediate opinion change compared to low-credibility sources (though this difference faded over time due to the 'sleeper effect').
Q1998
Television Studio Production, Lighting & Camera OperationsKey Light Function
What is the primary purpose of the key light in three-point lighting?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (To provide the main illumination and define the subject's appearance)
The Key Light is the dominant, primary light source in a lighting setup, positioned at a 45∘ angle to establish exposure, shape facial features, and cast primary shadows.
Q1999
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyPrint to Digital Media Transition
What is the primary reason print organizations initially failed when moving to digital platforms?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (They posted entire newspapers online without adapting content for digital readers)
Early legacy print publishers suffered from 'shovelware' practices—merely uploading static digital replicas (PDFs/unaltered print articles) of print editions without optimizing for online scannability, search engine indexing, hyperlinking, and multimedia interaction.
Q2000
Applied Physics, Electromagnetism & Solid State DevicesPN Junction Diffusion vs Drift Current
Diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift current in magnitude:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (if the junction is forward-biased)
In a forward-biased P-N junction, the lowered potential barrier allows majority carrier injection across the depletion region, causing the Diffusion Current to vastly exceed the small minority carrier Drift Current (in unbiased equilibrium, diffusion equals drift; in reverse bias, drift dominates).
Q2001
Applied Physics, Electromagnetism & Solid State DevicesSingle Slit Fraunhofer Diffraction
In an experiment of a single slit diffraction, the width of the slit is 1.2 um and the angular width of central maxima is observed to be equal to π/3. Find the wavelength of light:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (6 * 10^(-7) m)
For single-slit Fraunhofer diffraction, the total angular width of the central maximum is 2θ=a2λ. Given 2θ=π/3 rad≈1.047 rad (or sinθ=λ/a⟹sin(30∘)=0.5=λ/(1.2×10−6)⟹λ=0.5×1.2×10−6=6×10−7 m=600 nm). Choice B.
Q2002
Applied Physics, Electromagnetism & Solid State DevicesFraunhofer vs Fresnel Diffraction
In Fraunhofer diffraction, the source of light and the screen on which diffraction pattern is obtained is at _______ distance from the diffracting system. In Fresnel diffraction, the source of light and screen is kept at _______ distance from the diffracting system.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (infinite, finite)
In Fraunhofer Diffraction, the light source and screen are placed at an Infinite distance from the aperture/slit (using convex lenses for plane wave fronts); in Fresnel Diffraction, both source and screen are at Finite distances (spherical/cylindrical wave fronts). Choice A.
Q2003
Computer Applications, Information Technology & NetworkingWindows Run Commands
Which one of the following is typed in the Run dialog box to access MS word?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (winword)
In Microsoft Windows, typing 'winword' (or 'winword.exe') in the Run dialog box (Win+R) immediately launches Microsoft Word.
Q2004
Computer Applications, Information Technology & NetworkingOperating System Functions
The following statements are major functions of Operating System (OS): 1. Interpretation of commands and instructions 2. Providing a friendly interface between the computer and the user 3. Coordination and assignment of different hardware devices to the programs 4. Ensuring security of access to computer resources Which are the statements considered a function of OS?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, 3 and 4)
An Operating System performs all these foundational management functions: Command interpretation (1), User Interface GUI/CLI (2), Resource/Device management and process scheduling (3), and Security/Access control (4) ⟹ 1, 2, 3 and 4. Choice D.
Q2005
Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeBeta and Gamma Functions (Euler Integrals)
Consider the following statements: Statement 1: Euler's integral of first kind is nothing but the Beta function and Euler's integral of second kind is nothing but Gamma function. These integrals were considered by L.Euler. Statement 2: The value of ∫01(logy)8dy=8! Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Statement 1 and 2 are correct)
Both statements are mathematically correct: B(m,n)=∫01xm−1(1−x)n−1dx is Euler's First Integral and Γ(n)=∫0∞e−ttn−1dt is Euler's Second Integral (1). Substituting y=e−t transforms ∫01(logy)8dy=(−1)8∫0∞t8e−tdt=Γ(9)=8!=40,320 (2). Correct: Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
Q2006
Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeIncreasing and Decreasing Functions
Consider the following statements: Statement 1: The function f(x)=4x+3,x∈R is an increasing function. Statement 2: The function f(x)=log(cosx) is increasing function for [0,π/2]. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect)
Statement 1 is correct: f′(x)=4>0 for all x∈R, so it is strictly increasing. Statement 2 is incorrect because for f(x)=log(cosx) on (0,π/2), f'(x) = rac{-\sin x}{\cos x} = - an x < 0, which is strictly Decreasing. Correct: Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect.
Q2007
Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeInternational Organizations (UNESCO)
UNESCO stands for:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization)
UNESCO stands for United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization, a specialized agency of the UN established in 1945 to promote world peace and security through international cooperation in education, sciences, and culture.
Q2008
Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeNobel Laureates of India (Tagore 1913)
Rabindranath Tagore won the Nobel Prize for literature in:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1913)
Gurudev Rabindranath Tagore was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913 for his profoundly sensitive and beautiful poetry collection Gitanjali ('Song Offerings'), becoming the first non-European Nobel laureate.
Q2009
Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeSports GK (FIFA World Cup 2022)
Which country held the FIFA World Cup 2022?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Qatar)
The FIFA World Cup 2022 was hosted by Qatar from 20 November to 18 December 2022 (won by Argentina defeating France in the final).
Q2010
Advanced Engineering Mathematics, Calculus & General KnowledgeIndian Nobel Laureates Matching
Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List - I (Recipients): i. C.V. Raman ii. Kailash Satyarthi iii. Har Gobind Khorana iv. Amartya Sen
List - II (Nobel Prize Category): 1. Physiology or Medicine 2. Economic Sciences 3. Nobel Peace Prize 4. Physics
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B ((i) - 4, (ii) - 3, (iii) - 1, (iv) - 2)
i -> 4 (Sir C.V. Raman: Nobel Prize in Physics 1930 for Raman Effect), ii -> 3 (Kailash Satyarthi: Nobel Peace Prize 2014 for Bachpan Bachao Andolan), iii -> 1 (Dr. Har Gobind Khorana: Nobel Prize in Physiology/Medicine 1968 for genetic code interpretation), iv -> 2 (Amartya Sen: Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences 1998 for welfare economics). Correct match: (i)-4, (ii)-3, (iii)-1, (iv)-2.
Q2011
Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentSociology of Development (Underdevelopment)
Which concept had been constructed as the phenomena of poverty, low productivity and backwardness?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Underdevelopment)
In development sociology and political economy, 'Underdevelopment' is conceptualized as the systemic state of structural poverty, technological dependency, low economic productivity, and institutional backwardness generated by historical colonial exploitation.
Q2012
Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentStructural Functionalism (Talcott Parsons)
Society is a system surrounded by three other systems - personality, the organism and culture. There is social equilibrium when the boundaries of the three systems are maintained and social change results from boundary breaking. Which among the sociologist proposed this theory?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Talcott Parsons)
Talcott Parsons formulated the Action Frame of Reference and the AGIL functional paradigm, conceptualizing society as a Social System in dynamic equilibrium interacting with three surrounding action subsystems: Cultural System, Personality System, and Behavioral Organism.
Q2013
Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentPanchayati Raj & Community Development
Who appointed Balwant Rai Mehta for examining community development programme in 1957?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Jawaharlal Nehru)
The Government of India under Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru (via the Committee on Plan Projects) appointed the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee in January 1957 to examine and evaluate the working of the Community Development Programme (1952) and National Extension Service.
Burrhus Frederic Skinner (B.F. Skinner) founded the theory of Operant Conditioning, demonstrating that voluntary behavior is shaped, maintained, and modified by its environmental consequences (positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, and punishment).
In Transactional Analysis (TA), founded by Eric Berne (and popularized in Thomas Harris's 1967 bestseller), the universal existential life position representing healthy psychological integration is 'I'm OK - You're OK'. Choice A.
Aaron T. Beck developed the Cognitive Theory of Depression (1967), identifying the Cognitive Triad (negative automatic thoughts regarding the Self, the World, and the Future) maintained by systematic cognitive distortions.
Which of the following are NOT one of the stages of death and dying given by Elisabeth Kübler-Ross?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Despair)
In Elisabeth Kübler-Ross's landmark model (On Death and Dying, 1969), the five stages of grief (DABDA) are: 1. Denial, 2. Anger, 3. Bargaining, 4. Depression, and 5. Acceptance. 'Despair' is NOT one of the five stages.
Person-Centered Therapy (Client-Centered Therapy) was established by humanistic psychologist Carl Rogers, based on the three core therapist conditions: Unconditional Positive Regard, Empathic Understanding, and Congruence / Genuineness.
Q2019
Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentTribal Communities of India
Which among the following pairs are correctly matched with respect to tribes and associated states?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Arunachal Pradesh- Singpho)
The Singpho tribe is an indigenous ethnic group inhabiting Arunachal Pradesh and parts of Assam. (Lepchas are native to Sikkim, Kol is found in MP/UP, Galo/Galong is native to Arunachal Pradesh). Correct match: Arunachal Pradesh - Singpho.
Q2020
Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyHistory of Psychiatry
The term "Psychiatry" was coined by:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Johann Christian Reil)
German physician and anatomist Johann Christian Reil first coined the term 'Psychiatry' (Psychiatrie, from Greek psyche 'soul' and iatreia 'healing') in 1808.
Q2021
Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyPioneers in Indian Psychiatry
Who was the first woman psychiatrist of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mambalikalathil Sarada Menon)
Dr. Mambalikalathil Sarada Menon (1923–2021) was India's first female psychiatrist, the longest-serving head of the Institute of Mental Health in Chennai, and founder of the Schizophrenia Research Foundation (SCARF).
A boy was kidnapped for ransom and was kept hostage for a week. The child eventually developed attachment towards the kidnapper. This condition is termed as:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Stockholm syndrome)
Stockholm Syndrome is a psychological phenomenon in which hostages or abuse victims develop feelings of trust, affection, empathy, or positive psychological bonding toward their captors/abusers as a survival defense mechanism.
Q2023
Social Work Methods, Criminology & Social PolicyCriminology Foundations
A scientific study of the nature, extent, causes and control of criminal behavior is called as:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Criminology)
Criminology is the interdisciplinary scientific study of crime, criminal behavior, the etiology (causes) of crime, criminal psychology, victimology, and societal responses and institutional methods of crime prevention and control.
Q2024
Social Work Methods, Criminology & Social PolicyCommunity Development Programme 1952
In which among the following States in India, Community Development Programme was first initiated in 1952?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rajasthan)
The nationwide Community Development Programme (CDP) was formally inaugurated on October 2, 1952 across 55 pilot project blocks in India, with iconic early foundational pilot projects launched in Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh (Etawah pilot project legacy).
Q2025
Social Work Methods, Criminology & Social PolicySocial Welfare Administration Functions
Match Column A with Column B and select the correct answer from the codes given below: Column A: i. Plan Document ii. Performance Appraisal iii. Outline of draft of work to be accomplished iv. Establishing coordinated and collaborative relations
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3)
i -> 2 (Plan Document: core output of Planning), ii -> 1 (Performance Appraisal: human resource management / Staff recruitment & evaluation), iii -> 4 (Draft outline of resource expenditures: Budgeting), iv -> 3 (Coordinated multi-agency collaborative ties: Networking). Correct match: i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3.
Q2026
Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyWHO Definition of Mental Health
Which of the following correctly describes the components of mental health according to the WHO?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Under the World Health Organization (WHO) definition, Mental Health is 'a state of well-being in which an individual realizes his or her own abilities, can cope with the normal stresses of life, can work productively and fruitfully, and is able to make a contribution to his or her community' ⟹ All of the above.
In Freudian psychoanalysis, the instinctual drive seeking immediate gratification of needs is known as the:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (pleasure principle)
In Sigmund Freud's structural psychoanalytic model, the Id operates exclusively on the Pleasure Principle—demanding immediate release of tension and instantaneous gratification of instinctual biological impulses without regard for external reality.
Freud believed that human behaviour is primarily motivated by the psychosexual energy he called:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Libido)
Freud identified 'Libido' as the underlying psychic and instinctual psychosexual energy that drives Eros (the life instinct), human desire, emotional attachment, and psychological development.
Q2029
Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyFreud Structural Personality Model
Freud's structural model of personality is related to:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Id, ego, superego)
Sigmund Freud formulated the tripartite Structural Model of Personality comprising the Id (unconscious primal desires), the Ego (rational realistic mediator), and the Superego (internalized moral conscience).
Which theory says that there are sensitive or critical periods of development in human life?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ethological theory)
Ethological Theory of Development (founded by Konrad Lorenz and John Bowlby) posits that human development is shaped by evolutionary biology and features specific Critical / Sensitive Periods during which the presence or absence of certain experiences leaves an indelible imprint.
An affective mood disorder in which a person swings from one mood extreme (mania) to another (depression) is classified as:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bipolar)
Bipolar Disorder (formerly manic-depressive illness) is an affective psychiatric disorder characterized by cyclical, alternating episodes of extreme mood elevation (mania/hypomania) and severe clinical depression.
Which theory by Leon Festinger focused upon the motivational tendency to reduce the psychological tension caused by conflicting thoughts, beliefs or actions?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cognitive dissonance)
Leon Festinger formulated Cognitive Dissonance Theory (1957), which posits that experiencing contradictory cognitions, beliefs, or behaviors induces uncomfortable psychological tension (dissonance) that strongly motivates individuals to alter attitudes or rationalize actions.
Q2033
Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyPersonality Psychology (Locus of Control)
The concept of Locus of Control was introduced by:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Julian Rotter)
Julian B. Rotter introduced the personality construct of 'Locus of Control' (1954) within his Social Learning Theory, distinguishing between an Internal Locus (belief that outcomes result from one's own efforts) and an External Locus (belief that outcomes are determined by external chance/fate).
In the humanistic tradition, which was a common central factor of interest for Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Self-actualization)
Both Abraham Maslow and Carl Rogers shared the core conviction that the primary motivating human drive is Self-Actualization—the innate tendency of every human being to develop, actualize, and realize their full unique human potential.
The perspective in social psychology which focuses on how we pay attention to, process, and interpret social situations is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Social cognitive perspective)
The Social Cognitive Perspective focuses on the mental processes—such as social schemas, heuristics, causal attributions, attention, and memory—involved in perceiving, interpreting, storing, and responding to social information.
The social psychological concept which implies that working in the presence of others improves task performance is called:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Social facilitation)
Social Facilitation (first observed by Norman Triplett in 1898 and expanded by Robert Zajonc) refers to the tendency for the mere presence of co-actors or passive observers to enhance and improve performance on simple, routine, or well-learned tasks.
Which of the following is a core component of Alan Baddeley's Working Memory Model?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Phonological loop)
Alan Baddeley and Graham Hitch's Working Memory Model (1974/2000) comprises four central components: 1. The Central Executive, 2. The Phonological Loop (verbal/auditory rehearsal), 3. The Visuospatial Sketchpad, and 4. The Episodic Buffer.
The cognitive mental shortcut used to assess the probability or frequency of an event based on the ease with which instances of that event come to mind is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Availability heuristic)
The Availability Heuristic (identified by Amos Tversky and Daniel Kahneman in 1973) is a cognitive heuristic where people evaluate the likelihood, frequency, or probability of an event based on how readily and easily examples or vivid memories come to mind.
Arrange the following starting from the oldest to the most recent trait theories of personality in order of the time they were developed: 1. HEXACO Model 2. Eysenck's PEN model 3. Five Factor Model (Big Five) 4. Cattell's 16PF Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (4, 2, 3, 1)
Chronological timeline of personality trait models: 4. Raymond Cattell's 16 Personality Factors (16PF, 1949) −> 2. Hans Eysenck's PEN Model (1952/1975) −> 3. Costa and McCrae's Five-Factor Model / Big Five (1985–1992) −> 1. Ashton and Lee's HEXACO Model (2000/2004). Correct chronological sequence: 4, 2, 3, 1 (Choice C).
Q2040
Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyTheories of Motivation (Henry Murray)
Which psychologist proposed the theory of psychogenic needs?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Henry Murray)
Henry Alexander Murray developed the Theory of Psychogenic Needs (1938), identifying 27 fundamental psychological needs (e.g. Need for Achievement, Affiliation, Power, Autonomy) and co-creating the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) to assess them.
Arrange the different stages of Erikson's psychosocial development starting from what comes first to what comes last: 1. Generativity vs. Stagnation 2. Initiative vs. Guilt 3. Industry vs. Inferiority 4. Identity vs. Role Confusion Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (2, 3, 4, 1)
Erik Erikson's 8 Psychosocial Stages: Stage 3: Initiative vs. Guilt (Early childhood, 2) −> Stage 4: Industry vs. Inferiority (School age, 3) −> Stage 5: Identity vs. Role Confusion (Adolescence, 4) −> Stage 7: Generativity vs. Stagnation (Middle adulthood, 1). Correct developmental sequence: 2, 3, 4, 1 (Choice D).
How are self-efficacy beliefs related to health behaviours? 1. It provides a stable sense of personal competence to manage stressful situations 2. People believe they can maintain the routine of physical exercise 3. Inform others to remind them from time to time to comply with medications 4. Put in constant efforts to engage in preventive health behaviours Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2 and 4)
Albert Bandura's Self-Efficacy Theory in health psychology demonstrates that high perceived self-efficacy fosters: personal resilience in coping with stressors (1), confidence in sustaining lifestyle/exercise regimens (2), and sustained motivation in preventive health practices (4). Correct: 1, 2 and 4 (Choice D).
Q2043
Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyKohlberg's Stages of Moral Reasoning
The core idea explored through Lawrence Kohlberg's theory of moral development is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Moral reasoning)
Lawrence Kohlberg's cognitive-developmental theory of morality focuses specifically on Moral Reasoning—the cognitive thought processes, judgments, and rational justifications individuals use to resolve moral dilemmas across six stages (Pre-conventional, Conventional, Post-conventional).
Q2044
Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyPiaget's Cognitive Development Stages Matching
Match each stage of Piaget's theory of cognitive development with its characteristic developmental goal/milestone: i. Sensory motor stage ii. Preoperational stage iii. Concrete operational stage iv. Formal operational stage
Milestone: 1) Abstract and hypothetical thinking 2) Logical thinking applied to concrete objects 3) Conceptual thinking 4) Object permanence 5) Symbolic thinking and language
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-4, ii-5, iii-2, iv-1)
i -> 4 (Sensorimotor: Object Permanence), ii -> 5 (Preoperational: Symbolic representation and intuitive language), iii -> 2 (Concrete operational: Conservation, reversibility, and Logical thinking on tangible objects), iv -> 1 (Formal operational: Abstract deductive hypothetical reasoning). Correct match: i-4, ii-5, iii-2, iv-1.
According to Carol Dweck's theory, children possessing what type of mindset are more likely to believe that intellectual abilities can be developed through effort, learning, and persistence?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Growth mindset)
Stanford psychologist Carol S. Dweck established that individuals with a 'Growth Mindset' believe that intelligence, skills, and talents can be cultivated and developed through dedication, strategic effort, good mentoring, and persistence (in contrast to a 'Fixed Mindset' which views intelligence as static).
A behaviour therapist working with clients with phobias is more likely to use which classical conditioning technique?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Systematic desensitization)
Systematic Desensitization (developed by psychiatrist Joseph Wolpe based on Mary Cover Jones' counterconditioning and reciprocal inhibition) is the premier evidence-based behavioral therapy for phobias and anxiety disorders, pairing deep progressive muscle relaxation with a graded hierarchy of feared stimuli.
In understanding client-therapist relationship, the idea of 'transference' was first discussed in which approach to psychotherapy?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Psychoanalytic)
The psychological phenomena of Transference (unconscious redirection of feelings and expectations from significant childhood parental figures onto the therapist) and Counter-Transference were first discovered, theorized, and utilized as primary therapeutic tools in Psychoanalytic Psychotherapy by Sigmund Freud.
Q2048
Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismUniformed Services (Bellboy)
The person who transports the guest luggage at the time of check-in & check-out is the:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bellboy)
A Bellboy (Bellhop / Luggage Porter), working under the Uniformed Services section of the Front Office, is responsible for escorting guests and transporting their baggage during check-in, room transfers, and check-out.
The four stages of the hospitality Guest Cycle are: 1. Pre-arrival (Room Inquiries & Reservations), 2. Arrival (Registration & Check-in), 3. Occupancy (Stay & Services), and 4. Departure (Billing & Check-out). Choice A.
Q2050
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsFront Office Cashiering
A person who handles money, post charges & oversees guest account settlement at the front desk is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A cashier)
The Front Office Cashier (Cashier) is responsible for opening guest folios, receiving payments (cash/credit card), posting departmental vouchers, exchanging foreign currency, and executing final account settlements during guest checkout.
A guest's registration record is completed during which of the following stages of the guest cycle?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Arrival)
The guest registration record (Guest Registration Card - GRC) and identity verification are legally completed during the Arrival Stage of the guest cycle at the front desk.
A reservation that assures the guest that the hotel will hold a room until a specific time of the day following the guest's scheduled arrival date is a:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Guaranteed reservation)
A Guaranteed Reservation guarantees that the hotel will hold the reserved room regardless of the guest's arrival time (even past normal check-in hours or overnight), secured by advance payment, credit card pre-authorization, or corporate voucher.
Mr. Sharma made a reservation at the Metro hotel. He arrived at 9pm only to find that the hotel was full. The room held for him was released for sale at 6pm. Which type of reservation did Mr. Sharma make?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Non-guaranteed)
A Non-Guaranteed Reservation is an agreement where the hotel holds the room only until a standard cancellation release time (traditionally 6:00 PM on the arrival date), after which uncalled rooms are released back into general inventory for sale to walk-in guests.
Any changes made to the original booking (dates, room type, or guest count) is called an:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Amendment)
In hotel reservation terminology, any modification to an existing confirmed booking—such as change in arrival/departure dates, number of rooms, room category, or guest details—is officially designated as an Amendment (Reservation Amendment).
Q2055
Guest Cycle, Reservations & TelecommunicationsModes of Reservation vs Walk-in
Which of the following is NOT a mode of reservation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Walk-in)
A 'Walk-in' is a category of guest who arrives at the hotel seeking accommodation without any advance reservation. Telephone, Central Reservation Computer systems (CRS/GDS), and Email are modes/channels of making reservations.
The date agreed upon between a group and a hotel after which all unreserved rooms in the group's block will be released back to the general rooms inventory for sale is the:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Cut-off date)
The Cut-Off Date is the contractual deadline agreed between a hotel and a group/conference organizer by which individual group members must confirm reservations, after which unreserved blocked rooms are automatically released for public sale.
Handling guests queries & complaints are part of which guest cycle stage?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Stay)
During the Stay / Occupancy Stage of the guest cycle, front desk and guest relations associates actively manage guest queries, telephone requests, room service coordination, and resolve operational complaints.
The registration of a Scanty Baggage guest requires authorization from the:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Duty manager)
Guests arriving with 'Scanty Baggage' (little or no luggage) present a higher financial risk of skipping without payment; hence, their registration requires mandatory approval and advance room charge collection authorized by the Duty Manager / Lobby Manager.
Which among the following is a primary function of the arrival stage?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Registration of guest)
The primary operational functions of the Arrival Stage include welcoming the guest, verifying booking records, obtaining the completed Guest Registration Card (GRC), assigning the room, and issuing room keys.
A guest who made a room reservation but did not register or cancel is called a:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (No-show guest)
A No-Show Guest is a client who holds a confirmed room reservation but fails to arrive at the hotel on the scheduled date without informing the hotel or cancelling the reservation in advance.
Departure of guest, who has settled his/her bill is called:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Check-out)
Check-Out is the final departure procedure where the guest vacates the room, surrenders room keys, reviews the master folio, settles outstanding billing accounts in full, and departs the hotel.
Q2062
Guest Cycle, Reservations & TelecommunicationsGlobal Distribution Systems (GDS)
A worldwide computerized reservation network, which is used as a single point of access for reserving hotel rooms, airline seats, rental cars & other items by travel agents, online reservation sites & large corporations is a:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (GDS)
A Global Distribution System (GDS)—such as Amadeus, Sabre, Galileo, and Worldspan—is a worldwide automated network consolidating real-time inventory from airlines, hotel chains, car rentals, and tour operators for global travel agents.
The facility of awakening guests at the time requested by them is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Wake up call facility)
The Wake-Up Call Facility (Morning Call) is a standard telephone and front office service where the switchboard operator or automated PBX system calls the guest's room at their requested time in the morning.
Q2064
Guest Cycle, Reservations & TelecommunicationsCentral Reservation Systems (CRS)
A computer based reservation system, which enables guests to make reservations in any of the participating lodging properties at any destination in a single call is a:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (CRS)
A Central Reservation System (CRS) is a centralized electronic network operated by a hotel chain that maintains real-time room availability across all member properties, enabling guests and agents to book rooms across destinations via a single toll-free number or website.
A hotel's telephone switchboard equipment is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Private branch exchange)
The internal private telephone switching system utilized within a hotel to connect internal room extensions with external public telephone lines is a Private Branch Exchange (PBX / PABX - Private Automatic Branch Exchange).
Q2066
Guest Cycle, Reservations & TelecommunicationsMethods of Guaranteeing Reservations
Guaranteed reservation can be obtained through which of the following ways?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
A reservation is guaranteed when secured through: 1. Full Advance Prepayment / Deposit, 2. Corporate billing contract / allotment agreement, 3. Credit card pre-authorization, or 4. Travel agency voucher ⟹ All of the above. Choice D.
Arrange the following front office check-in steps in chronological order: 1) Room & rate assignment 2) Formation of registration records (GRC) 3) Mode & settlement of bills 4) Completion of check-in procedure & key issuance Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1, 2, 3, 4)
Standard check-in procedure: 1. Room selection and rate confirmation −> 2. Completing and signing the Guest Registration Card −> 3. Establishing the credit card/billing settlement method −> 4. Issuing room keys and welcoming the guest (1, 2, 3, 4). Choice A.
It is an agency that deals with many products such as hotel reservations, car rental, travel arrangements, tour operation, airline reservations, railway bookings:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Intersell agency)
An Intersell Agency (or full-service Travel Management Company / Multi-product Agency) is an organization that handles comprehensive travel reservations across multiple hospitality and transport sectors including hotels, airlines, railways, and car rentals. Choice A.
Arrange the following room change steps in chronological order: 1) Inform the guest about the room change in advance 2) Give room keys to a bellboy to shift the luggage of the guest and hand over new room keys to guest and deposit the previous room's keys. 3) Request for the change of room is accepted 4) Make guest room change slip & send to concerned sections of the hotel Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3, 1, 4, 2)
Standard Room Change Procedure: 3. Room change request is evaluated and accepted −> 1. Inform the guest about the new room details −> 4. Prepare Room Change Notification Slip and update front desk/housekeeping/room service −> 2. Bellboy transfers luggage, issues new keys, and returns old keys to reception (3, 1, 4, 2). Choice B.
Which among these is generally NOT an accepted mode of settlement of bill for a walk-in / direct Free Independent Traveler (FIT) guest without prior corporate credit approval?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cheque)
Hotels generally do NOT accept personal Cheques from individual FIT guests at checkout due to the high risk of dishonor/bouncing without prior bank credit clearance. (Cash, approved credit cards, and verified TAVs are accepted).
A list prepared for a tour group containing the names of all group members and their corresponding assigned room numbers is a:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rooming list)
A Rooming List is a master document provided by a tour operator/group leader containing the full roster of group travelers with pre-assigned room categories and room numbers for seamless group check-in.
The slip on which telephone or visitor messages for a resident guest are taken and delivered to the guest is a:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Message slip)
A Message Slip (printed standardized duplicate form or electronic message alert) is used by telephone operators and receptionists to record incoming telephone or personal messages for an absent resident guest.
Q2073
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsPayment Systems (Debit Card)
A card that allows customers to access their bank funds immediately and electronically for payment is a:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Debit card)
A Debit Card directly deducts money electronically from the cardholder's linked bank checking/savings account in real time at the point of sale (unlike a credit card which borrows funds up to a credit limit).
Q2074
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsFront Office Vouchers
A written statement or a documentary evidence of a financial transaction used in front office accounting is a:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Voucher)
A Voucher is a written or digital source document that provides verifiable documentary evidence that a financial charge, transaction, paid-out, or adjustment took place (e.g. restaurant bill voucher, laundry voucher).
It refers to the cash payments made by a hotel front desk on behalf of resident guests for outside services (such as taxi fares, postage, or medicine delivery):
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Visitor's paid out)
A Visitor's Paid Out (VPO / Paid-Out) occurs when the front desk cashier pays cash out of the cashier's float on behalf of a guest for emergency cash needs or external merchant services, debiting the amount to the guest's folio.
Q2076
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsGuest Ledger Balance Formula
Choose the correct formula for calculating the net outstanding balance on a guest folio account:
In hospitality accounting: Net Outstanding Balance=Previous/Opening Balance+Debit Entries (New Charges)−Credit Entries (Payments/Allowances). Choice D.
An airline issues a _______ to its flight crew to be accommodated in a contracted hotel:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Meal & accommodation order)
A Meal and Accommodation Order (MAO) is an official voucher issued by an airline authorizing contracted hotels to provide standard lodging and meal services to flight cockpit and cabin crews at agreed corporate rates.
Q2078
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsMiscellaneous Charge Voucher
A voucher for non-room ancillary charges, such as laundry, health club, fitness centre, beauty salon is a:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Miscellaneous voucher)
A Miscellaneous Charge Voucher (MCV / Miscellaneous Voucher) is used to record and post miscellaneous ancillary department charges (laundry, spa, fitness center, salon, banquet extras) to a guest folio.
The procedure for vacating the hotel room, settling bills and leaving the hotel is:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Check-out)
Check-Out is the comprehensive departure process comprising room key return, master folio review, final settlement of all debits, and vacating the room.
It refers to the maximum upper limit of credit extended by a hotel to an individual guest:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (House limit)
The House Limit (Credit Limit) is the maximum monetary debt ceiling set by hotel management up to which a resident guest may charge goods and services to their room folio without making an interim settlement.
Q2081
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsLedger Accounting in Hotels
A collection of the same type of accounts in front office accounting is called a:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ledger)
A Ledger is a financial master book or database containing a collection of accounts of the same type; in hotel front office accounting, the two primary ledgers are the Guest Ledger (in-house resident guests) and the City Ledger (non-resident and corporate accounts).
Q2082
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsTypes of Front Office Folios
Which among these is NOT a recognized standard type of folio in front office accounting?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Room folio)
Standard front office folios include: Guest Folio (individual accounts), Master Folio (group/corporate shared bills), Non-Guest / Semi-permanent Folio (city ledger club members), and Employee Folio. 'Room folio' is not a separate formal category (it is part of the guest folio).
Q2083
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsGuest Folio Statement
It is a detailed statement of all financial transactions (debits and credits) that take place between a hotel and a resident guest during their stay:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Guest folio)
A Guest Folio (Guest Bill) is the formal statement of account that continuously records all financial transactions, room tariffs, taxes, restaurant charges, and payments between an individual registered guest and the hotel.
Q2084
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsEmployee Folio Accounting
A folio that contains the credit transactions between a hotel and its internal staff/employees is an:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Employee folio)
An Employee Folio is a designated internal account used to track authorized credit purchases, uniform charges, staff dining debits, and salary deductions of hotel employees.
Q2085
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsGuest Billing Status (PIA)
Guests who pay cash for accommodation at registration and are typically not extended in-house charge privileges at restaurants and bars are called:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Paid-in advance guest (PIA))
A Paid-In-Advance (PIA) guest is a guest who pays cash upfront upon arrival and does not provide a valid credit card pre-authorization; their folio is flagged to prevent charging room service or dining to the room account.
Q2086
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsFront Office Posting Process
The process of recording financial transactions (debits or credits) on a guest folio is called:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Posting)
Posting is the fundamental accounting process of entering, updating, and recording financial transaction charges (room rent, restaurant bills, laundry) and payments directly onto an active guest folio.
Q2087
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsCash Float / Cash Bank
An amount of cash assigned to a cashier so that he or she can handle change and small currency transactions during a particular work shift is the:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Cash bank)
A Cash Bank (or Cash Float / Bank) is a specific, predetermined amount of working cash currency assigned to a front desk cashier at the start of each work shift to provide change to guests.
A _______ occurs when a cashier pays out more cash than he/she receives, such that there is not enough cash in the drawer to restore the initial float bank:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Due back)
A 'Due Back' occurs when a cashier pays out more cash (via guest paid-outs, cash advances, or large change returns on foreign currency) than received in cash payments, requiring the hotel accounting vault to refund cash back to replenish the cashier's float.
Q2089
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsCash Shortages and Overages
A _______ occurs when the physical cash counted in the cash drawer at the end of a shift is less than the net cash receipts indicated on the shift summary report:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Shortages)
A Cash Shortage occurs when the actual physical currency in the cash register is less than the net balance calculated from transaction receipts (if physical cash exceeds receipts, it is an Overage).
Q2090
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsMethods of Settlement in Hotels
Which of the following is a method of payment generally used in a hotel front office?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of these)
Hotel front office operations accept multiple approved settlement methods: Legal tender currency (Cash), Electronic credit/debit cards, Direct corporate billing (Bill to Company / BTC), and Travelers Cheques ⟹ All of these. Choice D.
Q2091
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsZeroing Out Folios
To settle in full the balance of a folio account to zero as the guest checks out is called to:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Zero out)
To 'Zero Out' an account means to bring the net outstanding balance of a guest folio exactly to zero (0.00) at checkout through final payment collection or credit transfer before closing the account.
City ledger accounts that remain unpaid and overdue for more than 90 days are considered as:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Delinquent account)
In account aging analysis, corporate or credit card receivables that exceed standard credit terms and remain unpaid beyond 90 days past due are officially categorized as Delinquent Accounts, requiring collection measures.
A computerized system, usually located in the hotel lobby, that allows the guest to review his or her folio and settle the account through the credit card used at check-in is an:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Self check-out terminal)
A Self Check-Out Terminal (Automated Lobby Kiosk) allows departing guests to independently review their itemized electronic folio, make digital payments, settle accounts, and print receipts without waiting in reception queues.
Which of the following statement/statements DOES NOT involve in front office internal control procedure?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (None of the above (All are internal control procedures))
Internal accounting control in front office operations fundamentally encompasses all listed procedures: tracking all source vouchers, verifying billing entries against receipts, cross-checking cashier balances, and identifying system vulnerabilities ⟹ All are involved. Option D.
Q2095
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsTransfer Vouchers
A voucher that supports the reduction in balance on the originating folio and an equivalent increase in balance on the destination folio is a:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Transfer voucher)
A Transfer Voucher is an accounting source document that authorizes and validates the transfer of an outstanding charge or balance from one guest folio (originating folio) to another folio or city ledger account (destination folio).
Consider the following statements regarding the functions of the Night Audit: 1) Balancing of front office accounts 2) Monitoring guest credit limits (house limit) 3) Producing operational and managerial reports 4) To make hotel reservations Which of the following statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2 & 3)
The primary responsibilities of the Night Auditor include: balancing all departmental financial accounts (1), monitoring credit ceilings and high balances against house limits (2), and generating the Daily Operations Report for executive management (3). (Making reservations is a reservations department function). Correct: 1, 2 & 3 (Choice B).
A type of accounting error which occurs when numbers related to a transaction are reversed (for example, entering 54 instead of 45) is called a:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Transposition error)
A Transposition Error is an accounting entry mistake that occurs when two adjacent digits in a number are accidentally reversed or swapped (e.g., writing ₹54.00 as ₹45.00), identifiable because the discrepancy is always evenly divisible by 9.
Q2098
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsAllowances vs Corrections
After the first night of his 3-night stay, Mr. Gupta complained about the noise from the lounge below his room. The front desk agent assigned Mr. Gupta another room for rest of his stay and decreased his folio by INR 1500/- as compensation for the inconvenience. This type of transaction is called an:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (account allowance)
An Account Allowance (Allowance Voucher) is a financial credit adjustment that reduces a guest's outstanding folio balance to compensate for poor service, inconvenience, or management goodwill (Account Correction fixes an erroneous posting made on the current day).
Q2099
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsLate Charges in Front Office
A transaction requiring posting to a guest account that does not reach the front desk for posting until after the guest has checked out and closed his or her account is a:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Late charge)
A Late Charge is an ancillary departmental charge (e.g. breakfast taken right before checkout or minibar consumption) that arrives at the front desk after the guest has already settled their bill and checked out, charged to the city ledger for recovery.
The deletion of unnecessary or unsold group rooms from a group room block reservation is called:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Washing)
Room Block Washing (or applying a Wash Factor) is the practice by reservations managers of reducing or trimming down an artificially inflated group room block to realistic expected pickup numbers based on historical group trends.
Q2101
Guest Cycle, Reservations & TelecommunicationsModern Front Office Technology Trends
Which among these is NOT an emerging modern digital trend in rooms division?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Whitney system)
Modern emerging trends in rooms division include Smart Mobile Digital Keys (RFID/Bluetooth), AI-driven Hotel Chatbots, and Digital Concierge Apps. The 'Whitney System' is an obsolete manual paper-and-rack reservation system invented in the 1940s.
Q2102
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsForeign Exchange Regulations in Hotels
Which of the following statements regarding foreign currency exchange in Indian hotels are correct? 1. Foreign currency exchange can be only extended to resident guests of the hotel 2. Foreign exchange encashment certificate may or may not be made, depending on the guest. 3. Exchange is done only in local currency (INR) 4. The hotel must have the license (RBI Full-Fledged Money Changer / Authorized Dealer) to exchange foreign currency. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 3, 4)
Under RBI foreign exchange regulations for hotels: Foreign currency exchange is restricted to resident in-house guests (1), currency must be disbursed in local Indian Rupees (3), and the hotel must hold a valid RBI FFMC license (4). (Encashment certificates are mandatory, not optional). Correct: 1, 3, 4 (Choice B).
Q2103
Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismPackage Bundling in Hospitality
A package offered by the hotel of a combination of one or more hotel products or services (e.g. room, spa, candlelight dinner, airport pickup) sold for a single consolidated price is called:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bundling)
Package Bundling (or Price Bundling) is the marketing practice of combining multiple complementary hospitality products and services (room accommodation, champagne, meals, sightseeing) into an all-inclusive package sold at an attractive bundled price.
Q2104
General English & ComprehensionDeterminers & Pronouns
We bought some eggs from the market but unfortunately ....................of them were fresh.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (None)
When referring to 'not any' of a plural group of objects (eggs), the indefinite pronoun 'none' ('none of them') is grammatically correct.
Q2105
General English & ComprehensionPunctuation Marks
Which punctuation mark is used to show possession?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Apostrophe ('))
The Apostrophe (') is the standard English punctuation mark combined with 's' (or placed after plural s) to indicate possessive relationships and ownership (e.g. 'the doctor's coat').
Q2106
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTAgriculture (Shifting Cultivation)
Consider the following statements regarding shifting cultivation: 1. It is also known as "slash and burn" agriculture. 2. In India, it is mainly practiced in Northeast region. 3. In Northeast India it is known as Jhum cultivation. 4. This type of agriculture is not done anywhere else in the world except India. Choose correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1,2 and 3 only)
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct: Shifting cultivation involves slashing vegetation and burning it (1), is predominantly practiced across the hilly Northeastern states of India (2), where it is locally termed 'Jhum' (3). Statement 4 is false because shifting cultivation is widely practiced across tropical regions globally (e.g. Milpa in Central America, Ladang in Indonesia, Roca in Brazil). Correct: 1, 2 and 3 only.
Q2107
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTRivers of India (Godavari)
Name the Indian river known as the "Dakshin Ganga":
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Godavari)
The Godavari River—the longest river system in Peninsular India (1,465 km)—is popularly known as 'Dakshin Ganga' (or Vridha Ganga) owing to its immense length, basin extent, and religious sanctity.
Q2108
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTIndian Polity (Fundamental Duties)
The Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen under Article 51A include: 1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem 2. To develop the scientific temper 3. Respect for the Government 4. To protect Wildlife Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2 and 4)
Under Article 51A of the Constitution of India, Fundamental Duties include respecting the Constitution, Flag and Anthem [51A(a)], protecting forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife [51A(g)], and developing scientific temper and humanism [51A(h)]. 'Respect for the Government' is NOT a fundamental duty. Correct: 1, 2 and 4 (Choice B).
Q2109
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTModern Indian History Matching
Match the following historical events with their years: Events: i. Civil Disobedience Movement ii. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre iii. Quit India Movement iv. Simon Commission Arrival in India
Years: 1. 1919 2. 1942 3. 1930 4. 1928
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4)
i -> 3 (Civil Disobedience Movement: launched with Dandi March in 1930), ii -> 1 (Jallianwala Bagh Massacre: 13 April 1919 in Amritsar), iii -> 2 (Quit India Movement: August 1942), iv -> 4 (Simon Commission arrived in Bombay: February 1928). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4 (Choice B).
Q2110
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTAncient History (Indus Valley Civilization)
Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements: I. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present did not dominate the scene. II. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both I and II)
Both statements are historically accurate: Archaeological evidence shows that the Harappan civilization lacked large monumental temples or theocratic rule, maintaining a predominantly secular civic character (I), and Harappans were the earliest people in the world to cultivate cotton and weave textiles, known to Greeks as Sindon (II). Correct: Both I and II.
Q2111
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTInternational Organizations (SAARC)
Which of the following countries is NOT a founding member of SAARC?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Myanmar)
The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established in Dhaka on 8 December 1985 by seven founding members: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. Myanmar is an ASEAN member and is NOT a member of SAARC.
Q2112
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTSocio-Economic Development Schemes Matching
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the codes given below: List - I: 1) Poverty Reduction Programme 2) Human Development Scheme 3) Social Assistance Scheme 4) Minimum Need Scheme
List - II: i) Mid-day Meals ii) Indira Awas Yojana (IAY) iii) National Old Age Pension (NOAP) iv) MNREGA
Codes (1, 2, 3, 4):
💡Correct Answer: Option A ((iv) (i) (iii) (ii))
1 -> iv (Poverty Reduction: Mahatma Gandhi NREGA wage employment), 2 -> i (Human Development: Mid-day Meal scheme for child nutrition and education), 3 -> iii (Social Assistance: National Old Age Pension Scheme under NSAP), 4 -> ii (Minimum Needs Programme: Indira Awas Yojana for rural housing). Correct code: 1-iv, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-ii (Choice A).
Q2113
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTAwards & Honors (Kalinga Prize)
In which field is the prestigious Kalinga Award given by UNESCO?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Science)
The UNESCO Kalinga Prize for the Popularization of Science is an international award created in 1952 (founded by Biju Patnaik of Odisha) honoring exceptional contributions to interpreting science, technology, and research to the public.
Q2114
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTCurrent Affairs Appointments
Who has been appointed as the Chairman of Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Siddhartha Mohanty)
Siddhartha Mohanty was appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) as the Chairperson and Managing Director of the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC).
Q2115
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTIndian Polity (Preamble)
Which of the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution is/are correct? I) The Preamble is considered part of the Constitution but is not legally enforceable. II) The word "Socialist" and "Secular" were added to the Preamble by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978. III) The Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution. Choose the correct statements:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I and III only)
Statements I and III are correct: The Preamble is non-justiciable/not enforceable in a court of law (I), and the Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) ruled that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution (III). Statement II is false because 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' were added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 (not the 44th). Correct: I and III only.
Q2116
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTMedia Taglines Matching
Match the following newspapers with their slogans or taglines: Newspaper: i) The Times of India ii) Hindustan Times iii) The Indian Express iv) State Times Newspaper
Slogan/Tagline: 1) "The Bold Voice of Jammu & Kashmir" 2) "Journalism of Courage" 3) "First Voice. Last Word" 4) "Let Truth Prevail"
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1)
i -> 4 (The Times of India: 'Let Truth Prevail'), ii -> 3 (Hindustan Times: 'First Voice. Last Word'), iii -> 2 (The Indian Express: 'Journalism of Courage'), iv -> 1 (State Times: 'The Bold Voice of Jammu & Kashmir'). Correct match: i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1 (Choice D).
Q2117
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTIndian Political System
Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct? (i) The president is both Head of the State and Head of the Government. (ii) Parliament is Supreme. (iii) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution. (iv) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justifiable. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
💡Correct Answer: Option D ((iii) only)
In India's parliamentary constitutional framework: (i) is false (President is Head of State, while Prime Minister is Head of Government); (ii) is false (The Constitution is supreme, not Parliament); (iii) is TRUE (The Supreme Court is the custodian, interpreter, and guardian of the Constitution via judicial review); (iv) is false (DPSP under Article 37 are non-justiciable). Correct: (iii) only.
Q2118
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTIndian Languages & States Matching
Match the following Indian languages with their respective states where they are predominantly spoken: Language: i) Konkani ii) Dogri iii) Khasi iv) Maithili
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3)
i -> 4 (Konkani is the official language of Goa), ii -> 1 (Dogri is predominantly spoken in the Jammu region of J&K), iii -> 2 (Khasi is spoken in Meghalaya), iv -> 3 (Maithili is spoken in Bihar). Correct match: i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3 (Choice B).
Q2119
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTConstitutional Bodies (Attorney General)
Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT correct about the Attorney General of India? I. The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney General of India. II. He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the country. III. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. IV. He has a fixed tenure. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I and IV)
Under Article 76: Statement I is NOT correct (must be qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court, not High Court). Statement IV is NOT correct (holds office during the pleasure of the President, with no fixed tenure specified in the Constitution). Statements II and III are correct [Articles 76(3) and 88]. Correct answer for NOT correct: I and IV (Choice A).
Q2120
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTSpace Science Current Affairs 2024
In 2024, which spacecraft successfully retrieved the world's first lunar samples from the far side of the Moon?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Chang'e-6)
China's Chang'e-6 robotic lunar probe successfully landed on the Moon's South Pole-Aitken basin on the lunar far side and safely returned approximately 1,935 grams of historic soil and rock samples back to Earth on 25 June 2024.
Q2121
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Governance & Legislation (RTI Act)
In which year did the Right to Information (RTI) Act come into force in Jammu & Kashmir (under the State Act)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2009)
The Jammu and Kashmir Right to Information Act was enacted and came into full force in the former state in 2009 (J&K RTI Act, 2009). Following the J&K Reorganisation Act 2019, the Central RTI Act, 2005 replaced it on 31 October 2019.
Q2122
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Constitutional History (Article 370)
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Jammu & Kashmir was granted special status under Article 370 of the Indian Constitution. Reason (R): Article 370 allowed J&K to have its own constitution and autonomy over all matters except defense, foreign affairs, finance, and communications. Which statement is are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.)
Both Assertion and Reason are historically and constitutionally accurate: Article 370 conferred a unique constitutional asymmetric status upon J&K (A), specifically restricting Parliament's legislative powers to defense, external affairs, communications, and ancillary financial matters while permitting a separate state Constitution (R). Choice A.
Q2123
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Culture & Language (Dogri Script)
Who probably invented the ancient Dogri script (Namec / Dogra Akkhar)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Shakti Karan)
According to regional Dogra historical chronicles and linguistic tradition, Raja Shakti Karan of Jammu (who ruled in the 8th century CE) is traditionally credited with introducing and systematizing the original Dogri Takri script (Dogra Akkhar).
Q2124
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTGeography of J&K (Jammu Climate)
Consider following statements about the climate of Jammu: Statement I: Kashmir valley influences climate of Northern Jammu. Statement II: Southern plains of Jammu experience temperate climate. Which of the given statement is /are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only I)
Statement I is correct: The high Pir Panjal ranges and Kashmir valley macroclimate directly influence the cold sub-Himalayan climate of Northern Jammu (Doda, Kishtwar, Bhaderwah, Ramban). Statement II is false because the southern plains of Jammu (Jammu, Kathua, Samba) experience a tropical monsoonal to sub-tropical climate with very hot summers (not temperate). Correct: Only I.
Q2125
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Political History Matching
Match the following historical institutions of Jammu and Kashmir: List-I: i) Established first legislature in Jammu and Kashmir ii) First speaker of Jammu and Kashmir legislative assembly iii) First chairman of Jammu and Kashmir Legislative council
i -> 2 (Maharaja Hari Singh established the first legislative body, the Praja Sabha, in 1934), ii -> 1 (Ghulam Rasool Renzoo served as the first Speaker of the J&K Legislative Assembly in 1957), iii -> 3 (Shiv Narayan Fotedar was the first Chairman of the J&K Legislative Council). Correct match: i-2, ii-1, iii-3 (Choice B).
Q2126
Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning & Basic MathematicsCounting of Figures (Triangles)
Find the number of triangles in the given figure (a large triangle with 1 vertical line from the apex to the base and 2 horizontal dividing lines creating 3 levels):
💡Correct Answer: Option B (18)
For a triangle divided by 1 vertical median line into 2 base segments (1+2=3 triangles per tier) across 3 horizontal horizontal levels (base plus 2 horizontal cross lines), the total number of triangles is: N=(1+2)×3=3×3=9? Looking at standard triangular grid with apex dividers: If base has 3 sections (1+2+3=6), 6×3=18 triangles. Choice B (18 triangles).
The function of kinetodesmata in ciliate protozoans (such as Paramecium) is to:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Coordinate ciliary movement)
In ciliates like Paramecium, kinetodesmata are longitudinal bundles of subpellicular striated fibrils that link the kinetosomes (basal bodies) of cilia together into coordinated infraciliature, responsible for coordinating the metachronal waves of ciliary beating.
Match List - I (Porifera Class) with List - II (Characteristic Features) and select the correct answer: List - I (Class of Porifera): 1. Calcarea 2. Hexactinellida 3. Demospongiae 4. Sclerosponge
List - II (Characteristic Feature): i. Siliceous spicules, deep-sea forms (Glass sponges) ii. Spongin fibers, commercial sponges iii. Calcium carbonate spicules iv. Both siliceous spicules & spongin fibers with massive calcareous skeleton
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv)
1 -> iii (Calcarea: calcareous spicules of calcium carbonate), 2 -> i (Hexactinellida: six-rayed triaxon siliceous glass spicules), 3 -> ii (Demospongiae: spongin fibers or leuconoid structure, bath sponges), 4 -> iv (Sclerospongiae: coralline sponges with siliceous spicules and spongin over massive aragonite/calcite base). Correct match: 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv (Choice A).
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Cnidarians have a gastrovascular cavity that serves both digestive and circulatory functions. Reason (R): Cnidarians lack a separate circulatory system and depend on diffusion for nutrient transport. Choose the Correct Statements:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.)
Both statements are true and causally linked: The central blind coelenteron cavity of cnidarians (Hydra, jellyfish) functions as both a digestive stomach and a circulatory fluid-distribution system (coelenteron / gastrovascular cavity) precisely because they are diploblastic organisms lacking specialized circulatory and excretory organ systems. Choice A.
The definitive (final) host for Taenia solium (Pork tapeworm) is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Human)
The definitive host (where sexual reproduction occurs and adult tapeworms reside in the small intestine) for Taenia solium is Human (man); the intermediate host carrying the larval bladder worms (Cysticercus cellulosae) is the Pig.
The flame cells (protonephridia) present in Platyhelminthes are specialized for:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Osmoregulation and excretion)
Flame cells (solenocytes / protonephridia) in flatworms (Planaria, liver fluke, tapeworms) are hollow excretory cells with tufts of flickering cilia specialized primarily for Osmoregulation (fluid-water balance) and removal of metabolic nitrogenous wastes.
Consider the given two statements: Statement - I: Sponges have a cellular level of organization, with water entering the body through ostia and exiting through the osculum. Statement - II: Sponges exhibit extracellular digestion. Choose the Correct Statements:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect)
Statement I is correct: Sponges (phylum Porifera) possess a primitive cellular level of organization with a canal system where water enters through minute pores (ostia) into the spongocoel and exits via the terminal osculum. Statement II is incorrect because sponges lack a digestive tract and exhibit strictly Intracellular Digestion within choanocytes and amoebocytes. Correct: Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect (Choice C).
Q2133
Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyAnimal Body Plans (Acoelomate)
A cross-section diagram of an animal body shows: solid mesodermal parenchyma filling the entire region between the gut and body wall without any cavity. This animal: I: lacks a coelom II: is triploblastic III: is expected to have bilateral symmetry IV: is expected to be dorso-ventrally flattened Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II, III and IV are correct)
The diagram represents an Acoelomate triploblastic bilateral body plan characteristic of flatworms (phylum Platyhelminthes): They completely lack a coelom (I), have three germ layers ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm (II), possess bilateral symmetry (III), and have dorsoventrally flattened bodies (IV). Correct: I, II, III and IV are correct (Choice D).
Match List - I (Protozoan Group) with List - II (Example) and choose the correct answer: List - I (Group): 1. Amoeboid protozoans 2. Ciliates 3. Flagellates 4. Sporozoans 5. Dinoflagellates 6. Slime molds
List - II (Example): i. Amoeba proteus ii. Paramecium caudatum iii. Euglena viridis iv. Plasmodium falciparum v. Gonyaulax vi. Physarum polycephalum
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv, 5-v, 6-vi)
1 -> i (Amoeboid: Amoeba proteus), 2 -> ii (Ciliates: Paramecium caudatum), 3 -> iii (Flagellates: Euglena viridis), 4 -> iv (Sporozoans: Plasmodium falciparum), 5 -> v (Dinoflagellates: Gonyaulax), 6 -> vi (Slime molds: Physarum polycephalum). Correct match: 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv, 5-v, 6-vi (Choice A).
Name the cells specialized for excretion and osmoregulation in Ascaris (roundworm):
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Renette Cells)
In Ascaris lumbricoides and other nematodes, the excretory system consists of an H-shaped system of longitudinal canals derived from specialized intracellular giant glandular cells called Renette Cells.
The members of Kingdom Monera and Kingdom Protista in Whittaker's five kingdom classification resemble each other in:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Body organization)
Under Whittaker's Five Kingdom classification, both Kingdom Monera (bacteria) and Kingdom Protista (protozoans, unicellular algae) share a strictly Unicellular microscopic Body Organization (though they differ in cell type: Monera is prokaryotic without a nuclear membrane, while Protista is eukaryotic with a defined nucleus).
Consider the given two statements: Statement I: Cephalochordates retain their notochord throughout life. Statement II: They exhibit a dorsal tubular nerve cord and pharyngeal slits. Choose the Correct Statements:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct)
Both statements are correct: In Cephalochordata (e.g. Branchiostoma / Amphioxus), the notochord extends persistently from the rostrum of the head to the tail throughout life (Statement I), and they possess all diagnostic chordate features including a hollow dorsal tubular nerve cord, pharyngeal gill slits, and a post-anal tail (Statement II). Correct: Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct (Choice A).
Q2139
Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyEchinoderm Water Vascular System
Match the Echinoderm Features with their Functions in the water vascular system: Feature: i. Tube feet ii. Madreporite iii. Pedicellariae iv. Radial canal
Function: 1. Regulates water entry 2. Locomotion and feeding 3. Defense and cleaning 4. Distributes water
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4)
i -> 2 (Tube feet / podia: hydraulic locomotion, prey capture, and respiration), ii -> 1 (Madreporite: perforated sieve plate regulating seawater entry into stone canal), iii -> 3 (Pedicellariae: microscopic pincer-like jaws for surface debris removal and defense), iv -> 4 (Radial canal: distributes pressurized water down each ambulacral arm). Correct match: i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4 (Choice A).
Which digestive enzyme is found in the resorptive cells of the digestive gland (hepatopancreas) of Pila (apple snail)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Cellulase)
The digestive gland of the herbivorous freshwater apple snail Pila globosa secretes Cellulase (along with amylase and protease) to break down structural plant cellulose into fermentable glucose.
Johnston's organ is a specialized chordotonal organ found in the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Antennae of Mosquitoes)
Johnston's Organ is a specialized sensory mechanoreceptive auditory/vibrational organ located in the pedicel (second antennal segment) of insects, most prominently developed in male Mosquitoes to detect the flight tone frequencies of females.
In a standard five-armed sea star (Asterias), there is exactly one red pigmented, light-sensitive ocellus (eye spot) situated at the distal tip of each of the 5 ambulacral arms (a total of 5 eye spots, recorded as 5 in pentamerous symmetry). Choice D.
In insect anatomy, the lateral flexible pleural membrane that connects the dorsal tergum and ventral sternum is known as the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (pleuron)
Each body segment of an insect exoskeleton is covered by four sclerites: a dorsal tergum, a ventral sternum, and two lateral side plates/membranes termed the Pleuron (or pleural membrane).
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Torsion in gastropods improves their defense mechanism. Reason (R): The repositioning of the mantle cavity allows the head to retract into the shell before the foot. Choose the Correct Statements:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.)
Both statements are true and causally linked: Torsion (180∘ counter-clockwise twisting of the visceral mass in larval gastropods) shifts the mantle cavity anteriorly above the head, allowing the vulnerable head and tentacles to retract inside the protective shell cavity FIRST, followed by the muscular foot and sealed with the operculum. Choice A.
Which of the following is/are true about the endostyle in Urochordates (e.g. Herdmania)? I. It is involved in filter feeding. II. It secretes mucus to trap food particles. III. It is homologous to the thyroid gland in vertebrates. IV. It is present only in the larval stage. Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I, II, and III)
Statements I, II, and III are true: The endostyle on the ventral floor of the pharynx secretes iodinated mucus to trap suspended micro-food particles during ciliary filter feeding (I, II), and biochemical and developmental studies confirm it is evolutionary homologous to the vertebrate Thyroid Gland (III). Statement IV is false because the endostyle is retained and functions actively throughout adult urochordate life. Correct: I, II, and III (Choice B).
The Indian Bullfrog is scientifically classified as Rana tigrina (currently Hoplobatrachus tigerinus), the largest frog native to the Indian subcontinent.
Which of the following is a venomous / poisonous snake?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rattlesnake)
The Rattlesnake (Crotalus) is a venomous pit viper (family Viperidae) possessing hollow solenoglyphous hypodermic fangs delivering hemotoxic and neurotoxic venom. Python, Boa constrictor, and Garter snake are non-venomous constrictors/colubrids.
Feathers of birds are made waterproof due to the oily preening secretion of the:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (uropygial glands)
Birds possess a specialized sebaceous cutaneous gland located dorsally at the base of the tail called the Uropygial Gland (Preen Gland), which secretes a rich fatty, hydrophobic oil spread over the plumage during preening to ensure waterproofing and feather flexibility.
Which one is NOT correct about Metatheria (Marsupials e.g. Kangaroo)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Placenta is well developed)
Statement C is NOT correct: Marsupials (Metatheria) give birth to extremely altricial, embryonic young because they lack a true allantoic placenta (their placenta is rudimentary choriovitelline or non-functional). A well-developed chorioallantoic placenta is the defining hallmark of Eutherian (placental) mammals.
Q2153
Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyPhysiology of Osmoregulation in Fishes
Consider the following statement: Assertion (A): Marine fish maintain osmotic balance by drinking large amounts of seawater. Reason (R): Marine fish excrete excess salt through specialized cells in their gills to prevent dehydration. Which statement is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).)
Both statements are true and causally explain marine osmoregulation: Marine teleost fishes are hypoosmotic to seawater and continuously lose water via osmosis across their gills; to prevent dehydration, they drink large volumes of seawater (Assertion A) and actively pump out excess sodium and chloride ions against the concentration gradient through specialized mitochondria-rich Chloride Cells in their branchial gill epithelium (Reason R). Choice A.
Which of the following statements about parental care in amphibians is/are correct? I. In some amphibians, males guard the eggs and provide protection until they hatch. II. Certain amphibians, like Darwin's frog, carry their tadpoles in the vocal sac after hatching. III. Some amphibians, such as common toads, do not provide any form of parental care, leaving eggs to develop on their own. IV. Male salamanders perform courtship dances to attract females and assist with egg-laying but do not provide any care afterward. Choose The Correct Statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Statements I, II, and III are correct.)
Statements I, II, and III are well-documented facts of amphibian parental care: Male hellbenders and midwife toads protect and carry eggs (I), male Darwin's frog (Rhinoderma darwinii) broods developing tadpoles in its vocal sacs (II), and many anurans simply deposit gelatinous egg clutches in water without further care (III). Correct: Statements I, II, and III are correct (Choice A).
Which of the following is considered an example of adaptive radiation in mammals following the extinction of the dinosaurs?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (II, III, and IV are correct (or All four represent adaptive radiation into diverse niches))
Following the Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction of non-avian dinosaurs, ancestral insectivorous placental mammals underwent explosive Adaptive Radiation: diversifying into arboreal primates (I), terrestrial grazing ungulates (II), fully aquatic cetaceans like whales and dolphins (III), and aerial flying bats (IV). Choice D / C.
Which of the following reptile orders includes both lizards and snakes?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Squamata)
The reptilian order Squamata (scaled reptiles, characterized by movable quadrate bones and horny epidermal scales) encompasses suborder Lacertilia/Sauria (lizards) and suborder Serpentes/Ophidia (snakes).
Which of the following hormones stimulates the secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl) from the parietal cells of the stomach?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Gastrin)
Gastrin (a peptide hormone synthesized and secreted by neuroendocrine G-cells of the gastric antrum and duodenum) directly stimulates the parietal (oxyntic) cells to secrete gastric hydrochloric acid (HCl).
The partial pressure of oxygen (pO2) in human alveolar air is approximately:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (104 mm Hg)
In pulmonary gas exchange physiology, the partial pressure of oxygen in dry atmospheric air is ≈159 mm Hg, in Alveolar Air is 104 mm Hg, in deoxygenated venous blood is 40 mm Hg, and in oxygenated arterial blood is 95 mm Hg. Choice C.
Which option indicates the correct chronology of electrical and physiological changes occurring during the transmission of a nerve impulse across an axon?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Nerve fibre - depolarization - action potential - repolarization - activation of Na+ and K+ pump)
Sequential stages of an axonal action potential: Stimulus threshold causes opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels −> Depolarization (influx of Na+) −> Generation of Action Potential spike −> Opening of K+ channels causing Repolarization −> Activation of electrogenic Na+/K+ ATPase pump to restore resting membrane ion concentrations. Choice A.
A high respiratory quotient (RQ > 1 or approaching infinity) indicates:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Anaerobic respiration)
Respiratory Quotient (RQ=Volume of O2 consumedVolume of CO2 evolved). In Anaerobic Respiration (fermentation), carbon dioxide is produced without consuming any gaseous oxygen (O2=0), yielding an infinite (RQ=0CO2=∞) or extremely high respiratory quotient.
If the loop of Henle were completely absent from an individual's nephrons, which one of the following is to be expected?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The urine will be more dilute)
The hairpin loop of Henle acts as a countercurrent multiplier establishing the hyperosmotic medullary concentration gradient necessary for water reabsorption in the collecting ducts; without it, mammals cannot concentrate urine, producing copious amounts of severely Dilute Hypotonic Urine.
Match the Brain Regions with their Primary Functions across vertebrate organisms: Brain Region: i. Cerebrum ii. Cerebellum iii. Medulla oblongata iv. Hypothalamus
Function: 1. Coordination of voluntary movement and equilibrium 2. Memory, intelligence, consciousness, and voluntary thinking 3. Reflex actions, cardiac rhythm, and respiration control 4. Regulation of body temperature, thirst, and hunger
Choose The Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i->2, ii->1, iii->3, iv->4)
i -> 2 (Cerebrum: conscious intellect, cognitive reasoning, and sensory processing), ii -> 1 (Cerebellum: motor coordination, posture, and muscular equilibrium), iii -> 3 (Medulla oblongata: autonomic centers regulating heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing), iv -> 4 (Hypothalamus: homeostasis, hunger, thirst, thermoregulation, and endocrine neurosecretion). Correct match: i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4 (Choice A).
Match the Photoreceptor Cells and Retinal Structures with their Functions: Photoreceptor: i. Rods ii. Cones iii. Fovea iv. Optic Nerve
Function: 1. Color vision under bright photopic light 2. Black and white scotopic vision in dim light 3. Area with the highest concentration of cones for sharp vision 4. Transmits visual action potentials to the visual cortex
Choose The Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i->2, ii->1, iii->3, iv->4)
i -> 2 (Rods containing rhodopsin: twilight, dim light scotopic vision), ii -> 1 (Cones containing photopsins: daytime bright light color vision), iii -> 3 (Fovea centralis of macula: densely packed cones yielding maximal visual acuity), iv -> 4 (Optic nerve: cranial nerve II carrying retinofugal visual signals to the brain). Correct match: i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4 (Choice C).
Consider the following statement: Assertion (A): Marine fishes excrete nitrogenous waste primarily as ammonia. Reason (R): Marine fishes are hyperosmotic to their environment, leading to high water retention. Which statement is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A is incorrect, but R is correct (or Both are incorrect).)
Both statements are scientifically false: Marine teleost fishes excrete nitrogen primarily as urea or trimethylamine oxide (TMAO) rather than toxic ammonia (to conserve water), and they are hypoosmotic (not hyperosmotic) to seawater, suffering continuous water loss. Choice D.
Consider following statements regarding Cholecystokinin (CCK): I) stimulates release of trypsin II) inhibits release of pepsin / gastric emptying III) stimulates release of lipase Which of the above statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I, II, and III)
All three statements are correct physiological functions of Cholecystokinin (CCK, secreted by duodenal I-cells): It stimulates pancreatic acinar cells to secrete digestive enzymes including Trypsinogen and Pancreatic Lipase (I, III), stimulates gallbladder contraction for bile expulsion, and acts as an enterogastrone that inhibits gastric acid/pepsin secretion and slows gastric emptying (II). Choice A (I, II, and III).
Choose the Correct Statements About Resting Membrane Potential (RMP): I. The resting membrane potential is typically around -70 mV. II. The sodium-potassium pump actively maintains this potential. III. At rest, the membrane is more permeable to Na+ than K+. IV. Resting potential is maintained by passive ion diffusion and active transport. Choose The Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Only I, II, and IV)
Statements I, II, and IV are correct: Neuronal RMP is typically −70 mV (I), the electrogenic Na+/K+ ATPase pump actively expels 3Na+ for every 2K+ pumped in (II), and RMP represents dynamic balance between active pumping and passive leakage (IV). Statement III is false because resting neuronal membranes are 25 to 30 times MORE permeable to K+ than to Na+ through non-gated potassium leak channels. Correct: Only I, II, and IV (Choice C).
Q2167
Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyPhylogeny of Horse Matching
Match the evolutionary ancestors of the modern horse: Column - A: i. Eohippus ii. Mesohippus iii. Merychippus iv. Equus
Column - B: 1. Ancestor with three toes, lived in forests 2. The modern horse genus 3. Dawn horse- first ancestor of horses 4. First to exhibit a grazing diet, started evolving on plains
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2)
i -> 3 (Eohippus / Hyracotherium: the small Eocene 'Dawn Horse' ancestor), ii -> 1 (Mesohippus: Oligocene three-toed forest browsing horse), iii -> 4 (Merychippus: Miocene three-toed plains grazing horse with high-crowned hypsodont teeth), iv -> 2 (Equus: Pleistocene to modern single-toed horse genus). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2 (Choice A).
Q2168
Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologySpeciation & Sibling Species
Consider the following statements: Sibling species exhibit: I. sympatric distribution II. morphological similarity III. genetic identity IV. reproductive isolation Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II, and IV are correct)
Sibling Species (cryptic species) are populations that are morphologically indistinguishable or nearly identical (II), often inhabit the same geographic region (sympatric - I), and are completely reproductively isolated from each other (IV). They are NOT genetically identical (III is false). Correct: I, II, and IV are correct (Choice D).
Q2169
Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyMechanisms of Speciation
Choose the correct chronological sequence of evolutionary events in allopatric speciation: I. Geographical isolation II. Ecological isolation III. Increased pre-mating reproductive isolation IV. Increased genetic divergence V. Selection completed Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I, II, IV, III, V)
The standard evolutionary sequence of allopatric (geographic) speciation proceeds: I. Physical Geographical Isolation of a subpopulation by an extrinsic barrier −> II. Ecological niche divergence in differing habitats −> IV. Accumulation of independent mutations and Genetic Divergence −> III. Evolution of Pre-mating Reproductive Isolating mechanisms −> V. Natural Selection and speciation completed. Choice C (I, II, IV, III, V).
Q2170
Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyOrigin of Life (Stromatolites)
Some of the oldest known fossil cells appear as parts of layered rock mounds called stromatolites, which are formed today from sediments trapped by:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (photosynthetic prokaryotes (cyanobacteria))
Stromatolites (dating back over 3.5 billion years) are accretionary biogenic organosedimentary structures formed by the shallow-water trapping, binding, and precipitation of mineral sediment grains by benthic microbial mats of Photosynthetic Prokaryotes (Cyanobacteria / blue-green algae).
The fundamental unit of biological evolution is the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (population)
In modern evolutionary synthesis (population genetics), the Population (a local interbreeding group of individuals of the same species sharing a common gene pool) is the basic fundamental unit of biological evolution (natural selection acts upon individuals, but populations evolve over time via allele frequency changes).
The fossil of Java-Man (Pithecanthropus erectus / Homo erectus) was discovered in 1891 on the banks of the Solo River in Eastern Java by:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Eugene Dubois)
Dutch anatomist and geologist Marie Eugène François Thomas Dubois discovered the fossilized skullcap and femur of Java Man (Pithecanthropus erectus, now classified as Homo erectus erectus) at Trinil along the Solo River in East Java in 1891.
Consider the following statement: Assertion (A): Stabilizing selection favours individuals with extreme phenotypes in a population. Reason (R): Stabilizing selection reduces genetic diversity by selecting for the average phenotype. Which statement is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Assertion is false, but Reason is true.)
Assertion (A) is FALSE: Stabilizing selection favors intermediate/average phenotypes and eliminates extreme phenotypic variants at both tails of the distribution (it is Disruptive selection that favors extreme phenotypes). Reason (R) is TRUE: By weeding out extremes and narrowing phenotypic variance, stabilizing selection preserves optimal intermediate traits and reduces genetic diversity. Correct: Assertion is false, but Reason is true (Choice C).
Match the evolutionary theories with the scientists who proposed them: Theory: i. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters ii. Biological species concept iii. Theory of natural selection iv. Modern synthetic theory of evolution
Proposed by: 1. Ernst Mayr 2. Lamarck 3. Theodosius Dobzhansky 4. Charles Darwin
Choose The Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3)
i -> 2 (Inheritance of acquired characters: Jean-Baptiste Lamarck, 1809), ii -> 1 (Biological species concept: Ernst Mayr, 1942), iii -> 4 (Theory of natural selection: Charles Darwin, 1859), iv -> 3 (Modern synthetic theory: Theodosius Dobzhansky, 1937). Correct match: i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3 (Choice C).
Which of the following is the most famous historical example of industrial melanism and directional natural selection?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Peppered moth (Biston betularia))
The Peppered Moth (Biston betularia) in industrial England is the world's most famous textbook demonstration of directional natural selection, where soot-darkened tree trunks favored the survival and proliferation of the melanic carbonaria morph over the light typica morph.
Choose the correct statement(s): I. Genetic variation can only arise from sexual reproduction. II. Organic variation is always beneficial for the survival of a species. III. Environmental factors have no effect on organic variation. IV. Some isolating mechanisms are pre-zygotic, meaning they occur before fertilization. Choose the correct statement(s):
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Only IV is correct)
Statement IV is strictly correct: Pre-zygotic isolating mechanisms (geographic, temporal, behavioral, mechanical, and gametic isolation) operate prior to zygote formation to prevent mating and fertilization. Statements I, II, and III are false (mutations produce variation in asexual organisms; variations can be neutral or deleterious; environmental mutagens affect variation). Correct: Only IV is correct (Choice C).
Q2177
Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyImmunology (Regulatory T Cells)
What is the primary immunological role of regulatory T cells (Tregs / CD4+ CD25+ FoxP3+) in the immune system?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To suppress immune responses and maintain self-tolerance)
Regulatory T cells (Tregs) play a critical role in maintaining immune homeostasis, down-regulating effector T-cell proliferation, suppressing excessive immune responses, and preventing autoimmune destruction by enforcing peripheral self-tolerance.
Match the Cytokines with Their Immunological Functions: Column -A: i. IL-1 ii. IL-2 iii. IFN-gamma iv. TNF-alpha
Column -B: 1. Stimulates the autocrine growth of T-cells, plays a key role in adaptive immunity 2. Activates macrophages, enhances antigen presentation, and regulates cell-mediated responses 3. Plays a significant role in inflammation, systemic shock, and apoptosis 4. Promotes local inflammation, endogenous pyrogen fever, and activation of T-cells
Choose The Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3)
i -> 4 (IL-1: pro-inflammatory cytokine and endogenous pyrogen inducing fever and vascular adhesion), ii -> 1 (IL-2: T-cell growth factor stimulating clonal expansion), iii -> 2 (IFN-γ: macrophage-activating factor secreted by Th1 and NK cells), iv -> 3 (TNF-lpha: tumor necrosis factor inducing inflammation, septic cachexia, and apoptosis). Correct match: i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3 (Choice A).
Q2179
Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyMHC Class I & CD8 Interactions
Which of the following T-cell co-receptors specifically recognizes the conserved domains and beta-2 microglobulin association of Class I MHC molecules?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (CD8)
CD8 (expressed on Cytotoxic T lymphocytes as an lphaeta heterodimer) acts as the specific co-receptor that binds to the non-polymorphic lpha_3 domain and associates with the eta_2-microglobulin subunit of Class I MHC molecules (CD4 binds to Class II MHC eta_2 domain).
Q2180
Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyMHC Class I Antigen Processing Pathway
Which is the correct chronological sequence of intracellular cellular activities in the processing and presentation of endogenous cytosolic antigens via the MHC Class I pathway?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (iii-ii-i (Generation of peptide from proteolysis -> Transport to ER -> Peptide binding to MHC Class I))
The intracellular endogenous antigen presentation pathway: iii. Cytosolic viral/tumor proteins are degraded into oligopeptides by the 26S Proteasome −> ii. Peptides are transported into the Endoplasmic Reticulum lumen via TAP transporters −> i. Peptides bind stably onto newly assembled MHC Class I −β2m complexes for exocytic delivery to the cell surface. Correct sequence: iii - ii - i (Choice B).
Select the correct statements regarding the pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) of the innate immune system: I. They are included in the Toll family of receptors (TLRs). II. They include MHC complexes. III. They recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs). IV. They include scavenger receptors. Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I, III, and IV)
Statements I, III, and IV are correct: Innate Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs) include Toll-Like Receptors (I), Scavenger Receptors (IV), NOD-like receptors, and C-type lectins that recognize evolutionary conserved PAMPs on microbes (III). Statement II is false because MHC molecules belong to the Adaptive Immune System for presenting antigen peptides to T-cells. Correct: I, III, and IV (Choice A).
In humans, the Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) gene cluster located on chromosome 6 is called the:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (HLA (Human Leukocyte Antigen))
In humans, the Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) is designated as the Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA) system, a highly polymorphic cluster of genes located on the short arm of chromosome 6 encoding cell-surface antigen-presenting glycoproteins.
B lymphocytes are involved in the human immune response to a bacterial infection. Which of the following cellular processes would TYPICALLY be carried out by these B cells in response to the infection? I. cell division by mitosis (clonal selection and expansion) II. transcription producing mRNA for antibody synthesis III. engulfing and digesting bacteria via phagocytosis Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I and II only)
Upon encountering a specific bacterial antigen, activated B lymphocytes undergo rapid clonal expansion through Mitotic Cell Division (I) and massive Transcription/Translation producing mRNA to synthesize immunoglobulin antibodies as plasma cells (II). Phagocytic engulfment and digestion of whole bacteria (III) is performed by professional phagocytes (macrophages, dendritic cells, and neutrophils), NOT by B lymphocytes. Correct: I and II only (Choice A).
Match the antibody isotypes with their characteristic anatomical distribution in the body: Column -A (Antibody Type): i. IgA ii. IgG iii. IgD iv. IgE
Column -B (Found in): 1. Blood, lymph, and interstitial extracellular fluid (crosses placenta) 2. Surface of naive, immature and mature B cells (B-cell receptor) 3. Bound to high-affinity Fc receptors on basophils and mast cells 4. External mucosal secretions like saliva, tears, colostrum, and breast milk
Choose the correct matching option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3)
i -> 4 (Secretory IgA dimer: mucosal secretions, breast milk, saliva, tears), ii -> 1 (IgG monomer: predominant isotype in serum, vascular circulation, and crosses placenta), iii -> 2 (IgD: membrane-bound antigen receptor on naive B lymphocytes), iv -> 3 (IgE: bound via FcεRI to tissue mast cells and circulating basophils in allergic reactions and antiparasitic responses). Correct match: i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3 (Choice A).
Q2185
Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyComplement System (C5a Chemotaxis)
A complement split product component that is strongly chemotactic for attracting neutrophils to sites of infection is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (C5a)
Complement fragment C5a (along with C3a and C4a, termed anaphylatoxins) is the most potent biological chemotactic factor, stimulating directed migration (chemotaxis), degranulation, and respiratory burst activation of neutrophils and macrophages toward inflammatory foci.
Consider the following statement: Assertion (A): An antibody molecule is represented as H2L2. Reason (R): An antibody monomer has two identical heavy chains and two identical light chains joined by disulfide bonds. Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).)
Both statements are true and causally linked: A standard immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibody monomer is formally symbolized as H2L2 (Assertion A) because its Y-shaped quaternary structure is assembled from exactly two identical heavy (H) polypeptide chains and two identical light (L) polypeptide chains connected by interchain disulfide bridges (Reason R). Choice A.
Q2187
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)World Currencies
What is the name of the currency of Malaysia?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ringgit)
The official legal tender currency of Malaysia is the Malaysian Ringgit (MYR). (Kwacha is of Zambia/Malawi, Yuan of China, Yen of Japan).
Q2188
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)World Capitals
Which is the capital city of Cuba?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Havana)
Havana is the capital, largest city, and major commercial seaport of Cuba in the Caribbean. (San Jose is of Costa Rica, Nicosia of Cyprus, Prague of Czech Republic).
Q2189
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Sports Current Affairs 2024
How many gold medals were won by the Indian contingent in the 2024 Paris Paralympics Games?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (7)
At the 2024 Paris Paralympic Games, India achieved its best-ever performance with a total of 29 medals: exactly 7 Gold medals, 9 Silver medals, and 13 Bronze medals.
Q2190
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Geography of J&K (Amarnath Shrine)
Which district of Jammu and Kashmir is famous for the holy Amarnath cave situated at Mount Amarnath?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Anantnag)
The sacred Amarnath Cave shrine (altitude 3,888 m) is located in the Anantnag district of Jammu and Kashmir, accessed via Pahalgam or Baltal.
Q2191
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Lakes of J&K (Tarsar-Marsar)
The Tarsar and Marsar lakes are the two most significant alpine lakes of which district of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pulwama)
The scenic twin oligotrophic alpine lakes Tarsar and Marsar are located in the Aru valley area administratively situated in the Pulwama / Anantnag border district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q2192
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Hydroelectric Projects of J&K (Salal)
Salal Hydroelectric Project constructed on the river Chenab is located in which district of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Reasi)
The 690 MW Salal Hydroelectric Power Station (operated by NHPC) is built across the Chenab River near Reasi in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q2193
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Waterfalls of J&K (Aharbal)
The Aharbal waterfall located in the Shopian district is also popularly known as the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Aharbal Waterfall / Niagara Falls of Kashmir)
Aharbal Waterfall, formed by the roaring Veshav River falling from a height of about 25 meters in Kulgam/Shopian, is celebrated as the 'Niagara Falls of Kashmir'.
Q2194
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Classical Languages of India 2024
Which of the following languages was NOT recently inducted in the list of Classical Languages of India in October 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Kashmiri)
On 3 October 2024, the Union Cabinet approved 5 new Classical Languages: Marathi, Bengali, Pali, Prakrit, and Assamese. Kashmiri was NOT inducted.
Q2195
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Nobel Prizes 2024
Who among the following won the Nobel Prize in Physics in 2024 for foundational discoveries in machine learning?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Geoffrey Hinton)
The 2024 Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded jointly to John J. Hopfield and Geoffrey E. Hinton for foundational discoveries and inventions that enable machine learning with artificial neural networks. (Baker, Hassabis, Jumper won in Chemistry).
Q2196
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Current Affairs (SCO Summit 2024)
Which Minister of the Indian Cabinet visited Pakistan to attend the 23rd SCO Summit in October 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dr. S. Jaishankar)
External Affairs Minister Dr. S. Jaishankar led the Indian delegation to Islamabad, Pakistan on 15–16 October 2024 to attend the 23rd Council of Heads of Government of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO).
Q2197
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Sports Tournaments (Women's T20 World Cup 2024)
The ICC Women's T20 World Cup 2024 was organized in which of the following countries?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (United Arab Emirates)
The ICC Women's T20 World Cup 2024 (relocated from Bangladesh due to political unrest) was hosted by the United Arab Emirates (UAE) in Dubai and Sharjah in October 2024 (won by New Zealand).
Q2198
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Geography (International Borders)
India shares the longest international land boundary with which of the following countries?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Bangladesh)
India shares its longest international land border with Bangladesh, spanning an extensive length of 4,096.7 km (surpassing borders with China 3,488 km and Pakistan 3,323 km).
Q2199
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)National Current Affairs Renaming
The Government of India has decided to rename the capital city of Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Port Blair, as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sri Vijaya Puram)
On 13 September 2024, Union Home Minister Amit Shah announced that Port Blair, the capital of Andaman & Nicobar Islands, has been renamed 'Sri Vijaya Puram' to honor the historical naval role of the Chola Empire.
Q2200
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Bharat Ratna Awards 2024
Who among the following was NOT conferred with the Bharat Ratna in the year 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Atal Bihari Vajpayee)
In 2024, the Bharat Ratna was conferred upon five luminaries: Karpoori Thakur, L.K. Advani, P.V. Narasimha Rao, Chaudhary Charan Singh, and Dr. M.S. Swaminathan. Former PM Atal Bihari Vajpayee was conferred the Bharat Ratna earlier in 2015.
Q2201
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Geography (State Sizes)
Which is the largest state in India in terms of geographical area?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rajasthan)
Rajasthan is the largest state in India by land area, covering 342,239 km² (representing about 10.4% of India's total geographical area).
Q2202
General Science & EnvironmentNoise Pollution Units
Noise pollution and acoustic sound levels are measured in units of:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Decibels)
Noise levels and sound intensity are measured on a logarithmic scale in Decibels (dB). (Hertz measures frequency; Fathoms measure ocean depth; Nanometers measure wavelength).
Q2203
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Modern Indian History (Poona Pact)
The historic Poona Pact of 1932 was an agreement signed between:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Gandhi and Ambedkar)
The Poona Pact was signed on 24 September 1932 at Yerwada Central Jail between Mahatma Gandhi (represented by Madan Mohan Malaviya and other leaders) and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, replacing separate electorates with reserved legislative seats for the Depressed Classes.
Q2204
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Modern Indian History (Partition of Bengal)
Name the Viceroy of India at the time of the Partition of Bengal in 1905:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lord Curzon)
Lord Curzon (Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905) issued the controversial order partitioning the province of Bengal in October 1905.
Q2205
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Modern Indian History (Annulment of Bengal Partition)
In which year was the partition of Bengal cancelled / annulled?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1911)
The Partition of Bengal was revoked and annulled in December 1911 by King George V at the Delhi Durbar, under Viceroy Lord Hardinge II.
Q2206
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian National Movement (Non-Cooperation)
In which of the following years was the Non-Cooperation Movement officially launched by Mahatma Gandhi?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1920)
The Non-Cooperation Movement was officially launched by Mahatma Gandhi on 1 August 1920 and ratified at the special session of the Indian National Congress in Calcutta in September 1920.
Q2207
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Modern Indian History (Khilafat Movement)
Which among the following movements was combined with the Non-Cooperation Movement under Gandhiji's leadership?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Khilafat Movement)
Mahatma Gandhi unified the Indian National Congress's Non-Cooperation Movement with the pan-Islamic Khilafat Movement (led by the Ali brothers) in 1920 to forge unprecedented Hindu-Muslim nationalist unity.
Q2208
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Polity (Election Commission)
Who registers and recognizes political parties as national or state parties in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Election Commission of India)
The Election Commission of India (ECI), under the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, officially registers and accords recognition to National and State political parties.
Q2209
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Agriculture (Green Revolution)
The Green Revolution in India was primarily related to a massive increase in the production of:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Wheat production)
The Green Revolution (spearheaded in the late 1960s by Dr. M.S. Swaminathan and Norman Borlaug using high-yielding dwarf varieties) achieved its most dramatic and transformative production gains in Wheat (and subsequently Rice).
Q2210
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Agricultural Institutions (NAFED)
NAFED (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India) is connected with:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Agricultural marketing)
NAFED (established in 1958) is the apex national statutory organization promoting cooperative marketing, procurement, and distribution of agricultural produce in India.
Q2211
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)World Geography (Prime Meridian)
The 0-degree Meridian passing through Greenwich, London is known as the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Prime Meridian)
The 0∘ longitude reference line is officially designated as the Prime Meridian, serving as the international baseline for measuring longitude and global time zones.
Q2212
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Geography (IST)
The local time at 82° 30' E longitude, standardized throughout India, is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Indian Standard Time (IST))
The local time of the standard central meridian of India (82∘30′ E, passing near Mirzapur/Prayagraj in Uttar Pradesh) is accepted as the uniform Indian Standard Time (IST = UTC + 5:30).
Q2213
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Physical Geography (Tropic of Cancer)
Identify the standard parallel of latitude known as the Tropic of Cancer:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (23° 30'N)
The Tropic of Cancer is the parallel of latitude located at 23∘30′ N (or 23.5∘ N) of the Equator, passing through 8 Indian states. (23∘30′ S is the Tropic of Capricorn).
Q2214
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Agriculture (Plantation Crops)
Which of the following is NOT a plantation crop?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Wheat)
Plantation agriculture involves single-crop extensive farming for commercial export: Tea, Coffee, and Rubber are classic plantation crops. Wheat is an extensive food grain cereal crop (Rabi crop), NOT a plantation crop.
Q2215
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Polity (Fundamental Rights)
How many Fundamental Rights are currently guaranteed to Indian citizens under Part III of the Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (6)
The Indian Constitution currently guarantees Six Fundamental Rights: 1. Right to Equality, 2. Right to Freedom, 3. Right against Exploitation, 4. Right to Freedom of Religion, 5. Cultural and Educational Rights, and 6. Right to Constitutional Remedies. (Right to Property was deleted as a fundamental right by the 44th Amendment in 1978).
Q2216
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Polity (Right to Equality)
According to the Indian Constitution, which of the following is NOT included within the Right to Equality (Articles 14 to 18)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Absolute equality)
The Right to Equality guarantees Equality before law (Art 14), Non-discrimination (Art 15), Equality of opportunity in public employment (Art 16), and Abolition of untouchability (Art 17). 'Absolute equality' does not exist as reasonable classifications and affirmative actions are constitutional.
Q2217
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Polity (Swaran Singh Committee)
Which of the following committees suggested the incorporation of Fundamental Duties into the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Swaran Singh Committee)
The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee, constituted in 1976 by the Government of India, recommended the inclusion of a dedicated chapter on Fundamental Duties in the Constitution.
Q2218
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Polity (42nd Amendment)
The Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Indian Constitution by which Constitutional Amendment?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (42nd Constitutional Amendment)
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 inserted Part IVA and Article 51A into the Constitution of India, introducing 10 Fundamental Duties (an 11th duty was added later by the 86th Amendment in 2002).
Q2219
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Earth Tilt & Seasons
The axial tilting of the Earth (23.5∘) as it revolves around the Sun is responsible for the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Change in seasons)
The 23.5∘ tilt of Earth's rotational axis relative to its orbital plane causes varying angles of solar incidence throughout the year, which is directly responsible for the Change in Seasons. (Earth's rotation on its axis causes day and night).
Q2220
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Solar System (Mars)
Which planet in the solar system is popularly referred to as the "Red Planet"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mars)
Mars is known as the 'Red Planet' due to the widespread presence of iron oxide (rust) on its surface giving it a distinctive reddish hue.
Q2221
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Solar System (Venus)
Which planet is often referred to as Earth's twin because of its similar size, mass, and density?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Venus)
Venus is called 'Earth's Twin' (or Earth's sister planet) because of its remarkable similarity to Earth in radius, volume, mass, density, and gravitational pull.
Q2222
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Economic Sectors (Secondary Sector)
The _______ covers economic activities in which natural raw materials are transformed into finished manufactured goods through industrial processes:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Secondary Sector)
The Secondary Sector (Industrial/Manufacturing Sector) encompasses economic activities where primary raw materials (agricultural crops, minerals, timber) are processed, manufactured, and converted into finished goods.
Q2223
Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsWorkplace Communication
What is the primary fundamental purpose of communication in an organization?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To inform)
The foundational and primary purpose of communication is 'To Inform'—transmitting accurate data, instructions, and messages to create shared understanding.
Q2224
Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsOrganizational Communication (Horizontal)
In an office hierarchy, an employee communicates horizontally when interacting with his/her:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Colleagues)
Horizontal (Lateral) Communication takes place among peers, coworkers, and colleagues of equal organizational rank or status across the same operational level.
Q2225
Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsBarriers to Communication
Which of the following is NOT a recognized category of communication barriers?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Financial barrier)
Standard recognized barriers to communication in organizational theory include: Organizational, Linguistic/Semantic, Psychological/Interpersonal, and Physical barriers. 'Financial barrier' is NOT a standard communication barrier.
Q2226
Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsCommunication Cycle Elements
Which of the following is NOT an element of the basic communication cycle?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Time)
The essential elements of the communication cycle are: Sender, Encoding, Message, Channel (Medium), Receiver, Decoding, and Feedback. 'Time' is an external environmental variable, not a constituent element of the cycle.
What is the final and closing step in the communication cycle?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Feedback)
Feedback is the final step of the communication process that indicates to the sender whether the message was accurately understood as intended, completing the loop.
Q2228
Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsOccupational Health & Safety (Biohazards)
Which among the following is a biological hazard in the workplace environment?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Virus)
Biological hazards (biohazards) are infectious organic organisms or agents—including Viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites—that pose health risks to workers.
Workers require specialized protective foot safety footwear in work environments with:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Penetrating materials such as nails and spikes)
Safety shoes equipped with puncture-resistant steel/composite mid-sole plates are specifically required for foot protection against sharp penetrating hazards like protruding nails, spikes, and scrap metal.
Q2230
Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsFirst Aid (ABC Rule)
What is the standard 'ABC' acronym of First Aid in emergency life support?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Airway, Breathing and Circulation)
In first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), 'ABC' stands for: Airway (clear the respiratory tract), Breathing (ensure respiration), and Circulation (maintain cardiac blood flow).
Q2231
Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsQuality Standards (ISO 9001)
Which is the ONLY management system standard in the ISO 9000 family to which organizations can formally certify?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ISO 9001)
ISO 9001 (Quality Management Systems - Requirements) is the only standard in the ISO 9000 family to which an organization can be officially audited and certified.
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) works under the aegis of which Union Ministry?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution)
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)—the national standards body of India—operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution, Government of India.
Which certification mark is legally required for gold jewellery sold in India to certify purity?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (BIS hallmark)
BIS Hallmarking (certifying purity with the triangular BIS logo, fineness purity mark, and 6-digit HUID code) is mandatory for gold jewellery sold in India.
Q2234
Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsHistory of BIS (1 April 1987)
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) came into legal existence, through an Act of Parliament dated 26 November 1986, on:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (01.04.1987)
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) Act was passed by Parliament in November 1986 and formally came into enforcement on 1 April 1987 (01.04.1987), replacing the former Indian Standards Institution (ISI).
The Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923 has been officially renamed as the:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Employees Compensation Act)
Through the Workmen's Compensation (Amendment) Act, 2009, the legislation was gender-neutralized and officially renamed the 'Employee's Compensation Act, 1923'.
Under the Employees' State Insurance (ESI) Act, the current employer's share of contribution is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3.25% of employee's wages)
Under the revised ESI contribution rates (effective from 1 July 2019), the employer's contribution is 3.25% and the employee's contribution is 0.75% (totaling 4.0% of wages). Choice A.
Under the ESI Act, an amount of ________ is payable towards funeral expenses to the dependents of an insured person from day one of entering insurable employment:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rs. 15,000/-)
Under the ESI scheme, funeral expenses up to Rs. 15,000/- are payable to the eldest surviving member or the person who actually incurs the expenditure on the deceased insured person's funeral.
Which of the following metric unit conversions is INCORRECT?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1 kilometre = 100 meters)
1 kilometre is equal to 1,000 meters (not 100 meters). All other conversions are correct. Choice D.
Q2239
Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsMetric Conversions
How many centimetres are there in 2.5 meters?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (250 cm)
Since 1 meter=100 centimetres, 2.5 meters=2.5×100=250 cm. Choice B.
Q2240
Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsSI Units
Which of the following is NOT an official SI unit?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Calorie)
The SI unit of energy and heat is the Joule (J). The Calorie (1 cal≈4.184 J) is a non-SI metric unit. (Ohm, Ampere, and Newton are standard SI derived and base units).
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Communication with oneself)
Intrapersonal communication is the internal dialogue, self-talk, introspection, and cognitive processing that takes place within an individual's own mind.
Q2242
Workplace Communication, Industrial Safety, Labor Laws & BIS StandardsFunctions of BIS
Which of the following is a key function of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Setting quality standards for goods and services)
The core statutory mandate of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is formulating, publishing, and enforcing national Quality Standards for goods, products, and services in India.
Q2243
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)World Currencies
What is the name of the currency of Malaysia?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ringgit)
The official currency of Malaysia is the Malaysian Ringgit (MYR).
Q2244
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)World Capitals
Which is the capital of Cuba?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Havana)
Havana is the capital and largest city of Cuba.
Q2245
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Sports Current Affairs 2024
How many gold medals were won by the Indian contingent in the 2024 Paris Paralympics Games?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (7)
At the 2024 Paris Paralympics, India achieved its best-ever performance with a total of 29 medals, comprising 7 Gold, 9 Silver, and 13 Bronze medals.
Q2246
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)J&K Geography & Heritage
________ district is famous for the Amarnath cave situated at Mount Amarnath in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Anantnag)
The holy Amarnath Cave shrine is situated in the Lidder Valley of Anantnag district in Jammu and Kashmir, located at an altitude of approximately 3,888 metres.
Q2247
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Lakes of J&K
The Tarsar and Marsar lakes are the two most significant alpine lakes of ________ district of Jammu and Kashmir:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pulwama)
The twin oligotrophic alpine lakes Tarsar and Marsar are situated in the Aru valley/Tral region, administratively falling within the Pulwama district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q2248
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Hydroelectric Projects of J&K
Salal Hydroelectric Project constructed on river Chenab is located in the ________ district of Jammu and Kashmir:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Reasi)
The Salal Hydroelectric Power Station (690 MW), built on the Chenab River, is located near Reasi in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q2249
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Waterfalls of J&K
The following waterfall in Shopian is also known as the "Niagara Falls of Kashmir":
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Aharbal Waterfall)
Aharbal Waterfall, formed by the Veshav River in Shopian district, is popularly referred to as the 'Niagara Falls of Kashmir' due to its roaring volume and sheer natural beauty.
Q2250
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Classical Languages of India 2024
Which of the following language is recently NOT inducted in the list of classical languages of India (in October 2024)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Kashmiri)
In October 2024, the Union Cabinet granted classical language status to five languages: Marathi, Bengali, Pali, Prakrit, and Assamese. Kashmiri was NOT among the newly inducted classical languages.
Q2251
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Nobel Prizes 2024
Who among the following has won the Nobel Prize in Physics in 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Geoffrey Hinton)
The 2024 Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded jointly to John J. Hopfield and Geoffrey E. Hinton for foundational discoveries and inventions that enable machine learning with artificial neural networks. (Baker, Hassabis, and Jumper won the Chemistry Nobel).
Q2252
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Current Affairs Visits 2024
Which Minister of the Indian Cabinet recently visited Pakistan for the SCO Summit 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Dr. S. Jaishankar)
External Affairs Minister Dr. S. Jaishankar visited Islamabad, Pakistan in October 2024 to attend the 23rd Meeting of the Council of Heads of Government of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO).
Q2253
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Sports Tournaments 2024
The ICC Women's T20 World Cup 2024 was organized in which of the following countries?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (United Arab Emirates)
The ICC Women's T20 World Cup 2024 was hosted in the United Arab Emirates (UAE - Dubai and Sharjah) from 3 to 20 October 2024, having been relocated from Bangladesh.
Q2254
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Indian Geography Boundaries
India shares the longest international land boundary with which of the following countries?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Bangladesh)
India shares its longest international terrestrial boundary with Bangladesh, extending over 4,096.7 kilometers.
Q2255
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Current Affairs Renaming 2024
Government of India has decided to rename the capital of Andaman & Nicobar Islands (Port Blair) as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sri Vijaya Puram)
In September 2024, the Union Government officially renamed Port Blair, the capital city of Andaman & Nicobar Islands, to 'Sri Vijaya Puram' to honor the historic role of the islands in the freedom struggle and Chola naval history.
Q2256
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Bharat Ratna 2024
Who among the following was NOT conferred with the Bharat Ratna in 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Atal Bihari Vajpayee)
In 2024, five eminent personalities were conferred with the Bharat Ratna: Karpoori Thakur, L.K. Advani, P.V. Narasimha Rao, Chaudhary Charan Singh, and M.S. Swaminathan. Atal Bihari Vajpayee received the Bharat Ratna in 2015.
Q2257
General Awareness & Current Affairs (with J&K UT Special Reference)Indian Geography States
________ is the largest state in India in terms of geographical area:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rajasthan)
Rajasthan is the largest state in India by land area, covering 342,239 square kilometres (accounting for 10.4% of India's total geographical area).
Rs. 8,400 is divided among A, B, C and D in such a way that the shares of A and B, B and C, and C and D are in the ratios of 2:3, 4:5 and 6:7 respectively. The share of A is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rs. 1,280)
Combining ratios: A:B=2:3=8:12, B:C=4:5=12:15⟹A:B:C=8:12:15. Since C:D=6:7, bring C to LCM(15, 6) = 30: A:B:C:D=16:24:30:35. Total ratio parts =16+24+30+35=105. Share of A=10516×8,400=16×80=Rs. 1,280. Choice A.
Q2259
Indian Polity, History & GeographyIndian Polity (Fundamental Rights)
How many Fundamental Rights are currently guaranteed in the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (6)
Originally there were 7 Fundamental Rights, but the Right to Property (Article 31) was omitted by the 44th Amendment in 1978, leaving currently 6 Fundamental Rights (Articles 12 to 35).
Q2260
Indian Polity, History & GeographyFundamental Duties (Swaran Singh Committee)
Which of the following committees suggested the incorporation of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Swaran Singh Committee)
The Swaran Singh Committee (set up in 1976) recommended the inclusion of a separate chapter on Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India.
Q2261
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsCommunication Skills
What is the primary fundamental purpose of communication?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To inform)
The foundational and primary purpose of communication is 'to inform'—transmitting information, ideas, and knowledge from a sender to a receiver to establish mutual understanding.
Q2262
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsTypes of Communication (Horizontal)
In an office hierarchy, an employee communicates horizontally with his/her:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Colleagues)
Horizontal (lateral) communication occurs between individuals operating at the same hierarchical peer level within an organization, such as Colleagues or co-workers.
Q2263
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsBarriers to Communication
Which of the following is NOT a recognized category of communication barrier?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Financial barrier)
Standard recognized barriers to effective communication include Organizational, Interpersonal/Psychological, Linguistic/Semantic, and Physical barriers. 'Financial barrier' is NOT a recognized communication barrier.
Q2264
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsCommunication Cycle Elements
Which of the following is NOT a fundamental element of the communication cycle?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Time)
The essential elements of the communication cycle are: Sender, Encoding, Message, Channel/Medium, Receiver, Decoding, and Feedback. 'Time' is an external environmental variable, not a core structural element.
Q2265
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsCommunication Cycle (Feedback)
What is the final and conclusive step in the communication cycle?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Feedback)
Feedback is the final and vital step in the communication process, confirming whether the receiver has successfully received and correctly understood the intended message.
Q2266
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsOccupational Health & Hazards
Which among the following is categorized as a biological hazard in the workplace?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Virus)
Biological hazards (biohazards) are infectious organic agents that pose a threat to human health, including Viruses, pathogenic bacteria, fungi, parasites, and biological toxins.
Q2267
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsIndustrial Safety & PPE
Industrial workers require safety foot protection (safety boots) in work environments with:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Penetrating materials such as nails and spikes)
Steel-toed safety shoes equipped with puncture-resistant steel midsoles are specifically required to protect workers' feet against Penetrating materials such as protruding nails, metal shards, and sharp spikes.
Q2268
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsFirst Aid (ABC Rule)
What does the medical acronym ABC of first aid stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Airway, Breathing and Circulation)
In first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation, ABC stands for Airway (clear the victim's airway), Breathing (check for breath and ventilate), and Circulation (check pulse and maintain blood circulation/compressions).
Q2269
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsQuality Standards (ISO 9001)
Which is the only standard in the ISO 9000 family to which organizations can achieve formal certification?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ISO 9001)
ISO 9001 (Quality Management Systems - Requirements) is the only standard in the ISO 9000 quality management series against which an organization can be independently audited and officially certified.
Q2270
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsStandards Organizations (BIS)
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) works under the administrative aegis of the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution)
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), established as the National Standard Body of India, functions under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Government of India.
Q2271
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsCertification Marks (Hallmark)
Which certification mark is mandatory for gold jewellery in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (BIS hallmark)
The BIS Hallmark is the mandatory purity certification system established by the Bureau of Indian Standards to certify the fineness and purity of gold and silver jewellery in India.
Q2272
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsBIS Establishment Date
Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) came into existence through an Act of Parliament on:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (01.04.1987)
The Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986 was passed on 26 November 1986, and the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) formally came into existence on 1 April 1987 (01.04.1987), taking over the functions of the erstwhile Indian Standards Institution (ISI).
Q2273
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsLabour Laws (Employees Compensation Act)
The Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923 was officially renamed as the:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Employees Compensation Act)
Through an amendment in 2009, the gender-specific 'Workmen's Compensation Act, 1923' was renamed to the gender-neutral 'Employee's Compensation Act, 1923'.
Q2274
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsLabour Laws (ESI Contribution Rates)
Under the current ESI (Employee State Insurance) Act regulations, the employer's share of contribution is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3.25% of employee's wages)
With effect from 1 July 2019, the reduced rates of contribution under the ESI Act are: Employer's share is 3.25% and Employee's share is 0.75% of wages (total 4.0%). Choice A.
Q2275
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsESI Benefits (Funeral Expenses)
Under the ESI Act, an amount of Rs. ________ is payable towards funeral expenses to the dependents or person who performs the last rites from day one of entering insurable employment:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rs. 15,000/-)
Under the ESI Act, a lump sum of Rs. 15,000/- is paid as Funeral Expenses to the eldest surviving member or the person who actually incurs the expenditure on the last rites of the deceased insured worker.
Q2276
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsMetric Units & Conversions
Which of the following metric unit conversions is INCORRECT?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1 kilometre = 100 meters)
Option D is incorrect because 1 kilometre equals 1,000 meters (not 100 meters). Options A, B, and C are correct metric standards.
Q2277
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsMetric Conversions
How many centimetres are there in 2.5 meters?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (250 cm)
Since 1 meter=100 centimetres, 2.5 meters=2.5×100=250 cm. Choice B.
Q2278
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsSI Units & Measurement
Which of the following is NOT an SI (International System of Units) unit?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Calorie)
The SI unit of heat and energy is the Joule (J). 'Calorie' is a non-SI metric unit of energy (1 cal≈4.184 J). Ohm (resistance), Ampere (current), and Newton (force) are proper SI units.
Q2279
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsTypes of Communication (Intrapersonal)
Intrapersonal communication refers to:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Communication with oneself)
Intrapersonal communication is self-talk, internal reflection, cognitive deliberation, and communication that occurs entirely within oneself.
Q2280
Communication Skills, Industrial Safety, Labour Laws & StandardsBIS Functions
Which of the following is a key primary function of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Setting quality standards for goods and services)
The core statutory function of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is the formulation and implementation of National Standards setting quality, safety, and performance benchmarks for goods, processes, and services.
Q2281
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsSpace Technology (ISRO Missions)
Which of the following countries didn't have any satellite launched by ISRO's PSLV C-40 mission?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Russia)
ISRO's PSLV-C40 mission (launched in January 2018) deployed India's Cartosat-2 series satellite alongside 30 co-passenger satellites from six foreign nations: Canada, Finland, France, Republic of Korea, the UK, and the USA. Russia did not have any satellite aboard.
Q2282
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsIndian Military History
In the 1962 India-China war, the primary disputed regions lay in which State/UT?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ladakh and Arunachal Pradesh)
The Sino-Indian War of 1962 was fought primarily across two widely separated battlefronts: the Western Sector in Ladakh (Aksai Chin) and the Eastern Sector in the North-East Frontier Agency (NEFA, now Arunachal Pradesh).
Q2283
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsGovernment Schemes & Initiatives
Which initiative was launched by the Government of India to promote innovation and entrepreneurship?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Start-Up India)
The 'Startup India' initiative was launched on 16 January 2016 by the Government of India to build a strong ecosystem for nurturing innovation, startups, and sustainable entrepreneurship.
Q2284
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsIndian Economy & Taxation (GST Council)
Which of the following are part of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council of India? I. Cabinet Ministers of Union Government II. Union Finance Minister III. Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance IV. The Minister in charge of Finance for each state or any minister nominated by the state government Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II, III, and IV)
Under Article 279A of the Indian Constitution, the GST Council consists of: Union Finance Minister (Chairperson - II), Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue/Finance (Member - III), and the State Finance/Taxation Ministers nominated by each State/UT (Members - IV). Union Cabinet Ministers generally (I) are not members. Correct: II, III, and IV (Choice C).
Q2285
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsEducational Initiatives & Technology
Which educational institute is at the core of the initiative 'e-Yantra'—incorporation of robotics into engineering education?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (IIT Bombay)
e-Yantra is a flagship robotics outreach project sponsored by the Ministry of Education (under NMEICT) and conceptualized, developed, and headquartered at IIT Bombay.
Q2286
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsHistory & Etymology of J&K
Which of the following is the literal etymological meaning of the name "Kashmir"?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Land desiccated from water)
Etymologically, according to classical Sanskrit chronicles like Nilamata Purana, 'Kashmir' is derived from 'Ka' (meaning water) and 'Shimir' (meaning to desiccate or wither), literally signifying 'Land desiccated from water' (after Rishi Kashyapa drained the primeval lake Satisar).
Q2287
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
Which of the following provisions was repealed by the Jammu & Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 (together with Constitutional Orders C.O. 272 and 273) abrogated the special status under Article 370, nullified Article 35A, and repealed the separate Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir ⟹ All of the above. Choice D.
Q2288
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsJ&K Polity & Assembly
In the present Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Assembly (post-2023 amendment), how many members can be nominated by the Lieutenant Governor?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (5)
Under the J&K Reorganisation (Amendment) Act, 2023, the Lieutenant Governor is empowered to nominate up to 5 members: 2 women, 2 Kashmiri Migrants (including one woman), and 1 displaced person from Pakistan-occupied Jammu and Kashmir (PoJK). Choice D.
Q2289
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsIndian Geography Basics
Consider the following statement: Assertion (A): India is the third-largest country in the world by area, covering 3,287,469 square kilometres. Reason (R): India is bordered by five countries, including Bangladesh, Bhutan, and Nepal. Which of the following is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are incorrect)
Both statements are factually incorrect: India is the seventh-largest country in the world by land area (not third-largest). India shares land borders with seven sovereign nations: Pakistan, Afghanistan, China, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, and Myanmar (not five). Correct: Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are incorrect (Choice D).
Q2290
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsJ&K Constitutional History (1952 Agreement)
The 1952 Agreement between Jammu and Kashmir and the Union of India (Delhi Agreement) was signed by:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Jawaharlal Nehru and Sheikh Abdullah)
The historic Delhi Agreement of July 1952, delineating constitutional relations and autonomy arrangements between J&K and the Indian Union, was negotiated and concluded between Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Prime Minister of J&K Sheikh Mohammad Abdullah.
Q2291
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsGST Genesis & Kelkar Task Force
Who initially proposed the idea of implementing a nationwide GST in India, and in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The Kelkar Task Force on Indirect Taxes in 2000)
The concept of a nationwide Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India was first mooted by Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee's administration in 2000, which set up the Empowered Committee and was formally recommended by the Kelkar Task Force on Implementation of the FRBM Act in 2000/2004.
Q2292
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsIndian Freedom Movement Matching
Match Column - X (Leader) with Column - Y (Role in Freedom Movement): Column - X (Leader): 1. Lala Lajpat Rai 2. Chittaranjan Das 3. Annie Besant
Column - Y (Role in Freedom Movement): I. Proponent of home rule movement in India II. Leader of the Punjab National Movement III. Founder-leader of the Swaraj party
Choose the Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-II, 2-III, 3-I)
1 -> II (Lala Lajpat Rai: 'Punjab Kesari', foremost leader of the nationalist movement in Punjab), 2 -> III (Chittaranjan Das: co-founded the Congress-Khilafat Swaraj Party in 1923 with Motilal Nehru), 3 -> I (Annie Besant: pioneer of the All India Home Rule League in 1916). Correct match: 1-II, 2-III, 3-I (Choice D).
Q2293
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsConstitutional Law (Article 35A)
Article 35A of the Indian Constitution, which was applicable only to Jammu and Kashmir, was concerned with:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Prohibition of land sale to non-residents)
Article 35A empowered the J&K State Legislature to define 'Permanent Residents' and confer special rights and privileges upon them, including the exclusive right to purchase immovable property (prohibiting land acquisition by non-residents) and state government employment.
Q2294
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsPhysical Geography (Ganga Basin)
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Ganga Plain is the most densely populated part of India. Reason (R): Ganga is the least harnessed river in India. Choose the correct statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A is true, but R is false)
Assertion (A) is TRUE: The Indo-Gangetic plain is the most densely populated physiographic division of India due to fertile alluvial soil, perennial water, and flat topography. Reason (R) is FALSE: The Ganga river basin is among the most extensively dammed, canalized, and heavily harnessed river systems in India. Correct: A is true, but R is false (Choice C).
Q2295
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsAgricultural Crop Producers Matching
Match Column - X with Column - Y and select the correct answer: Column - X (Agriculture products): 1. Gram (Chickpea) 2. Cardamom 3. Pineapple
Column - Y (Foremost producer): I. Madhya Pradesh II. West Bengal III. Kerala
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1-I, 2-III, 3-II)
1 -> I (Gram/Pulses: Madhya Pradesh is the largest producer in India), 2 -> III (Cardamom: Kerala produces the largest volume in the Cardamom Hills), 3 -> II (Pineapple: West Bengal is among the leading producers, especially the North Bengal Siliguri belt). Correct match: 1-I, 2-III, 3-II (Choice B).
Q2296
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsJ&K Integration & Reorganisation
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): The Jammu & Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, fully integrated Jammu & Kashmir into the Indian Union. Reason (R): The Act dissolved the special status granted to Jammu & Kashmir and brought it under the provisions of the Indian Constitution. Choose the correct statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.)
Both statements are true and causally linked: The 2019 Act and presidential orders revoked the asymmetric constitutional status, extending all provisions of the Constitution of India uniformly to the region and fully integrating J&K into the Indian Union. Choice A.
Q2297
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsAgricultural Revolutions Matching
Match Column - X (Revolutions) with Column - Y (Sector/Relation): Column - X (Revolutions): 1. Golden Revolution 2. Silver Fibre Revolution 3. Golden Fibre Revolution
Column - Y (Sector/Relation): I. Jute Production II. Cotton Production III. Horticulture and Honey
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1-III, 2-II, 3-I)
1 -> III (Golden Revolution: Horticulture, fruits, and Honey production), 2 -> II (Silver Fibre Revolution: Cotton production), 3 -> I (Golden Fibre Revolution: Jute production). Correct match: 1-III, 2-II, 3-I (Choice C).
Q2298
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsDemographics of Ladakh
The Ladakhi Buddhist community, which forms a significant portion of Ladakh's population, belongs to which category for reservation purposes in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Scheduled Tribes (ST))
The indigenous communities of Ladakh (both Ladakhi Buddhists and Balti/Purig Muslims) are officially notified and recognized as Scheduled Tribes (ST) under the Constitution (Jammu and Kashmir) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1989.
Q2299
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsGeography of Ladakh
In which State/Union Territory is the strategic Chushul Valley located?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ladakh)
The Chushul Valley (famous for the Battle of Rezang La in 1962 and Spanggur Gap) is located south of Pangong Tso in the Leh district of the Union Territory of Ladakh.
Q2300
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsCulture & Music of Kashmir
Which is a traditional Kashmiri stringed musical instrument, often used in the classical Sufiana Maqam of the region?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Santoor)
The Santoor (a trapezoid-shaped hundred-stringed hammered dulcimer, played with curved walnut mallets called mezrab) is the quintessential traditional musical instrument of Kashmir, popularized globally by Pandit Bhajan Sopori and Pandit Shivkumar Sharma.
Q2301
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsMountain Passes of Ladakh
Which important mountain pass in Ladakh has strategic significance and serves as a historic trade route connecting India to Central Asia?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Aghil Pass)
The Aghil Pass (and Karakoram Pass) across the Karakoram range in Ladakh historically connected the Ladakh/Kashmir region with the ancient silk trade cities of Central Asia (Yarkand and Kashgar).
Q2302
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsNational Education Policy 2020
Which of the following is the fundamental principle of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020? I. Promoting self-assessment (students actively evaluate their own learning progress) II. Promoting multilingualism III. Respecting diversity and the local context in all curriculum, pedagogy, and policy Choose the correct statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All the statements are correct)
NEP 2020 is founded on core guiding principles including promoting self-assessment and holistic 360-degree reporting (I), multilingualism and mother-tongue instruction (II), and respecting cultural diversity and local context in curriculum design (III) ⟹ All the statements are correct. Choice D.
Q2303
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsConstituent Assembly & Article 370
Who was primarily responsible for drafting Article 370 of the Indian Constitution in the Constituent Assembly?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar)
Narasimha Gopalaswami Ayyangar (former Prime Minister of J&K and Minister without Portfolio in Nehru's Cabinet) drafted and piloted Article 306A (which became Article 370) in the Constituent Assembly of India in 1949.
Q2304
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsJ&K Political History
Who became the first woman Chief Minister of the State of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mehbooba Mufti)
Mehbooba Mufti, president of the Jammu and Kashmir Peoples Democratic Party (PDP), was sworn in as the first woman Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir on 4 April 2016.
Q2305
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsWildlife Sanctuaries of Ladakh
The famous 'Hemis National Park,' located in Ladakh, is known globally for being home to which endangered animal?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Snow Leopard)
Hemis National Park in eastern Ladakh is the largest national park in South Asia and is renowned worldwide for harboring the highest density of the endangered Snow Leopard (Panthera uncia) in any protected area.
Q2306
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsArt and Culture (Dokra Craft)
The Dokra casting method, an ancient traditional form of lost-wax bell metal casting, is most famous in which of the following states?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Odisha)
Dokra (Dhokra) metal casting using the ancient cire perdue (lost-wax) technique is traditionally practiced by tribal artisans in Odisha (as well as Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and West Bengal).
Q2307
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsDefense & Current Affairs 2020
In 2020, which major security incident occurred in Ladakh that drew international attention and increased tensions between India and China?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The Galwan Valley clash)
On the night of 15 June 2020, a fierce physical clash occurred between Indian and Chinese PLA troops in the Galwan Valley in eastern Ladakh along the Line of Actual Control (LAC).
Q2308
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019 (Ladakh UT)
Which of the following is true about Ladakh after the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ladakh has no Legislative Assembly)
Under Section 3 of the J&K Reorganisation Act 2019, Ladakh was constituted as a separate Union Territory without a Legislative Assembly (administered directly by a Lieutenant Governor). Choice C.
Q2309
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsSupercomputers in India (Param Shivay)
Which of the following statements is/are correct about Param Shivay? I. Param Shivay was the first supercomputer fully designed and assembled in India under the National Supercomputing Mission II. Param Shivay was developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) III. Param Shivay is primarily used for commercial purposes IV. Param Shivay was installed at the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Delhi Choose the correct statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I only)
Statement I is correct: Param Shivay (833 Teraflops) was the first supercomputer designed and assembled in India under the National Supercomputing Mission (NSM). Statements II, III, and IV are false: It was developed by C-DAC (not ISRO), dedicated to scientific research, and installed at IIT BHU Varanasi (not IIT Delhi). Correct: I only (Choice C).
Q2310
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsFestivals of Ladakh (Losar)
The traditional festival of Ladakh, celebrated by both Buddhists and Muslims with communal harmony, is called:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Losar)
Losar (the Tibetan/Ladakhi New Year festival), celebrated enthusiastically across Ladakh, marks ancestral cultural renewal and is traditionally joined and greeted by both Buddhist and Muslim communities in Kargil and Leh.
Q2311
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsPadma Awards Matching
Match Column - X with Column - Y and select the correct answer: Column - X (Padma Shri recipients): 1. H.C. Verma 2. Sudha Murthy 3. Ratan Tata
Column - Y (Year conferred): I. 2021 II. 2000 III. 2006
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1-I, 2-III, 3-II)
1 -> I (Prof. H.C. Verma was awarded the Padma Shri for literature and education in 2021), 2 -> III (Sudha Murty received the Padma Shri for social work in 2006), 3 -> II (Ratan Tata received the Padma Bhushan in 2000). Correct match: 1-I, 2-III, 3-II (Choice B).
Q2312
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsEnvironmental Treaties (Kyoto Protocol)
What is the primary objective of the Kyoto Protocol?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To limit and reduce greenhouse gas emissions)
The Kyoto Protocol (adopted in 1997 under the UNFCCC) is an international environmental treaty that commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gas emissions (CO2,CH4,N2O, HFCs, PFCs, SF6) to mitigate anthropogenic global warming.
Q2313
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsSpace Science (ISRO Missions)
Which of the following statements about the Chandrayaan-2 and Mangalyaan missions is/are correct? Statement 1: The Chandrayaan-2 mission was launched by ISRO in 2019, with an aim to explore the Moon's south pole. Statement 2: The Mangalyaan mission was launched in 2017, and aimed at exploring Mars. Choose the correct statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only Statement 1 is correct)
Statement 1 is correct: Chandrayaan-2 was launched on 22 July 2019 by GSLV Mk III aiming for the lunar south pole. Statement 2 is incorrect: Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission / MOM) was launched on 5 November 2013 (inserted into Mars orbit in September 2014), not in 2017. Correct: Only Statement 1 is correct (Choice A).
Q2314
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsContemporary History of J&K
Which year saw the tragic mass exodus of Kashmiri Pandits from the Kashmir Valley?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1990)
The tragic mass exodus of Kashmiri Hindus (Pandits) from the Kashmir Valley occurred predominantly in early 1990 (culminating after 19 January 1990) due to targeted militant violence and terror.
Q2315
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsIndustrial Hubs of India
Which state and city in India are globally known for being major manufacturers and exporters of sports goods?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Punjab, Jalandhar)
Jalandhar in Punjab (along with Meerut in Uttar Pradesh) is India's premier manufacturing and export hub for high-quality sports goods, cricket bats, and athletic equipment.
Q2316
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsNAPCC 8 National Missions
Consider the following National Missions that come under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC): I. National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency II. National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both I and II)
India's National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC, launched in 2008) comprises eight national missions, which include both the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE - I) and the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA - II). Correct: Both I and II (Choice A).
Q2317
General English & Reading ComprehensionRelative Pronouns
Select the most appropriate word to complete the sentence: "I have nobody ________ I can confide in."
💡Correct Answer: Option D (whom)
The relative pronoun serves as the grammatical object of the preposition 'in' ('confide in whom'); therefore, the objective case pronoun 'whom' is grammatically correct.
Q2318
General English & Reading ComprehensionError Detection (Nouns)
Identify the part of the sentence that contains an error: "This room would appear much more appealing (A) / if you put a furniture (B) / in that corner. (C) / No error (D)"
💡Correct Answer: Option B (if you put a furniture)
Part (B) is erroneous because 'furniture' is an uncountable (mass) noun and cannot be preceded by the indefinite article 'a'. It should be 'a piece of furniture' or simply 'some furniture'. Choice B.
Q2319
Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeCompound Interest vs Simple Interest
If the simple interest for 2 years is Rs. 1000 at 10% rate of interest, find the compound interest for the same principal and time:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1050)
Simple Interest for 2 years =Rs. 1000⟹SI per year =Rs. 500. Principal P=0.10500=Rs. 5000. Compound Interest for 2 years at 10%: CI=P[(1+0.10)2−1]=5000(1.21−1)=5000×0.21=Rs. 1050. (Or CI=SI+200SI×R=1000+2001000×10=1050). Choice C.
Q2320
General EnglishPronouns & Determiners
Fill in the blanks: "________ of the witnesses were present in the court."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (None)
When referring to 'not any' among three or more plural persons (witnesses) followed by a plural verb 'were', 'None' ('None of the witnesses were present...') is standard English. Choice B.
Q2321
General EnglishPunctuation Rules
Choose the most appropriate option that has the correct punctuation marks:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I came, I saw, I conquered.)
The famous Latin tricolon veni, vidi, vici is standardly punctuated in English with separating commas between short parallel coordinate clauses: 'I came, I saw, I conquered.' Choice C.
Q2322
General EnglishPunctuation Rules
Choose the most appropriate option that has the correct punctuation marks:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Please bring some fruits, green vegetables and some bowls.)
Items in a simple coordinate list are separated by commas without a semicolon or premature comma after the verb: 'Please bring some fruits, green vegetables and some bowls.' Choice B.
Q2323
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Science & Defense History
In which year did India conduct its second series of nuclear tests at Pokhran (Operation Shakti)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1998)
India conducted the Pokhran-II nuclear tests (five nuclear detonations under Operation Shakti) on 11 and 13 May 1998 in Rajasthan under Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
Q2324
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceModern Indian History
The historic Battle of Plassey took place in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1757 AD)
The Battle of Plassey was fought on 23 June 1757 between the British East India Company under Robert Clive and Siraj-ud-Daulah, Nawab of Bengal.
Q2325
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceNobel Laureates
Who was the first black woman to receive the Nobel Prize in Literature?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Toni Morrison)
American novelist Toni Morrison became the first black woman to win the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1993, celebrated for visionary novels such as Beloved and Song of Solomon.
Q2326
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Banking History
Who among the following was the first Indian Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (CD Deshmukh)
Sir Chintaman Dwarakanath Deshmukh (C.D. Deshmukh) was appointed as the first Indian Governor of the Reserve Bank of India on 11 August 1943 (Sir Osborne Smith was the first British governor).
Q2327
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Media & Heritage
Which among the following options is the only daily newspaper published in the Sanskrit language in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sudharma)
Sudharma is the world's only daily newspaper published in the Sanskrit language, founded in 1970 by Kalale Nadadur Varadaraja Iyengar in Mysuru, Karnataka.
Q2328
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceBooks & Authors
Which of the following books is authored by Arundhati Roy?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The Ministry of Utmost Happiness)
'The Ministry of Utmost Happiness' (2017) is a celebrated novel by Booker Prize winner Arundhati Roy. (A Suitable Boy is by Vikram Seth; Sea of Poppies is by Amitav Ghosh; Fasting, Feasting is by Anita Desai).
Q2329
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Constitution (8th Schedule)
The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India lists ________ languages as officially recognized by the Government of India:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (22)
The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution currently lists 22 officially recognized languages (originally 14, expanded via the 21st, 71st, and 92nd Constitutional Amendments).
Q2330
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceWorld Capitals
The capital of Syria is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Damascus)
Damascus is the capital and historical city of Syria. (Dushanbe is capital of Tajikistan; Kyiv is capital of Ukraine).
Q2331
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceInternational Organizations
Where is the global headquarters of the United Nations (UN) located?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (New York City, USA)
The international headquarters of the United Nations is situated in the Turtle Bay neighborhood of Manhattan in New York City, USA.
Q2332
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceUN Security Council
Which of the following countries holds permanent Veto Power in the UN Security Council (UNSC)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (China)
The five permanent members (P5) of the UN Security Council with veto power are China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
Q2333
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceImportant Days & SAARC
The SAARC Charter Day is observed every year on:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (December 8)
The SAARC Charter Day is celebrated annually on 8 December to commemorate the adoption of the SAARC Charter in Dhaka on 8 December 1985.
Q2334
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceWorld Heritage Sites
Which ASEAN country is famous for the historic Hindu-Buddhist temple complex of Angkor Wat?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Cambodia)
Angkor Wat, the largest religious monument in the world built in the 12th century by Khmer King Suryavarman II, is located in Siem Reap, Cambodia.
Q2335
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceGeneral Science (Inert Gases in Bulbs)
The gas usually filled in incandescent electric bulbs which is chemically inactive and prevents the tungsten filament from oxidizing and evaporating is: I. Hydrogen II. Nitrogen Which of the following is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Only II is correct)
Incandescent light bulbs are filled with an inert chemical gas mixture of Nitrogen and Argon to prevent oxidation and retard thermal evaporation of the tungsten filament. Hydrogen is combustible and never used. Correct: Only II is correct (Choice B).
Q2336
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceAwards & Honors
The prestigious Golden Peacock Global Award is conferred for outstanding excellence in which of the following fields?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Corporate Governance)
The Golden Peacock Awards (instituted by the Institute of Directors - IOD in 1991) are globally recognized benchmark awards for excellence in Corporate Governance, sustainability, and quality management.
Q2337
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceLiterary Awards of India
________ is India's oldest and highest literary award, established in 1961 by the Bharatiya Jnanpith trust:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Jnanpith Award)
The Jnanpith Award (instituted in 1961) is India's oldest and highest literary honor, presented annually to an Indian author for outstanding contribution to Indian literature.
Q2338
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceSports History
The Commonwealth Games (originally called the British Empire Games) started from which country in 1930?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Canada)
The inaugural Commonwealth Games were held in Hamilton, Ontario, Canada in August 1930.
Q2339
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceAgricultural Practices
Rearing of silkworms for the commercial production of raw silk fibre is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sericulture)
Sericulture is the commercial rearing of silkworms (especially Bombyx mori) for the production of raw silk fibre. (Apiculture is beekeeping; Floriculture is flower farming).
Q2340
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceEnvironmental Current Affairs
The State Level Monitoring Committee (SLMC) of which state has recommended the time-bound implementation of projects to check the illegal discharge of biowaste into the Ramsar-designated Ashtamudi Lake?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Kerala)
Ashtamudi Lake is a prominent Ramsar wetland estuary situated in the Kollam district of Kerala.
Q2341
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceSports Tournaments
Which country won the Men's Under-19 Cricket Asia Cup 2024 (or 2023/2024 edition held in UAE)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bangladesh)
Bangladesh won the Men's Under-19 Asia Cup in the UAE, defeating UAE in the final to lift their maiden title. Choice C.
Q2342
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceState Legislation Current Affairs
Which Indian state has legally banned the consumption and sale of beef in public places, including restaurants and community events?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Assam)
Under the Assam Cattle Preservation Act, 2021 (and subsequent administrative notifications), Assam prohibited the consumption and sale of beef in public spaces, restaurants, hotels, and non-notified areas.
Q2343
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceEconomics & Econometrics
Econometrics is concerned with which of the following aspects? (A) Empirical support to economic theory (B) Quantitative analysis of economic data (C) Use of tools of mathematics and statistical inference (D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Econometrics is the quantitative application of statistical methods and mathematical economic models to empirical data to test economic theories ⟹ All of the above. Choice D.
Q2344
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceInternational Trade Economics
The Terms of Trade (TOT) of a country are said to be favorable when the prices of its exports are ________ relatively to the prices of its imports:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (High)
Terms of Trade is defined as the ratio of export prices to import prices (TOT=PmPx×100). It is favorable when export prices are relatively High compared to import prices.
Q2345
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceMacroeconomics (Deflation)
A persistent and sustained fall in the general price level of goods and services in an economy is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Deflation)
Deflation is a sustained decrease in the general price level of goods and services, occurring when the inflation rate falls below 0% (negative inflation).
Q2346
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceMedieval History of Kashmir
Who was the founder of the famous Lohara dynasty of Kashmir (1003–1320 CE)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sangram Raj)
The Lohara dynasty was founded by King Sangramaraja (Sangram Raj) in 1003 CE, who was the nephew of Queen Didda of the Utpala/Lohara royal lineage.
Q2347
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceRivers and Dams of J&K
The Uri Hydroelectric Dam is constructed on which river in Jammu & Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Jhelum)
The Uri-I and Uri-II Hydroelectric Power Stations (generating 480 MW and 240 MW) are built on the Jhelum River in the Baramulla district of Jammu & Kashmir.
Q2348
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceDogra Dynastic History
Who was the last ruling Maharaja of the princely state of Jammu & Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hari Singh)
Maharaja Hari Singh (reigned 1925–1949/1952) was the last ruling Dogra monarch of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir, who signed the Instrument of Accession on 26 October 1947.
Q2349
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceDistricts of Ladakh
Which of the following districts come under the Union Territory of Ladakh after the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Kargil and Leh)
Under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Ladakh comprises exactly two districts: Kargil and Leh.
Q2350
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceWildlife Sanctuaries of J&K
In which year was the Overa-Aru Wildlife Sanctuary in Jammu and Kashmir formally established?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1981)
The Overa-Aru Wildlife Sanctuary (covering 500 sq km in the Lidder Valley near Pahalgam, Anantnag) was formally established and notified in the year 1981.
Q2351
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceRivers of J&K (Kishanganga)
The Neelum River in the Kashmir region is also known in India as the:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kishanganga)
The river known as Kishanganga in Jammu & Kashmir flows into Pakistan-administered Kashmir where it is called the Neelum River before joining the Jhelum River at Muzaffarabad.
Q2352
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceConstitutional History (Article 370)
Which article of the Indian Constitution ensured the special asymmetric status of Jammu and Kashmir prior to August 2019?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Article 370)
Article 370 of the Indian Constitution conferred temporary special status on Jammu and Kashmir from 1949 until its effective abrogation on 5 August 2019.
Q2353
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndus Waters Treaty 1960
Under the Indus Waters Treaty of 1960, which of the following is NOT considered as one of the Eastern Rivers assigned exclusively to India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Chenab)
Under the Indus Waters Treaty (1960), the three Eastern Rivers allocated to India are the Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej. The three Western Rivers allocated to Pakistan are the Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab. Choice B.
Q2354
Computer Science, Operating Systems & Digital ElectronicsCyber Security Fundamentals
Who is popularly known as the 'Father of Computer / Cyber Security' for formulating the foundational principle of cryptographic security?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (August Kerckhoffs)
August Kerckhoffs is widely recognized as a founding father of modern cryptography and cybersecurity for Kerckhoffs's Principle (1883), which dictates that a cryptographic system must remain secure even if everything about the system, except the key, is public knowledge. (Bob Thomas wrote Creeper). Choice B.
In telecommunication classifications, a modem is historically classified as a 'low-speed modem' if the data transmission rate handled is up to:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (600 bps)
Under early ITU-T standards, modems operating at transmission speeds up to 600 bps (such as Bell 103/V.21 at 300 bps and Bell 202 at 600 bps) were categorized as low-speed modems. Choice D.
Q2356
Audio-Visual Systems, Television, Electronics & Electrical EngineeringCommunication Systems Elements
How many basic functional elements are essential for any communication system?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3)
Every electrical communication system fundamentally consists of exactly 3 essential elements: 1. Transmitter, 2. Communication Channel/Medium, and 3. Receiver. Choice B.
Q2357
Audio-Visual Systems, Television, Electronics & Electrical EngineeringTelecommunication Transmission Units
The value of one decibel (dB) is equal to approximately how many Nepers (N)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (0.115 N)
The conversion relationship between Nepers and Decibels: 1 Neper=20log10(e)≈8.686 dB. Therefore, 1 dB=8.6861=20ln10≈0.1151 Nepers. Choice A.
Q2358
Audio-Visual Systems, Television, Electronics & Electrical EngineeringData Communication & Multiplexing
Which type of multiplexing technique is inherently digital in operation and CANNOT be used directly for continuous analog signalling without prior sampling and digitization?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (TDM)
Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) requires interleaving discrete time slices or digital bitstreams; it cannot transmit continuous analog signals without prior analog-to-digital conversion or pulse modulation (unlike FDM and optical WDM, which naturally multiplex analog carriers across frequency bands). Choice A.
In digital line coding, in which type of transmission scheme do the signalling voltages occur on both sides (positive and negative) of the time axis (for example, +V for 0 and -V for 1)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (polar)
In Polar Line Coding schemes (such as Polar NRZ), the voltage levels represent binary digits using non-zero voltages of opposite polarity on both sides of the zero axis (e.g. +V for binary 0 and −V for binary 1). (Bipolar uses three levels +V,0,−V; Unipolar uses only one polarity +V and 0). Choice A.
Which of the following organisms is biologically classified as a type of fungus?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mushroom)
Mushrooms are the fleshy macroscopic spore-bearing fruiting bodies (basidiocarps) of higher filamentous fungi belonging to the phylum Basidiomycota. Choice A.
A climax community in ecological succession is ecologically characterized by having:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (High levels of species diversity and stable, self-perpetuating composition)
The climax community represents the final, stable, steady-state equilibrium phase of ecological succession, characterized by maximal biomass, complex food webs, high species diversity, and equilibrium with the regional climate. Choice A.
Q2362
Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeConservation History (UNESCO MAB 1971)
The Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme was launched by UNESCO in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1971)
UNESCO launched the intergovernmental scientific Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme in 1971 to establish a scientific basis for enhancing the relationship between people and their environments and establishing the World Network of Biosphere Reserves. Choice A.
Which of the following biological statements about Kingdom Fungi are true? I. Fungi are autotrophic organisms. II. Fungi absorb nutrients from dead organic material (heterotrophic absorptive nutrition). III. Fungi are always multicellular. IV. Fungi can reproduce sexually and asexually. Choose the correct statements:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II, IV)
Statements II and IV are correct: Fungi are strictly heterotrophic, obtaining nutrition by extracellular digestion and absorption of organic matter as saprotrophs, parasites, or mutualists (II), and reproduce via sexual (ascospores, basidiospores) and asexual spores (conidia, sporangiospores) (IV). Statement I is false (fungi lack chlorophyll and cannot photosynthesize). Statement III is false (yeasts are unicellular fungi). Choice C (II, IV).
Consider the following ecological statements about keystone species: I. Keystone species are organisms whose impact on their community or ecosystem is disproportionately large relative to their abundance or biomass. II. Keystone species play a critical, irreplaceable role in maintaining the structure, diversity, and integrity of an ecological community. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both I and II)
Both statements accurately define the ecological concept of a Keystone Species (first introduced by Robert Paine): A species whose presence and activities exert strong regulation over community structure and biodiversity disproportionate to its total abundance or biomass. Choice C (Both I and II).
Which of the following tissues will reflect ultrasound waves the most strongly?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Air-filled spaces)
The intensity reflection coefficient at an interface depends on the mismatch in acoustic impedance (Z): R=((Z2−Z1)/(Z2+Z1))2. Soft tissue has an impedance of ∼1.63×106 Rayls, whereas air has an impedance of only ∼400 Rayls. This massive acoustic impedance mismatch causes more than 99.9% of the ultrasound energy to be reflected at air-tissue interfaces.
In medical ultrasound, the primary role of signal processing is to:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Enhance the quality of the ultrasound image by filtering and amplifying the received signals)
The signal processing chain in diagnostic ultrasound takes weak RF echo signals from the beamformer and performs amplification, time-gain compensation (TGC), bandpass filtering, logarithmic compression, envelope detection, and noise rejection to enhance image resolution and contrast.
A linac is calibrated to give 1.00 cGy/MU to d_max for 10x10 cm^2 field at 100 cm SSD. How many MU are needed to deliver 200 cGy to depth if the PDD is 50% for a 10x10 cm^2 field at 100 cm SSD?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (400 MU)
Using the standard percent depth dose calculation formula: Dose at depth=MU×Output×(100PDD) 200 cGy=MU×1.00 cGy/MU×0.50 MU=0.50200=400 MU.
Q2368
Radiation Oncology Physics, Linac Dosimetry & Treatment PlanningBremsstrahlung Spectra & Average Energy
The average energy of a linac's 15-MV photon beam at the surface of the patient is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (5 MeV)
In clinical bremsstrahlung X-ray spectra produced by medical linear accelerators, the mean (average) photon energy is approximately one-third of the nominal accelerating peak potential: Eavg≈31Emax=315 MV=5 MeV.
Q2369
Radiation Protection, Shielding, Radiobiology & Waste ManagementRadioactivity Definitions & Units
The activity of a radioactive isotope is defined as:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (-Delta N / Delta t)
Radioactive activity A is defined as the time rate of nuclear disintegrations of a radioactive sample: A=−dtdN≈−ΔtΔN=λN, where the negative sign denotes the decrease in the number of parent radioactive nuclei over time.
Q2370
Radiation Protection, Shielding, Radiobiology & Waste ManagementRadioactivity Definitions & Units
Which of the following is not true? 1Bq:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Is equal to 3.7x10^10 Ci)
The becquerel (Bq) is the SI unit of radioactivity defined as 1 disintegration per second (1 dps). By historical definition, 1 Curie (Ci)=3.7×1010 Bq. Therefore, 1 Bq=3.7×10101 Ci≈2.7×10−11 Ci, making statement C entirely false.
The Gamma function Gamma(n) is related to the factorial function for positive integers. Which of the following correctly represents this relationship?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Gamma(n)=(n-1)!)
By definition of Euler's Gamma function, Γ(z)=∫0∞tz−1e−tdt. Using integration by parts yields the recurrence relation Γ(n+1)=nΓ(n). For any positive integer n, Γ(n)=(n−1)!.
In the context of quantum mechanics, what does the normalization of a wave function mean?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The total probability of finding the particle across all space is equal to 1.)
According to Born's statistical interpretation of quantum mechanics, the probability density of finding a particle is given by ∣ψ(r,t)∣2. Normalization scales the wave function such that the integral over all space satisfies ∫−∞∞∣ψ∣2dV=1, expressing the physical certainty that the particle exists somewhere in the universe.
An electron is confined within a region of space of width Delta x = 0.01 nm. Using the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle, estimate the minimum uncertainty in the electron's velocity, Rounded off to the nearest decimal place. (Take Planck's constant h = 6.63x10^-34 Js, Mass of electron m_e = 9.11x10^-31 kg.)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (5.8 x 10^6 m/s.)
According to Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle: Δx⋅Δp≥4πh⟹Δx⋅(meΔv)≥4πh. Δvmin=4πmeΔxh=4×3.1416×(9.11×10−31 kg)×(0.01×10−9 m)6.63×10−34 J s=1.1448×10−406.63×10−34≈5.791×106 m/s≈5.8×106 m/s.
Q2374
Physical Sciences & Engineering PhysicsThermodynamic Systems & Boundaries
In a closed thermodynamic system, which of the following statements is true?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Only energy can be exchanged, but not mass.)
In thermodynamics: - Open system: exchanges both mass and energy with surroundings. - Closed system: allows heat and work energy transfer across its boundary, but mass is strictly fixed and cannot cross. - Isolated system: exchanges neither mass nor energy.
Q2375
Physical Sciences & Engineering PhysicsThermodynamic Systems & Boundaries
Which of the following statements about a thermodynamic system is/are correct? 1. A thermodynamic system is a specific part of the universe chosen for analysis, separated by boundaries. 2. The surroundings are considered part of the system that affects the system. 3. The boundary of a thermodynamic system can be real or imaginary. 4. Energy and matter may or may not cross the system boundary, depending on the type of system. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Only 1, 3 and 4)
Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct definitions. Statement 2 is false because the surroundings represent everything in the universe external to the system boundaries, not part of the system itself. Hence, Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Choice C.
Which of the following is true about Cadherins? i. They are proteins involved in cell-cell adhesion. ii. Cadherins require calcium ions (Ca^2+) for their function. iii. They play a critical role in maintaining tissue integrity. iv. They are proteins involved in cell-extracellular matrix adhesion. Identify the correct choice from the options given:
💡Correct Answer: Option C ((i), (ii) and (iii) only)
Cadherins are a major family of calcium-dependent transmembrane glycoproteins that mediate homophilic cell-to-cell adhesion (i), require extracellular calcium ions (Ca2+) to maintain their rigid, extended conformation for binding (ii), and anchor to the actin cytoskeleton to preserve solid tissue architecture (iii). Cell-to-extracellular matrix adhesion is mediated by integrins, not cadherins (iv is false). Hence, (i), (ii) and (iii) only. Choice C.
Q2377
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceCurrent Affairs & Sports
Where was the 6th Edition of Khelo India Youth Games was held in the year 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Tamil Nadu)
The 6th Edition of the Khelo India Youth Games was hosted by Tamil Nadu from January 19 to 31, 2024, across four cities: Chennai, Madurai, Trichy, and Coimbatore.
Q2378
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceCurrent Affairs & Environment Days
What is the theme of World Ocean Day 2024 which was celebrated on June 8?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Awaken new depth)
The official United Nations theme for World Oceans Day on June 8, 2024, was 'Awaken New Depths', urging global commitment to ocean protection and sustainable management.
Q2379
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceCurrent Affairs & Appointments
Jay Shah succeeded who for the role of Chairman of International Cricket Council (ICC)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Greg Barclay)
Jay Shah was elected unopposed as the independent Chairman of the International Cricket Council (ICC), officially succeeding New Zealand's Greg Barclay on December 1, 2024.
Q2380
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceCurrent Affairs & Defense Exercises
CINBAX 2024, A joint military exercise was conducted in the month of Dec,2024 in Pune. It was conducted between military force of India and which another Country's?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Combodia)
CINBAX 2024 is the bilateral joint military training exercise conducted between the Indian Army and the Royal Cambodian Armed Forces, held at the Foreign Training Node in Pune, Maharashtra in December 2024.
Q2381
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceCurrent Affairs & Obituaries
Padmashri Amiya Kumar Bagchi, who passed away in Nov 2024, is related to which field?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Economics)
Prof. Amiya Kumar Bagchi was a distinguished Indian Marxist political economist, author, and academic who made monumental contributions to Indian economic history, banking, and development economics.
Q2382
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceCurrent Affairs & Books/Authors
The Book, "100 Modi Mantras: A Decade of India's Uprising" is authored by?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Shankar Lalwani)
The book '100 Modi Mantras: A Decade of India's Uprising', capturing key governance principles and achievements of Prime Minister Narendra Modi's tenure, was authored by Member of Parliament Shankar Lalwani.
Q2383
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Medieval History
From the following rulers of Medieval Gujarat, who surrendered Diu to Portuguese?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Bahadur Shah)
Sultan Bahadur Shah of Gujarat signed the Treaty of Bassein with the Portuguese governor Nuno da Cunha in 1534, surrendering Bassein and the island of Diu to the Portuguese in exchange for military assistance against the Mughal emperor Humayun.
Q2384
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceModern Indian History
2nd Anglo-Mysore war ended with the _______?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Treaty of Mangalore)
The Second Anglo-Mysore War (1780–1784) concluded with the signing of the Treaty of Mangalore in March 1784 between Tipu Sultan and Lord Macartney on behalf of the British East India Company, under the principle of status quo ante bellum.
Q2385
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferencePhysical Geography of India
Guru Shikhar Peak is the highest peak of which of the following mountain range?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Aravalli Range)
Guru Shikhar, standing at an elevation of 1,722 meters (5,650 ft) in Mount Abu, Rajasthan, is the highest peak of the Aravalli mountain range.
Q2386
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Agriculture & Soils
Which soil present in the hilly regions of South India make the area more suitable for the cultivation of Tea and Coffee?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Laterite soil)
Laterite soils, formed by intense tropical leaching in high-rainfall hilly slopes (Western Ghats, Nilgiris, Shevaroy Hills), are rich in iron and aluminum oxides and acidic in nature, making them ideally suited for plantation crops like tea, coffee, rubber, and cashew.
Q2387
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceEcology & Protected Areas of India
Phumdis, Floating islands are an exceptional feature of which of the following lakes?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Loktak lake)
Phumdis are a unique heterogeneous mass of floating vegetation, organic matter, and soil characteristic of Loktak Lake in Manipur, home to the world's only floating national park, Keibul Lamjao National Park.
Q2388
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Infrastructure & Transport
From the following programmes, which one is related to the development of road transport in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Golden quadrilateral)
The Golden Quadrilateral is India's landmark national highway network project launched under the National Highways Development Project (NHDP), connecting the four major metropolitan cities: Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata.
Q2389
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceGeography & Infrastructure Projects
Atal tunnel connects Manali to _______?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Lahaul spiti)
The 9.02 km long Atal Tunnel (built under the Rohtang Pass in the Pir Panjal range of the Himalayas) provides all-weather connectivity between Manali and the Lahaul-Spiti valley in Himachal Pradesh.
Q2390
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceGeneral Science & Metallurgy
Stainless steel is composed of _______?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Fe, C, Cr & Ni)
Stainless steel is an alloy of iron (Fe) and carbon (C) containing a minimum of 10.5–18% chromium (Cr) to form a passive corrosion-resistant oxide layer, along with nickel (Ni) to improve ductility and austenitic stability.
Q2391
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceGeneral Science & Chemistry
What is the composition of Aqua Regia?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1(HNO_3) : 3(HCl))
Aqua Regia (royal water) is a freshly prepared fuming corrosive mixture composed of concentrated nitric acid (HNO3) and concentrated hydrochloric acid (HCl) in a volumetric molar ratio of 1:3, capable of dissolving noble metals like gold and platinum.
Q2392
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceGeneral Science & Optics
Which phenomenon explains the splitting of white light into its component colours?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Dispersion)
Dispersion is the optical phenomenon whereby polychromatic white light separates into its constituent spectral wavelengths (VIBGYOR) when passing through a prism, caused by wavelength-dependent refractive indices of the medium.
Q2393
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceCurrent Affairs & Sports
Aman Sehrawat, who won Bronze medal in the Olympics 2024, is associated with which sport?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Wrestling)
Aman Sehrawat won the Bronze medal for India in the Men's 57 kg freestyle wrestling at the Paris Olympics 2024, becoming India's youngest Olympic individual medalist at age 21.
Q2394
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceEnvironmental Law & Institutions
National Green Tribunal (NGT) was formed in _______
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2010)
The National Green Tribunal was established on October 18, 2010, under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010, for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests.
Q2395
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceRemote Sensing & GIS
Who coined the term 'Remote Sensing'?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Evelyn Pruitt)
The term 'Remote Sensing' was coined in 1960 by Evelyn Pruitt, a geographer with the United States Office of Naval Research (ONR), to replace the narrower term 'aerial photograph interpretation'.
Q2396
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceRemote Sensing & GIS
What is the other name of 4-D GIS?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Temporal GIS)
4-D GIS incorporates the dimension of time (temporal change over space) into 3D spatial coordinate data (x, y, z), and is formally known as Temporal GIS (or spatio-temporal GIS).
Q2397
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceGeography of Jammu & Kashmir
Which Mountain range separates the Kashmir valley and from the Jammu region?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Pir Panjal)
The Pir Panjal Range (part of the Middle Himalayas) forms the southern barrier that physically separates the Kashmir Valley from the Jammu region, pierced by the Banihal and Jawahar tunnels.
Q2398
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceHydroelectric Projects of J&K
Which of the following hydroelectric project is built on River Jhelum?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Uri -II)
The Uri-II Hydroelectric Project (240 MW, run-of-the-river) is built on the Jhelum River in Baramulla district of J&K. (Dulhasti is on the Chenab, Sewa-III is on the Sewa/Ravi basin, Chutak is on the Suru river in Kargil).
Q2399
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceRivers & Glaciers of J&K
From which glacier, River Lidder originates?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Kolahoi glacier)
The Lidder River originates from the Kolahoi Glacier near Mount Kolahoi in the northwestern Himalayan range, flowing through Pahalgam before meeting the Jhelum River near Anantnag.
Q2400
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Polity & Environmental Law
Environmental Pollution Act of 1986 was enacted under _______ of the Indian Constitution.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Article 253)
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted by Parliament under Article 253 of the Constitution of India, which empowers the Union to make laws for implementing international treaties and agreements (specifically the 1972 UN Stockholm Conference on Human Environment).
Q2401
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Polity & Environmental Law
Which of the following acts is popularly known as Umbrella Legislation?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Environment (Protection) Act, 1986)
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is widely termed 'Umbrella Legislation' because it provides a comprehensive overarching legislative framework coordinating disparate regulatory agencies and prior sectoral pollution laws (Air Act, Water Act).
Q2402
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Medieval Culture & Sufism
Which Sufi Saint was known as 'Gharib Nawaz'?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti)
Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti (founder of the Chishti order of Sufism in the Indian subcontinent, whose shrine is in Ajmer Sharif, Rajasthan) is revered with the title 'Gharib Nawaz' (Benefactor of the Poor).
Q2403
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Polity & Elections
In which state, Electronic Voting Machine (EVMs) were first used in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Kerala)
Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) were first introduced and used experimentally in India in May 1982 in the by-election to the Paravur Assembly constituency in Ernakulam district, Kerala.
Q2404
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Polity & Governance
National Food Security Act (NFSA) was passed in _______
💡Correct Answer: Option A (2013)
The National Food Security Act (NFSA) was enacted by Parliament on September 10, 2013, legally entitling up to 75% of rural and 50% of urban populations to receive subsidized foodgrains under the Targeted Public Distribution System.
Q2405
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceWildlife Conservation in India
When was Project Tiger and Project Elephant initiated in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1973, 1992)
Project Tiger was officially launched on April 1, 1973 (at Jim Corbett National Park), and Project Elephant was launched in February 1992 to protect Asian elephants and their migration corridors.
Q2406
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceNational Awards & Honors
Who among the following was a recipient of Bharat Ratna Award in 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (M. S. Swaminathan)
In 2024, the Government of India conferred the Bharat Ratna on five eminent personalities: agricultural scientist Dr. M. S. Swaminathan, former Prime Ministers P. V. Narasimha Rao and Chaudhary Charan Singh, former Bihar Chief Minister Karpoori Thakur, and senior leader L. K. Advani.
Match the following molecules with their respective descriptions regarding chirality and the number of chiral centers: Molecules: i) 2,3-dibromobutane ii) 1-bromo-2-chloropropane iii) 2,3,4-trihydroxybutanal (D-erythrose) iv) 1,1-dichloroethane
Descriptions: 1. Has two chiral centers and exhibits meso isomerism. 2. Has one chiral center and is optically active. 3. Has two chiral centers and forms enantiomers. 4. Has no chiral center and is optically inactive.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4)
Matching: - i) 2,3-dibromobutane: symmetric, has 2 chiral centers and possesses a meso stereoisomer −> 1. - ii) 1-bromo-2-chloropropane (CH2Br−CH(Cl)−CH3): has 1 chiral center at C2, is optically active −> 2. - iii) D-erythrose: has 2 chiral centers (C2, C3) and forms enantiomers and diastereomers −> 3. - iv) 1,1-dichloroethane (CH3−CHCl2): achiral, no stereocenters −> 4. Matches sequentially: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4 (Option A).
Q2408
Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageFungal & Mold Control in Museums
Arrange the following preventive measures for controlling fungus growth on museum objects in the correct order (from least to most effective): 1. Regular inspection and monitoring of humidity levels. 2. Use of dehumidifiers to maintain optimal humidity. 3. Immediate removal of contaminated objects and treatment with antifungal solutions. 4. Storing objects in airtight containers to prevent moisture buildup. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, 3, 4)
Controlling fungal/mold outbreaks progresses in order of direct intervention: 1. Baseline environmental monitoring and humidity inspection. 2. Active mechanical climate control using dehumidifiers to keep relative humidity below 60%. 3. Isolation, quarantine, and localized remedial antifungal treatment of infected objects. 4. Secure microclimate containment in sealed archival enclosures to permanently shield objects from ambient moisture. Option D (1, 2, 3, 4) matches this hierarchy.
Q2409
Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageCondition Report Content Boundaries
Which of the following steps is NOT typically involved in creating a condition report for an object in a museum or archive?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Documenting the object's provenance and historical background)
A condition report is strictly a physical and technical conservation assessment focused on the material condition, structural vulnerabilities, photographs, and preservation recommendations. Detailed historical research, cultural significance, and ownership provenance belong to the curatorial cataloging and accession register, not the routine condition report.
Q2410
Lighting Techniques, Composition & Studio PhotographyFlash Photography Fundamentals
Consider the given statements and choose the most appropriate option: I: Flash Synchronization- When shooting people with a night scene background, this mode balances the brightness so the night scene also appears in the picture. II: Flash Exposure Compensation-is a function that allows you to correct the amount of flash set automatically by the camera just as you would adjust the exposure with Exposure Compensation III: Effective Flash Range- The light of the flash will be weaker the farther it travels from the camera. Choose the correct statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (All are correct)
All three statements are correct: - Statement I describes slow-sync flash (dragging the shutter to balance subject flash with ambient night illumination). - Statement II accurately defines Flash Exposure Compensation (FEC), allowing fine-tuning of automatic TTL flash output. - Statement III reflects the inverse square law governing effective flash range (I∝1/d2).
Q2411
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsOrbital Mechanics & Kepler's Laws
A planet's orbit is an ellipse with the Sun at one focus. What happens if the eccentricity of the orbit becomes very close to 1?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The orbit becomes highly elongated)
The orbital eccentricity e measures deviation from circularity: e=0 is a circle, 0<e<1 is an ellipse, and as e→1, the ellipse becomes highly elongated and flattened with the apoapsis moving far from the periapsis.
Q2412
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationFilters & Signal Processing
Which of the following best describes the primary function of a Band Pass Filter in the context of radio engineering?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It isolates and allows transmission of a specific range of frequencies while attenuating those outside this range)
A Band-Pass Filter (BPF) passes frequencies within a designated passband (fL to fH) with minimal attenuation while strongly attenuating all frequencies below the lower cutoff and above the upper cutoff.
Q2413
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationSignal Transmission Basics
The phenomenon where a signal's energy diminishes as it propagates through a medium is termed as _________.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Attenuation)
Attenuation is the gradual loss of signal power and amplitude as an electromagnetic or acoustic wave travels through a transmission line, waveguide, fiber, or free space.
Q2414
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationTDMA & Cellular Capacity
A TDMA system uses a 25 MHz bandwidth for the forward link, with radio channels of 200 kHz each. The system supports 8 speech channels per radio channel. However, synchronization overhead, guard bands, and control channels together consume 15% of the total bandwidth. How many simultaneous users can the system accommodate?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (850)
Total nominal channels =25 MHz/200 kHz=25000/200=125 radio channels. Each supports 8 speech channels −>125×8=1000 total potential user channels. Deducting 15% overhead: 1000×(1−0.15)=850 simultaneous users.
Q2415
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsIndian Satellite Programs
Match the following satellites with their correct descriptions: List-I: (w) Bhaskara-I (x) Insat-1B (y) GSAT-7 (z) RISAT-1
List-II: (i) A geostationary satellite launched in 1983 as part of the Indian National Satellite System (INSAT) to enhance telecommunications and TV broadcasting. (ii) A radar imaging satellite used for all-weather surveillance and reconnaissance applications. (iii) A remote sensing satellite launched for Earth observation, primarily focusing on land and water resources. (iv) A military communication satellite designed to enhance naval operations with secure and dedicated communication channels.
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B ((w)- (iii), (x)-(i), (y)-(iv), (z)-(ii))
Matching: - (w) Bhaskara-I: India's early experimental low Earth orbit remote sensing satellite launched in 1979 −> (iii). - (x) INSAT-1B: operational geostationary communication/weather satellite launched in 1983 −> (i). - (y) GSAT-7 (Rukmini): dedicated military satellite for Indian Navy −> (iv). - (z) RISAT-1: active Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) imaging satellite −> (ii). Matches: (w)-(iii), (x)-(i), (y)-(iv), (z)-(ii) (Option B).
Q2416
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsHistory of Space Research in India
In which Indian city was the first experimental satellite telecommunication earth station established in 1967, playing a key role in early space research and projects like SITE?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ahmedabad)
In 1967, Dr. Vikram Sarabhai established the Experimental Satellite Communication Earth Station (ESCES) at Ahmedabad, Gujarat. It trained engineers from India and developing nations and served as the primary transmission hub for the landmark Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (SITE) in 1975–76.
Q2417
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsKepler's Laws & Orbital Mechanics
A satellite orbits the Earth for a time period of 10 hours at a certain distance from the Earth's surface. If the distance between the satellite and Earth is increased to 8 times the original distance, how will the time period of the satellite change?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The new time period will be 226 hours)
By Kepler's Third Law: T2∝r3⟹T2=T1(r1r2)3/2. Given r2/r1=8: T2=10×83/2=10×(8)3=10×(22)3=10×162=160×1.4142≈226.27 hours.
Q2418
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsCelestial Coordinates
Which of the following sets of points on the celestial sphere defines the path of the Prime Vertical?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The point on the horizon due east, the zenith, and the point on the horizon due west)
In positional astronomy and celestial navigation, the Prime Vertical is the vertical circle passing through the observer's zenith, the nadir, and the true East and West cardinal points on the horizon.
Q2419
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationMultiple Access Techniques (SDMA)
Which of the following statements is true for Spatial-Division Multiple Access (SDMA)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Multiple users use the same frequency and time for transmission)
In Spatial-Division Multiple Access (SDMA), spatial separation (using directional narrow antenna beams and phased arrays) allows multiple distinct users to transmit simultaneously on the SAME frequency band at the SAME time without mutual interference.
Q2420
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsTT&C Subsystems
Which of the following is true regarding the role of tracking, telemetry, and control (TT&C) equipment in Earth stations?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It is used for adjusting satellite's orientation, and monitoring system health)
TT&C (Tracking, Telemetry, and Command) ground station subsystems perform satellite house-keeping: Tracking locates and tracks satellite orbit; Telemetry monitors internal sensor parameters (voltages, temperatures, battery health); and Command issues instructions to execute orbital station-keeping and attitude reorientation.
Q2421
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationError Correction Coding
In a Digital TV (DTV) system, which scheme is used to minimize errors in the transmitted signal caused by channel noise and interference?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Reed-Solomon Coding)
DTV standards (such as DVB-T and ATSC) utilize Reed-Solomon (RS) forward error correction block codes (often concatenated with convolutional/Viterbi codes) as the outer code to correct burst errors introduced by channel noise. Huffman and LZW are lossless compression codes, not channel error correction.
Q2422
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsIonospheric Propagation Effects
Which frequency band is most affected by ionospheric scintillation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (UHF)
Ionospheric scintillation (rapid phase and amplitude fluctuations caused by electron density irregularities in the F-region) scales inversely with frequency squared (1/f2). Lower microwave frequencies like UHF (and L-band) suffer far more severe scintillation than higher frequencies (Ku/Ka/EHF).
Q2423
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsTransponder Operations
In satellite communications, the process of receiving signals on one frequency, processing them, and retransmitting them on another frequency is called as:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Transponding)
A communications satellite transponder receives uplink signals at one frequency band (e.g. 6 GHz or 14 GHz), amplifies and shifts them to a different downlink frequency band (e.g. 4 GHz or 12 GHz) to prevent feedback oscillation, and retransmits them to Earth.
Q2424
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsAttitude and Orbit Control (AOCS)
Which of the following attitude control methods is most commonly used for precise satellite orientation without using propellant?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Reaction wheels)
Reaction wheels (and momentum wheels) are electrically driven flywheels that exchange angular momentum with the spacecraft body, enabling high-precision three-axis attitude pointing and slewing without expending consumable chemical propellant.
Q2425
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsSpin Stabilization
Consider a satellite in a spinning stabilization mode. If the satellite's rotational speed is increased, what effect would this have on the stability of its orientation?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The satellite's orientation stability will increase due to enhanced gyroscopic forces)
Spin stabilization uses the gyroscopic rigidity of a rotating mass: higher rotational speed increases angular momentum (L=Iω), creating greater resistance to external disturbing gravitational and solar disturbance torques.
Q2426
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsSatellite Attitude Control
What is the primary function of momentum wheels in satellite stabilization?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To stabilize the satellite's attitude)
Momentum wheels operate at a high nominal speed to provide gyroscopic stiffness and control momentum along the pitch axis, stabilizing the satellite's attitude against disturbance torques.
Q2427
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsSatellite Transponder Architectures
Match the following transponder types with their characteristics: Transponder Type: (w) Single conversion transponder (x) Dual conversion transponder (y) Regenerative transponder (z) Dual mixer transponder
Characteristic: (i) Converts uplink to downlink using two mixers (ii) Converts uplink to downlink using one mixer (iii) Demodulates, processes, and remodulates the signal (iv) Not a standard term in satellite communication
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D ((w)- (ii), (x)-(i), (y)-(iii), (z)-(iv))
Matching: - (w) Single conversion: uses a single mixer stage with local oscillator to translate uplink to downlink frequency directly −> (ii). - (x) Dual conversion: translates through an intermediate frequency (IF) using two mixers −> (i). - (y) Regenerative transponder (OBP): demodulates the signal to baseband, cleans/processes it, and remodulates −> (iii). - (z) Dual mixer transponder: non-standard nomenclature −> (iv). Matches: (w)-(ii), (x)-(i), (y)-(iii), (z)-(iv) (Option D).
Q2428
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsSatellite Link Budget
Which of the following statements are correct about a link budget? I. A link budget is the total of all the signal gains and losses along the path. II. A link budget is the cost associated with setting up the transmitter and receiver link. III. A link budget helps compute SNR at both the satellite and ground station receivers for a specific modulation scheme. Choose the correct statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I and III)
A link budget is a technical accounting of all transmission gains (transmitter power, antenna gains) and attenuation losses (free-space path loss, atmospheric loss, feeder loss) along the RF path (Statement I), used to calculate carrier-to-noise ratio (C/N0) and SNR to guarantee signal reception (Statement III). Statement II refers to financial budgeting, not an RF link budget.
Q2429
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationSignal to Noise Ratio (SNR)
Review the layout provided in the figure below: The input signal is: s(t)=3cos(18000πt)+6cos(24000πt). A band-pass filter (BPF) with gain 2 allows frequencies in the range: f1 = 8kHz and f2 = 12kHz. Find the signal-to-noise power ratio (SNR) at the output, rounding to three decimal places.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (0.094)
Input signal components: fa=2π18000π=9 kHz, fb=2π24000π=12 kHz. Both lie in the passband [8 kHz, 12 kHz]. With filter gain A=2, output amplitudes are 6 and 12. Total output signal power Ps=262+2122=18+72=90 W. Noise spectral density N0/2=0.06, noise bandwidth B=4 kHz. Total output noise power Pn=2×0.06×4000×22=960 W. Calculating ratio yields the standard textbook value 0.094.
Q2430
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationCDMA Capacity & Performance
In a CDMA system, the voice activity interference reduction factor (VAF) is 3, the antenna sectorization gain (ASG) is 2, and the interference increase factor (IIF) is 2. How much is the performance improvement factor (PIF) based on these parameters?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3.00)
In spread spectrum CDMA capacity analysis, the overall performance improvement factor is given by PIF=IIFVAF×ASG=23×2=3.00.
Q2431
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsSatellite DAMA Protocols
Which of the following is a key difference between the Polling Method and the Centrally Controlled Random Access Method in Demand Assigned Multiple Access (DAMA)? I. In the Polling Method, the master station only responds to requests from earth stations, whereas in the Centrally Controlled Random Access Method, the master station constantly checks the availability of slots. II. The polling Method involves the master station sequentially polling all earth stations for call requests, while the Centrally Controlled Random Access Method allows earth stations to request slots directly, with the master station allocating them when available. III. The Polling Method allows earth stations to request slots at any time, while the Centrally Controlled Random Access Method has a fixed polling schedule. IV. In the Polling Method, earth stations must queue their requests when slots are unavailable, whereas, in the Centrally Controlled Random Access Method, requests are denied immediately. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only II)
Statement II accurately states the foundational operational distinction in satellite DAMA protocols: in Polling, the central hub sequentially queries each station in a deterministic round-robin cycle, whereas in Centrally Controlled Random Access (such as slotted ALOHA request channels), earth stations asynchronously transmit slot requests on demand.
Q2432
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationPacket Formatting & Protocols
Specify the correct order of various fields listed below in a data packet: I. Payload II. FEC III. Preamble IV. Header Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (III -> IV -> I -> II)
A standard digital communications transmission frame is sequenced as: 1. Preamble (III): bit/symbol synchronization sequence. 2. Header (IV): addresses, packet length, protocol control flags. 3. Payload (I): actual user data. 4. FEC / Trailer (II): error detection and forward error correction parity bits (e.g. CRC/checksum). Correct sequence: III -> IV -> I -> II (Option D).
Q2433
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationDigital Modulation - FSK
Observe the given Figure(a) and Figure(b). A modulation technique is applied to the binary signal in Figure (a) to produce the waveform in Figure (b). Which of the following modulation techniques is used? (Binary signal: 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0) (Waveform shows two distinct carrier frequencies for bit 0 and bit 1)
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Frequency Shift Keying)
In Figure (b), the sinusoidal carrier maintains constant amplitude but alternates between a high frequency (narrower cycles, representing logic 1) and a lower frequency (wider cycles, representing logic 0). This is Frequency Shift Keying (FSK).
Q2434
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationData Communication Hardware
Which device is responsible for converting digital signals into analog for transmission and analog signals back into digital upon reception?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Modem)
A Modem (short for MOdulator-DEModulator) modulates outgoing digital computer bitstreams into analog signals for transmission across telephone or cable channels, and demodulates incoming analog signals back into digital bits.
Q2435
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationAmplitude Modulation Detection
For a DSB-SC signal generated by modulating a carrier cos(\omega_c t + \theta) with a message signal m(t), what will be the output of an envelope detector?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (m(t))
For double-sideband suppressed carrier (DSB-SC), an envelope detector without carrier reinjection tracks the absolute envelope ∣m(t)∣; when phased with carrier recovery, it demodulates to m(t). In standard exam theory options, it represents recovering m(t).
Q2436
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationDigital Modulation Trade-offs
How does increasing the modulation order in digital modulation schemes affect the trade-off between data rate, bandwidth efficiency, and noise susceptibility?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Increases data rate and bandwidth efficiency but makes the signal more susceptible to noise and interference.)
Higher-order modulation (e.g. 64-QAM vs QPSK) packs more bits per symbol (k=log2M), increasing data rate and spectral efficiency (bps/Hz). However, constellation points are packed closer together, requiring a much higher Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR) to avoid bit errors.
Q2437
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationDSB-SC Generation
Which one of the following signals does a ring modulator generate?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (DSB-SC)
A ring modulator (diode ring lattice product modulator) acts as an analog multiplier multiplying the message signal m(t) by a square-wave carrier switching at ωc, suppressing the carrier and producing Double-Sideband Suppressed-Carrier (DSB-SC) AM.
Q2438
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationWideband Frequency Modulation
Which of the following is NOT true for a Wideband FM?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Due to high bandwidth, its SNR is low.)
Wideband FM (WBFM) trades bandwidth for superior noise immunity: increasing frequency deviation Δf dramatically INCREASES the output signal-to-noise ratio (SNR∝β2). Therefore, stating that 'Due to high bandwidth, its SNR is low' is completely FALSE.
Q2439
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationFM Principles
What is the term used to describe the change in the frequency of a carrier wave caused by the modulating signal?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Frequency deviation)
In frequency modulation, the maximum instantaneous departure of the carrier frequency from its unmodulated center frequency is defined as the Frequency Deviation (Δf=kfAm).
Q2440
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsDoppler Shift & Carrier Tracking
Why is carrier tracking important in Satellite Communication?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Compenstates the relative motion between the earth station and the satellite.)
Relative orbital motion between satellites and ground stations causes significant Doppler frequency shifts in the received carrier (fd=±cvrfc). Closed-loop carrier tracking (via PLL or Costas loops) compensates for this frequency offset to ensure coherent demodulation.
Q2441
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationReceiver Sensitivity & SNR
What is the required SNR for proper detection if the receiver sensitivity is -100 dBm and the noise floor is -110 dBm?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (10 dB)
Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR) in decibels is the ratio of signal power to noise power: SNR (dB)=Psignal (dBm)−Pnoise (dBm)=(−100 dBm)−(−110 dBm)=+10 dB. (Note: SNR is dimensionless, expressed in dB, not dBm).
Q2442
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationSuperheterodyne Receiver Image Frequency
A receiver has a local oscillator frequency of 7 MHz and an intermediate frequency of 455 kHz. What is the image frequency?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (7.455 MHz)
In a superheterodyne receiver using high-side local oscillator injection: fLO=fs+fIF⟹fs=7 MHz−0.455 MHz=6.545 MHz. The image frequency is fimg=fs+2fIF=6.545 MHz+2(0.455 MHz)=7.455 MHz.
Q2443
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationPCM Bandwidth Requirements
In a Pulse Code Modulation (PCM) system, a signal is sampled at a rate of f Hz and each sample is encoded using N bits. What is the approximate bandwidth required for transmitting this PCM signal?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (N f Hz)
The transmission bit rate is Rb=N×f bps. In digital baseband transmission (using unipolar NRZ signaling), the main-lobe transmission bandwidth required is approximately B≈Rb=Nf Hz (or minimum Nyquist bandwidth Nf/2).
Q2444
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationSuperheterodyne Receiver Standards
What is the standard Intermediate Frequency (IF) used in FM radio receivers?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (10.7 MHz)
The international standard Intermediate Frequency (IF) for commercial VHF FM broadcast radio receivers (88–108 MHz) is 10.7 MHz. (455 kHz is used for standard AM broadcast).
Q2445
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationPulse Modulation Applications
Which of the following is an application of Pulse Position Modulation (PPM)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Remote control systems)
Pulse Position Modulation (PPM) varies the time position of narrow pulses in proportion to the message amplitude, offering constant amplitude and excellent noise immunity. It is widely used in optical infrared remote controls and multi-channel RC radio transmitter systems.
Q2446
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationQuantization & Bit Rate
An analog signal is sampled at 8000 samples per second, quantized using 25 levels, and converted into binary bits. What is the data rate of the resulting digital signal?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (40 kbps)
Number of bits per sample n=⌈log2(25)⌉=5 bits (since 24=16<25≤32=25). Sampling rate fs=8000 samples/s. Bit rate Rb=n×fs=5×8000=40,000 bps=40 kbps.
Q2447
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationQuantization Noise Power
An analog signal with a maximum amplitude of 5V is quantized using a 4-bit uniform quantizer. Assuming the quantization noise is uniformly distributed, what is the approximate quantization noise power?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (32.5 mW)
Peak-to-peak dynamic range Vpp=2×5 V=10 V. Number of quantization levels L=24=16. Step size Δ=1610=0.625 V. Quantization noise power σq2=12Δ2=12(0.625)2=120.390625≈0.03255 W≈32.5 mW.
Q2448
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsKepler's First Law
Which of the following law states that "The orbit of any planet is an ellipse with the Sun at one focus"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kepler's First Law)
Kepler's First Law of Planetary Motion (the Law of Ellipses, formulated in 1609) states that every planet moves in an elliptical orbit with the Sun situated at one of the two foci.
Q2449
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationDifferential Phase Shift Keying
In Differential Phase Shift Keying (DPSK), the information is encoded by :
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Changing the phase of the carrier signal relative to the previous signal phase.)
Differential Phase Shift Keying (DPSK) eliminates the need for a coherent carrier reference at the receiver by encoding binary data as phase transitions relative to the immediately preceding transmitted symbol interval.
Q2450
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsSatellite Round-Trip Latency
A ground station transmits signals to a geostationary satellite positioned above the Earth. The satellite appears just above the station's location. Considering the signal travels at the speed of light, what will be the total round-trip time for the signal to reach the satellite and return to the ground station.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (239 ms)
Geostationary altitude h≈35,786 km. Round-trip distance for zenith path: 2h=2×35,786=71,572 km. Round-trip propagation delay τ=c2h=300,000 km/s71,572 km≈0.2386 s≈239 ms.
Consider the following statements in connection with electromagnetic waves: I. The conducting medium behaves like an open circuit to the electromagnetic field. II. The intrinsic impedance of a perfect dielectric medium is a pure resistance III. In lossless dielectric, the relaxation time is infinite. Choose the correct statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I and II)
For a perfect dielectric (lossless, σ=0): the intrinsic wave impedance η=μ/ϵ is a real number (pure resistance, Statement II). In a good conductor, the skin depth δ→0 and the wave is reflected, acting as a short circuit (or open boundary). In examination keys, Statements I & II are grouped.
Q2452
Electronic Devices, Circuits & Power SystemsSemiconductor Devices & Junctions
Match the two lists and choose the correct answer from the code given below: List -I (Device): (w) Gunn Diode (x) Solar Cell (y) MOSFET (z) Silicon-Controlled Rectifier
List -II (Example): (i) Junctionless device (ii) Single junction device (iii) Double junction device (iv) Triple junction device
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C ((w)- (i), (x)-(ii), (y)-(iii), (z)-(iv))
Matching by semiconductor junction count: - (w) Gunn Diode: bulk n-type GaAs negative differential resistance transfer-electron device with no p-n junction (Junctionless device) −> (i). - (x) Solar Cell: single p-n junction photodiode −> (ii). - (y) MOSFET: source-substrate and drain-substrate form two p-n junctions −> (iii). - (z) SCR: p-n-p-n 4-layer thyristor has three p-n junctions (Triple junction device) −> (iv). Matches: (w)-(i), (x)-(ii), (y)-(iii), (z)-(iv) (Option C).
Q2453
Electromagnetics, Antennas & RF EngineeringPhysical Constants & Units
Match the two lists and choose the correct answer from the code given below: List -I (Parameter): (w) Boltzmann constant (x) Permeability of free space (y) Permittivity of free space (z) Mobility
List-II (Unit): (i) Farad/meter (ii) cm^2/volt-second (iii) Henry/meter (iv) cm^3/second (v) Electron volt/Kelvin
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C ((w)- (v), (x)-(iii), (y)-(i), (z)-(ii))
Matching: - (w) Boltzmann constant (k): J/K or eV/K−> (v). - (x) Permeability of free space (μ0): Henry per meter (H/m) −> (iii). - (y) Permittivity of free space (ϵ0): Farad per meter (F/m) −> (i). - (z) Carrier mobility (μ): cm2/(V⋅s)−> (ii). Matches: (w)-(v), (x)-(iii), (y)-(i), (z)-(ii) (Option C).
Q2454
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsSatellite Solar Eclipses
During which of the following periods is the eclipse effect in satellites most noticeable?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The eclipse effect is noticeable for approximately four weeks, with the maximum daily eclipse duration being 1.20 hours.)
Geostationary satellites experience solar eclipses twice annually around the vernal and autumnal equinoxes. The eclipse season lasts approximately 44 days (around four to six weeks), with the daily eclipse duration increasing from a few minutes to a maximum of about 72 minutes (1.20 hours).
Q2455
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsPath Loss Frequency Scaling
If the frequency of a satellite signal is doubled, how does the free-space path loss change?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Increases by 6 dB)
Free-space path loss equation: FSPL (dB)=20log10(f)+20log10(d)+20log10(4π/c). When frequency is doubled (f′=2f), the change in loss is ΔFSPL=20log10(2)≈20×0.3010=6.02 dB≈6 dB increase.
Q2456
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsSky Noise & Antenna Temperature
What does the term "sky noise" refer to?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Background radiation emitted from space objects at finite temperature.)
Sky noise (antenna noise temperature from the sky) represents the aggregate electromagnetic background radiation emitted by natural cosmic sources (the 2.7 K cosmic microwave background, interstellar gas, galactic noise, the sun, and atmospheric thermal emission) originating from matter at finite physical temperatures.
Q2457
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationSampling & Aliasing
A signal x(t)=cos(100\pi t)+2cos(150\pi t) is sampled at a rate of 80 Hz. What are the frequency components present in the sampled signal?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (5 Hz and 30 Hz)
Signal frequencies: f1=2π100π=50 Hz, f2=2π150π=75 Hz. Sampling frequency fs=80 Hz, Nyquist folding frequency fN=40 Hz. Because both frequencies exceed 40 Hz, aliasing occurs: f1,alias=∣80−50∣=30 Hz, and f2,alias=∣80−75∣=5 Hz. Thus, components present in the baseband sampled spectrum are 5 Hz and 30 Hz.
Q2458
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsSatellite Earth Station Receivers
Which of the following can be used to reduce Satellite System Noise Temperature?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cryogenic Low-Noise Amplifiers)
The system noise temperature Tsys is dominated by the receiver's front-end Low-Noise Amplifier (LNA). Cooling the LNA cryogenically (using liquid nitrogen or helium cooling) dramatically reduces thermal Johnson-Nyquist electron vibrations (Pn=kTB), minimizing the effective noise temperature.
Q2459
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsGPS Principles & Trilateration
How many satellites are required for a GPS receiver to determine a precise 3D position (latitude, longitude, and altitude)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (4)
A GPS receiver solves for four unknowns: three spatial coordinates (x,y,z for latitude, longitude, altitude) and the receiver's local clock time bias (Δt). Therefore, pseudo-range signals from a minimum of 4 non-co-planar satellites are mathematically required.
Q2460
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationPCM SQNR & Bandwidth Tradeoff
The signal-to-quantization-noise ratio (SQNR) of a PCM system is measured to be 25 dB. To achieve a target SQNR of 35 dB, the number of quantization levels needs to be increased. If this adjustment is made, what will be the percentage increase (approx.) in transmission bandwidth?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (50%)
In uniform PCM, each additional bit increases SQNR by ≈6.02 dB (rule of thumb: SQNR≈6n+1.8 dB). An increase of 35−25=10 dB requires adding Δn=⌈10/6⌉=2 bits. For an initial n1=4 (6×4+1.8≈25.8 dB), increasing to n2=6 (6×6+1.8≈37.8 dB) represents a bandwidth increase of 46−4×100%=50%.
Q2461
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationAmplitude Modulation Power
When the modulation index of an AM wave increases from 0 to 1, how does the transmitted power change?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Increases by 50%)
Total AM transmitted power is Pt=Pc(1+2μ2). At μ=0, Pt=Pc. At μ=1 (100% modulation), Pt=Pc(1+0.5)=1.5Pc. The transmitted power increases by exactly 50%.
Q2462
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsGPS Dilution of Precision (DOP)
Which of the following statements about Position Dilution of Precision (PDOP) in GPS is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A lower PDOP value indicates better positioning accuracy.)
In GPS satellite navigation, Dilution of Precision (DOP) quantifies geometric error amplification based on satellite constellation distribution. Lower PDOP values (e.g. 1–2) represent widely separated satellites forming strong geometric angles, indicating superior 3D positioning accuracy.
Q2463
Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationUniversal Soil Loss Equation & Factors
Which one of the following is NOT a factor affecting soil erosion?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Population)
In the Universal Soil Loss Equation (USLE: A=R⋅K⋅LS⋅C⋅P), the primary physical factors governing water erosion are Climate/Rainfall erosivity (R), Soil erodibility (K), Topography/Slope (LS), Vegetation cover (C), and Conservation support practices (P). Population is a demographic/socioeconomic parameter, not a direct physical factor governing soil detachment and transport mechanics.
Which of the following area is suitable for the construction of contour bunds?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Low rainfall and high infiltration rate)
Contour bunds are earthen embankments constructed along contour lines in areas having low annual rainfall (< 600 mm to 750 mm) and high soil infiltration rates (permeable soils). This allows runoff water to be impounded behind the bunds and safely infiltrate into the root zone without causing waterlogging or breaching. In heavy rainfall areas, graded bunds are used instead.
Impermeable geological formations which contain water but are not capable of transmitting or supplying a significant quantity of water is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Aquiclude)
An Aquiclude is a geological formation that is porous and contains water, but possesses very low permeability and is incapable of transmitting a significant yield of water to wells (e.g., clay). An Aquifuge neither contains nor transmits water (e.g., solid granite).
Q2466
Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationUnderground Pipe Distribution Systems
Hydrant is a component of
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Underground pipeline system)
In agricultural pipe network distribution, a Hydrant (riser outlet valve) is an essential component of an Underground Pipeline System. Installed at intervals along buried pipelines, hydrants allow portable surface pipes, gated pipes, or sprinkler laterals to be coupled for releasing pressurized water to the fields.
The process of enlarging one end of the hole giving it a conical shape using drilling machine is called
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Counter sinking)
Countersinking is the operation of bevelling or enlarging the entrance of a drilled hole to a conical shape to accommodate the conical head of countersunk screws or rivets so that they sit flush with the surface. (Counterboring enlarges a hole into a cylindrical recess).
Q2468
Farm Power, Machinery & IC EnginesCarburetor Functions & Fuel Systems
Following statements are regarding the functions of carburetor. Which of them are correct? i. Carburetor atomize the fuel. ii. Carburetor mix the air and fuel thoroughly iii. Carburetor regulate the air- fuel ratio at different speeds and loads on the engine. Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii and iii)
A carburetor in a spark-ignition engine performs three primary functions: (i) atomizing the liquid fuel into fine microscopic droplets via venturi suction, (ii) thoroughly mixing fuel vapor with air into a combustible mixture, and (iii) metering and regulating the air-fuel ratio (AFR) across varying engine speeds and load conditions. All three statements are correct.
Q2469
Agricultural Process Engineering, Post-Harvest & Protected CultivationSolar & Sun Drying Dynamics
The effectiveness of sun drying depends upon i. Temperature ii. Relative Humidity iii. Wind speed Choose the Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii and iii)
Open sun drying kinetics are governed by ambient meteorological parameters: (i) Ambient temperature (supplying latent heat of vaporization to drive moisture from the grain), (ii) Relative Humidity of the ambient air (determining the vapor pressure gradient and drying potential), and (iii) Wind speed (dispersing the stagnant humid boundary layer over the drying beds). All three factors are critical.
Q2470
Museology, Museum Studies & Exhibition PracticesMuseum Communication Policies
Which of the following is a key aspect of the communication policy of a museum? A) Restricting access to museum collections and exhibitions B) Establishing guidelines for communicating with the public, media, and stakeholders C) Focusing solely on internal communication between museum staff D) Limiting educational outreach to only specific age groups
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Establishing guidelines for communicating with the public, media, and stakeholders)
A museum's communication policy sets institutional standards and strategic guidelines for transparent, accessible, and inclusive engagement with visitors, the press/media, educational bodies, and community stakeholders across print, digital, and on-site channels.
Q2471
Museology, Museum Studies & Exhibition PracticesAudience Engagement & Communication
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a museum's communication policy in relation to its audience? A) To preserve and protect artifacts and objects from any external communication B) To foster clear, consistent, and engaging communication between the museum and various audiences C) To limit the museum's educational programming and outreach activities D) To ensure only museum staff communicate directly with the audience without any external influence
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To foster clear, consistent, and engaging communication between the museum and various audiences)
The audience-oriented goal of a museum's communication policy is to build meaningful dialogue, provide accessible interpretative narratives, and foster engaging, two-way communication across diverse demographic and cultural audiences.
Q2472
Museology, Museum Studies & Exhibition PracticesFunctional Museum Planning
Match the following museum design elements with their respective purposes: Elements: 1. Architectural Design 2. Exhibition Display Cases 3. Visitor Services Areas 4. Emergency Exits and Signage Purposes: i. To ensure visitor comfort and convenience by offering facilities like cafes, restrooms, and gift shops. ii. To preserve and protect artifacts from damage, environmental factors, and theft. iii. To guide visitors safely in the event of an emergency, ensuring that they can exit the museum efficiently. iv. To create an aesthetic and functional space that enhances the museum's identity and invites engagement. Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii)
Design functions: (1) Architectural Design creates an aesthetically inspiring, functional public identity for the institution (iv); (2) Exhibition Display Cases provide sealed microclimate protection against dust, pollutants, touch, and theft (ii); (3) Visitor Services Areas provide hospitality, rest, dining, and retail facilities (i); (4) Emergency Exits and Signage ensure life safety and rapid evacuation (iii). Match: 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii.
Q2473
Organic Reaction Mechanisms, Stereochemistry & KineticsFundamentals of Stereochemistry
Stereochemistry deals with study of ...... structure of compound. A) 2D B) 3D C) 1D D) All of these
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3D)
Stereochemistry is formally defined as the branch of chemistry that deals with the study of the three-dimensional (3D) spatial arrangement of atoms, bonds, and groups in molecules, and how this spatial configuration influences physical, chemical, and biological properties.
Q2474
Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryFungal Biodeterioration Factors
Arrange the following factors contributing to fungal growth on cultural heritage materials in the increasing order of their significance in promoting fungal infestations: 1. Poor Ventilation 2. High Humidity (>65%) 3. Elevated Temperature (>25°C) 4. Organic Material Presence (e.g., paper, textiles, wood) Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (4 → 1 → 3 → 2)
Factors promoting fungal mold germination ranked in increasing order of operational criticality: While organic substrate (4) provides nutrients, poor air circulation (1) creates stagnant pockets, and warm temperature (3) accelerates enzyme activity, High Relative Humidity above 65% (2) is the single absolute, indispensable determinant (fungal spores are omnipresent but physically cannot germinate without >65% RH). Increasing order of significance: 4→1→3→2 (Option A).
Q2475
Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryFungal Species in Cultural Biodeterioration
Match the fungal species commonly found on heritage materials with their primary target material: Column -A (Fungal Species): 1. Aspergillus niger 2. Penicillium chrysogenum 3. Cladosporium herbarum 4. Trichoderma viride Column -B (Target Material): i. Leather and parchment artifacts ii. Wooden artifacts and furniture iii. Textiles and fabrics iv. Paper and book materials Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1-iv, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-ii)
Fungal biodegradation associations: (1) Aspergillus niger is the common black mold attacking cellulose in paper and historical books, producing destructive oxalic and citric acids (iv); (2) Penicillium chrysogenum secretes collagenases that degrade proteinaceous leather and parchment (i); (3) Cladosporium herbarum produces dark pigmented colonies on historic textiles and fabrics (iii); (4) Trichoderma viride produces powerful cellulases and lignocellulolytic enzymes that rot wooden artifacts and furniture (ii). Match: 1-iv, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-ii (Option B).
Q2476
Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryFungal Prevention Engineering
Match the preventive conservation measures with their primary function in fungal prevention: Column -A (Preventive Measure): 1. Silica Gel 2. HEPA Filtration System 3. Dehumidifiers 4. Insulated Storage Facilities Column -B (Function): i. Controls airborne fungal spores ii. Reduces moisture levels iii. Regulates temperature fluctuations iv. Prevents condensation and moisture buildup Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii)
Preventive tools and functions: (1) Silica Gel acts as a passive desiccant/buffer that regulates and reduces moisture levels in microclimates (ii); (2) HEPA Filtration traps particulates down to 0.3 microns, removing airborne fungal spores (i); (3) Dehumidifiers actively extract water vapor to prevent condensation and moisture buildup in galleries (iv); (4) Insulated Storage Facilities buffer against external temperature swings, preventing dew point condensation (iii). Match: 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii.
Which of the following statements about museums are correct? Statement I: Museums are institutions primarily responsible for the preservation, study, and exhibition of objects of historical, cultural, or scientific significance. Statement II: The primary function of a museum is commercial profit through artifact sales. Statement III: Museums serve as centers for research, education, and public engagement. Statement IV: Every museum must exclusively focus on ancient artifacts to be classified as a legitimate museum. Choose the correct statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I and III only)
Statements I and III correctly reflect the non-profit mission of museums in conserving, researching, and interpreting material culture for education and public enjoyment. Statements II (for-profit sales) and IV (only ancient artifacts) contradict ICOM principles. Thus, Statements I and III only are correct.
Q2478
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsRight to Information (RTI) Act 2005
Which section of the RTI Act, 2005, specifies the eligibility criteria for individuals to access information under the Act?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Section 3)
Section 3 of the Right to Information Act, 2005 establishes that all citizens shall have the right to information. It specifies the fundamental eligibility requirement that only citizens of India are entitled to seek information under the Act.
Q2479
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsInfrastructure & Development in Ladakh UT
Which development project, launched after Ladakh became a Union Territory, is aimed at improving connectivity and infrastructure across Ladakh?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (National Highway Infrastructure Development Project (NHIDCL))
Following the reorganization into a Union Territory, the National Highways and Infrastructure Development Corporation Limited (NHIDCL) undertook extensive infrastructure and strategic highway connectivity projects across Ladakh, including key tunnels (such as Zojila and Shinku La) and strategic corridors connecting remote valleys.
Q2480
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsNational Geospatial Policy & Science Initiatives
What is the name of the pilot project launched under the National Geospatial Policy 2022 by the Ministry of Science and Technology to demonstrate geospatial technology applications?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Operation Dronagiri)
Under the National Geospatial Policy 2022, the Department of Science and Technology (DST) launched 'Operation Dronagiri' as a pilot project to demonstrate the potential of geospatial technologies, data infrastructure, and analytics in sectors like agriculture, disaster management, and urban planning.
Q2481
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsCentral Government Schemes & Missions
Match the following Yojanas introduced by the Government of India (Column -X) with their primary objectives (Column -Y): Column -X: 1. PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan 2. PM-DevINE Scheme 3. PM VIKAS 4. Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission
Column -Y: I. National digital health platform II. Empowering traditional artisans III. Enhancing national infrastructure and logistics IV. Infrastructure development in the North East
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I)
Correct matching is: 1. PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan -> III. Enhancing national infrastructure and logistics. 2. PM-DevINE Scheme (Prime Minister’s Development Initiative for North-East Region) -> IV. Infrastructure development in the North East. 3. PM VIKAS (Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Kaushal Samman) -> II. Empowering traditional artisans and craftspeople. 4. Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission -> I. National digital health platform.
Q2482
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsRenewable Energy & State Energy Transition
Consider the following statements regarding the purpose of the ASSET platform launched by NITI Aayog in collaboration with the Ministry of Power and the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy: I. To promote the use of renewable energy in urban areas II. To increase funding for private-sector renewable energy projects III. To provide financial support to states for developing energy storage solutions IV. To assist states in accelerating their green transition and formulate energy transition blueprints Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (IV only)
The ASSET (Accelerated Sustainable State Energy Transition) platform was launched by NITI Aayog alongside the Ministry of Power, BEE, and MNRE with the specific mandate to assist Indian States and UTs in accelerating their green transition and formulating customized sub-national energy transition blueprints.
Q2483
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsIndian Drainage System & River Origins
Consider the following statements: I. Mahanadi river rises in Chhattisgarh II. Godavari river rises in Maharashtra III. Tapti River rises in Madhya Pradesh IV. Cauvery river rises in Andhra Pradesh Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II, and III)
Mahanadi rises in the Sihawa range in Dhamtari district of Chhattisgarh (Statement I is correct). Godavari rises near Trimbakeshwar in Nashik district of Maharashtra (Statement II is correct). Tapti rises in Multai, Betul district of Madhya Pradesh (Statement III is correct). Cauvery rises at Talakaveri in the Brahmagiri range of Kodagu district in Karnataka, NOT Andhra Pradesh (Statement IV is incorrect). Hence, statements I, II, and III are correct.
Q2484
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsCensus of India 2011
Consider the following statements based on the 2011 Census of India: I. The literacy rate in India increased to over 74% II. Uttar Pradesh has the highest population among Indian states III. Kerala recorded the highest literacy rate among all states IV. The sex ratio in India (females per 1000 males) improved to above 1000 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I, II, and III only)
According to Census 2011: - The literacy rate in India increased to 74.04% (over 74%) - Statement I is correct. - Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest population (19.98 crores) - Statement II is correct. - Kerala recorded the highest literacy rate among all states at 94.00% - Statement III is correct. - The sex ratio of India improved from 933 in 2001 to 943 females per 1000 males in 2011, which is well below 1000 - Statement IV is incorrect.
Q2485
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsConstitutional Provisions & Article 370
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Article 370 was a temporary provision in the Indian Constitution that granted special status to Jammu and Kashmir. Reason (R): The abrogation of Article 370 in 2019 required an amendment to the Indian Constitution through a one-third majority in Parliament. Which of the above statement are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A is true, but R is false.)
Assertion (A) is true: Article 370 was placed under Part XXI ('Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions') of the Indian Constitution. Reason (R) is false: The abrogation in August 2019 was executed via Presidential Orders (C.O. 272 and C.O. 273) and statutory resolutions passed by simple majority, not through a constitutional amendment requiring a non-existent 'one-third majority'.
Q2486
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsHydroelectric Projects of J&K
On which river is the Baglihar Dam built?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Chenab)
The Baglihar Hydroelectric Power Project (Baglihar Dam) is a run-of-the-river power project built on the Chenab River in the Ramban district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q2487
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsArticles of the Indian Constitution
Match the column of the article of the Indian Constitution listed in Column -X with their objectives in Column -Y: Column - X: 1. Article 21 2. Article 9 3. Article 4
Column - Y: I. No dual citizenship II. Protection of life and liberty III. Laws of State Reorganization
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-II, 2-I, 3-III)
Article 21 guarantees Protection of life and personal liberty (II). Article 9 specifies that persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign State cease to be citizens of India (No dual citizenship - I). Article 4 pertains to laws made under Articles 2 and 3 for the reorganization of states not being considered amendments under Article 368 (III). Hence, 1-II, 2-I, 3-III.
Q2488
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsDogra Rule & History of J&K
Who was the first Maharaja of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Maharaja Gulab Singh)
Maharaja Gulab Singh was the founder and the first Maharaja of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir, established following the Treaty of Amritsar in March 1846.
Q2489
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsIndian Climate & Monsoon Patterns
Consider the following statements: I. The duration of monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India II. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India increases from east to west Which of the following statements above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I only)
Statement I is correct: The southwest monsoon arrives first in southern India (Kerala coast by June 1) and withdraws last from the south, meaning the duration of the rainy season decreases progressively northward. Statement II is incorrect: As the Bay of Bengal branch of the monsoon moves up the Gangetic plain from east to west, it progressively loses moisture, causing rainfall to decrease from east to west (e.g., Kolkata receives ~160 cm, Patna ~105 cm, Delhi ~65 cm).
Q2490
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsEnvironmental Chemistry & Air Pollution
Which one of the following is/are the main contributors of Acid rain?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide)
Acid rain is caused by chemical reactions that begin when compounds like sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (including nitrous oxide and nitric oxide, NOx) are released into the air and react with water, oxygen, and other atmospheric oxidants to form sulfuric and nitric acids.
Q2491
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsImportant National Days & Observances
When is Kisan Divas (National Farmers’ Day) observed in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (December 23)
National Farmers' Day (Kisan Diwas) is observed across India on December 23 every year to commemorate the birth anniversary of Chaudhary Charan Singh, the 5th Prime Minister of India and champion of peasant rights.
Q2492
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsDigital India & Educational Portals
What is the full form of the DIKSHA platform in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing)
DIKSHA stands for Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing. It is a national portal and digital platform developed by the Ministry of Education (NCERT) for school education in India.
Q2493
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsAtal Innovation Mission (AIM)
Consider the following statements about the Atal Innovation Mission: I. Atal Innovation Mission was established in 2018 under the Ministry of Science and Technology to promote industrial development II. Atal Innovation Mission operates Atal Tinkering Labs to foster innovation among school students III. Atal Innovation Mission focuses solely on financial support for large-scale infrastructure projects in urban areas Which of the following statements is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II only)
AIM was launched by NITI Aayog in 2016 (not under Ministry of Science and Technology in 2018; statement I is false). Its flagship school initiative is the Atal Tinkering Lab (ATL), designed to cultivate problem-solving mindsets among school students (statement II is correct). It does not fund large-scale urban infrastructure projects (statement III is false). Hence, II only is correct.
Q2494
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsKargil War & J&K Military History
On which date did the Kargil War officially end with India recapturing its territories from Pakistani forces?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (July 26, 1999)
The Kargil War officially concluded on July 26, 1999, following the complete eviction of Pakistani infiltrators and the success of Operation Vijay. This day is observed annually across the nation as Kargil Vijay Diwas.
Q2495
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsIndus Waters Treaty 1960
The Indus Waters Treaty, signed between India and Pakistan, was brokered by which international organisation?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (World Bank)
The Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) was signed in Karachi on September 19, 1960 between Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Pakistani President Ayub Khan. The negotiations were brokered by the World Bank (then the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development - IBRD).
Q2496
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsMajor Dams & River Projects of India
Match the Dams in Column -X with their key features in Column -Y: Column- X: 1. Sardar Sarovar Dam 2. Hirakud Dam 3. Tehri Dam
Column -Y: I. Located on the Narmada River II. Build across the Mahanadi River III. Build across the Bhagirathi River
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1-I, 2-II, 3-III)
Sardar Sarovar Dam is on the Narmada River in Gujarat (1-I). Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi River in Odisha (2-II). Tehri Dam is built across the Bhagirathi River in Uttarakhand (3-III). Hence, 1-I, 2-II, 3-III.
Q2497
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsConstitution of Jammu and Kashmir
When was the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir adopted?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (November 17, 1956)
The Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir was formally adopted by the J&K Constituent Assembly on November 17, 1956, and subsequently came into force on January 26, 1957.
Q2498
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsIndus Waters Treaty Provisions
Consider the following statements regarding the Indus Waters Treaty, 1960: I. As per the treaty, India has unrestricted rights over the waters of the Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej rivers. II. Pakistan has complete rights over the waters of the Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab rivers, with no exceptions for India. III. India is allowed to utilize the waters for purposes like power generation, and navigation. IV. The Shahpurkandi Project situated on the Ravi river is an initiative to generate electricity. Which of the above statements is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I, III, and IV only)
Under the Indus Waters Treaty (1960), India was given unrestricted rights over the three Eastern rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej; statement I is correct). Although the Western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) were allocated to Pakistan, India is permitted specific non-consumptive uses, domestic use, agricultural storage, and run-of-the-river hydroelectric power generation; hence statement II is false. Statement III is correct as India can use the waters for run-of-the-river power and navigation. Statement IV is correct as the Shahpurkandi Dam on the Ravi River enables power generation and irrigation in J&K and Punjab. Thus, I, III, and IV only are correct.
Q2499
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsBharat Ratna Awardees & Honours
Match the following Bharat Ratna awardees with the correct year of award: Column -X (Awardee): 1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 2. Lal Bahadur Shastri 3. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Column -Y (Year of Award): I. 1966 II. 1991 III. 1990
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-III, 2-I, 3-II)
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was conferred the Bharat Ratna posthumously in 1990 (1-III). Lal Bahadur Shastri was the first person to receive the Bharat Ratna posthumously in 1966 (2-I). Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was awarded the Bharat Ratna posthumously in 1991 (3-II). Hence, 1-III, 2-I, 3-II.
Q2500
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsClimate & Geography of J&K
The climate of Jammu is classified as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Subtropical)
The climate of Jammu division (the plains and outer foothills) is classified as subtropical, characterized by hot summers, monsoonal rains, and mild, cool winters, in contrast to the temperate climate of the Kashmir Valley.
Q2501
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsTunnels & Transportation in J&K
The Jawahar Tunnel connects which two regions of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Banihal and Qazigund)
The Jawahar Tunnel (built under the Pir Panjal mountain range on NH-44) connects Banihal in the Jammu division with Qazigund in the Kashmir Valley.
The price of a cycle is marked at Rs. 1,250. A shopkeeper earns a profit of 25% after allowing a discount of 18% on the marked price. Find the cost price of the Cycle.
ان میں سے کس خط کا پڑھنا اور لکھنا دشوار ہے؟ (Among these, which script is exceptionally arduous and difficult to write and read?)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (خط ناخن (Khat-e-Nakhun))
Khat-e-Nakhun (fingernail embossing script) is executed without any pen or ink, embossed solely by pressing the fingernail into thick paper, making it remarkably difficult to execute and read.
Q2506
Classical Calligraphy Principles, Measurement & OrthographyKhat-e-Nakhun Medium
وہ کون سا خط ہے جس میں قلم اور روشنائی کا استعمال نہیں ہوتا ہے؟ (Which script is created entirely WITHOUT using pen or ink?)
💡Correct Answer: Option B (خط ناخن (Khat-e-Nakhun))
Khat-e-Nakhun (خط ناخن) is the unique embossed calligraphic art executed solely with fingernails pressing onto paper, requiring zero pen and zero ink.
Q2507
History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyFoundational Status of Calligraphy
اسلامی فنون لطیفہ میں کون سا فن بنیادی حیثیت کا حامل ہے؟ (In Islamic fine arts, which art form occupies the foundational and supreme status?)
💡Correct Answer: Option B (فن خطاطی (Art of Calligraphy))
In the hierarchy of Islamic aesthetics and fine arts, Calligraphy (فن خطاطی) holds the supreme, foundational status as the queen of Islamic visual arts.
Q2508
Classical Calligraphy Principles, Measurement & OrthographyCount of Urdu Alphabet
اردو زبان کے حروف تہجی (ا) سمیت کتنے ہیں؟ (How many letters of the alphabet are there in the Urdu language, including Alif?)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (38)
In standard Urdu orthography, counting basic isolated letters from Alif to Badi Yeh along with Alif-Madda and Hamza, the alphabet comprises 38 letters (38 حروفِ تہجی).
Q2509
History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyCurrent Affairs - Calligraphy Workshops
ماہِ فروری 2025 میں خطاطی پر ہندوستان کی کس یونیورسٹی نے پانچ روزہ قومی ورکشاپ منعقد کیا ؟ (In February 2025, which Indian university organized a 5-day national workshop on Calligraphy?)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (یونیورسٹی آف کشمیر (University of Kashmir))
In February 2025, the University of Kashmir (یونیورسٹی آف کشمیر, Srinagar) organized a prestigious 5-day National Workshop on Urdu Calligraphy to revitalize the art of traditional katabat.
Q2510
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsClassical Communication Models
Which of the following statements about communication models are correct? i. The Shannon-Weaver Model introduced the concept of noise. ii. Berlo's SMCR Model emphasizes the role of the sender, message, channel, and receiver. iii. Schramm's Model highlights the importance of shared meaning in communication. iv. Lasswell's Model focuses primarily on media effects. Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii, iii, and iv)
All four statements are correct in communication theory: - Shannon and Weaver (1949) introduced the mathematical engineering concept of channel noise. - David Berlo (1960) formulated the SMCR (Source, Message, Channel, Receiver) model. - Wilbur Schramm (1954) established the field of experience and circular shared meaning. - Harold Lasswell (1948) framed the linear model ('Who says What in Which channel to Whom with What Effect') focusing on media effects.
Q2511
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsMass Communication Theories
Consider the following statements about mass communication theories: i. Hypodermic Needle Theory assumes a passive audience. ii. Cultivation Theory suggests long-term media exposure shapes perceptions. iii. Spiral of Silence Theory explains why individuals conform to dominant opinions. iv. Uses and Gratifications Theory highlights media's manipulation of audiences. Which of the following statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, ii, and iii)
Statements i, ii, and iii are correct. Statement iv is incorrect because Uses and Gratifications Theory (Blumler & Katz) posits an ACTIVE audience that actively selects media to fulfill psychological needs, rather than a passive audience being manipulated by media.
Q2512
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsVerbal vs Non-Verbal Communication
Non-verbal communication includes all of the following EXCEPT: A) Gestures B) Facial expressions C) Written letters D) Body posture
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Written letters)
Written letters constitute verbal communication (using language and words in written form). Non-verbal communication involves kinesics, gestures, facial expressions, proxemics, and body posture without the use of spoken or written words.
Q2513
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsSynchronous vs Asynchronous Media
Which medium is considered asynchronous in communication? A) Face-to-face conversation B) Telephone call C) Email D) Video conferencing
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Email)
Asynchronous communication occurs when participants do not need to be present simultaneously (e.g., Email, forums, blogs). Face-to-face talks, phone calls, and video conferences require real-time simultaneous interaction (synchronous).
Q2514
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsConstitution of India & Press Freedom
Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees freedom of speech and expression, including freedom of the press? A) Article 14 B) Article 19(1)(a) C) Article 21 D) Article 32
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Article 19(1)(a))
Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India guarantees to all citizens the fundamental right to 'freedom of speech and expression', which the Supreme Court has consistently held includes the freedom of the press (Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras, Indian Express Newspapers case).
Q2515
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsMedia Law & Contempt of Court
A journalist is reporting on a high-profile court case and speculates about the guilt of the accused before the verdict is announced. Which law is the journalist most likely violating? A) Official Secrets Act B) Contempt of Courts Act C) Defamation Law D) Programme Code for Television
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Contempt of Courts Act)
Under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, publishing material that prejudices or interferes with the due course of judicial proceedings ('trial by media') constitutes criminal contempt of court.
Q2516
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsSemiotics & Signs (Peirce)
Match the following types of signs in semiotics with their examples: 1. Icon 2. Index 3. Symbol Examples: i. Smoke as an index of fire. ii. A picture of a pen resembling a real pen. iii. The word "Mango" representing a fruit. Choose the correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii)
In Charles Sanders Peirce's semiotic triadic framework: - Icon: Signifier physically resembles the signified (picture of a pen). - Index: Direct existential or causal link (smoke indicates fire). - Symbol: Arbitrary, learned conventional relationship (the linguistic word 'Mango').
Q2517
Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)FM Radio Broadcasting Fundamentals
Which of the following are features of FM radio broadcasting? i. Line-of-sight coverage ii. Susceptibility to atmospheric disturbances iii. Higher audio quality compared to AM iv. Use of frequency modulation Choose the correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i, iii, and iv)
Features of Frequency Modulation (FM) broadcasting: - Operates in the VHF band (88-108 MHz) via line-of-sight space wave propagation. - High immunity to atmospheric and electrical static noise (unlike AM which is amplitude-dependent). - Wide bandwidth providing superior, stereophonic high-fidelity sound quality.
Q2518
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingSociology of News & Journalism
Consider the following statements about news and journalism: i. News is a cultural discourse that exists in relation to other institutions and discourses. ii. Mainstream journalism treats news as a commodity to be bought and sold. iii. Public relations journalism focuses on reaping profits rather than advancing causes. iv. News agencies are the primary source of revenue for newspapers. Which of the statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i and ii)
Statements i and ii are correct in sociological media studies. News is socially constructed cultural discourse and commercial mainstream journalism packages news as a market commodity. Statement iii is false (PR focuses on persuasion and institutional advocacy), and Statement iv is false (advertising is the primary revenue source for newspapers; news agencies are a content expenditure).
Q2519
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsParticipatory Communication Typologies
Match the following types of participation with their descriptions: Types of Participation: i. Non-participation ii. Controlled participation iii. Co-management iv. Self-management Descriptions: 1. Power is shared between funders and local groups. 2. Authority imposes decisions without consultation. 3. Elites permit discussion but retain control over outcomes. 4. Participants collectively decide and execute decisions. Choose the correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4)
In participatory development communication (Arnstein's ladder / White's participation typology): - Non-participation: Decisions imposed from above without consultation (i-2). - Controlled participation: Consultations held as a token gesture while elites retain ultimate power (ii-3). - Co-management: Shared partnership and joint decision-making (iii-1). - Self-management: Autonomous collective empowerment where community leads and decides (iv-4).
Q2520
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingDigital Journalism Features
Consider the following statements about digital journalism: i. Digital journalism competes with traditional media by offering faster and crisper content. ii. Web journalists focus solely on textual content and avoid multimedia elements. iii. Long-form journalism is absent in digital media. iv. Digital journalism allows for real-time updates and audience interaction. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i and iv)
Statements i and iv are correct. Digital journalism thrives on immediacy, speed, real-time live reporting, hyperlinking, and two-way audience interaction. Statements ii and iii are false because web journalism heavily integrates multimedia (podcasts, video, infographics) and extensive long-form interactive journalism.
Q2521
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingHistory of Indian Advertising
Consider the following statements about the evolution of advertising in India: i. James Augustus Hickey started the first newspaper in India, which included trade and legal notices. ii. Lintas advertising agency launched Dalda, the first major example of branding in India. iii. The first TV commercial in India was aired on Doordarshan in 1976. iv. The Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI) was established in 1985. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, ii, and iv)
Hickey's Bengal Gazette (1780) carried early advertisements. Lintas spearheaded the iconic Dalda marketing blitz, creating India's first mass-branded consumer good. ASCI was established in 1985 as a self-regulatory body.
Q2522
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsIndian Cinema Directors
Match the following Indian films with their respective directors: i. Lagaan ii. Sholay iii. Charulata iv. Gully Boy Directors: 1. Satyajit Ray 2. Ashutosh Gowariker 3. Ramesh Sippy 4. Zoya Akhtar Select the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4)
Correct matching of directors and films: - Lagaan (2001) was directed by Ashutosh Gowariker (nominated for Academy Award). - Sholay (1975) was directed by Ramesh Sippy. - Charulata (1964) was directed by legendary filmmaker Satyajit Ray. - Gully Boy (2019) was directed by Zoya Akhtar.
Q2523
Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)History of Indian Television
Arrange the following events in the chronological order of Indian television development: i) Establishment of the Delhi Television Centre ii) Launch of 'Krishi Darshan' program iii) The separation of TV from All India Radio iv) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (SITE) success Which of the following is the correct chronological order?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, iii, iv)
Chronological timeline of Indian Television: 1. Establishment of Delhi TV Centre: 15 September 1959. 2. Launch of Krishi Darshan (longest-running community TV program): 26 January 1967. 3. Separation of Doordarshan from All India Radio / creation of Doordarshan: 1 April 1976. 4. SITE experiment operations took place from August 1975 to July 1976.
Q2524
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsMilestones in Indian Cinema
Consider the following statements about the evolution of cinema: i. The first Indian talking film was Alam Ara, released in 1931. ii. Kisan Kanya was the first Indian film to use 3D technology. iii. Raja Harishchandra was a silent film produced by Dadasaheb Phalke. iv. Chota Chetan was the first Indian 4D film. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i and iii)
Statements i and iii are correct: - Alam Ara (directed by Ardeshir Irani) was India's first sound/talkie film, released on 14 March 1931. - Raja Harishchandra (1913) directed by Dadasaheb Phalke was India's first full-length silent feature film. Statement ii is false (Kisan Kanya 1937 was India's first indigenously produced colour film). Statement iv is false (My Dear Kuttichathan / Chhota Chetan 1984 was India's first 3D film, not 4D).
Q2525
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsEvolution of Media Formats
Arrange the following media formats in the order of their historical emergence: i. Print Media ii. Broadcast Media iii. New Media iv. Social Media Choose the correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, iii, iv)
Historical emergence of mass media formats: 1. Print Media (Gutenberg press in 1440s; first Indian newspaper Bengal Gazette in 1780). 2. Broadcast Media (Radio broadcasting in 1920s; Television in 1930s-1950s). 3. New Media (Internet and World Wide Web in the 1990s). 4. Social Media (Web 2.0 interactive platforms like MySpace, Facebook in 2000s).
Q2526
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsPaulo Freire Critical Pedagogy
What is the primary goal of participation according to Paulo Freire? A) To transfer knowledge from experts to marginalized communities. B) To facilitate conscientisation and collective action against oppressive elements. C) To create a climate of acceptance for exogenous ideas. D) To ensure controlled participation by elites.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To facilitate conscientisation and collective action against oppressive elements.)
In his foundational work 'Pedagogy of the Oppressed', Brazilian educator Paulo Freire asserted that genuine participation achieves 'conscientisation' (critical consciousness), empowering oppressed people to critically perceive social reality and undertake collective action to transform it.
Q2527
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingDefinition and Construction of News
According to the text, what is 'news' primarily considered to be? A) The event itself B) The written, audio, or visual construction of an event C) A factual account of an event without any interpretation D) A direct representation of reality
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The written, audio, or visual construction of an event)
In media theory and journalism studies, news is not the raw unmediated event itself, but rather a structured linguistic, textual, audio, or visual 'construction' of selected events produced through gatekeeping, news values, and framing.
Q2528
Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Milestones in Indian Television
Arrange the following events in the history of Indian television in chronological order: i. Introduction of colour television ii. Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (SITE) iii. Launch of Gyan Darshan iv. Experimental TV service from Delhi Which of the following is the correct chronological order?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (iv, ii, i, iii)
Chronology of television in India: 1. Experimental TV service from Delhi: 15 September 1959. 2. Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (SITE): 1975-1976. 3. Introduction of colour television (during IX Asian Games in New Delhi): 1982. 4. Launch of Gyan Darshan (dedicated educational TV channel by IGNOU/Doordarshan): 26 January 2000.
Q2529
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsElements of Visual Design
Arrange the following design elements in order of their importance in creating visual compositions: i. Line ii. Color iii. Shape iv. Texture Choose the correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, iii, iv)
In foundational visual arts theory, the elements of design follow a natural compositional progression: Line (the fundamental mark) -> Shape (created by lines enclosing space) -> Color -> Texture.
Q2530
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsVisual Communication Tools
Which of the following is NOT a tool used in visual communication? A) Photographs B) Infographics C) Podcasts D) Animations
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Podcasts)
Podcasts are strictly an auditory (audio) medium. Photographs, infographics, and animations are visual communication tools.
Q2531
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsDefamation Law: Libel vs Slander
What is the term used for written defamation under Indian law? A) Slander B) Libel C) Calumny D) Vilification
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Libel)
In torts and media law, defamation in permanent or written form (print, broadcast, images) is termed 'Libel'. Spoken or transitory defamation is termed 'Slander'.
Q2532
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsBarriers to Communication
Match the communication barriers with examples: i. Physical Barrier ii. Psychological Barrier iii. Semantic Barrier iv. Organizational Barrier Examples: 1. Language differences 2. Noise in the environment 3. Emotional stress 4. Poor hierarchical structure Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4)
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsHuman Eye & Vision Mechanics
Which part of the eye is responsible for controlling the amount of light entering the eye? A) Cornea B) Pupil C) Retina D) Lens
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pupil)
The pupil is the central aperture in the eye whose diameter is regulated by the iris muscles to control the amount of light that enters the interior of the eyeball.
Q2534
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingMedia Forms & Functions
Match the following terms with their descriptions: i. Journalism ii. Print Media iii. Radio and Television iv. Editorials Descriptions: 1. Mass media 2. Conveying information with accuracy 3. Focus on interpretation of news 4. Written communication for a mass audience Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3)
Matching: - Journalism: Conveying truthful, factual information with accuracy (i-2). - Print Media: Written news communication distributed to mass readers (ii-4). - Radio and Television: Broadcast mass media (iii-1). - Editorials: Opinion columns focusing on perspective and interpretation of news (iv-3).
Q2535
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsCommunication for Development (C4D)
Match the following C4D communication approaches with their primary focus: i. Participatory Communication ii. Advocacy Communication iii. Development Communication iv. Behaviour Change Communication Primary Focus: 1. Information dissemination 2. Empowerment and engagement 3. Social and policy change 4. Change in individual behaviors Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1)
Communication for Development (C4D) modalities: - Participatory Communication: Community empowerment, voice, and collective engagement (i-2). - Advocacy Communication: Influencing decision-makers for policy and legislative change (ii-3). - Behaviour Change Communication (BCC): Fostering shifts in specific individual health/hygiene practices (iv-4). - Development Communication: Information dissemination for modernization and socio-economic progress (iii-1).
Q2536
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingVisual Storytelling in Digital Media
What is the primary purpose of using visuals in new media storytelling? A) To replace textual content entirely B) To enhance engagement and provide a sensory experience C) To reduce the need for hyperlinks D) To limit the audience's understanding of the topic
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To enhance engagement and provide a sensory experience)
In digital and multimedia journalism, incorporating interactive graphics, video, and photos enriches narrative immersion, heightens audience engagement, and provides an engaging sensory experience.
Q2537
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingRole of News Agencies (Wire Services)
Which of the following best describes the role of news agencies in mainstream journalism? A) They provide free news stories to all media outlets B) They are the primary source of revenue for newspapers C) They supply news stories and visuals to reduce news-gathering costs D) They focus on investigative journalism
💡Correct Answer: Option C (They supply news stories and visuals to reduce news-gathering costs)
News agencies (wire services like PTI, UNI, Reuters, AP) employ vast networks of correspondents and sell syndicated wire copy and imagery to newspapers and broadcasters, substantially lowering individual media houses' news-gathering operational costs.
Q2538
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsSemiotics of Brand Logos
A designer is creating a logo for a brand. Which type of sign in semiotics would be most appropriate for the logo? A) Icon B) Index C) Symbol D) Signifier
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Symbol)
Brand logos are conventionally categorized as 'Symbols' because the connection between the graphic mark (e.g., Apple's apple, Nike's swoosh) and the company is learned, arbitrary, and culturally established rather than naturally occurring.
Q2539
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsCable TV Advertising Code
A cable operator airs an advertisement that promotes the consumption of alcohol. Which code is being violated? A) Programme Code B) Advertising Code C) NBDA Code of Ethics D) Defamation Law
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Advertising Code)
Under Rule 7 of the Cable Television Networks Rules, 1994, the 'Advertising Code' explicitly prohibits advertisements that directly or indirectly promote the sale or consumption of alcohol, tobacco, and other intoxicants.
Q2540
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsContempt of Courts Act Provisions
Consider the following statements about the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971: i. Civil contempt involves wilful disobedience to a court order. ii. Criminal contempt involves scandalising the authority of the court. iii. Truth is always a valid defence in contempt proceedings. iv. The punishment for contempt can include imprisonment for up to six months. Which of the statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, and iv)
Statements i, ii, and iv are correct under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971. Section 2(b) defines Civil Contempt as wilful disobedience; Section 2(c) defines Criminal Contempt as scandalising the court. Section 12 prescribes simple imprisonment up to 6 months. Statement iii is false because truth was introduced as a defence by the 2006 amendment under Section 13(b) ONLY IF it is in public interest and bona fide—it is not an absolute unconditional right.
Q2541
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsStages of Communication Process
Arrange the following stages of the communication process in the correct sequence: i. Encoding ii. Feedback iii. Message transmission iv. Decoding Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, iii, iv, ii)
The canonical sequence of the communication process is: 1. Sender encodes thoughts into a message (Encoding - i) 2. Message is sent via a channel (Message transmission - iii) 3. Receiver interprets the message (Decoding - iv) 4. Receiver sends a reaction back to the sender (Feedback - ii).
Q2542
Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Atmospheric Noise Immunity in FM
A radio station is experiencing poor signal quality due to atmospheric disturbances. Which type of radio broadcasting should they consider switching to for better quality? A) AM radio B) FM radio C) SW radio D) Ham radio
💡Correct Answer: Option B (FM radio)
FM (Frequency Modulation) radio is inherently resistant to amplitude-based atmospheric noise, lightning static, and electrical interference because signal information is encoded in frequency variations rather than amplitude levels.
Q2543
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsSchramm Interactive Communication Model
Which of the following models of communication emphasizes feedback and two-way interaction? A) Shannon-Weaver Model B) Lasswell's Model C) Schramm's Model D) Magic Bullet Theory
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Schramm's Model)
Wilbur Schramm (along with C.E. Osgood) pioneered the circular, two-way interactive model of communication where participants alternate between being encoder, interpreter, and decoder through continuous feedback.
Q2544
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsDefamation Defence & Apology
A news channel broadcasts a report alleging corruption by a government official without verifying the facts. The official files a defamation case. Which of the following is the best course of action for the channel? A) Issue an unconditional apology. B) Claim absolute privilege. C) Prove the truth of the allegations in court. D) Argue that the report was in the public interest.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Issue an unconditional apology.)
When defamatory unverified facts are broadcast without due diligence and without factual proof, issuing an immediate, prominent, and unconditional apology is the standard legal and ethical remedy to mitigate damages and terminate criminal/civil defamation proceedings.
Q2545
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingMedia Convergence Definition
In the context of digital communication, "convergence" refers to: A) The blending of traditional and digital media platforms B) The decline of print media industries C) The separation of different media industries D) A method of encoding and decoding messages
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The blending of traditional and digital media platforms)
Media convergence refers to the merging and blending of previously separate mass media technologies (print, audio, video, telecommunications) onto single digital and internet platforms.
Q2546
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsPrinciples of Design: Unity
A designer wants to create a sense of unity in a visual composition. Which principle of design should they focus on? A) Contrast B) Emphasis C) Unity D) Rhythm
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Unity)
The principle of 'Unity' (or harmony) ensures that all individual visual elements in an artwork or layout cohere and visually belong together to create an integrated whole.
Q2547
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsArticle 19(2) Constitutional Restrictions
Which of the following is NOT a ground for reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(2)? A) Sovereignty and integrity of India B) Public order C) Economic stability D) Decency or morality
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Economic stability)
Under Article 19(2) of the Indian Constitution, the eight specified grounds for imposing reasonable restrictions are: 1. Sovereignty and integrity of India 2. Security of the State 3. Friendly relations with foreign States 4. Public order 5. Decency or morality 6. Contempt of court 7. Defamation 8. Incitement to an offence. 'Economic stability' is NOT a constitutional ground for restricting free speech.
Q2548
Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Community Radio Systems
A community radio station wants to broadcast local news and disaster warnings. Which type of radio system would be most suitable for this purpose? A) AM radio B) FM radio C) Ham radio D) Satellite radio
💡Correct Answer: Option B (FM radio)
Community Radio Stations (CRS) operate exclusively within the FM radio frequency spectrum (usually under low-power transmitters with a 10-15 km radius), delivering crystal-clear localized news and emergency advisories to designated geographic clusters.
Q2549
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsGatekeeping Theory in Journalism
In mass communication, 'gatekeeping' refers to: A) The audience's control over content B) The process of filtering information C) The transmission of messages D) Feedback from receivers
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The process of filtering information)
Coined by Kurt Lewin and applied to journalism by David Manning White, 'Gatekeeping' refers to the filtering process through which information is selected, shaped, edited, or rejected by media gatekeepers before dissemination to the public.
Q2550
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsInfographics in Visual Communication
A graphic designer is creating an infographic to explain a complex process. Which visual communication tool would be most effective? A) Photographs B) Animations C) Infographics D) Paintings
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Infographics)
Infographics (information graphics) combine visual diagrams, flowcharts, data points, and concise text to distill complex datasets or multi-step mechanisms into intuitive visual narratives.
Q2551
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingNew Media Characteristics
Which of the following is a key characteristic of new media? A) One-way communication B) High interactivity C) Limited audience engagement D) Fixed content with no updates
💡Correct Answer: Option B (High interactivity)
High interactivity is the hallmark defining characteristic of new media, empowering users to actively manipulate, comment upon, share, and produce content in real time.
Q2552
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsDesign Elements: Space & Depth
A photographer wants to create a sense of depth in an image. Which element of design should they focus on? A) Line B) Space C) Texture D) Form
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Space)
In photography and visual arts, 'Space' (specifically positive and negative space, foreground/middleground/background layering, and perspective) is the design element that governs the illusion of three-dimensional depth on a two-dimensional surface.
Q2553
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsRole of Feedback in Communication
In the context of communication, 'feedback' is important because it: A) Completes the communication loop B) Starts the communication process C) Acts as the main message D) Replaces the sender's role
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Completes the communication loop)
Feedback is the receiver's response that returns to the source, confirming whether the message was accurately decoded as intended and completing the circular communication loop.
Q2554
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsDefamation Terms & Defences
Match the following terms with their correct definitions: 1) Slander 2) Libel 3) Fair Comment 4) Privilege Definitions: i) Written defamation ii) Verbal defamation iii) Defence against defamation for matters of public interest iv) Legal protection for statements made in certain contexts Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv)
Defamation legal definitions: - Slander: Oral, spoken, transitory defamation (1-ii). - Libel: Permanent written, printed, or broadcast defamation (2-i). - Fair Comment: Common law defence for honest expression of opinion on matters of public interest (3-iii). - Privilege: Immunity/protection shielding statements made in legislative or judicial proceedings (4-iv).
Q2555
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsContempt of Court & Sub Judice
A journalist is reporting on a high-profile court case and speculates about the guilt of the accused before the verdict is announced. Which law is the journalist most likely violating? A) Official Secrets Act B) Contempt of Courts Act C) Defamation Law D) Programme Code for Television
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Contempt of Courts Act)
Under Section 2(c) and Section 3 of the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, commenting on pending trials in a manner that prejudices the public or the judge violates the sub judice rule and constitutes criminal contempt of court.
Q2556
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsDefamation Legal Procedure
Arrange the following stages of a defamation case in the correct order: i. Filing of a complaint. ii. Investigation by the court. iii. Presentation of evidence. iv. Verdict and sentencing. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, iii, iv)
Standard legal trial stages in a criminal defamation proceeding (under Sections 499/500 IPC / CrPC): 1. Filing of private criminal complaint (i) 2. Cognizance & preliminary inquiry/investigation by magistrate (ii) 3. Framing of charges & presentation of evidence/witnesses (iii) 4. Judgment, verdict, and sentencing (iv).
Q2557
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsConcept of Visual Communication
What is the primary focus of visual communication? A) Use of audio elements to convey messages B) Use of images, symbols, and graphics to convey information C) Use of written text to explain complex ideas D) Use of verbal communication to persuade audiences
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Use of images, symbols, and graphics to convey information)
Visual communication is the practice of conveying ideas, information, and meaning primarily through visual aids—such as imagery, typography, drawings, symbols, color, and graphic design.
Q2558
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsCommunication Barriers Categorization
Match the following communication barriers with their types: i. Jargon ii. Network Failure iii. Lack of Attention iv. Cultural Differences Types: 1. Semantic Barrier 2. Technical Barrier 3. Psychological Barrier 4. Sociological Barrier Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4)
Matching: - Jargon: Specialized vocabulary causing meaning confusion -> Semantic Barrier (i-1) - Network Failure: Hardware/transmission breakdown -> Technical Barrier (ii-2) - Lack of Attention: Internal distraction/preoccupation -> Psychological Barrier (iii-3) - Cultural Differences: Divergence in social norms and traditions -> Sociological Barrier (iv-4).
Q2559
Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Invention of Wireless Communication
Who is often credited as the inventor of wireless communication? A) Alexander S. Popov B) Guglielmo Marconi C) Jagdish Chandra Bose D) Thomas Edison
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Guglielmo Marconi)
Italian inventor Guglielmo Marconi is internationally celebrated as the pioneer of wireless telegraphy/communication, having transmitted the first transatlantic radio signal in 1901 and shared the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1909.
Q2560
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsNon-Verbal Gestures
In a noisy classroom, a teacher uses hand gestures to explain a concept. This is an example of: A) Verbal communication B) Feedback mechanism C) Non-verbal communication D) Psychological noise
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Non-verbal communication)
Hand gestures, body language, and physical signs communicate meaning without vocalized or written words, exemplifying Non-verbal communication.
Q2561
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsNature of Visual Communication
Consider the following statements about visual communication: i. Visual communication can evoke emotional responses. ii. Infographics are used to simplify complex data. iii. Visual communication is only effective in print media. iv. Visual thinking involves the use of mental imagery. Which of the statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, and iv)
Statements i, ii, and iv are true. Visual design elicits psychological and emotional connections; infographics condense intricate data; and visual thinking relies on cognitive mental imagery. Statement iii is false because visual communication is exceptionally effective in electronic, digital, and social media platforms.
Q2562
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsOfficial Secrets Act Penalties
What is the maximum punishment under Section 3 of the Official Secrets Act, 1923? A) 3 years B) 5 years C) 10 years D) 14 years
💡Correct Answer: Option D (14 years)
Under Section 3 of the Official Secrets Act, 1923, spying or communicating state secrets relating to naval, military, or air force establishments carries a maximum punishment of imprisonment up to 14 years.
Q2563
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsAbsolute Privilege in Law
Which of the following is an example of absolute privilege in the context of defamation law? A) Statements made by witnesses in court B) Statements made on the floor of the legislature C) Statements made by journalists in news reports D) Statements made by public servants in official reports
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Statements made on the floor of the legislature)
Under Article 105(2) (for Members of Parliament) and Article 194(2) (for State Legislators) of the Indian Constitution, absolute privilege completely protects anything said or vote given on the floor of the legislature against any court proceedings, including defamation.
Q2564
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsChronology of Press Legislation in India
Arrange the following historical events related to press freedom in India in chronological order: i. Introduction of pre-censorship rules in 1799. ii. Enactment of the Indian Penal Code in 1860. iii. Proclamation of the Indian Constitution in 1950. iv. Establishment of the Bengal Gazette in 1780. Which of the following is the correct chronological order?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (iv, i, ii, iii)
Historical sequence of press freedom events in India: 1. Establishment of Hicky's Bengal Gazette: 1780 (iv) 2. Censorship of Press Act by Lord Wellesley: 1799 (i) 3. Enactment of the Indian Penal Code (IPC): 1860 (ii) 4. Commencement of the Constitution of India guaranteeing Art 19(1)(a): 1950 (iii).
Q2565
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsIPC Section 499 Defamation Exceptions
Which of the following are EXCEPTIONS to defamation under the Indian Penal Code? i. True imputation made in public good ii. Fair comment on a matter of public interest iii. Statements made in good faith about a public servant's conduct iv. Publication of a substantially true report of court proceedings Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Section 499 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) lists 10 statutory exceptions to defamation. All four items listed are explicit exceptions: - First Exception: Imputation of truth for public good. - Second Exception: Public conduct of public servants in good faith. - Third Exception: Conduct of any person touching any public question. - Fourth Exception: Publication of substantially true reports of proceedings of Courts of Justice.
Q2566
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsGestalt Visual Perception Principles
Match the following Gestalt principles with their descriptions: 1. Similarity 2. Proximity 3. Continuity 4. Common Fate Descriptions: i. Objects that move together are perceived as a group. ii. Objects that are similar in appearance are grouped together. iii. Objects close to each other are perceived as a group. iv. Patterns are perceived as continuous even if interrupted. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i)
Gestalt psychology principles of visual perception: - Similarity: Elements sharing visual characteristics (color, shape, size) are grouped (1-ii). - Proximity: Elements positioned close to each other are perceived as belonging together (2-iii). - Continuity: The eye naturally follows paths, lines, and curves smoothly (3-iv). - Common Fate: Elements moving in the same direction at the same speed are perceived as a unit (4-i).
Q2567
Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)History of All India Radio
What was the original name of All India Radio (AIR)? A) Indian Broadcasting Service B) Indian Radio Corporation C) Akashvani D) Gyan Vani
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Indian Broadcasting Service)
In 1930, the government took over broadcasting under the Department of Industries and Labour as the 'Indian State Broadcasting Service' (ISBS), which was renamed 'All India Radio' on 8 June 1936 on the suggestion of Lionel Fielden.
Q2568
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsPrinciples of Design
Which of the following are principles of design in visual communication? i. Unity ii. Emphasis iii. Contrast iv. Rhythm Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
The core principles of design governing effective visual communication include Unity (harmony), Emphasis (focal point), Contrast (distinction/counterpoint), Rhythm (visual movement/repetition), as well as Balance and Proportion.
Q2569
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsMedia Laws & Constitutional Focus
Match the following laws with their primary focus: 1. Official Secrets Act, 1923 2. Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 3. Article 19(1)(a) 4. Defamation Law Focus: i. Regulates freedom of speech and expression ii. Protects classified government information iii. Ensures respect for judicial authority iv. Protects individuals from false attacks on reputation Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv)
Matching: - Official Secrets Act, 1923: Protects classified state security documents (1-ii). - Contempt of Courts Act, 1971: Upholds dignity and authority of the judiciary (2-iii). - Article 19(1)(a): Guarantees free speech and expression (3-i). - Defamation Law: Protects individuals from reputation damage (4-iv).
Q2570
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsCommunication Concepts Verification
Consider the following statements: i. Communication is a one-way process. ii. Verbal communication includes written and spoken words. iii. Noise can be both physical and psychological. iv. Non-verbal cues are irrelevant in professional settings. Which of the above statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ii and iii)
Statements ii and iii are correct. Verbal communication involves words in both oral and written modes. Noise encompasses environmental physical disturbances and internal cognitive/emotional psychological distractions. Statement i is false (communication is interactive two-way); Statement iv is false (non-verbal body language is vital in professional settings).
Q2571
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsSelective Exposure Theory
The concept of "Selective Exposure" in media consumption suggests that: A) Audiences consume all types of media without bias B) People tend to expose themselves to messages that align with their beliefs C) Advertisers control audience behaviour through exposure frequency D) Governments regulate the types of media content available
💡Correct Answer: Option B (People tend to expose themselves to messages that align with their beliefs)
Selective Exposure Theory (Festinger / Klapper) posits that individuals deliberately seek out media messages, news outlets, and viewpoints that confirm their existing attitudes and values while actively avoiding dissonant information.
Q2572
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsPhysiology of Human Vision
Arrange the following stages of the human vision process in the correct order: i. Light enters the eye through the cornea ii. Electrical signals are sent to the brain via the optic nerve iii. The retina detects light and converts it into electrical signals iv. The lens focuses light on the retina Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, iv, iii, ii)
Physiological optics sequence of human vision: 1. Light enters through the cornea (i) 2. The crystalline lens focuses the light rays onto the retina (iv) 3. Photoreceptors (rods and cones) in the retina detect light and transduce it into electrochemical impulses (iii) 4. Electrical signals are transmitted via the optic nerve to the visual cortex of the brain (ii).
Q2573
Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Studio-to-Transmitter Link (STL)
What is the primary function of the Studio-to-Transmitter Link (STL)? A) To record live programmes B) To transport programmes from the studio to the transmitter C) To broadcast programmes directly to the audience D) To edit recorded programmes
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To transport programmes from the studio to the transmitter)
A Studio-to-Transmitter Link (STL) is a dedicated telecommunications connection (microwave link, fiber optic, or satellite feed) that transports audio and video broadcast programming from the production studio facility to the transmission tower/site.
Q2574
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsGestalt Principle of Proximity
According to Gestalt theory, which principle states that objects close to each other are perceived as a group? A) Similarity B) Proximity C) Continuity D) Common Fate
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Proximity)
The Gestalt Principle of Proximity (निकटता का नियम) establishes that items positioned near one another are cognitively perceived by human perception as a unified cluster or related group.
Q2575
Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Broadcasting Milestones Matching
Match the following broadcasting milestones with their corresponding years: 1. First regular TV services in the world 2. Birth of All India Radio 3. Experimental TV service in India 4. Introduction of FM radio in India Years: i. 1927 ii. 1936 iii. 1959 iv. 1980s Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv)
Milestones: - BBC launched the world's first regular public high-definition television service in 1936 (or early experimental/radio 1927). - Birth of All India Radio: June 1936 (from 1927 IBC). - Experimental TV service in India: September 1959. - Expansion of FM radio in India: 1980s (Madras FM in 1977, private/broad expansion in 1980s/90s).
Q2576
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsSignifier vs Signified (Saussure)
In semiotics, what is the term for the physical form of a sign? A) Signified B) Signifier C) Icon D) Index
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Signifier)
In Ferdinand de Saussure's semiology, a sign consists of two parts: the 'Signifier' (signifiant, the perceptible physical form, sound, or written mark) and the 'Signified' (signifié, the mental concept it evokes).
Q2577
Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Satellite STL for Nationwide Broadcasting
A broadcasting company wants to transmit programmes to multiple transmitters across the country. Which STL option would be most cost-effective and efficient? A) Telephone lines B) Coaxial cables C) Microwave link D) Satellite link
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Coaxial cables)
For point-to-multipoint nationwide transmission across vast geographic expanses, a Satellite Link (satellite transponder uplink/downlink like INSAT/EDUSAT) is the most efficient and cost-effective distribution method.
Q2578
Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Beginning of Radio in India (1927)
When did regular radio broadcasting begin in India? A) 1927 B) 1936 C) 1959 D) 1965
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1927)
Regular commercial radio broadcasting in India commenced in July 1927 with the inauguration of the Bombay station by Viceroy Lord Irwin under the Indian Broadcasting Company (IBC), followed by the Calcutta station in August 1927.
Q2579
Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Microphone Polar Patterns
A radio station wants to broadcast a live concert. Which type of microphone would be most suitable for capturing the sound of the entire audience? A) Omni-directional B) Uni-directional C) Bi-directional D) Cardioid
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Omni-directional)
An Omni-directional microphone has a spherical 360-degree pickup pattern that captures ambient sound equally from all directions, making it ideal for recording ambient crowd applause, audience room response, and live concert ambience.
Q2580
Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Microphone Pick-up Characteristics
Match the following types of microphones with their descriptions: 1. Omni-directional 2. Uni-directional 3. Bi-directional Descriptions: i. Picks up sound from one direction only ii. Picks up sound equally from all directions iii. Picks up sound from two opposite directions Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii)
Microphone directional polar patterns: - Omni-directional: Captures sound equally from all 360 degrees (1-ii). - Uni-directional (Cardioid/Shotgun): Sensitive to sound from the front only, rejecting rear noise (2-i). - Bi-directional (Figure-8): Sensitive to sound from front and back while rejecting sides (3-iii).
Q2581
Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Radio Broadcast Transmission Chain
Arrange the following steps in the radio broadcasting process in the correct order: i. Programme production in the studio ii. Transmission via the transmitter iii. Reception by the radio set iv. Transportation via STL Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, iv, ii, iii)
The sequential flow of radio broadcasting: 1. Studio Production (audio creation, mixing - i) 2. Studio-to-Transmitter Link (transporting studio feed to transmitter - iv) 3. Transmission (RF modulation and electromagnetic radiation by transmitter/antenna - ii) 4. Reception (radio receivers detect, demodulate, and reproduce audio - iii).
Q2582
Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Radio Broadcasting History in India
Consider the following statements about radio broadcasting in India: i. The Indian Broadcasting Company (IBC) started radio broadcasting in 1927. ii. All India Radio (AIR) was established in 1936. iii. FM radio was introduced in India in the 1980s. iv. Gyan Vani is an educational FM radio network. Which of the statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
All four statements are correct in Indian broadcasting history: - IBC established Bombay and Calcutta stations in 1927. - AIR was officially named on 8 June 1936. - FM broadcasting began expanding in the late 1970s and 1980s. - Gyan Vani is a dedicated educational FM radio station network operated by IGNOU in collaboration with AIR.
Q2583
Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Microphone Technical Classifications
Which of the following is NOT a standard type of microphone polar pattern used in broadcasting? A) Omni-directional B) Uni-directional C) Bi-directional D) Multi-directional
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Multi-directional)
In professional audio engineering, the standard microphone polar patterns are Omni-directional, Uni-directional (Cardioid, Supercardioid, Hypercardioid), and Bi-directional (Figure-8). 'Multi-directional' is not a recognized technical polar pattern category.
Q2584
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsParticipatory Communication Typology
Match the following types of participation with their descriptions: Types of Participation: i. Non-participation ii. Controlled participation iii. Co-management iv. Self-management Descriptions: 1. Power is shared between funders and local groups. 2. Authority imposes decisions without consultation. 3. Elites permit discussion but retain control over outcomes. 4. Participants collectively decide and execute decisions. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4)
In development participation typology: - Non-participation: Unilateral top-down imposition (i-2) - Controlled participation: Consultative façade where authorities retain control (ii-3) - Co-management: Power-sharing between outside agency and community (iii-1) - Self-management: Autonomous collective decision-making and execution (iv-4).
Q2585
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingPublic Relations Journalism
What is the primary objective of journalism when it is used as public relations? A) To maximize profits B) To advance causes, perspectives, or fight an 'infowar' C) To provide unbiased reporting D) To entertain the audience
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To advance causes, perspectives, or fight an 'infowar')
When journalism practices are co-opted for corporate, political, or institutional public relations (advocacy journalism / sponsored PR content), the primary objective shifts from objective neutrality to actively advancing institutional agendas, promoting specific viewpoints, or combating rival narratives in an information war.
Q2586
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsC4D Planning Cycle
Arrange the following stages of Communication for Development (C4D) planning in the correct order: i. Situation analysis ii. Identification of target audience iii. Development of communication strategy iv. Monitoring and evaluation v. Message creation and delivery Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, iii, v, iv)
The standard C4D strategic project planning cycle (UNICEF/UNESCO framework): 1. Situation Analysis & Needs Assessment (i) 2. Identification & Segmentation of Target Audience (ii) 3. Development of Communication Strategy & Channels (iii) 4. Message Creation, Pre-testing & Implementation/Delivery (v) 5. Monitoring & Evaluation (M&E) (iv).
Q2587
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingSocial Responsibility of Journalism
What is the primary role of journalism in society? A) To entertain the audience B) To inform, interpret, and educate the public C) To promote political agendas D) To provide advertisements
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To inform, interpret, and educate the public)
The fundamental normative function of journalism in a democratic society is to inform citizens with truthful reporting, interpret complex societal issues, and educate the public to facilitate self-governance and democratic participation.
Q2588
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsDevelopment Communication Concepts (Melkote)
Which of the following is NOT an essential concept of development communication as outlined by Srinivas R. Melkote and H. Leslie Steeves? A) Development B) Empowerment C) Third World D) Capitalism
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Capitalism)
In 'Communication for Development in the Third World: Theory and Practice for Empowerment' by Srinivas Melkote and H. Leslie Steeves, the foundational paradigms revolve around Development, Empowerment, Participation, and the Third World. Capitalism is an economic system, not an essential normative concept of emancipatory development communication.
Q2589
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingAdvertorials & Ethics in Journalism
A newspaper publishes a feature article about a new product launch, presenting it as a news story without disclosing that it was paid for by the company. What is this practice most commonly referred to as? A) Investigative journalism B) Public relations C) Advertorial D) Editorial independence
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Advertorial)
An 'Advertorial' (paid news / native advertising) is an advertisement formatted to deliberately mimic the editorial layout and objective tone of an authentic news story without explicit disclosure to readers.
Q2590
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsParticipatory Communication Paradigm
Which of the following best describes the participatory paradigm in development communication? A) It focuses on transferring information from experts to communities. B) It emphasizes horizontal knowledge sharing and collective decision-making. C) It relies on centralized decision-making by external authorities. D) It prioritizes the use of mass media for disseminating development messages.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It emphasizes horizontal knowledge sharing and collective decision-making.)
The participatory paradigm in development communication fundamentally rejects top-down, vertical modernization models and instead champions horizontal, dialogue-driven, grassroots knowledge sharing and collective community empowerment.
Q2591
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingFunctions of Journalism
Consider the following statements about journalism: i. Journalism's main function is to inform the public. ii. Journalism only focuses on news stories and does not interpret events. iii. Mass communication in journalism involves communication with a large audience. iv. Print media serves a complementary role to radio and television in news dissemination. Which of the following statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, iii, and iv)
Statements i, iii, and iv are correct. Journalism informs, addresses mass audiences, and print complements broadcast media through depth and permanence. Statement ii is false because interpretive reporting, editorial analysis, and investigative contextualization are core pillars of journalism.
Q2592
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsParticipatory Paradigm Attributes
Consider the following statements about the participatory paradigm: i. It recognizes cultural differences and rejects a universal development model. ii. It prioritizes the use of big media like television and newspapers. iii. It encourages self-management and collective decision-making. iv. It is primarily concerned with creating a climate of acceptance for exogenous ideas. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i and iii)
Statements i and iii are correct. The participatory model respects indigenous knowledge and cultural pluralism, rejecting one-size-fits-all Western models, and fosters community self-reliance. Statements ii and iv pertain to the classical modernization/dominant paradigm (big media and acceptance of exogenous foreign models).
Q2593
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingHistory of Indian Journalism Themes
Arrange the following themes of Indian journalism in chronological order: i. Political freedom and social reforms ii. Nation-building post-independence iii. Efforts to strengthen the press after 1947 iv. Emergence of the 'Kesari' newspaper Which of the following is the correct chronological order?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (iv, i, iii, ii)
Chronological progression of Indian journalistic eras: 1. Emergence of Kesari (founded by Bal Gangadhar Tilak in 1881) (iv) 2. Freedom movement and social reform journalism (early 20th century) (i) 3. Post-1947 Press commissions and statutory bodies (First Press Commission 1952-54, Press Council) (iii) 4. Post-independence developmental nation-building journalism (1950s-1970s) (ii).
Q2594
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingThe Press Terminology
Which term best defines journalism as the oldest medium of communication? A) Fourth Estate B) Mass Media C) Press D) Information Dissemination
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Press)
The term 'Press' (referring to the mechanical printing press) historically designates journalism in its original and oldest mass medium incarnation, derived from the printed word.
Q2595
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsKey Principle of C4D
Which of the following is a key principle of Communication for Development (C4D)? A) Broadcasting information to a mass audience B) Encouraging one-way communication from the government to the people C) Participatory communication that involves communities in decision-making D) Focusing solely on marketing and advertising for development goals
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Participatory communication that involves communities in decision-making)
The core ethos of Communication for Development (C4D) is facilitating participatory, dialogue-based communication that empowers marginalized communities to articulate their own needs and actively shape development initiatives.
Q2596
Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Television Technology Advancements
Match the following technological advancements in television with their descriptions: i. Iconoscope ii. Satellite communication iii. Digital compression technology iv. High Definition Television (HDTV) Descriptions: 1. Enabled the transmission of high-quality video and audio signals. 2. The first electric television tube invented in 1923. 3. Enhanced the number of channels and improved picture quality. 4. Transformed global communication with the launch of Early Bird in 1962. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1)
Matching: - Iconoscope: Invented in 1923 by Vladimir Zworykin, the first practical electronic TV camera tube (i-2). - Satellite communication: Transformed global live TV with communications satellites like Early Bird / Telstar (ii-4). - Digital compression: MPEG standards enabled multi-channel digital broadcasting (iii-3). - HDTV: Enabled superior high-resolution video and multi-channel audio (iv-1).
Q2597
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsLandmark Indian Films Chronology
Arrange the following landmark Indian films in chronological order of their release: i. Mother India ii. Mughal-e-Azam iii. Sholay iv. Dilwale Dulhania Le Jayenge Which of the following is the correct chronological order?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, iii, iv)
Chronology of landmark Hindi cinema classics: 1. Mother India (directed by Mehboob Khan): 1957 2. Mughal-e-Azam (directed by K. Asif): 1960 3. Sholay (directed by Ramesh Sippy): 1975 4. Dilwale Dulhania Le Jayenge (directed by Aditya Chopra): 1995.
Q2598
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingPrimary Purpose of Advertising
Which of the following is the primary purpose of advertising? A) To entertain the audience B) To sell products, services, or ideas C) To provide free samples to consumers D) To reduce production costs
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To sell products, services, or ideas)
The fundamental definition and primary commercial purpose of advertising is to persuade, inform, and influence a target audience to purchase products, adopt services, or embrace specific ideas.
Q2599
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsEvolution of Development Communication Paradigms
Arrange the following concepts in the order they emerged in development communication: i. Dominant Paradigm ii. Participatory Paradigm iii. Communication for Development (CFD) iv. Development Support Communication (DSC) Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, iv, ii, iii)
Evolution of development communication frameworks: 1. Dominant Paradigm (1950s-1960s modernization model: Lerner, Rogers, Schramm) (i) 2. Development Support Communication (DSC, coined by Erskine Childers in 1966/1970s for UNDP/UNICEF projects) (iv) 3. Participatory Paradigm (1980s Paulo Freire, Robert Chambers) (ii) 4. Communication for Development (CFD/C4D - contemporary multi-dimensional synthesis) (iii).
Q2600
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingWriting for Digital Media
Which of the following is a key feature of writing for online media? A) Long, detailed paragraphs with complex phrasing B) Use of passive voice and indirect language C) Short sentences, active voice, and concise writing D) Avoidance of subheads and bullet points
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Short sentences, active voice, and concise writing)
Digital web readers scan in an F-pattern. Online journalism guidelines prioritize scannability: short sentences, active voice, concise paragraphs, bold bullet points, and prominent subheadings.
Q2601
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsMedia Types Matching
Match the following types of media with their characteristics: Types of Media: i. Print Media ii. New Media iii. Broadcast Media iv. Social Media Characteristics: 1. Uses digital technology for content distribution. 2. Relies on static representation of information. 3. Combines audio and visual elements for storytelling. 4. Enables user-generated content and real-time interaction. Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4)
Matching: - Print Media: Physical, static text/image paper layout (i-2). - New Media: Digital internet distribution networks (ii-1). - Broadcast Media: Audio/visual electronic transmission via airwaves (iii-3). - Social Media: Web 2.0 user-generated content (UGC) and networked peer interaction (iv-4).
Q2602
Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Nature of Radio Broadcasting
Which of the following is a key feature of radio broadcasting? A) Visual storytelling B) Audience interaction through social media C) Audio content delivered through electromagnetic waves D) Use of printed material to support the message
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Audio content delivered through electromagnetic waves)
Radio broadcasting is fundamentally an aural medium wherein acoustic sound and audio content are modulated onto high-frequency radio frequency electromagnetic carrier waves and radiated into space.
Q2603
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingHyperlinks in Online Journalism
What is the primary advantage of using hyperlinks in new media storytelling? A) It limits the reader's access to additional information. B) It allows readers to explore related content and gain a broader perspective. C) It reduces the need for visuals in online content. D) It ensures that readers stay on a single webpage.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It allows readers to explore related content and gain a broader perspective.)
Hyperlinking creates non-linear narrative depth, allowing digital news readers to instantly navigate to background context, primary sources, archived stories, and related perspectives.
Q2604
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingLimitations of Advertising
What is one of the key limitations of advertising? A) It guarantees repeat sales for all products. B) It is a two-way communication process. C) It cannot compel consumers to buy a product. D) It always reduces the price of the product.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It cannot compel consumers to buy a product.)
While advertising can inform, build brand awareness, and create desire, it cannot physically force or compel an individual consumer to purchase a product; buying decisions depend on price, quality, personal preference, and purchasing power.
Q2605
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsTraditional Folk Media Forms
Which of the following folk theatre forms is prominent in Maharashtra? A) Jatra B) Tamasha C) Bhavai D) Nautanki
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Tamasha)
Tamasha is the traditional, vibrant folk theatre form of Maharashtra, incorporating Lavani singing, dance, and satirical comedic drama. (Jatra is in West Bengal, Bhavai in Gujarat, and Nautanki in Uttar Pradesh).
Q2606
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsDirectors of Iconic Indian Films
Who directed the iconic film Sholay (1975)? A) Yash Chopra B) Raj Kumar Santoshi C) Ramesh Sippy D) Subhash Ghai
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ramesh Sippy)
Ramesh Sippy directed the legendary action curry western 'Sholay', written by Salim-Javed and released on 15 August 1975, which became one of the greatest blockbusters in Indian cinematic history.
Q2607
Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)History of Doordarshan
Consider the following statements about the development of television in India: i. The Delhi Television Centre began operations in 1959 with UNESCO support. ii. The Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (SITE) brought India international prestige. iii. Doordarshan was separated from All India Radio in 1976. iv. The Asian Games in 1982 led to the rapid expansion of India's television network. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii, iii, and iv)
All four statements are historical facts: - Delhi experimental TV station was inaugurated on 15 Sept 1959 funded partially by UNESCO (20,000 grant). - SITE (1975-76) using NASA's ATS-6 satellite beamed educational programming to 2,400 rural villages. - Doordarshan was separated from AIR on 1 April 1976. - 1982 IX Asian Games triggered national colour TV transmission and massive expansion of Low Power Transmitters (LPTs).
Q2608
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingNew Media Characteristics
Which of the following is a defining characteristic of new media compared to traditional media? A) Static representation of information B) Limited interactivity and one-way communication C) Dynamic, interactive, and fast-moving content D) Reliance on print and broadcast formats
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dynamic, interactive, and fast-moving content)
New media is distinguished by dynamic digital malleability, continuous real-time updates, multi-directional user interactivity, and rapid information distribution across decentralized networks.
Q2609
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsMedia Systems Characteristics
Match the following types of media with their characteristics: Types of Media: i. Print Media ii. New Media iii. Broadcast Media iv. Social Media Characteristics: 1. Uses digital technology for content distribution. 2. Relies on static representation of information. 3. Combines audio and visual elements for storytelling. 4. Enables user-generated content and real-time interaction. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4)
Media characteristics matching: - Print Media: Static layout on paper (i-2) - New Media: Digital computer networks (ii-1) - Broadcast Media: Audio-visual broadcast airwaves (iii-3) - Social Media: Web 2.0 user-generated content (iv-4).
Q2610
Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Rise of FM Radio in India
What was the primary reason for the rise of FM radio in India? A) To replace television as the primary medium of entertainment B) To improve program content and provide listeners with more choices C) To promote government propaganda D) To reduce the cost of broadcasting
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To improve program content and provide listeners with more choices)
The proliferation of FM radio channels (and subsequent private FM licensing) in India was driven by the objective to enhance broadcast audio quality, provide genre-specific localized programming, and offer listeners diverse musical and community choices.
Q2611
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsTraditional Folk Media in India
Consider the following statements about folk media in India: i. Folk media often combines music, dance, and drama to convey messages. ii. It is ineffective in areas with low literacy rates. iii. Folk media has been used historically for both entertainment and social reform. iv. Folk media is limited to religious content only. Which of the statement are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i and iii)
Statements i and iii are correct. Traditional folk media organically weaves music, dance, puppetry, and street theatre into compelling participatory narratives, historically driving social reforms (e.g., against social evils, during the freedom movement). Statements ii and iv are false (folk media is exceptionally potent in non-literate rural areas and covers diverse socio-political themes).
Q2612
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingNew Media Dynamics
Consider the following statements about new media: i. New media relies on digital computer technology for content distribution. ii. Traditional media is more interactive than new media. iii. New media allows users to produce, distribute, and consume content simultaneously. iv. Print media is faster in delivering real-time updates compared to new media. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i and iii)
Statements i and iii are correct. New media operates on digital microprocessing/IP networks and breaks down the barrier between audience and creator, turning users into 'prosumers'. Statements ii and iv are false (new media is infinitely more interactive and delivers instantaneous live updates compared to daily print editions).
Q2613
Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Developmental Television in 1970s
What was the primary goal of using television for development in India during the mid-1970s? A) To promote entertainment shows B) To spread development-oriented messages C) To replace radio as the primary medium of communication D) To showcase international films
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To spread development-oriented messages)
During the mid-1970s, the landmark Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (SITE, 1975-76) spearheaded by Dr. Vikram Sarabhai aimed to deploy television as an educational instrument to beam instructional messages on agricultural innovation, health, hygiene, and primary education to 2,400 backward rural villages.
Q2614
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingEvolution of Public Relations
Consider the following statements about the evolution of public relations: i. The British government in India established the Central Bureau of Public Information in 1923. ii. The House of Tata's started its public relations department in 1945. iii. The Soviet Union and the Communist International established PR organs during World War I. iv. The primary goal of corporate PR during the 1930s Depression was to increase advertising revenue. Which of the statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, ii, and iii only)
Statements i, ii, and iii are historically accurate: - Central Bureau of Public Information was established by the British Indian Government in 1923 (headed by J. Coatman). - Tata established India's first dedicated corporate public relations division in 1945 under Mina Kharas. - Post-1917 Bolshevik Russia institutionalized international state agitprop/PR organs. Statement iv is false because corporate PR during the Great Depression was launched to rebuild shattered public trust in big corporations and defend the free enterprise system, not to generate ad revenue.
Q2615
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsIndian Cinema Facts
Consider the following statements regarding Indian cinema: i. Satyajit Ray's Pather Panchali won the Best Foreign Language Film at the Oscars. ii. The Film and Television Institute of India (FTII) is located in Pune. iii. Dadasaheb Phalke is known as the 'Father of Indian Cinema'. iv. Bollywood refers to the entire Indian film industry. Which of the above statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ii and iii)
Statements ii and iii are correct: - FTII was established in 1960 on the erstwhile Prabhat Film Company premises in Pune. - Dadasaheb Phalke is venerated as the 'Father of Indian Cinema' for creating Raja Harishchandra (1913). Statement i is false (Pather Panchali won the Best Human Document award at Cannes 1956; Ray received an Honorary Oscar in 1992). Statement iv is false ('Bollywood' refers specifically to Hindi-language Mumbai cinema, not the entire Indian multi-lingual film industries like Tollywood, Kollywood, Mollywood, etc.).
Q2616
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingHistory of Corporate Public Relations
What was the primary reason for the rise of corporate public relations during the 1930s Depression in the United States? A) To increase product sales through advertising B) To counteract public distrust of business and government C) To promote international trade relations D) To expand the use of mass media for entertainment
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To counteract public distrust of business and government)
Following the 1929 stock market crash and the Great Depression, big corporations faced severe public hostility, suspicion, and regulatory scrutiny. Corporate PR emerged dynamically to rehabilitate business credibility and counteract public distrust.
Q2617
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingKeywords & Search Engine Optimization
What is the primary role of keywords in online content? A) To confuse search engines and reduce visibility B) To make the content longer and more detailed C) To improve search engine optimization and attract readers D) To replace the need for visuals in online articles
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To improve search engine optimization and attract readers)
In Search Engine Optimization (SEO), keywords align content with users' search queries, assisting web crawlers in indexing pages accurately and driving organic organic search traffic to articles.
Q2618
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingHypertext & Nonlinear Storytelling
What is the primary advantage of using hyperlinks in new media storytelling? A) It limits the reader's access to additional information. B) It allows readers to explore related content and gain a broader perspective. C) It reduces the need for visuals in online content. D) It ensures that readers stay on a single webpage.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It allows readers to explore related content and gain a broader perspective.)
Hyperlinks empower digital readers to engage in non-linear reading, jumping directly to primary source documents, interactive charts, and related perspectives to build comprehensive subject context.
Q2619
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsCharacteristics of Indian Folk Media
Which of the following is a key characteristic of folk media in India? A) It relies solely on written scripts. B) It is primarily dependent on digital platforms. C) It uses traditional art forms like storytelling, puppetry, and folk theatre. D) It focuses exclusively on urban audiences.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It uses traditional art forms like storytelling, puppetry, and folk theatre.)
Traditional folk media (traditional performing arts) in India relies on indigenous, culturally embedded forms such as puppetry (Kathputli), street theatre, ballad singing, and folk drama (Nautanki, Bhavai, Jatra, Yakshagana) with strong participatory appeal.
Q2620
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsHistorical Genesis of Performing Media
Arrange the following folk media forms in the order of their historical origin: i. Puppetry ii. Street Theatre iii. Folk Storytelling (Oral Tradition) iv. Radio Drama Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (iii, i, ii, iv)
Historical genesis of performance and communication genres: 1. Folk Storytelling / Oral Tradition (prehistoric antiquity, oral folklore) (iii) 2. Puppetry (ancient antiquity, found in Indus Valley and ancient Indian epics) (i) 3. Modern Street Theatre (Nukkad Natak, popularized during the anti-imperialist / IPTA movement in early 20th century) (ii) 4. Radio Drama (born with electromagnetic broadcasting in the 1920s-1930s) (iv).
Q2621
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsFirst Indian Feature Film
Which of the following is considered the first Indian feature film? A) Alam Ara B) Raja Harishchandra C) Pather Panchali D) Sant Tukaram
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Raja Harishchandra)
Dadasaheb Phalke's 'Raja Harishchandra', released on 3 May 1913 at the Coronation Cinematograph in Bombay, is recognized as the first indigenous full-length Indian silent feature film.
Q2622
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingNew Media Characteristics
Which of the following is a defining characteristic of new media compared to traditional media? A) Static representation of information B) Limited interactivity and one-way communication C) Dynamic, interactive, and fast-moving content D) Reliance on print and broadcast formats
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dynamic, interactive, and fast-moving content)
New media platforms (websites, mobile applications, social networks) are intrinsically characterized by interactive feedback loops, rapid multimedia updating, non-linear navigation, and user participation.
Q2623
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media Laws4D Cinematic Technology
Which of the following is a characteristic of 4D films? A) They use only visual effects without sound B) They combine 3D films with physical effects in the theatre. C) They are primarily used for educational purposes. D) They are produced exclusively for television.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (They combine 3D films with physical effects in the theatre.)
A 4D film combines stereoscopic 3D projection with synchronized physical environmental effects inside the theater auditorium (such as vibrating/moving motion seats, wind, mist/water sprays, smoke, and strobe lighting).
Q2624
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingEarliest Indian Corporate PR Venture
Which of the following was the earliest known public relations venture by Indian industry? A) The establishment of the Public Information Bureau (PIB) in 1923 B) The publicity campaign by the Great Indian Peninsular Railway in 1920 C) The formation of the House of Tata's PR department in 1945 D) The British government's use of PR during World War II
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The publicity campaign by the Great Indian Peninsular Railway in 1920)
In the history of Indian public relations, the Great Indian Peninsular (GIP) Railway launched the first institutional corporate publicity campaign in 1920, opening a publicity bureau in London and using cinema vans and posters to stimulate tourist travel in India.
Q2625
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingPR History Chronology
Arrange the following events in the evolution of public relations in chronological order: i. Establishment of the Central Bureau of Public Information in India ii. Publicity campaign by the Great Indian Peninsular Railway iii. Rise of corporate PR during the 1930s Depression in the United States iv. Formation of the House of Tata's PR department Which of the following is the correct chronological order?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (ii, i, iii, iv)
Chronology of PR milestones: 1. Great Indian Peninsular Railway publicity campaign: 1920 (ii) 2. Central Bureau of Public Information established: 1923 (i) 3. Rise of corporate PR during Great Depression in US: 1930s (iii) 4. Formation of Tata PR division: 1945 (iv).
Q2626
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingHeadline Writing for Digital Media
Which of the following is a recommended practice for writing headlines in online media? A) Use euphemisms and wordplay to intrigue readers B) Make headlines long and indirect to create suspense C) Ensure headlines are direct, concise, and include relevant keywords D) Avoid using keywords to maintain originality
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ensure headlines are direct, concise, and include relevant keywords)
In digital journalism and web writing, best practices mandate that headlines should be clear, direct, informative, concise (under 60-70 characters for search engines), and incorporate primary SEO search keywords.
Q2627
Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)Objective of 1959 TV Launch in India
What was the primary purpose of introducing television in India in 1959? A) To provide entertainment to urban populations B) To train personnel and explore its use in community development and education C) To compete with international broadcasters like BBC D) To promote commercial advertising
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To train personnel and explore its use in community development and education)
On 15 September 1959, television was inaugurated as an experimental service at Delhi with the primary mission to train technical personnel and explore television's potential for social education and community development among rural tele-clubs.
Q2628
Radio, Television & Educational Broadcasting (EDUSAT)1936 Berlin Olympics Television Propaganda
Which event marked the first major use of television for propaganda in Nazi Germany? A) The launch of the first communication satellite B) The televised coverage of the 1936 Berlin Olympics C) The introduction of the iconoscope in 1923 D) The establishment of the BBC TV station in London
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The televised coverage of the 1936 Berlin Olympics)
In August 1936, the Nazi regime under Goebbels broadcast the Berlin Olympic Games over closed-circuit television to public viewing rooms across Berlin, marking the world's first major live political propaganda television broadcast.
Q2629
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsParallel Cinema in India
The term "parallel cinema" in India refers to films that: A) Are exclusively based on historical events B) Focus on commercial entertainment and box office success C) Emphasize realistic storytelling and socio-political issues D) Use only non-professional actors
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Emphasize realistic storytelling and socio-political issues)
Parallel Cinema (the Indian New Wave) emerged as an alternative art movement to mainstream commercial cinema, characterized by serious socio-political themes, stark realism, naturalistic performances, and rejection of commercial song-and-dance formulas.
Q2630
Plant Pathology, Entomology & Crop ProtectionFungicides & Chemical Control
Which of the following are common trade names of the fungicide Copper Oxychloride (COC)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Blitox, Fytolan, Cupravit,)
Blitox 50 WP, Fytolan, and Cupravit are well-known commercial brand names of the broad-spectrum inorganic contact fungicide Copper Oxychloride (COC 50% WP).
Q2631
Plant Pathology, Entomology & Crop ProtectionFungicide History & Formulations
Match the following: i. Bordeaux Mixture - 1. Singh (1942) ii. Burgundy Mixture - 2. Millardet iii. Cheshunt Compound - 3. Bewley, 1921 iv. Chaubattia Paste - 4. "Soda Bordeaux" Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1)
Historical plant pathology matches: - i. Bordeaux Mixture -> Discovered by P.M.A. Millardet in 1885 (2) - ii. Burgundy Mixture -> Prepared with sodium carbonate, known as 'Soda Bordeaux' (4) - iii. Cheshunt Compound -> Formulated by W.F. Bewley in 1921 for damping-off (3) - iv. Chaubattia Paste -> Formulated by U.B. Singh in 1942 in Uttarakhand for wound treatment (1) Thus: i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1.
Q2632
C Programming & Data StructuresC Functions & Return Types
Which keyword is used to declare a function that returns no value?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (void)
In C and C++, the 'void' keyword when used as a function return type specifies that the function executes without returning any data value to the caller.
Q2633
C Programming & Data StructuresFunctions & Recursion
What is recursion in C?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Function that calls itself)
Recursion is a programming technique in which a function calls itself directly or indirectly to solve smaller instances of a problem, terminating when a base case is reached.
Q2634
C Programming & Data StructuresStructures and Unions
Which of the following statements about unions is TRUE?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (All members share the same memory location)
In C, all members of a 'union' share the exact same starting memory location. The total size allocated for a union is equal to the size of its largest member, allowing only one member's value to be stored at any given time.
Q2635
Database Management Systems & SQLSQL Aggregate Functions
Which function returns the number of rows in a SQL query?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (COUNT())
In SQL, the aggregate function COUNT() (e.g., COUNT(*) or COUNT(column_name)) returns the total number of rows matching the query criteria.
Q2636
Database Management Systems & SQLNormalization & Functional Dependencies
Consider a relation R(A, B, C) with the following functional dependencies: 1. A -> B 2. B -> C What is the candidate key of R?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (A only)
To find the candidate key, compute attribute closures under F = {A -> B, B -> C}: - A+ = {A, B, C} (since A -> B and B -> C by transitivity, A determines all attributes of R). - B+ = {B, C} (cannot determine A). - C+ = {C} (cannot determine A or B). Thus, 'A only' is the minimal superkey (candidate key) of R.
Q2637
C++ & Object-Oriented ProgrammingFunction Overloading & Polymorphism
What is function overloading in C++?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Defining multiple functions with the same name but different parameters)
Function overloading in C++ is a feature of compile-time polymorphism that allows multiple functions within the same scope to share the same name, provided they differ in parameter count, parameter types, or sequence.
Q2638
C++ & Object-Oriented ProgrammingVirtual Functions & Dynamic Binding
What is runtime polymorphism achieved through in C++?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Virtual functions)
In C++, runtime (dynamic) polymorphism and late binding are achieved using 'virtual functions' in base classes, which are resolved dynamically at runtime through virtual method tables (vtables) via base class pointers or references.
Q2639
C++ & Object-Oriented ProgrammingFunction Overloading
Consider the following function: int sum(int a, int b) { return a + b; } float sum(float a, float b) { return a + b; } What concept is demonstrated here?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Function overloading)
Defining two functions with identical identifier names 'sum' within the same scope that differ in their parameter data types (int vs float) is the textbook definition of Function Overloading.
Q2640
C++ & Object-Oriented ProgrammingPointers to Member Functions
Which of the following statements about pointers to member functions is true?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (They must be invoked on an object or object pointer.)
A pointer to a non-static member function in C++ requires the context of an actual class instance to execute (to supply the implicit 'this' pointer). It must be invoked using either the pointer-to-member operator (obj.pmf) or (ptr->pmf).
What will be the output of the following Java code? int[] arr = new int[]{1, 2, 3}; System.out.println(arr[3]);
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException)
The array 'arr' contains 3 elements with valid zero-based indices 0, 1, and 2. Attempting to access index 3 exceeds the array boundary, causing the JVM to throw an ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException at runtime.
Q2642
.NET Framework & VB.NET DevelopmentVB.NET Function Calls
What is the correct syntax to call a function with two arguments in VB.NET?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (FunctionName(arg1, arg2))
In VB.NET, function calls utilize standard parentheses enclosing comma-delimited arguments: FunctionName(arg1, arg2).
Q2643
.NET Framework & VB.NET DevelopmentCommon Language Runtime (CLR)
Which component of the .NET architecture handles security, memory management, and exception handling?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (CLR (Common Language Runtime))
The Common Language Runtime (CLR) is the core virtual machine engine of the .NET Framework responsible for application execution services including automatic memory management (garbage collection), Code Access Security, thread execution, and structured exception handling.
Q2644
.NET Framework & VB.NET DevelopmentVB.NET Function Overloading
Which of the following statements about Function Overloading in VB.NET is true?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Overloaded functions must differ by number or type of parameters)
In VB.NET (using the Overloads modifier), overloaded procedures must have the exact same name but must differ fundamentally in their parameter list signature (the number, order, or data types of parameters). Differing solely by return type is invalid.
Q2645
Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityTelecommunication & ISDN
Which technology allows digital data transmission over ordinary telephone lines at higher speeds?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (ISDN)
Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) was the pioneering international telecommunications standard that enabled simultaneous high-speed digital transmission of voice, video, and packet data over traditional copper telephone lines.
Q2646
Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecuritySatellite Communication & VSAT
Which RF link frequency bands are commonly used for VSAT satellite communication?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (C-band and Ku-band)
Very Small Aperture Terminal (VSAT) satellite ground stations operate predominantly in the C-band (uplink ~6 GHz / downlink ~4 GHz) and Ku-band (uplink ~14 GHz / downlink ~11-12 GHz) microwave frequency allocations.
Q2647
Computer Networks, Web Technologies & CybersecurityUniform Resource Locators (URL)
Which of the following is not part of a URL?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (IP address)
A canonical URL structure contains Scheme/Protocol, Hostname (Domain Name), Port, Path, Query string, and Fragment. When a domain name is used in a URL, the underlying IP address is resolved by DNS and is not explicitly part of the URL string itself.
Q2648
Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyCamera Mounts & Accessories
What is the primary purpose of the "hot shoe" on a camera?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (To connect external flashes and other accessories)
The 'hot shoe' is a standardized metal mounting bracket located on top of a camera equipped with electrical contact points designed to mechanically mount and electronically trigger external speedlights (flashes), radio triggers, microphones, and other accessories.
Q2649
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionComputer Fundamentals for Imaging
What is the primary function of an operating system?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (To manage hardware and software resources)
An operating system (OS) is the fundamental system software that manages a computer's hardware resources (CPU, memory, disk, peripheral devices) and provides common services and execution environments for application software.
Q2650
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionComputer Fundamentals for Imaging
What is the primary function of an operating system?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (To manage hardware and software resources)
The core role of any computer operating system (such as Windows, macOS, or Linux) is managing hardware devices (CPU, RAM, storage, input/output peripherals) and supervising program execution and software resources.
What is the significance of the "Nikon F mount" or "Canon EF mount"?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (They are standards for lens compatibility with camera bodies.)
The Nikon F mount and Canon EF mount are mechanical bayonet mounting standards with proprietary electronic communication protocols that ensure physical fit, electrical signal transfer, and optical alignment between interchangeable lenses and camera bodies.
Q2652
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityAverages & Run Rate
In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 7.2. What should be the average run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 272 runs?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (5)
Runs scored in first 10 overs = 10 * 7.2 = 72 runs. Remaining runs needed = 272 - 72 = 200 runs. Remaining overs = 40 overs. Required run rate = 200 / 40 = 5 runs per over.
Q2653
Basic English & ComprehensionSpotting Errors (Relative Pronouns)
Find the error: The teachers, who I worked with, (A)/ were very insensitive (B)/ towards children's needs. (C)/ No error (D)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The teachers, who I worked with)
Error is in part (A). When a relative pronoun acts as the object of a preposition ('with'), the objective form 'whom' should be used: 'The teachers, whom I worked with' or 'with whom I worked'.
Q2654
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KGovernment Initiatives & Cooperatives
What is the name of the new cooperative-based taxi service being launched by the Indian government?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sahkar Taxi)
The Ministry of Cooperation spearheaded 'Sahkar Taxi' (also promoted under national cooperative transport initiatives), a cooperative-owned ride-hailing platform designed to empower drivers directly.
Q2655
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KImportant National Days
When is National Maritime Day observed in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (April 5)
National Maritime Day is observed annually in India on April 5th to commemorate the maiden historical voyage of the first Indian commercial merchant vessel, SS Loyalty (owned by Scindia Steam Navigation Company), sailing from Mumbai to London in 1919.
Q2656
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KJ&K Agriculture & Economy
Purple revolution in Jammu and Kashmir is associated with which crop?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Lavender)
The 'Purple Revolution' (Aroma Mission launched by CSIR-IIIM Jammu) in Jammu & Kashmir refers to the transformative commercial cultivation of Lavender, with Doda and Bhaderwah emerging as national hubs of lavender oil distillation.
Q2657
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KIndian Freedom Movement
Who was the first Indian to be elected to the British Parliament?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Dadabhai Naoroji)
Dadabhai Naoroji, known as the 'Grand Old Man of India' and author of 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India', became the first Indian elected to the British House of Commons representing Central Finsbury in 1892.
Q2658
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KPhysics & Circular Motion
A body moving in a circular path with a constant speed has a:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (constant kinetic energy)
In uniform circular motion, speed (v) is constant, so kinetic energy KE = (1/2) m v^2 remains strictly constant. Velocity, acceleration, and displacement vectors continuously change their spatial directions.
Q2659
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KScience & Technology Current Affairs
Which company is developing India's first 'Drone City' in Andhra Pradesh?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Garuda Aerospace)
Garuda Aerospace partnered with the Andhra Pradesh government to establish India's first dedicated 'Drone City' and manufacturing hub in Andhra Pradesh to foster indigenous UAV technology.
Q2660
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KHistory of Jammu & Kashmir
Who was the Mughal emperor during the annexation of Kashmir to the Mughal Empire?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Akbar)
Mughal Emperor Akbar annexed Kashmir to the Mughal Empire in 1586 AD after his forces under Qasim Khan and Raja Bhagwant Das defeated the last Chak sultan, Yaqub Shah Chak.
Q2661
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KMedieval Indian History
Which one of the following battles led to the foundation of the Mughal rule at Delhi?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (First Battle of Panipat)
The First Battle of Panipat on 21 April 1526, fought between Babur and Ibrahim Lodi, resulted in Babur's decisive victory, terminating the Delhi Sultanate and establishing the Mughal Empire in India.
Q2662
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KArt & Architecture of India
The famous Dilwara temples of Mount Abu are a sacred pilgrimage place for whom?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Jains)
The Dilwara Temples located on Mount Abu in Rajasthan are celebrated worldwide for their exquisite white marble carvings and are holy pilgrimage shrines dedicated to Jain Tirthankaras, built between the 11th and 13th centuries.
Q2663
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KScientific Disciplines
Odontology is the branch of science which deals with the study of:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Teeth)
Odontology is the scientific and medical discipline dedicated to the study of the structure, development, morphology, pathology, and forensic examination of teeth.
Q2664
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KCurrent Affairs & Summits
The first World Audio Visual and Entertainment Summit (WAVES) was organized by the Government of India from May 1 to 4, 2025 in which city?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mumbai)
The inaugural World Audio Visual and Entertainment Summit (WAVES 2025) was organized by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting in Mumbai, India's entertainment and media capital.
Q2665
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KGeography of Jammu & Kashmir
Which valley is between Pir Panjal and Himalayas range?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kashmir Valley)
The Kashmir Valley (Vale of Kashmir) is an intermontane valley enclosed between the Pir Panjal Range on the southwest and the Main Himalayan Range (Zanskar Range) on the northeast.
Q2666
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KPhysical Geography & Rocks
The rock that results from solidification of molten lava from a volcano is an example of which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Igneous Rock)
Rocks formed by the cooling and crystallization of molten magma or volcanic lava are classified as Igneous Rocks (such as basalt and granite).
Q2667
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KHuman Physiology & Nutrition
For immediate energy production in cells, one should take:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Glucose)
Glucose (dextrose) is a simple monosaccharide that enters cellular metabolism directly without requiring enzymatic breakdown, serving as the immediate primary substrate for cellular respiration and ATP generation.
Q2668
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KSports Current Affairs
Which team won the 90th edition of the Ranji Trophy?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mumbai)
Mumbai cricket team won the historic 90th edition of the Ranji Trophy (2023-24 season) by defeating Vidarbha by 169 runs in the final at Wankhede Stadium, securing their record-extending 42nd Ranji title.
Q2669
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KAgricultural Geography
Highly specialized form of agriculture in which crops like coffee, tea and rubber are cultivated refer to:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (plantation agriculture)
Plantation agriculture is a large-scale commercial farming system where a single perennial cash crop (such as tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, or cocoa) is cultivated systematically over extensive estates.
Q2670
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KIndian Art & Culture Institutions
Which of the following is responsible for fostering the development of dance, drama and music in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sangeet Natak Akademi)
Sangeet Natak Akademi, established in 1953 by the Government of India, is the apex national academy for the preservation and promotion of music, dance, and drama across the nation.
Q2671
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KBooks and Authors
Who released the book 'Jammu Kashmir & Ladakh Through the Ages: A Visual Narrative of Continuities and Linkages'?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Amit Shah)
Union Home and Cooperation Minister Amit Shah released the pictorial historical volume 'Jammu Kashmir & Ladakh Through the Ages: A Visual Narrative of Continuities and Linkages', highlighting the timeless historical bonds connecting J&K and Ladakh with India.
Q2672
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KOptics & Physics
Which one of the following processes is responsible for the glittering of air bubble rising through water?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Total internal reflection of light)
When light rays travelling in denser water encounter the rarer air boundary of the bubble at an angle greater than the critical angle (48.6 degrees), Total Internal Reflection occurs, causing the air bubble to shine like a mirror.
Q2673
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KDefense & Security Affairs
What is the name of the military operation launched by India targeting terrorist infrastructure in Pakistan and PoK recently?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Operation Sindoor)
India's counter-terrorism response operations along the Line of Control are coded under specific operational directives such as Operation Sindoor / Sarp Vinash / Snow Leopard.
Q2674
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KPhysical vs Chemical Changes
Which of the following is not a chemical reaction?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Conversion of water into steam)
The conversion of liquid water into steam (boiling) is a physical change of state where the chemical molecular structure of H2O remains unaltered, unlike combustion or digestion which produce new chemical substances.
Q2675
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KSports & Khelo India
Which State/Union Territory topped the medal table of the first Khelo India Beach Games 2025?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Maharashtra)
Maharashtra topped the overall medal tally at the inaugural Khelo India Beach Games, showcasing superior dominance across coastal sports events.
Q2676
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KTunnels & Infrastructure in J&K
Which of the following is the under construction tunnel that will provide all-weather connectivity between Srinagar valley and Leh?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Zojila tunnel)
The 14.15-kilometer-long Zojila Tunnel, excavated under the treacherous Zojila Pass on the Srinagar-Leh National Highway (NH-1), is designed to provide uninterrupted all-weather road connectivity between the Kashmir Valley and Ladakh.
Q2677
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KHistory of Jammu & Kashmir
Which of the following is also known as the "sale deed of Kashmir"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Treaty of Amritsar)
The Treaty of Amritsar, signed on 16 March 1846 between the British East India Company and Maharaja Gulab Singh, transferred the territories of Kashmir to Gulab Singh for 75 lakh Nanakshahi rupees, historically dubbed the 'Sale Deed of Kashmir'.
Q2678
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KPhysical Geography & Climatology
Uneven distribution of insolation on the earth is mainly due to the:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (spherical shape of the earth)
The spherical (geoid) shape of the Earth causes the angle of incidence of incoming solar radiation to vary from perpendicular (90 deg) at the tropics to highly slanting towards the poles, causing uneven distribution of insolation.
Q2679
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KCell Biology & Blood
RBCs do not perform aerobic respiration because these do not contain:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mitochondria)
Mature mammalian red blood cells (erythrocytes) lack mitochondria (the powerhouses responsible for the Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation). As a result, RBCs metabolize glucose solely through anaerobic glycolysis.
Q2680
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KImportant Days & Themes
Zero Discrimination Day is observed annually on March 1st to promote equality and stand against discrimination in all its forms. What is the theme for Zero Discrimination Day 2025?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Equality for All)
Zero Discrimination Day is commemorated worldwide every year on March 1st by UNAIDS to champion human rights and dignity, centered around the theme of promoting equality for all.
Q2681
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KFolk Dances of J&K
The dance of Kashmir in which a teenage boy dresses in a female attire resembling that of kathak:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Baccha Nagma)
Baccha Nagma (also called Bachha Gyayan) is a popular traditional celebratory folk dance of Kashmir where a young boy dresses in elaborate female attire and performs delicate Kathak-like footwork accompanied by rabab and sarangi.
Q2682
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KHydroelectric Projects of J&K
Which of the following power project in J & K is located on Suru river which is also a tributary of the river indus?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Chutak Hydroelectric power plant)
The 44 MW Chutak Hydroelectric Project is a run-of-the-river power generation facility constructed on the Suru River (a primary tributary of the Indus River) in Kargil district.
Q2683
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KVitamins and Health
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Vitamin-E : Reproduction)
Vitamin E (tocopherol) is the 'anti-sterility vitamin' essential for reproductive health and maintaining cellular membranes. (Vitamin A deficiency causes night blindness; Vitamin C causes scurvy; Vitamin D causes rickets).
Q2684
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KClassical Dances of India
Which from the following is a 'classical dance' form?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Kathakali)
Kathakali (from Kerala) is one of the eight officially recognized classical dance drama traditions of India by the Sangeet Natak Akademi. Kalaripayattu is a martial art, and Bhawai is a folk dance.
Q2685
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KSports Awards & Football
Which player won the Women's Player of the Year Award for the 2024-25 season at the AIFF Awards 2025?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Manisha Kalyan)
Manisha Kalyan won the prestigious AIFF Women's Player of the Year Award, recognizing her stellar domestic and European performances.
Q2686
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KHuman Diseases & Microbiology
Typhoid fever is caused by:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bacteria)
Typhoid fever is an infectious bacterial illness caused by Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi (Salmonella typhi), transmitted through contaminated food and water.
Q2687
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KCultural Festivals of India
What is the name of the Sufi music festival praised by Prime Minister Narendra Modi for its 25-year journey?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ruhaniyat)
'Ruhaniyat' is the celebrated pan-Indian Sufi and mystic music festival that completed a quarter century (25 years) of promoting peace and spiritual music, earning high praise from PM Narendra Modi.
Q2688
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KAtmosphere & Physics
The layer of the atmosphere in which Radio Waves are reflected back is called:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ionosphere)
The Ionosphere (spanning the mesosphere and thermosphere, between 80 km and 400 km) contains high concentrations of ions and free electrons that reflect medium and high-frequency sky radio waves back to Earth.
Q2689
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KChemistry & Metallurgy
The important metal used with iron to produce stainless steel is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Chromium)
Chromium (minimum 10.5% to 18%) is the critical alloying element combined with iron to manufacture stainless steel, creating a passive chromium oxide surface layer that prevents rust and corrosion.
Q2690
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KNational Sports Awards
Who among the following has not been selected for the 2024 Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sandeep Sangwan)
Grandmaster Gukesh D (Chess), Manu Bhaker (Shooting), and Praveen Kumar (Para High Jump) were nominated and honored for the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award. Sandeep Sangwan was not selected.
Q2691
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KHandlooms & Crafts of J&K
Which of the following options is INCORRECT with reference to the famous fabrics weaved (under handloom sector) in Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rabari Shawls)
Raffal, Kani, and Pashmina are legendary indigenous GI-tagged handloom shawls of Jammu and Kashmir. Rabari shawls belong to the nomadic Rabari embroidery traditions of Kutch, Gujarat and Rajasthan, not J&K.
Q2692
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KModern Indian History
Mahatma Gandhi's remark, "A post-dated cheque on a crumbling bank" is regarding the proposals of:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cripps Mission)
Mahatma Gandhi described the proposals of the 1942 Cripps Mission (led by Sir Stafford Cripps) as 'a post-dated cheque on a crashing/crumbling bank' because it offered distant dominion status from a war-embattled British government.
Q2693
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KCirculatory System & Human Biology
Which vein brings clean blood from the lungs into the heart?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pulmonary Vein)
The Pulmonary Veins are unique among all veins because they carry freshly oxygenated ('clean') blood from the alveoli of the lungs directly into the left atrium of the heart.
Q2694
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KE-Governance & Portals
What is the name of the new portal being launched for real-time monitoring of food storage depots, aiming to improve quality, safety, and transparency in warehousing?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Depot Darpan)
'Depot Darpan' is the real-time digitized warehouse management and monitoring portal launched by the Food Corporation of India (FCI) to ensure end-to-end transparency, stock safety, and reduce storage losses.
Q2695
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KAncient Indian Philosophy & Buddhism
Which one of the following is not included in the 'Eight Fold Path' of Buddhism?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Right Desire)
The Noble Eightfold Path of Buddhism (Ashtangika Marga) comprises: Right View, Right Resolve, Right Speech, Right Conduct, Right Livelihood, Right Effort, Right Mindfulness, and Right Contemplation (Samadhi). 'Right Desire' is not part of the path, as Buddhism identifies craving (tanha/desire) as the root cause of suffering.
Q2696
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KApplied Chemistry & Meteorology
The most commonly used chemicals in the artificial rainmaking is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (All of the above)
Artificial rainmaking (cloud seeding) utilizes Silver Iodide (AgI, the primary glaciogenic agent), solid carbon dioxide (Dry Ice), and common salt (Sodium Chloride, NaCl, for warm cloud seeding) as freezing and condensation nuclei. Thus, All of the above are used.
Q2697
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KDigital India & Railways
What is the name of the application released by the Railway Ministry, a one stop solution offering multiple public-facing services?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (SwaRail)
The Ministry of Railways introduced 'SwaRail' (the super-app), integrating diverse passenger utilities such as ticketing, PNR tracking, train status, platform passes, food orders, and grievance redressal onto a single unified platform.
Q2698
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KTourism & Culture of J&K
A traditional Gondola type light weight rowing boat ride which is famous on the pristine Dal Lake in Kashmir is referred to as:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Shikara ride)
The 'Shikara' is the iconic, elegant wooden rowing boat unique to the pristine Dal Lake and Nigeen Lake in Srinagar, Kashmir, renowned as the Gondola of Kashmir.
Q2699
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KAncient Indian History & Travelers
Who among the following foreigners was the first to visit India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Megasthenes)
Megasthenes, the ancient Greek ethnographer and ambassador of Seleucus I Nicator to the Mauryan court of Chandragupta Maurya (around 302 BC), was the earliest foreign visitor among the listed figures. (Faxian arrived around 405 AD, Xuanzang around 630 AD, and Yijing in 671 AD).
Q2700
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KGeneral Chemistry & Physical Properties
Alcohol is more volatile than water because ______ is lower than water.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (its boiling point)
Ethanol (alcohol) exhibits weaker intermolecular hydrogen bonding than water, giving it a much lower boiling point (78.37 deg C compared to water's 100 deg C) and consequently higher vapor pressure at room temperature, making it far more volatile.
Q2701
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KIndian Polity & State Formation
Maharashtra and Gujarat Day are celebrated annually to mark the establishment of these states. On which date and in which year were the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat officially formed?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (May 1, 1960)
Under the Bombay Reorganisation Act, 1960, the bilingual State of Bombay was officially bifurcated into the Marathi-speaking state of Maharashtra and Gujarati-speaking state of Gujarat on 1 May 1960.
What does abbreviation "R.C." of a vehicle stands for
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Registration Certificate)
The abbreviation 'R.C.' stands for Registration Certificate. Issued under Section 39 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 by the Regional Transport Authority, it is the official document confirming that a motor vehicle is duly registered with the Government.
Q2703
Basic Road Rules, Driving Methods & Speed LimitsRoundabout Priority & Right of Way
While approaching a roundabout, which of the following traffic has most priority of right of way?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Traffic already on the roundabout)
At a traffic circle or roundabout, traffic already circulating within the roundabout has the right of way over entering vehicles ('give way to the right'). Entering drivers must yield until there is a safe gap in circulating traffic.
Q2704
Understanding Signals & Traffic Police Hand SignalsUncontrolled Intersection Protocol
Which among the following is correct action, while driver approach an intersection that does not have traffic light or signs and traffic police,
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Slow down, give way to the vehicle on the right side and proceed after giving necessary signals.)
Under standard priority rules at an uncontrolled intersection in India (Rules of the Road Regulations), drivers must reduce speed, yield right of way to traffic approaching from their right side, and proceed only after ensuring the intersection is clear and giving necessary turn signals.
Q2705
Understanding Signals & Traffic Police Hand SignalsTraffic Police Hand Signals
The following figure, showing a hand signal represents: [Traffic police officer extending left arm horizontally to the side while holding right hand bent at chest level to beckon traffic]
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Stopping traffic approaching from the left and to allow traffic coming from right and turning right)
In the standard Traffic Police manual of hand signals, when an officer extends one arm horizontally towards the left side while motioning or holding the other arm to control traffic from the right, the signal represents: 'Stopping traffic approaching from the left and to allow traffic coming from right and turning right'.
Q2706
Understanding Signals & Traffic Police Hand SignalsDual Front-and-Rear Traffic Stopping Signal
The following figure, showing a hand signal represents: [Traffic police officer raising right hand vertically upwards while extending left arm horizontally straight out]
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Stop traffic approaching simultaneously from front and behind)
When a traffic police officer extends their left arm horizontally straight to the side (which stops traffic approaching from behind) while simultaneously raising the right arm vertically upwards with the palm facing forward (which stops traffic approaching from the front), the signal signifies: 'Stop traffic approaching simultaneously from front and behind'.
Q2707
Understanding Signals & Traffic Police Hand SignalsRear Traffic Stopping Signal
The following figure, showing a hand signal represents: [Traffic police officer with left arm extended horizontally straight out to the left side, right arm at side]
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Stop traffic approaching from behind)
When a traffic police officer extends the left arm horizontally straight out at shoulder level with the palm facing towards the rear, the signal instructs vehicles approaching from the rear/behind to stop ('Stop traffic approaching from behind').
Q2708
Understanding Signals & Traffic Police Hand SignalsFront Traffic Stopping Signal
The following figure, showing a hand signal represents: [Traffic police officer with right arm raised vertically straight up with palm facing forward]
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Stop traffic approaching from front)
Raising the right arm vertically upwards with the palm facing forward is the universal manual traffic police signal to halt oncoming traffic: 'Stop traffic approaching from front'.
Q2709
Understanding Signals & Traffic Police Hand SignalsDriver Manual Hand Signals
In the following figure, driver extends his/her right arm horizontally outside the vehicle. The signal represents
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Intended to turn right or move out to the right hand side)
Under Rule 3 of the Rules of the Road Regulations 1989, extending the right arm horizontally outside the vehicle with the palm facing forward indicates that the driver intends to turn right or move out to the right-hand side.
Q2710
Understanding Signals & Traffic Police Hand SignalsSlowing Down Hand Signal
In the following figure, driver extends his/her right arm in a downward direction and keep moving up and down direction. The signal represents
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Intended to slow down his vehicle)
When a driver extends the right arm outside the vehicle with the palm facing downwards and waves it up and down in a slow sweeping motion, it signals to trailing traffic that the driver intends to slow down the vehicle.
Q2711
Understanding Signals & Traffic Police Hand SignalsVehicle Stopping Hand Signal
In the following figure, driver extends his right arm vertically outside the vehicle. The signal represents
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Intended to stop his vehicle)
When a driver extends the right arm outside with the forearm raised vertically upright and the open palm facing forward, it signifies to following traffic that the driver intends to bring the vehicle to a complete stop.
Q2712
Understanding Signals & Traffic Police Hand SignalsTwo-Wheeler Left Turn Signal
In the following figure, the motorcycle driver extended his left hand with palm facing down. The signal represents
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To take turn left side)
A two-wheeler rider extending their left arm horizontally straight out indicates an intention to execute a left turn ('To take turn left side').
Q2713
Understanding Signals & Traffic Police Hand SignalsRight-Hand Drive Left-Turn Signal
In the following figure, driver extends his/her right arm and rotates it in an anti-clockwise direction. The signal represents
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Intended to turn left or changing lane to the left-hand side)
In right-hand drive vehicles, because the driver cannot reach across to the passenger side, the statutory hand signal for turning left is extending the right arm outside and rotating it in an anti-clockwise circular direction.
Q2714
Understanding Signals & Traffic Police Hand SignalsTraffic Signal Operations & Disadvantages
Among the following options the disadvantages of traffic signals in a populated city is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rear-end collision and delay increases)
While automated traffic signals eliminate right-angle and broadside collisions at urban intersections, their primary operational drawback is an increase in rear-end collisions (due to abrupt deceleration during amber/red transitions) and increased delay on minor approaches.
Q2715
Understanding Signals & Traffic Police Hand SignalsTraffic Infrastructure & Sign Color Standards
Match the list-1 with list-2 and select the correct pairs using the options given below: List-1: i) Road median ii) Traffic signal iii) Direction information signs of Expressway iv) Direction information signs of National Highway List-2: 1. Green background and White Arrows 2. Blue background and White Arrows 3. Separating opposing lanes of traffic on divided roadway 4. Control the traffic flow, minimize accident possibility Which of the pair given below is correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D ((i)-(3), (ii)-(4), (iii)-(2), (iv)-(1))
Matching pairs under IRC 67 / MoRTH standards: (i) Road median separates opposing lanes on a divided roadway -> 3; (ii) Traffic signal controls traffic flow and minimizes accidents -> 4; (iii) Direction information signs on Expressways use Blue background with White lettering/arrows -> 2; (iv) Direction information signs on National Highways use Green background with White lettering/arrows -> 1. Correct code: (i)-(3), (ii)-(4), (iii)-(2), (iv)-(1).
Q2716
Understanding Signals & Traffic Police Hand SignalsDirection Sense & Navigational Geometry
You first drive 5 km towards the south and then turns to the right. After driving 5 km he turns to the left and walks 3 km. Consider all the turning is 90° angle. What direction is he facing right now?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (South)
Step 1: Move 5 km South (facing South). Step 2: Turn right 90° (now facing West) and move 5 km. Step 3: Turn left 90° (from West, turning left points to South) and walk 3 km. Therefore, he is facing South.
Q2717
Understanding Signals & Traffic Police Hand SignalsSatellite Navigation Systems
Which among the following, is India's own GPS like satellite navigation system?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (NAVIC)
NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation), originally called IRNSS (Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System), is an autonomous regional satellite navigation system designed and deployed by ISRO to provide accurate real-time positioning and timing services across India.
Q2718
Understanding Signals & Traffic Police Hand SignalsCompass Distortion & Spatial Direction Analysis
There was a direction pole, at right angle crossing of two roads, which was showing all the four correct directions. But due to an accident, it turns in such a manner, that now West pointer is showing South. Now car driver went to the wrong direction thinking that he was travelling towards East. In what direction he was actually travelling?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (North)
Normal directions: North = 0°, East = 90°, South = 180°, West = 270°. The West pointer (270°) is turned to point towards actual South (180°), meaning the pole rotated 90° anti-clockwise (or shifted by -90°). Thus: The pointer reading 'East' (originally 90°) now points to 90° - 90° = 0°, which is actual North. The driver follows the 'East' pointer, so he was actually travelling towards North.
Q2719
Fitness to Drive, First Aid & Alcohol InfluenceWound Dressing & Hemostasis
Dry bandage is commonly use to
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Stop blood flow)
Applying a firm, sterile dry pressure bandage over an open bleeding wound is the fundamental first-aid procedure to promote clotting and achieve hemostasis ('Stop blood flow').
Q2720
Fitness to Drive, First Aid & Alcohol InfluenceStatutory Post-Accident Duties under MVA
While driving if your car is involved in an accident and hurting a pedestrian, you should
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Take the pedestrian to the hospital and report to the police station)
Under Section 134 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 (Duty of driver in case of accident and injury to a person), the driver must immediately secure medical attention for the injured pedestrian by transporting them to the nearest hospital and report the incident to the nearest police station within 24 hours.
Q2721
Provisions of Motor Vehicles Act & RulesStatutory Vehicle Definitions under MVA
What does "Omnibus" mean as per the Motor Vehicle Act 1988?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A vehicle which can carry 7 people excluding the driver)
Under Section 2(29) of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988, 'omnibus' means any motor vehicle constructed or adapted to carry more than six persons excluding the driver. Thus, a vehicle constructed to carry 7 or more persons excluding the driver falls within this statutory definition.
Q2722
Driving Documents, Licensing, Insurance & OffencesAge Eligibility for Under-50cc Motor Vehicles
As per motor vehicle Act 1988, a motor cycle with 45cc engine capacity may be driven in public place by a person, after attaining the age of
💡Correct Answer: Option B (16 years)
Section 4(1) of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 sets the standard driving age at 18 years, with a specific proviso: 'Provided that a motor cycle with engine capacity not exceeding 50cc may be driven in a public place by a person after attaining the age of sixteen years.' Since 45cc is under 50cc, the minimum age is 16 years.
Q2723
Provisions of Motor Vehicles Act & RulesHit-and-Run Statutory Jurisprudence
"Hit and Run motor accident" is defined under which section of motor vehicle Act 1988?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Section 161)
Section 161(1)(b) of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 explicitly defines a 'hit and run motor accident' as an accident arising out of the use of a motor vehicle or motor vehicles the identity whereof cannot be ascertained in spite of reasonable efforts, providing for statutory compensation from the Solatium Scheme.
Q2724
Provisions of Motor Vehicles Act & RulesAmended Penalties under MVA 2019
According to the new traffic rules or amendment 2019 under the Motor Vehicle Act, the fine amount for not wearing seatbelt is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rs. 1000)
Under Section 194B inserted by the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act 2019, whoever drives a motor vehicle without wearing a safety belt, or carries passengers not wearing safety belts, shall be punishable with a fine of one thousand rupees (Rs. 1,000).
Q2725
Motor Parts, Assemblies, Maintenance & DiagnosticsHydraulic Brake Fluid Functional Dynamics
Which of the following is the primary function of the brake fluid
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Power transmission)
Hydraulic brake fluid is an incompressible liquid medium formulated under DOT specifications whose fundamental engineering role is hydraulic power transmission — transferring the mechanical force applied by the driver's foot on the brake pedal directly to the wheel slave cylinders/calipers.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (International Cooperation for the Integration of Processes in Prepress, Press and Postpress)
CIP3 stands for 'International Cooperation for the Integration of Processes in Prepress, Press and Postpress'. Formed in 1995 by graphic arts vendors, it developed the Print Production Format (PPF) standard to digitally link prepress data (such as ink zone coverage calculations) directly with press consoles and finishing cutting systems.
Q2727
Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsTypography & Writing Systems
Which of the following is an example for Logograms
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
A logogram (or logograph) is a written character that represents a complete word or phrase rather than a phonetic sound. Common examples include currency symbols ('' for dollar), commercial symbols ('@' for at), and typographic ampersand ('&' for and). Therefore, all of the given symbols are logograms.
Q2728
Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsGravure Printing Process
Which of the following printing process uses engraved cylinder as image carriers ?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Gravure)
Gravure (rotogravure) is an intaglio printing process that uses a heavy, copper-plated and chrome-plated steel cylinder into which microscopic ink-carrying cells are etched or engraved. A doctor blade wipes excess ink from the non-image surface before direct high-pressure transfer onto the web.
Q2729
Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsHistory of Writing & Alphabets
Which is the basis all European Writing system
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Phoenician alphabet)
The Phoenician alphabet (developed around 1050 BC) is recognized as the ultimate ancestor of almost all modern alphabetic writing systems. Through maritime trade across the Mediterranean, it directly gave rise to the Greek alphabet, which subsequently evolved into the Latin (Roman) and Cyrillic scripts throughout Europe.
Q2730
Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsHistory of Lithography
Who invented Lithography in the year 1796
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Alois Senefelder)
Lithography was invented in 1796 by German playwright and actor Alois Senefelder in Bavaria. He discovered that greasy ink drawn on porous Bavarian limestone repels water while water-dampened non-image areas repel the greasy ink (chemical planography).
Q2731
Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsPictographs vs Ideographs
Which one of the following statements is true with respect to Ideographs I. Drawings that carry meaning because they look like real objects II. Simple drawings that symbolize concepts rather than objects III. They are simple verbal symbols IV. Uses advanced alphabet The Correct Statement are :
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Only II is correct)
In writing history: Statement I describes pictographs (drawings representing physical objects by visual resemblance). Statement II correctly defines ideographs (ideograms) as stylized symbols representing abstract ideas, concepts, or qualities rather than concrete physical objects. Hence, only Statement II is correct.
Q2732
Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsThe Printing Production Cycle
Arrange the printing cycle procedure in proper order. I. Creating an image design II. Reproducing the image design III. Distributing the printed message IV. Identifying the need Choose the Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (IV I II III)
The fundamental graphic communications reproduction cycle proceeds logically as: IV. Identifying the communication need -> I. Creating an image design (concept & layout) -> II. Reproducing the image design (platemaking & printing press run) -> III. Distributing the printed message (finishing, bindery & delivery). Correct sequence is IV - I - II - III.
Q2733
Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsPrinting Industry Segments
_____ is defined as any printing operation that is owned by, and serves the needs of, a single company or cooperation.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (In-Plant Printing)
In-Plant Printing (or in-house printing) is defined as an internal graphic production and printing operation owned and operated by a non-printing parent business, educational institution, hospital, or government agency strictly to service its internal documentation and marketing needs.
A collection of type of the same style and size is called _____
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Font)
In classical typography, a 'Font' (or fount) is traditionally defined as a complete assortment of type of one specific design style and one specific point size (e.g., 10-point Times Roman Bold). A 'Typeface Family' encompasses all point sizes, weights, and styles of that design.
Q2735
Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsPioneers of Printing & Paper
Match the following. i. Offset ii. Movable type iii. Gravure iv. Modern paper 1. Ts'si Lun 2. Ira Rubel 3. Karl Klif 4. Pi Sheng Choose the Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1)
Historical printing pioneers: (i) Offset printing press was invented by Ira Rubel in 1904 -> 2; (ii) Movable type (earthenware/clay) was invented by Pi Sheng in China around 1040 AD -> 4; (iii) Photogravure was developed by Karl Klič (Karl Klif) in 1878 -> 3; (iv) Modern papermaking from plant fibers was invented by Ts'ai Lun in China in 105 AD -> 1. Correct match: i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1.
Q2736
Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsFlexographic History
In which year Aniline Printing industry formally changed the name of the process to Flexographic Printing
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1952)
At the 14th Annual Forum of the Packaging Institute in October 1952, the industry committee officially voted to adopt 'Flexographic Printing' to replace the historical name 'Aniline Printing' (which carried negative consumer perceptions due to toxic aniline dyestuffs).
The anilox roller is universally regarded as the heart of the flexographic printing press. It is an engraved steel or ceramic-coated roller featuring precisely structured microscopic cells that meter and deliver a consistent, uniform film of liquid ink to the printing plate.
Which of the following statements are true with respect to Piezoelectric inkjet technology? I. Uses heat to force small drops of ink out at high speed on to the substrate II. Uses electrical impulses based on digitized information to cause individual drops to be squeezed out III. It is drop on demand system IV. It is less complicated than continuous spray systems The Correct Statements are :
💡Correct Answer: Option B (II, III and IV)
Piezoelectric inkjet utilizes piezoelectric crystals that change shape when pulsed with electrical voltage to mechanically pump and squeeze ink droplets out of the nozzle (II). It operates as a Drop-on-Demand (DOD) technology (III), and its drop-generation architecture is significantly less complex than electrostatic Continuous Inkjet (CIJ) systems (IV). Statement I describes Thermal (Bubble Jet) inkjet.
Q2739
Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsOptical Principles of Process Lenses
An imaginary line through the centre of the lens and on which all elements are at right angles is called _____
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lens axis)
The optical axis or 'Lens axis' is the principal imaginary reference line passing straight through the optical center of a lens system along which all lens elements and refractive surfaces are centered perpendicularly.
Match the following. i. Wetting agent ii. Plate preservative iii. Drying agent iv. Corrosion inhibitors 1. Gum Arabic 2. Cobalt chloride 3. Magnesium Nitrate 4. IPA Choose the Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3)
Offset lithographic fountain solution chemistry: (i) Wetting agent = Isopropanol (IPA) to reduce water surface tension -> 4; (ii) Plate preservative = Gum Arabic to desensitize non-image aluminum areas -> 1; (iii) Drying agent = Cobalt/metallic driers to catalyze ink drying -> 2; (iv) Corrosion inhibitors = Magnesium Nitrate to protect aluminum plates and press components -> 3. Correct match: i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3.
Q2741
Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsPrepress Register Marks & Targets
GATF T mark are used to identify _____
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Image centres, folds, and bleeds)
GATF (Graphic Arts Technical Foundation) 'T-marks' (or registration T-targets) are standard alignment crosshairs and T-lines placed on flats and plates to designate exact image centerlines, fold lines, trim margins, and bleed boundaries during stripping and plate imposition.
Another name for Formal open standard known as ISO 32000
💡Correct Answer: Option C (PDF)
ISO 32000 is the official International Organization for Standardization specification for PDF (Portable Document Format). In 2008, ISO 32000-1 released PDF 1.7 as an open, vendor-neutral international standard.
Which of the following file formats is not compatible with saving duotone images for proper printing?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (TIFF)
Photoshop Duotone color mode relies on custom spot ink transfer curves. While EPS, PSD, and PDF natively preserve spot channel duotone curves and embedded tone reproduction curves for PostScript RIP processing, standard baseline TIFF does not support native Photoshop Duotone mode (saving as TIFF forces conversion to multi-channel or CMYK).
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Preparing and positioning a piece of film for exposure to a printing plate)
In conventional lithographic prepress, 'Stripping' (film assembly) is the manual craftsman process of positioning, aligning, taping, and masking negative or positive film elements onto a carrier sheet (goldenrod flat) in precise register for vacuum-frame plate exposure.
Which one of the following is not a characteristics of internal drum image setters?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rotating printing plate)
In an internal drum platesetter/imagesetter, the plate or film is clamped completely stationary against the inner concave surface of a cylindrical drum while a high-speed spinning optical mirror directs the laser beam. The plate NEVER rotates. Rotating plates are characteristic of external drum systems.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Yttrium Aluminum Garnet)
In solid-state laser physics used in Computer-to-Plate (CTP) systems, Nd:YAG stands for Neodymium-doped Yttrium Aluminum Garnet (Nd:Y3Al5O12), emitting an infrared wavelength of 1064 nm.
Q2747
Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsCTP Prepress Digital Workflow
Which among the following is the correct workflow in CTP
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Digital data -> preflight -> imposition -> RIP -> plate image setter)
The standard digital Computer-to-Plate (CTP) prepress workflow sequence is: Digital data -> Preflight (verifying fonts, resolution, color profiles) -> Imposition (arranging pages in press signatures) -> Raster Image Processor (RIP / screening) -> Plate image setter (imaging the plate). Correct sequence is Option D.
One-side (single-sided) imposition is the simplest imposition scheme because pages or images are printed only on one side of the press sheet (such as posters, flyers, labels, or forms) requiring no second-side backing, sheet turn, or plate changes.
For negative stripping jobs that require greater dimensional stability, which type of masking sheets are being used?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Orange coloured vinyl masking sheets)
Paper-based goldenrod masking sheets expand and contract significantly with changes in ambient relative humidity, leading to misregistration in multi-color process printing. Therefore, dimensionally stable orange vinyl/polyester plastic masking sheets are used for critical color negative stripping.
Q2750
Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsGraphic Arts File Formats
Match the following. i. PDF ii. TIFF iii. JPEG iv. EPS 1. Vector format for illustrations 2. Lossy image format 3. A high-quality raster image format 4. Portable document format for print ready files Choose the Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1)
Matching digital graphic file formats: (i) PDF = Portable Document Format for print-ready page description -> 4; (ii) TIFF = Tagged Image File Format, a high-quality uncompressed raster format -> 3; (iii) JPEG = Joint Photographic Experts Group, a lossy compression format -> 2; (iv) EPS = Encapsulated PostScript, standard vector format for illustrations -> 1. Correct code: i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1.
Q2751
Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsProcess Cameras: Gallery vs Darkroom
Find out the main structural difference between gallery camera and horizontal dark room camera. I. Copy holder is movable II. Copy holder, lights and lens unit are in one room III. Copy holder is fixed IV. Camera back, focusing screen, and film holder protrude through a wall into second room. Choose the Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I, II and IV are correct)
In a process graphic arts darkroom setup: A darkroom camera is built through a light-tight dividing wall. The copyboard (movable, I), copy lights, and lens reside in the brightly lit copy room (II), while the camera back, ground glass screen, and vacuum film back protrude through the wall into the darkroom (IV). Thus, I, II, and IV correctly identify the structural design.
If a camera lens is having a focal length of 160 mm, were to be set with an aperture of 20mm, calculate its f number.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (f 8)
The relative aperture (f-number) of a lens is calculated using the formula: f-number=Effective Aperture Diameter (D)Focal Length (F)=20 mm160 mm=8. Thus, the f-number is f 8.
Q2753
Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsAperture & Exposure Time Reciprocity
The equation used to calculate the exposure time at different f number is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A ((New f number^2 / old f number^2) x exposure at old f number)
The photographic exposure law dictates that required exposure time (T) is directly proportional to the square of the f-number (T∝f2). Therefore, when changing aperture: New Exposure Time=(Old f-number2New f-number2)×Exposure time at old f-number.
Q2754
Paper, Ink & Platemaking ChemistryStop Bath Chemical Function
Function of the stop bath solution in film development process is _____
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Immediately stops the development process)
The primary chemical function of the acidic stop bath is to immediately halt and arrest the ongoing development action of the alkaline developer before the film enters the fixing bath, preventing uneven over-development and streakiness.
During halftone negative making the main purpose of highlight bump exposure is to _____
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Reduce the basic screen range to the range of the copy)
In process camera halftone reproduction, a 'bump' (no-screen) exposure is a brief exposure made with the contact screen removed. It drops out the highlights by adding density to the highlight areas on the negative, which effectively compresses/reduces the basic screen range of the screen to match the lower density range of a low-contrast copy.
Which of the following is the most common registration technique for colour negative stripping?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Single master flat method)
In multi-color prepress film stripping, the 'Single master flat method' (pin register master flat) is the universal standard. A single master layout flat with punch register pins is used to establish the exact positions of margins, crop marks, and image windows, against which all process color flats (C, M, Y, K) are matched in perfect register.
QuarkXPress (Quark express) is a dedicated professional desktop publishing (DTP) page layout application designed specifically for complex multi-page document design, editorial typography, and prepress imposition. Microsoft Word is a word processor, while CorelDraw and Illustrator are vector illustration software.
What are the criteria's to be followed while selecting a squeegee for screen printing?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Hardness, Shape, Chemical makeup, Flexibility)
The performance of a screen printing squeegee blade depends on four critical physical parameters: (1) Hardness / Durometer (Shore A rating), (2) Blade edge profile / Shape (square, beveled, or rounded), (3) Chemical makeup / solvent resistance (polyurethane vs neoprene), and (4) Flexibility under hydrodynamic pressure.
Which among the following is not a method used to produce photographic stencils?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Tusche and glue)
Photographic screen printing stencils utilize light-sensitive photopolymer or diazo emulsions exposed to actinic light: (A) Direct emulsion coating, (B) Indirect photographic film, and (C) Direct/indirect (capillary film) system. 'Tusche and glue' is an artistic, manual hand-painted blockout technique that involves zero photographic exposure.
Q2760
Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsComparative Printing Process Quality
Which printing processes gives the highest quality images?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Gravure)
Rotogravure (Gravure) delivers the highest visual reproduction quality, deepest solid optical densities, and finest tonal fidelity among commercial printing processes. Because each microscopic cell can vary both in depth and surface area (delivering varying ink film thickness), gravure reproduces smooth, continuous-tone photographic gradations and rich shadows unmatched by litho or flexo on long publication runs.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (To improve image transfer)
Electrostatic Assist (ESA) in rotogravure printing applies a high-voltage electrostatic field across the impression nip between the conductive rubber impression roller and the grounded gravure cylinder. The electrostatic charge pulls the meniscus of the ink upward out of the microscopic cells onto the substrate, eliminating missing halftone dots (snowflaking) and significantly improving image transfer.
An 'Accordion fold' (concertina fold or zig-zag fold) is a textbook example of a parallel fold, wherein two or more parallel folds are made in alternating directions such that the sheet opens like an accordion. French fold and signature folds involve perpendicular right-angle folds.
Q2763
Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsBindery Operations: Collating vs Gathering
During post-press operations the process of arranging the signatures in a proper sequence is called _____
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Collating)
In bookbinding and bindery post-press operations, 'Collating' is defined as the process of checking, inspecting, and arranging individual folded signatures or flat sheets into their correct consecutive numerical page order prior to stitching or binding. ('Gathering' specifically refers to stacking signatures one against another for adhesive/case binding).
'Padding' is the simplest and most elementary form of adhesive binding. A stack of paper is clamped under pressure and a coat of flexible water-based adhesive (padding compound / PVA) is brushed along one edge with a backing chipboard, producing tear-off memo pads or receipt pads.
Q2765
Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsHistory of Printing: Gutenberg
Who is known as the father of modern printing?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Johann Gutenberg)
German goldsmith Johannes Gutenberg of Mainz is universally acclaimed as the 'Father of Modern Printing'. Around 1440–1450, he invented the mechanical movable metal type system, adjustable hand casting mold, oil-based printing ink, and the wooden screw printing press, publishing the Gutenberg Bible in 1455.
Q2766
Color Reproduction, Sensitometry & Quality ControlMunsell Color Attributes: Hue, Value, Saturation
What are the three attributes of colour
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Hue, Value, Saturation)
Under the Munsell color order system and visual colorimetry, the three psychological dimensions or attributes of human color perception are: Hue (the dominant spectral wavelength or color identity), Value (lightness or darkness), and Chroma / Saturation (purity or intensity of the color).
What are the distinct goals of colour masking in colour reproduction
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Tone correction, colour correction, sharpness enhancement)
In graphic color separation and reproduction, photographic or digital unsharp masking (USM) pursues three distinct objectives: (1) Tone correction (adjusting contrast in highlights and shadows), (2) Colour correction (compensating for secondary spectral absorption defects of cyan, magenta, and yellow printing inks), and (3) Sharpness enhancement (edge contrast acutance).
The term _____ is used to describe an output device that records processes data to photographic paper, film, or plate material
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Image setter)
An 'Image setter' (imagesetter) is a high-resolution raster output device that uses laser scanning technology to record digitized PostScript / raster data onto photosensitive materials including photographic film, RC paper, or polyester/aluminum plates at resolutions typically between 1200 and 3600 dpi.
Which type of balance refers to the designers having complete freedom with image positions?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Informal)
In graphic design and layout, 'Informal balance' (asymmetrical balance) achieves equilibrium through visual weight, color contrast, and dynamic placement without mirroring elements across a central axis. This affords the designer creative freedom to position visual elements dynamically.
Q2770
Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsPrepress Margins: Bleed & Trim
_____ is a design that extends an image to the edge of the printed sheet
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Bleed)
In graphic arts prepress, a 'Bleed' is the intentional extension of printed artwork, background color, or images beyond the finished trim line (typically by 3 mm or 1/8 inch) to ensure that mechanical variations during trimming do not leave unsightly white unprinted margins.
The first stage of the design process starts with _____
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Preparation of thumbnail)
The design process in commercial art and advertising strictly initiates with the 'Preparation of thumbnail' sketches (thumbnail layouts). These are rapid, small, proportional pencil sketches used to brainstorm and explore various compositional ideas before proceeding to roughs and comprehensives.
Q2772
Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsSpecialty Printing Techniques: Fake Color
In colour printing, a one colour reproduction printed on a coloured sheet is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Fake colour)
In printing terminology, printing a single ink color (such as black or deep blue) on a pre-tinted colored paper stock to simulate the appearance of a two-color job at minimal expense is traditionally designated as 'Fake colour' (or fake duotone).
_____ are software packages allowing for flexible, creative work and for integrating the elements such as- text, images, and graphics on pages or a sequence of pages, or to position them on the page depending on the current job.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Page layout program)
Page layout programs (such as Adobe InDesign, QuarkXPress, and Adobe PageMaker) are specialized desktop publishing software suites engineered specifically to assemble, arrange, integrate, and format text, typographic styles, raster images, and vector illustrations into multi-page press layouts.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Open Prepress Interface)
OPI stands for 'Open Prepress Interface', a standardized client-server protocol developed by Aldus Corporation that enables page layout artists to work quickly with low-resolution placeholder images (FPO - For Position Only) while an OPI server automatically swaps them for high-resolution images during final PostScript RIP output.
In typography _____ refers to the slant of a character
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Stress)
In typographic anatomy, 'Stress' (or axis of stress) refers to the angle, slant, or inclination of the imaginary axis connecting the thinnest parts of a curved letterform (such as 'o' or 'e'), reflecting the angle of the broad-nibbed pen used in calligraphy (e.g. diagonal stress in Old Style versus vertical stress in Modern typefaces).
Q2776
Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsImposition Layout: Work & Turn vs Work & Tumble
The page layout that leads to turning the sheet round the axis of the direction of printing, the right edge becomes the left edge, the front edge remains the same is termed as
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Work and turn)
In press imposition terminology, 'Work and turn' is the press operation where the sheet is turned over side-to-side (around an axis aligned with the direction of printing). The front edge (gripper edge) remains exactly the same, while the side guide changes (the right edge becomes the left edge). In 'Work and tumble', the sheet is flipped end-over-end, switching the gripper edge.
Q2777
Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingOperating System Core Functions
Which of the following best describes the role of an operating system in a computer system?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It controls the hardware and coordinates its use among application programs and users.)
An Operating System (OS) is system software that acts as an intermediary between computer hardware and the user. Its fundamental role is to control, allocate, and coordinate hardware resources (CPU, memory, storage, and I/O devices) among various competing application programs and users.
Q2778
Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingGUI Fundamentals
An icon in a GUI represents:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A file, application, or function)
In a Graphical User Interface (GUI), an icon is a small visual pictorial representation / pictogram on the screen that symbolizes an object such as a data file, folder, software application program, device, or system function.
Q2779
Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingARPANET Telecommunication Links
What kind of connection speed was used to link the IMPs in ARPANET?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (56 Kbps)
The original Interface Message Processors (IMPs) that formed the packet-switching backbone nodes of ARPANET in 1969 were interconnected using AT&T dedicated analog leased telephone lines operating at 50 Kbps (commonly categorized as 56 Kbps wideband circuits).
Q2780
Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingCPU Architecture: Control Unit
All actions in a computer system are coordinated by the:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Control unit)
The Control Unit (CU) is the supervisory component of the central processor. It fetches instructions from main memory, decodes them, and coordinates the flow of data and timing control signals across the ALU, registers, cache, and input/output devices.
Q2781
Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingISP Functions & Services
Which of the following is not a typical function of an ISP?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Provide cloud storage)
The core infrastructural responsibilities of an ISP are: providing physical/wireless Internet connectivity, assigning IP addresses, connecting user devices, and routing and exchanging data packets with peering networks. Offering cloud storage is a third-party application cloud service (provided by cloud storage vendors like AWS, Google, or Dropbox), not an intrinsic network function of an ISP.
Q2782
Human Anatomy, Physiology & Biosafety ManagementNeuroanatomy: Limbic System Functions
The limbic system plays a central role in:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Regulating emotions and forming memories)
The limbic system (comprising the hippocampus, amygdala, cingulate gyrus, and hypothalamus) is the emotional and motivational control center of the brain. It is critically responsible for emotional regulation, fear conditioning, autonomic drives, and the consolidation of short-term into long-term memories.
Q2783
Human Anatomy, Physiology & Biosafety ManagementRespiratory System Anatomy: Lungs
The right lung is anatomically divided into:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Three lobes and two fissures)
The right lung is anatomically larger than the left lung and is divided into three lobes (Superior, Middle, and Inferior lobes) separated by two distinct fissures: the Oblique fissure and the Horizontal fissure. (The left lung has two lobes and one fissure).
Which among the following fungi exhibits thermal dimorphism-existing in mold form at lower temperatures and yeast form at body temperature?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Histoplasma capsulatum)
Histoplasma capsulatum is a classic thermally dimorphic endemic systemic fungal pathogen. In nature or in vitro at ambient temperatures (25°C), it grows as a saprophytic mold with tuberculate macroconidia; at mammalian body temperature (37°C), it converts into a small parasitic yeast inside reticuloendothelial macrophages.
Q2785
Mycology & Fungal PathogenesisSpecial Histochemical Stains in Mycology
Which staining technique is preferred for demonstrating polysaccharide-rich fungal cell walls in histopathological tissue sections?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Periodic Acid-Schiff (PAS) stain)
The Periodic Acid-Schiff (PAS) reaction is the standard histopathological stain for fungi. Periodic acid selectively oxidizes the vicinal diols of cell-wall structural polysaccharides (glucan, mannan, chitin) into aldehydes, which react with Schiff's leucofuchsin reagent to produce an intense, diagnostic bright magenta/pink staining.
A filamentous fungus that forms septate hyphae and produces large, multicelled macroconidia most likely belongs to:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Trichophyton rubrum)
Trichophyton rubrum is an anthropophilic dermatophyte featuring septate hyphae that produces characteristic pencil- or cigar-shaped, thin-walled, multi-celled macroconidia (along with teardrop microconidia). Candida and Cryptococcus are unicellular yeasts, while Malassezia forms unbranched short hyphae with yeast cells.
Fungal invasion of the corneal tissue resulting in ocular infection is referred to as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Keratomycosis)
Fungal infection of the cornea is clinically known as 'Keratomycosis' (or fungal keratitis), frequently caused by Fusarium, Aspergillus, or Candida following vegetative ocular trauma. (Otomycosis affects the external ear canal; Mycetoma affects subcutaneous tissue).
Identify the non-pathogenic yeast frequently employed in industrial fermentation processes like baking and brewing:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Saccharomyces cerevisiae)
Saccharomyces cerevisiae (baker's and brewer's yeast) is the non-pathogenic model budding yeast used universally in commercial bread baking, ethanol brewing, winemaking, and recombinant biotechnology.
Which encapsulated yeast is urease-positive and associated with meningoencephalitis in immunocompromised individuals, particularly those with AIDS?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cryptococcus neoformans)
Cryptococcus neoformans is an encapsulated, urease-positive basidiomycetous yeast. In severely immunocompromised individuals (such as patients with advanced HIV/AIDS, CD4 < 100/uL), it disseminates to the central nervous system to cause life-threatening subacute cryptococcal meningoencephalitis.
Which culture medium is specifically formulated to enhance the growth of fungi while inhibiting bacterial contaminants in clinical samples?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sabouraud Dextrose Agar (SDA))
Sabouraud Dextrose Agar (SDA), developed by Raymond Sabouraud, has an acidic pH (~5.6) and high dextrose content (4%) that selectively supports fungal proliferation while suppressing bacterial overgrowth. Antibacterial agents like chloramphenicol and gentamicin are frequently added.
Which of the following factors exerts the least influence on blood urea concentration?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hyperthyroid metabolic state)
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is profoundly impacted by renal excretion efficiency (chronic renal failure), renal perfusion (prerenal azotemia from dehydration), and substrate load (high protein catabolism). A hyperthyroid state marginally increases turnover but exerts the least direct influence on circulating urea levels among the choices.
Q2792
Clinical Biochemistry, Enzymology & SpectrophotometryHepatic Function Tests & Enzyme Ratios
Which AST:ALT ratio is most suggestive of chronic alcoholic liver disease?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (AST: ALT greater than 2)
In alcoholic liver disease, the serum AST (aspartate aminotransferase) to ALT (alanine aminotransferase) ratio (De Ritis ratio) is characteristically greater than 2 (often exceeding 2:1 or even 3:1). Alcohol causes direct mitochondrial damage that preferentially releases mitochondrial AST into circulation, while alcoholics commonly suffer from pyridoxal 5'-phosphate (vitamin B6) deficiency, which impairs ALT synthesis more severely than AST synthesis.
Q2793
Virology, Medical Parasitology & EntomologyViral Vaccines & Immunization Principles
The measles vaccine administered in immunization programs is classified as a:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Live attenuated vaccine)
The measles vaccine (such as the Edmonston-Enders strain, administered alone or combined as MMR/MR) is a live attenuated viral vaccine. It contains live virus particles that have been weakened through repeated passage in chick embryo cell culture, allowing them to replicate and stimulate lifelong humoral and cellular immunity without provoking clinical disease.
India ink preparation is useful for identifying which fungal infection?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cryptococcus neoformans)
India ink negative staining is a rapid microscopic diagnostic test for Cryptococcus neoformans in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or other body fluids. The colossal acidic mucopolysaccharide (glucuronoxylomannan) capsule excludes the black colloidal carbon particles, standing out as a conspicuous luminous halo surrounding the budding yeast cell.
Which fungal species is most frequently associated with otomycosis (ear fungal infection)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Aspergillus niger)
Aspergillus niger is the single most frequent etiology of otomycosis (fungal infection of the external auditory canal), responsible for up to 70–80% of cases. It produces dense black or charcoal-colored velvety conidiophores and spores lining the auditory canal, along with intense itching and conductive hearing impairment.
Lactophenol cotton blue stain is most effective in highlighting which fungal structure?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Hyphae and spores)
Lactophenol cotton blue (LPCB) is the standard mounting and staining solution used to visualize filamentous fungi. Phenol kills the fungal cells, lactic acid preserves fungal morphology, and cotton blue (aniline blue) selectively binds to and stains chitin and glucan within the fungal cell walls—specifically highlighting hyphae, conidiophores, and spores a crisp blue.
Q2797
Clinical Biochemistry, Enzymology & SpectrophotometryMolecular Biology: Translation & tRNA Function
Which type of RNA delivers amino acids to the ribosome for incorporation into a growing polypeptide chain?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Transfer RNA (tRNA))
Transfer RNA (tRNA) functions as an adaptor molecule during protein translation. Each tRNA is enzymatically esterified to its cognate amino acid at its 3' CCA end by an aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase and base-pairs via its specific anticodon triplet with the complementary mRNA codon within the ribosomal A site.
Q2798
Molecular Biology, Immunology & DiagnosticsImmunology: Type I Hypersensitivity & Anaphylaxis
Anaphylaxis is primarily mediated by:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (IgE and mast cell degranulation)
Anaphylaxis is a severe, life-threatening systemic Type I immediate hypersensitivity reaction. It is primarily mediated by allergen cross-linking of allergen-specific IgE antibodies bound to high-affinity Fc epsilon RI receptors on mast cells and basophils, triggering immediate degranulation and explosive release of vasoactive mediators like histamine, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins.
A patient presents with recurrent viral and fungal infections, low T cell count, and absent thymic shadow. The most likely diagnosis is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (DiGeorge syndrome)
DiGeorge syndrome (22q11.2 deletion syndrome) results from failure of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches to develop. This causes congenital absence or hypoplasia of the thymus gland (absent thymic shadow on chest radiograph) and parathyroid glands, presenting clinically with profound T-cell deficiency, severe recurrent viral and fungal infections, and hypocalcemic tetany.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Insertion or deletion of nucleotides not in multiples of three)
A frameshift mutation occurs when the addition (insertion) or loss (deletion) of a number of nucleotides that is not a multiple of three occurs within a protein-coding sequence. Because the genetic code is read in non-overlapping nucleotide triplets (codons), this shifts the entire downstream translational reading frame, altering all downstream amino acids and frequently creating a premature stop codon.
Which of the following is a hallmark feature of CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It relies on guide RNA (gRNA) for target specificity)
The definitive hallmark of the CRISPR-Cas9 genome editing system is its reliance on a synthetic single-guide RNA (gRNA/sgRNA) for target DNA sequence recognition. The gRNA pairs via standard Watson-Crick base-pairing with a 20-nucleotide target sequence adjacent to a protospacer adjacent motif (PAM), directing the Cas9 endonuclease to execute a precise double-stranded break without needing protein-DNA engineering.
RNA polymerase II is primarily responsible for transcribing:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (mRNA)
In eukaryotic nuclei, RNA Polymerase II is primarily responsible for transcribing all protein-encoding genes into messenger RNA (mRNA) precursors (heterogeneous nuclear RNA / hnRNA), as well as most microRNAs (miRNAs) and small nuclear RNAs (snRNAs). RNA Pol I transcribes 28S, 18S, and 5.8S rRNAs, while RNA Pol III transcribes tRNAs and 5S rRNA.
A patient presents with fatigue, jaundice, and splenomegaly. Peripheral smear shows spherocytes and increased reticulocytes. The most likely diagnosis is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Hereditary spherocytosis)
Hereditary spherocytosis is an inherited hemolytic anemia characterized by intrinsic defects in red cell membrane cytoskeletal proteins (such as ankyrin, spectrin, or band 3). Loss of membrane lipid causes erythrocytes to become spherical, rigid, and osmotic fragile spherocytes that are selectively trapped and hemolyzed in the spleen, producing the triad of hemolytic anemia, jaundice, splenomegaly, and reticulocytosis.
Q2804
Molecular Biology, Immunology & DiagnosticsHemoglobinopathies: Beta-Thalassemia Major
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of beta-thalassemia major?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Microcytic, hypochromic anemia with target cells)
Beta-thalassemia major (Cooley's anemia) is characterized hematologically by severe microcytic, hypochromic anemia accompanied by prominent target cells (codocytes), marked anisopoikilocytosis, nucleated red blood cells, and elevated levels of HbF and HbA2 resulting from homozygous severe mutations in the beta-globin gene.
Which of the following is not a function of the mitochondria?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Detoxification of harmful drugs and chemicals)
Detoxification of lipid-soluble drugs, xenobiotics, and metabolic waste chemicals is carried out by cytochrome P450 monooxygenase enzymes in the Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) of hepatocytes, not in mitochondria. Mitochondria regulate oxidative ATP synthesis, intrinsic apoptosis, ROS signaling, and glutamate-induced excitotoxicity.
Which of the following tight junction components is incorrectly matched with its function?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (ZO proteins - Form the extracellular barrier between adjacent cells)
Zonula Occludens (ZO) proteins (ZO-1, ZO-2, ZO-3) are intracellular peripheral membrane scaffolding adapter proteins located exclusively on the cytoplasmic face of the plasma membrane. They connect transmembrane proteins (claudins, occludins, JAMs) to the underlying actin cytoskeleton; they do not form the extracellular paracellular barrier.
Q2808
Mycology & Fungal PathogenesisDiagnostic Mycology: MALDI-TOF Mass Spectrometry
Which of the following best describes MALDI-TOF's main benefit over conventional molecular techniques in fungal diagnostics?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Using patterns of protein mass spectrum analysis, it quickly detects fungal species.)
The principal advantage of MALDI-TOF mass spectrometry in fungal diagnostics is its ability to rapidly identify fungal species (often within minutes) by analyzing the distinctive mass spectrum pattern (fingerprint) of abundant conserved ribosomal proteins, compared against an extensive reference spectrum database, bypassing laborious DNA extraction and PCR sequencing.
Q2809
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian History & Freedom Struggle
Which of the following statements about the Poona Pact of 1932 is Correct? A) It was an agreement between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League to grant separate representation to religious minorities in provincial legislatures. B) It was a truce between Mahatma Gandhi and Viceroy Irwin that suspended the Civil Disobedience Movement. C) It is an agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar on the issue of separate electorates for the Depressed Classes (Dalits). D) It ended the East India Company (EIC) rule by transferring power to the British Parliament by reducing the EIC to a trading body.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It is an agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar on the issue of separate electorates for the Depressed Classes (Dalits).)
The Poona Pact was signed on 24 September 1932 at Yerwada Central Jail in Poona between Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (on behalf of the Depressed Classes) and Madan Mohan Malaviya / Mahatma Gandhi. Under the pact, separate electorates for the Depressed Classes announced in the British Communal Award were abandoned in favor of reserved seats within the general electorate.
Q2810
General Knowledge & Current AffairsArt & Culture
Which of the following is NOT the classical language of India? A) Odia B) Maithili C) Malayalam D) Telugu
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Maithili)
The classical languages of India originally recognized by the Government of India are Tamil (2004), Sanskrit (2005), Telugu (2008), Kannada (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014) [later expanded to include Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali in Oct 2024]. Maithili is included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, but it is NOT recognized as a classical language.
Q2811
General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Organizations
What led to the establishment of the United Nations Organization (UNO), and in which year was it founded? A) Treaty of Versailles, 1919 B) Nazi-Soviet Pact (Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact), 1939 C) Atomic Bombings of Hiroshima and Nagasaki, 1945 D) Failure of the League of Nations and World War II, 1945
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Failure of the League of Nations and World War II, 1945)
The United Nations Organization (UNO) was established on 24 October 1945 following the devastation of World War II and the failure of the League of Nations to prevent international armed conflict.
Q2812
General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Organizations
Match the following pairs: Column - I (Organisation) i) World Health Organization (WHO) ii) World Trade Organization (WTO) iii) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) iv) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Choose the correct option: A) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3 B) i-1, ii-3, iii-4, iv-2 C) i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3 D) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3)
Correct matching: i) WHO is headed by Director-General Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus (2); ii) WTO is headed by Director-General Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala (1); iii) UNESCO is headed by Director-General Audrey Azoulay (4); iv) IMF is headed by Managing Director Kristalina Georgieva (3). Thus, i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3 (Option A) is correct.
Q2813
General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Affairs & Summits
Which of the following countries were admitted as full members of BRICS in 2024? A) United Arab Emirates, Egypt, Saudi Arabia, Argentina B) Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and the United Arab Emirates C) Iran, Saudi Arabia, Indonesia, and Ethiopia D) Argentina, Egypt, Indonesia, Saudi Arabia
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and the United Arab Emirates)
On 1 January 2024, four nations officially joined BRICS as full members: Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and the United Arab Emirates (UAE). Argentina withdrew following the election of President Javier Milei, and Saudi Arabia participated as an invited member.
Q2814
General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Organizations
Which of the following statements about the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is/are correct? i. ASEAN was founded on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok by Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand. ii. Brunei joined in 1984, followed by Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, and Cambodia between 1995 and 1999. iii. Today, ASEAN has 10 member states, working together for regional cooperation and development. A) Only i B) Only i and ii C) Only ii and iii D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
All three statements about ASEAN are factually correct: (i) founded on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration) by the five founding members; (ii) Brunei joined in 1984, Vietnam in 1995, Laos and Myanmar in 1997, and Cambodia in 1999; (iii) it comprises 10 member states fostering political, security, economic, and socio-cultural cooperation.
Q2815
General Knowledge & Current AffairsEnvironment & Sustainable Development
Match the following pairs with respect to United Nations' 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development Column - I (Sustainable Development Goal- SDG) i) SDG 3 ii) SDG 7 iii) SDG 9 iv) SDG 12
Column - II (Related to) 1) Affordable and Clean Energy 2) Good Health And Well Being 3) Ensure sustainable consumption and production patterns 4) Industry, Innovation and Infrastructure / Decent Work
Choose the correct option: A) i-1, ii-3, iii-4, iv-2 B) i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4 C) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3 D) i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3)
Under the UN 2030 Agenda: SDG 3 is Good Health and Well-Being (2); SDG 7 is Affordable and Clean Energy (1); SDG 12 is Responsible / Sustainable Consumption and Production Patterns (3). This pairs SDG 3 -> 2, SDG 7 -> 1, SDG 9 -> 4, and SDG 12 -> 3. Thus, option C (i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3) is correct.
Q2816
General Knowledge & Current AffairsInstitutions & Abbreviations
What does NCDC stand for? A) National Centre for Disease Control B) National Council for Disease Control C) National Commission for Disease Curb D) National Committee for Disease Control
💡Correct Answer: Option A (National Centre for Disease Control)
NCDC stands for National Centre for Disease Control (formerly the National Institute of Communicable Diseases - NICD), functioning under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India, headquartered in Delhi.
Q2817
General Knowledge & Current AffairsAwards & Honors
Match the following pairs: Nobel Prize Award Winners 2024 - Category i) Medicine ii) Physics iii) Chemistry iv) Literature
Recipient(s) 1) David Baker, and Demis Hassabis and John Jumper 2) John J. Hopfield and Geoffrey E. Hinton 3) Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun 4) Han Kang
Choose the correct option: A) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2 B) i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4 C) i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1 D) i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4)
Nobel Prize Winners 2024: i) Medicine: Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun for the discovery of microRNA (3); ii) Physics: John J. Hopfield and Geoffrey E. Hinton for foundational discoveries in machine learning with artificial neural networks (2); iii) Chemistry: David Baker (computational protein design) and Demis Hassabis & John M. Jumper (protein structure prediction) (1); iv) Literature: South Korean author Han Kang (4). Hence, i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4 (Option D) is correct.
Q2818
General Knowledge & Current AffairsAwards & Honors
Which of the following statements is correct about the winners of the 2025 Padma Bhushan award? A) Shobana Chandrakumar in the field of Literature B) Nalli Kuppuswami Chetti in the field of Trade and Industry C) Jose Chacko Periappuram in the field of Public Affair D) Pankaj Patel in the field of Literature and Education
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Nalli Kuppuswami Chetti in the field of Trade and Industry)
Nalli Kuppuswami Chetti, a renowned textile industrialist, philanthropist, and head of Nalli Silks, was honored with the Padma Bhushan in the field of Trade and Industry. Shobana Chandrakumar was conferred Padma Bhushan for Art, Jose Chacko Periappuram for Medicine, and Pankaj Patel for Trade and Industry.
Q2819
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Agriculture & Geography
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the soil type required for growing Millets (Nutri-Cereals)? i. Jowar - Rain-fed crop grown in the moist areas with less or no irrigation. ii. Bajra - Well-drained fertile loamy and clayey loamy. iii. Ragi - Red, black, sandy, loamy, and shallow black soils. A) Only i and ii B) Only i and iii C) Only ii and iii D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Only i and iii)
According to NCERT Geography: (i) Jowar is a rain-fed crop mostly grown in moist areas which hardly needs irrigation; (iii) Ragi is a crop of dry regions and grows well on red, black, sandy, loamy and shallow black soils. For (ii), Bajra grows well on sandy soils and shallow black soil (not fertile clayey loams). Therefore, statements i and iii are correct (Option B).
Q2820
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Geography - Rivers & Drainage
In which Indian state/states does the Mahi River cross the Tropic of Cancer? A) Madhya Pradesh only B) Gujarat only C) Rajasthan and Gujarat D) Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rajasthan and Gujarat)
The Mahi River is the only river in India that crosses the Tropic of Cancer twice: first in Rajasthan (Banswara district) as it flows north, and second as it loops south-westward towards Gujarat. Thus, it crosses the Tropic of Cancer in Rajasthan and Gujarat.
Q2821
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Geography - Lakes
Match the following pairs: Important Facts about lakes in India i) Largest freshwater lake ii) Largest Saline water lake iii) Longest Lake iv) Largest Artificial Lake
Location 1) Chilka Lake, Orissa 2) Gobind Ballabh Pant Sagar Lake 3) Wular Lake, Jammu and Kashmir 4) Vembanad lake, Kerala
Choose the correct option: A) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2 B) i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4 C) i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4 D) i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2)
Correct matching: i) Largest freshwater lake in India is Wular Lake, Jammu & Kashmir (3); ii) Largest brackish/saline water lake is Chilika Lake, Odisha (1); iii) Longest lake is Vembanad Lake, Kerala (96.5 km) (4); iv) Largest man-made/artificial lake is Gobind Ballabh Pant Sagar Lake (Rihand Dam) (2). Hence, i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2 (Option A) is correct.
Q2822
General Knowledge & Current AffairsGeography & World Heritage
Which of the following countries is NOT part of the UNESCO Global Geoparks Network? A) Czechia B) Morocco C) Thailand D) India
💡Correct Answer: Option D (India)
India currently does not have any site designated as a UNESCO Global Geopark despite having numerous Geological Survey of India (GSI) National Geological Monuments. Czechia (Bohemian Paradise), Morocco (M'Goun), and Thailand (Satun) all possess recognized UNESCO Global Geoparks.
Q2823
General Knowledge & Current AffairsSports & J&K Personalities
Who is the first Indian woman appointed as a jury member at the Olympic Games? A) Afreen Hyder B) Mehreen Tariq C) Bilquis Mir D) Sania Mirza
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bilquis Mir)
Bilquis Mir, an accomplished water sports athlete and canoeist from Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir, created history by becoming the first Indian woman appointed as a jury member at the Olympic Games (Paris Olympics 2024).
Q2824
General Knowledge & Current AffairsJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
Who administered the oath of lieutenant governors of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh, respectively, on 31 October 2019? A) Ram Nath Kovind B) Satya Pal Malik C) Narendra Modi D) Justice Gita Mittal
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Justice Gita Mittal)
On 31 October 2019, Justice Gita Mittal, the then Chief Justice of the Jammu & Kashmir High Court, administered the oath of office to Radha Krishna Mathur as the first Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh in Leh, and to Girish Chandra Murmu as the first Lieutenant Governor of Jammu and Kashmir in Srinagar.
Q2825
General Knowledge & Current AffairsJ&K Geography - Transport & Highways
Which highway starts from its junction with NH-1 near Srinagar and connects Banihal, Jammu, and Kathua in Jammu and Kashmir? A) NH-1A B) NH-44 C) NH-48 D) NH-144
💡Correct Answer: Option B (NH-44)
National Highway 44 (NH-44), formerly designated as NH-1A in Jammu and Kashmir, starts near Srinagar and connects Banihal, Ramban, Udhampur, Jammu, and Kathua before entering Punjab, running all the way to Kanyakumari as India's longest national highway.
Q2826
General Knowledge & Current AffairsHistory & Heritage of Jammu and Kashmir
The Raghunath Temple in Jammu was completed during the reign of which Dogra ruler? A) Maharaja Hari Singh B) Maharaja Gulab Singh C) Maharaja Ranbir Singh D) Raja Ranjit Dev
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Maharaja Ranbir Singh)
The construction of the historic Raghunath Temple complex in Jammu was initiated by Maharaja Gulab Singh, the founder of the Dogra dynasty, in 1835 and was completed during the reign of his son, Maharaja Ranbir Singh, in 1860.
Q2827
General Knowledge & Current AffairsFlora, Fauna & Protected Areas of J&K
Match the following Pairs: Wildlife Sanctuary in J & K i) Nandini Wildlife Sanctuary ii) Rajparian (Daksum) Wildlife Sanctuary iii) Gulmarg Wildlife Sanctuary
Location & Major Attractions 1) Anantnag district of Kashmir; Hangul (Kashmir Stag), Musk deer. 2) Foothills of Pir Panjal Range; Musk deer, common leopard, and barking deer. 3) Near Jammu, Known for its pheasant population.
Choose the correct option: A) i-2, ii-3, iii-1 B) i-3, ii-2, iii-1 C) i-3, ii-1, iii-2 D) i-1, ii-2, iii-3
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-3, ii-1, iii-2)
Correct matching: i) Nandini Wildlife Sanctuary is located near Jammu and is renowned for its rich pheasant bird population and rhesus macaques (3); ii) Rajparian (Daksum) Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in Anantnag district, Kashmir, harboring Hangul and musk deer (1); iii) Gulmarg Wildlife Sanctuary lies in the Pir Panjal range in Baramulla, home to musk deer, leopard, and brown bear (2). Hence, i-3, ii-1, iii-2 (Option C) is correct.
Q2828
General Knowledge & Current AffairsMountain Passes of J&K and Ladakh
Arrange the following Passes in J&K/Ladakh in decreasing order of their height. I. Chang La II. Baralacha La III. Zoji La IV. Lachulang La Choose the correct option: A) I, II, III, IV B) II, I, III, IV C) III, I, II, IV D) I, IV, II, III
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, IV, II, III)
Pass elevations: 1. Chang La ~ 5,360 m (17,590 ft) (I); 2. Lachulung La (Nakee La / Lungalacha La) ~ 5,059 m (16,600 ft) (IV); 3. Baralacha La ~ 4,890 m (16,040 ft) (II); 4. Zoji La ~ 3,528 m (11,575 ft) (III). In decreasing order of altitude: I (Chang La) > IV (Lachulang La) > II (Baralacha La) > III (Zoji La). Thus, Option D (I, IV, II, III) is correct.
Q2829
General Knowledge & Current AffairsRivers and Drainage System of J&K
Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Tawi River? i. The Tawi River flows through the Jammu region in the Indian-administered Jammu and Kashmir. ii. The length of the Tawi River is 295 km. iii. The Tawi is a major left-bank tributary of the Chenab River. iv. It originates from the Kailash Kund glacier (also known as Kali Kund) in Bhaderwah, which lies in Doda district. A) Only i and ii B) Only i and iv C) Only i, iii and iv D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Only i, iii and iv)
The Tawi River originates from the lap of Kailash Kund glacier (Kali Kund) in Bhaderwah (iv), flows through Doda, Udhampur, and Jammu districts (i), and joins the Chenab River as a major left-bank tributary in Pakistan (iii). Its total length is approximately 141 km (not 295 km), making statement ii incorrect. Hence, Only i, iii and iv (Option C) is correct.
Q2830
General Knowledge & Current AffairsLakes of Jammu and Kashmir
Which lake near Jammu is known for its scenic beauty and is a popular picnic spot? A) Surinsar Lake B) Dal Lake C) Wular Lake D) Mansarovar Lake
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Surinsar Lake)
Surinsar Lake (located ~42 km from Jammu city, adjacent to Mansar Lake with which it shares Ramsar wetland status) is renowned for its picturesque setting amidst pine-covered hills and is a widely popular picnic destination in Jammu district.
Q2831
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Polity & Municipalities
Which of the following statements regarding Article 243T of the Indian Constitution, inserted by the 74th Amendment Act, are correct? A) It deals with the constitution and composition of ward committees consisting of elected members representing each ward in a Municipality. B) It provides for the reservation of seats in every municipality for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes. C) It mandates the reservation of one-third of the total number of seats for women, including women belonging to SCs and STs. D) It allows the state legislature to provide for the reservation of seats for backward classes.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It provides for the reservation of seats in every municipality for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.)
Article 243T of the Indian Constitution (introduced by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992) explicitly provides for the reservation of seats in every Municipality for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in proportion to their population (Clause 1), as well as reservation for women (Clause 3). Primary subject-heading of Article 243T is 'Reservation of seats'.
Q2832
General Knowledge & Current AffairsJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
Why is 31 October 2019, the day the state of Jammu and Kashmir was reorganized into two Union Territories, considered significant in Indian history? A) It marks the signing of the Shimla Agreement between India and Pakistan. B) It commemorates the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. C) It marks the day India signed the Instrument of Accession with Jammu and Kashmir. D) It is observed as National Integration Day in memory of India's independence.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It commemorates the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.)
October 31 marks the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (celebrated across India as National Unity Day / Rashtriya Ekta Diwas). The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 was deliberately brought into effect on 31 October 2019 to honor the 'Iron Man of India' who spearheaded the integration of princely states into the Indian Union.
Q2833
Computer Science & ITFundamentals of Computers
What is the main difference between data and information in computer science? A) Data and information are the same. B) Information is unprocessed facts, while data is organized and meaningful. C) Data is raw and unprocessed, while information is processed and meaningful. D) Information is stored in binary, while data is not.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Data is raw and unprocessed, while information is processed and meaningful.)
In computer science, data consists of raw, unorganized, and unprocessed facts, figures, and symbols. When data is processed, organized, structured, or contextualized to provide meaning and utility, it becomes information.
Which of the following statements is NOT true about software? A) Software is a collection of programs, procedures, and related documentation. B) Once developed and tested, software requires no further maintenance. C) Software becomes obsolete due to changes in the environment or requirements. D) Software can be classified into system software and application software.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Once developed and tested, software requires no further maintenance.)
Statement B is completely false. Software engineering principles establish that software requires continuous maintenance throughout its lifecycle (corrective, adaptive, perfective, and preventive maintenance) to patch bugs, adapt to OS/hardware updates, and fulfill evolving user needs.
Q2835
EconomicsNational Income Accounting
Suppose, GDP in India in FY 2023-24 is 6,00,000 and we also assume the following: Mr. P, an Indian citizen, works in Tokyo and earns 50,000. Mr. Q, an Australian citizen, works in Mumbai and earns 30,000. Mrs. R, an Indian citizen, owns a restaurant in UK which she rents to a British family for 25,000. Mrs. S, a German citizen, owns a factory in New Delhi which she rents to an Indian firm for 60,000. Given above, GNP in India in FY 2023-24 will be: A) 5,85,000 B) 6,45,000 C) 4,80,000 D) 5,30,000
💡Correct Answer: Option A (5,85,000)
GNP = GDP + Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA). Factor income earned by Indian residents abroad: Mr. P (50,000) + Mrs. R (25,000) = 75,000. Factor income earned by non-residents in India: Mr. Q (30,000) + Mrs. S (60,000) = 90,000. NFIA = 75,000 - 90,000 = -15,000. Therefore, GNP = 6,00,000 + (-15,000) = 5,85,000.
Q2836
EconomicsNational Income Accounting
Suppose the GDP at Market Price of a country in 2024 was 1000 crores. The values of Net factor income from abroad was 100 crores, net factor income paid to abroad was 50 crores, net indirect taxes were 100 crores and the national income was 700 crores. Calculate the total value of depreciation. A) 250 crores B) 450 crores C) 1850 crores D) 300 crores
💡Correct Answer: Option A (250 crores)
National Income is NNP_FC = 700 crores. GDP_MP = 1000 crores. NFIA = Factor income from abroad (100) - Factor income paid to abroad (50) = 50 crores. GNP_MP = GDP_MP + NFIA = 1000 + 50 = 1050 crores. GNP_FC = GNP_MP - Net Indirect Taxes = 1050 - 100 = 950 crores. Since NNP_FC = GNP_FC - Depreciation, we have 700 = 950 - Depreciation => Depreciation = 950 - 700 = 250 crores.
Q2837
EconomicsEmployment & Unemployment
Unemployment that occurs due to a mismatch between the skills of workers and the requirements of jobs is called: A) Structural unemployment B) Frictional unemployment C) Seasonal unemployment D) Disguised unemployment
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Structural unemployment)
Structural unemployment arises from fundamental long-term shifts in an economy (such as technological advancement or industrial restructuring) creating a qualitative mismatch between the skills possessed by job seekers and the specific technical qualifications demanded by employers.
Q2838
StatisticsLinear Functions & Demography
The life expectancy, E, of females is a linear function of time (in years). In 1995, the life expectancy was 72 years, and in 2015, it was 78 years. What would be the predicted life expectancy in the year 2025? A) 80 B) 82 C) 79 D) 81
💡Correct Answer: Option D (81)
Rate of increase = (78 - 72) / (2015 - 1995) = 6 years / 20 years = 0.3 years per calendar year. From 2015 to 2025 is 10 years. Predicted life expectancy in 2025 = 78 + (10 * 0.3) = 78 + 3 = 81 years.
Q2839
Electronics & CommunicationSignals and Systems (DTFT)
If the Fourier Transform of x[n] is X(e^(jω)), then what will be the Fourier Transform of x[-n]?
A) X(e^(-jω)) B) X(e^(jω))
C) X(-e^(-jω)) D) X*(-e^(jω))
💡Correct Answer: Option B (X*(e^(jω)))
By the properties of the Discrete-Time Fourier Transform (DTFT): time reversal gives x[-n] <-> X(e^(-jω)), and complex conjugation gives x[n] <-> X(e^(-jω)). Applying both properties simultaneously yields the time-reversal conjugation property: x[-n] <-> X(e^(jω)). Hence, Option B is correct.
Q2840
Electrical EngineeringPower System Analysis (Per-Unit System)
A synchronous generator has a direct-axis reactance X_d = 0.4 per unit, based on its nameplate ratings of 10 kV and 75 MVA. If the per-unit reactance is to be recalculated on a new base of 11 kV and 100 MVA, what will be the new per-unit value of X_d? A) 0.54 B) 0.28 C) 0.44 D) 0.38
If x and y are Boolean variables, which one of the following is the equivalent of x ⊕ y ⊕ xy? A) x + y' B) x + y C) 1 D) 0
💡Correct Answer: Option B (x + y)
Let F = x ⊕ y ⊕ xy. Evaluating by truth table: When (x, y) = (0, 0): F = 0 ⊕ 0 ⊕ 0 = 0. When (x, y) = (0, 1): F = 0 ⊕ 1 ⊕ 0 = 1. When (x, y) = (1, 0): F = 1 ⊕ 0 ⊕ 0 = 1. When (x, y) = (1, 1): F = 1 ⊕ 1 ⊕ 1 = 0 ⊕ 1 = 1. The output truth table gives (0, 1, 1, 1), which is the exact truth table of the Boolean OR operation (x + y).
Q2842
Electronics & CommunicationSemiconductor Devices (MOS vs Bipolar)
Which of the following statements is NOT correct? A) MOS devices require fewer manufacturing cycles B) MOS devices are the fastest devices C) MOS gates dissipate less power per gate D) MOS gates require less space on the silicon wafer
💡Correct Answer: Option B (MOS devices are the fastest devices)
Bipolar devices (such as ECL - Emitter Coupled Logic) and modern Gallium Arsenide/SiGe devices are inherently faster than MOS devices due to high transconductance and minority carrier transport dynamics. Statement B ('MOS devices are the fastest devices') is factually incorrect.
Q2843
Electronics & CommunicationSignals & Systems (Fourier Transform)
A signal x(t) has a Fourier transform X(jω). If x(t) is a real and odd function of t, then X(jω) is A) A real and even function of ω B) An imaginary and even function of ω C) An imaginary and odd function of ω D) A real and odd function of ω
💡Correct Answer: Option C (An imaginary and odd function of ω)
By Fourier transform symmetry properties: if a continuous-time signal x(t) is real and odd [x(-t) = -x(t) and x(t) = x(t)], its Fourier transform X(jω) is purely imaginary and an odd function of ω [X(-jω) = -X(jω) = X(jω)].
Q2844
Electronics & CommunicationSemiconductor Physics
An intrinsic semiconductor has an intrinsic electron concentration of 10^16 m^(-3). It is doped with donor atoms to a concentration of 10^22 m^(-3), with all donors fully ionised. What is the resulting hole concentration in the semiconductor? A) 10^22 m^(-3) B) 10^16 m^(-3) C) 10^11 m^(-3) D) 10^10 m^(-3)
💡Correct Answer: Option D (10^10 m^(-3))
By the Mass Action Law in semiconductors, n * p = n_i^2 at thermal equilibrium. Here, n_i = 10^16 m^(-3), and donor concentration n ≈ N_D = 10^22 m^(-3). Therefore, hole concentration p = n_i^2 / n = (10^16)^2 / 10^22 = 10^32 / 10^22 = 10^10 m^(-3).
Which of the following features are offered by a bipolar junction transistor amplifier in Darlington connection? i. High voltage gain ii. High input impedance iii. High current gain Select the correct answer using the code given below. A) i and ii only B) ii and iii only C) i and iii only D) i, ii and iii
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ii and iii only)
A Darlington pair configuration provides an extremely high composite current gain (β_total ≈ β1 β2) and very high input impedance (R_in ≈ β1 β2 * R_E), while its voltage gain remains less than or close to unity (A_v ≈ 1). Thus, it offers high input impedance (ii) and high current gain (iii), but NOT high voltage gain. Option B is correct.
Q2846
Electronics & CommunicationOperational Amplifiers
An op-amp circuit is shown in the given figure. The current I is: [Op-amp 741 with non-inverting input at +2 V, inverting input connected to emitter of NPN transistor with 1 kΩ load to ground, and collector tied to +12V via 1 kΩ] A) 10 mA B) 0 mA C) 6 mA D) 12 mA
💡Correct Answer: Option B (0 mA)
Due to infinite input impedance of the op-amp, input current is 0 mA, or under cut-off conditions current I is 0 mA. Hence, Option B is correct.
Q2847
Electronics & CommunicationOscillators
Consider the following statements: i. A Hartley oscillator circuit uses a tapped inductor for inductive feedback ii. An oscillator circuit can be operated in class A condition for better waveshape iii. Frequency stabilisation is obtained by the use of automatic biasing Which of the statements given above are correct? A) ii and iii B) i and iii C) i and ii D) i, ii and iii
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i and ii)
Statements (i) and (ii) are correct: A Hartley oscillator famously uses a center-tapped inductor (or two inductors) in its tank circuit for positive inductive feedback (i); and operating in Class A bias yields minimal harmonic distortion and superior sinusoidal waveshape (ii). Automatic biasing stabilizes amplitude, not frequency (frequency is stabilized by high-Q crystal or tuned circuits). Thus, i and ii (Option C) is correct.
A 12-bit A/D converter has a range of 0-10 V. What is the approximate resolution of the converter? A) 0.488 mV B) 2.44 mV C) 4.88 mV D) 0.244 mV
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2.44 mV)
Resolution = Full Scale Voltage / (2^n - 1) = 10 V / (2^12 - 1) = 10 V / 4095 = 0.002442 V = 2.44 mV.
Q2850
Electronics & CommunicationCommunication Systems (AM Modulation)
The number of AM broadcast stations that can be accommodated in a 100 kHz bandwidth for the highest modulating frequency of 5 kHz will be: A) 10 B) 20 C) 100 D) 5
💡Correct Answer: Option A (10)
Bandwidth required for one standard double-sideband Amplitude Modulated (AM) station is BW = 2 f_m, where f_m is the highest modulating frequency: BW = 2 5 kHz = 10 kHz. In a total allocated channel bandwidth of 100 kHz, the number of stations accommodated is N = Total Bandwidth / Bandwidth per station = 100 kHz / 10 kHz = 10 stations.
Q2851
Electronics & CommunicationCommunication Systems (FM & Noise)
In which of the following modulations can the signal-to-noise ratio be improved by increasing bandwidth? A) AM B) FM C) SSB D) DSB-SC
💡Correct Answer: Option B (FM)
Frequency Modulation (FM) allows an explicit trade-off between transmission bandwidth and noise performance: by increasing the frequency deviation Δf (which increases the modulation index β and bandwidth), the output Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR) improves proportionally to the square of the modulation index (SNR ∝ β^2). In AM systems, increasing bandwidth admits more channel noise without improving SNR.
During the frequency conversion (heterodyning) in a superheterodyne receiver, the original modulation on the signal: A) Is completely removed B) Is reduced in amplitude C) Is shifted to a new frequency but remains unchanged D) Is distorted and lost
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Is shifted to a new frequency but remains unchanged)
In a superheterodyne receiver mixer stage, the incoming RF signal is heterodyned (multiplied) with a local oscillator signal to produce the fixed Intermediate Frequency (IF). The mixer translates/shifts the carrier spectrum down to the IF while preserving all original amplitude, frequency, and phase modulation without distortion.
Q2853
Electronics & CommunicationDigital Communication (Delta Modulation)
In delta modulation, slope overload occurs when the modulating signal changes: A) Less rapidly than the encoder can follow B) More rapidly than the encoder can follow C) Independent of any changes in the signal D) None of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option B (More rapidly than the encoder can follow)
Slope overload distortion in Delta Modulation occurs when the maximum rate of change (slope) of the modulating analog signal exceeds the maximum tracking slope capability of the staircase approximation (i.e. |dm(t)/dt| > Δ / T_s, where Δ is the step size and T_s is sampling interval).
The radio horizon distance increases if: A) The antenna height increases B) The frequency of the signal increases C) The antenna is moved closer to the ground D) The antenna height decreases
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The antenna height increases)
In space-wave line-of-sight (LOS) propagation, the optical and radio horizon distance is given by d ≈ √(2 k R_earth h) ≈ 4.12 √h km (where h is antenna height in meters). As the physical antenna height increases, the line-of-sight distance over the curved earth increases.
In a dipole array, the overall radiation pattern does not depend upon: A) Directional patterns of the elements B) Spacing between the elements C) Phase difference between the various feed points D) None of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option D (None of the above)
By the Principle of Pattern Multiplication, the overall radiation field pattern of an antenna array is the product of the individual element pattern and the array factor: Total Pattern = (Element Pattern) × (Array Factor). The Array Factor depends directly on the number of elements, physical spacing (d), and progressive excitation phase difference (α). Therefore, the overall radiation pattern depends on ALL three listed factors, making 'None of the above' (Option D) the correct answer.
Q2856
General Awareness & Mental AbilityEmotional Intelligence & Social Skills
Emotional intelligence is characterised by A) Proficient in problem solving B) Better interpersonal relationship C) High abstract thinking ability D) Good sense of humour
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Better interpersonal relationship)
Emotional intelligence (EI) refers to the capability of individuals to recognize their own emotions and those of others, discern between different feelings, and use emotional information to guide thinking and behavior. A hallmark characteristic and outcome of high emotional intelligence is better interpersonal relationships and social communication.
Q2857
General Knowledge & Current AffairsHistory of Jammu & Kashmir
Hari parbat was built by A) Emperor Humayun B) Chandragupta Maurya C) Chattrapati Shivaji Maharaj D) Atta Mohammed Khan
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Atta Mohammed Khan)
The outer rampart wall surrounding Hari Parbat (Koh-e-Maran) was laid by Mughal Emperor Akbar in 1590, but the present fort atop the hill was built by the Afghan governor of Kashmir, Atta Mohammed Khan, in 1808.
Q2858
General Knowledge & Current AffairsModern Indian History & Social Reforms
Name the Governor General who abolished 'Sati' in 1829. A) Lord Clive B) Lord Curzon C) Lord Bentinck D) Lord Dalhousie
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Lord Bentinck)
The Bengal Sati Regulation was passed on 4 December 1829 by Governor-General Lord William Bentinck, declaring the practice of burning or burying alive Hindu widows (Sati) illegal and punishable by the criminal courts, largely through the relentless reform efforts of Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
Q2859
General Knowledge & Current AffairsHistory of Jammu & Kashmir
During the rule of which dynasty, Muslim saints started coming to Jammu? A) Dhar dynasty B) Rai dynasty C) Dev dynasty D) Gonanda dynasty
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rai dynasty)
According to the historical chronicles of Jammu (such as Gulabnama and Tarikh-i-Dogra Desh), Muslim saints and Sufis, including Pir Roshan Ali Shah and Pir Mitha, first began arriving in Jammu during the reign of the Rai dynasty (which preceded the Dev dynasty).
Q2860
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Culture & Festivals
In which Indian state is the flamingo festival celebrated? A) Rajasthan B) Assam C) Jammu & Kashmir D) Andhra Pradesh
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Andhra Pradesh)
The Flamingo Festival is celebrated annually in Andhra Pradesh at Pulicat Lake and Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary in the Tirupati (formerly Nellore) district to promote tourism and welcome migratory birds, particularly flamingos.
Q2861
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Foreign Policy & Geography
To which of the following neighbor country, India ceded Kachchatheevu island in 1974? A) Sri Lanka B) Bangladesh C) Myanmar D) Maldives
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sri Lanka)
Under the 1974 Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime Agreement signed between Prime Minister Indira Gandhi and Sri Lankan Prime Minister Sirimavo Bandaranaike, India recognized Sri Lankan sovereignty over the uninhabited Katchatheevu island in the Palk Strait.
Q2862
General Knowledge & Current AffairsGovernment Programmes & Geography
Consider the following states: I. Rajasthan II. Gujarat III. Jammu & Kashmir IV. Himachal Pradesh Desert Development programme was started in which of the above states? A) I & II Only B) I, II & III Only C) I, II & IV Only D) I, II, III & IV
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II, III & IV)
The Desert Development Programme (DDP) was launched by the Government of India in 1977-78 to control desertification and restore ecological balance in both hot desert areas (Rajasthan, Gujarat, Haryana, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka) and cold desert areas (Jammu & Kashmir / Ladakh and Himachal Pradesh - Lahaul & Spiti, Kinnaur). Thus, all four states (I, II, III, and IV) are covered under the programme.
Q2863
General Knowledge & Current AffairsEconomics (Tariffs & Trade)
Consider a scenario in which a small country imposes a tariff on a product. Which of the statements below is false? A) The good's consumer surplus will decrease. B) The surplus of the producer of the goods will decrease. C) The number of goods imported will decrease. D) The total drop in surplus will be less than the deadweight loss.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The total drop in surplus will be less than the deadweight loss.)
When a small importing country imposes an import tariff: domestic price rises by the tariff amount, consumer surplus decreases, domestic producer surplus increases. In international trade theory, the deadweight loss is only a net part of the total surplus loss, meaning the total drop in surplus is strictly GREATER than the deadweight loss, never less. Thus statement D is false.
Q2864
General Knowledge & Current AffairsEconomics (Price Mechanism)
What happens if the price floor is set higher than the equilibrium price? A) Scarcity B) Stability C) Surpluses D) None of the preceding
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Surpluses)
A price floor set above the market equilibrium price is binding. At this higher price, the quantity supplied by producers exceeds the quantity demanded by consumers (Q_s > Q_d), resulting in a market surplus (excess supply).
Q2865
General Knowledge & Current AffairsSports Awards & Honours
The "Pierre de Coubertin Medal" is awarded for the excellence in which field? A) Painting B) Sports C) Music D) Economics
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sports)
The Pierre de Coubertin Medal (also known as the True Spirit of Sportsmanship medal) is a prestigious award presented by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) to athletes who demonstrate extraordinary sportsmanship or exceptional service to the Olympic movement.
Q2866
General Knowledge & Current AffairsSports History of India
In which year, Kabaddi was introduced for the first time in the National Games of India? A) 1938 B) 1939 C) 1940 D) 1941
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1938)
Kabaddi was introduced for the first time as an official competitive discipline in the Indian Olympic Games (later designated as the National Games of India) held at Calcutta in the year 1938.
Q2867
General Awareness & Mental AbilityResearch Methodology
Order the sequence of steps followed in educational research: I. Selection of research problem II. Selection of research method III. Formulation of research question IV. Data collection and analysis V. Reporting the results Choose the correct option: A) I - II - III - IV - V B) I - III - II - IV - V C) I - IV - II - III - V D) II - I - III - IV - V
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I - III - II - IV - V)
The logical and standardized pedagogical sequence of scientific research is: Step I: Selection of research problem Step III: Formulation of research question / hypothesis Step II: Selection of research design and method Step IV: Data collection and analysis Step V: Reporting the results. This sequence matches Option B (I - III - II - IV - V).
Q2868
General Awareness & Mental AbilityResearch Aptitude
Research can be conducted by a person who: A) holds a postgraduate degree B) has studied research methodology C) possesses thinking and reasoning ability D) is a hard worker
💡Correct Answer: Option C (possesses thinking and reasoning ability)
In UGC NET, educational aptitude, and general competitive pedagogy questions, the primary core trait required to conduct research is the fundamental possession of critical thinking, inquiry, and logical reasoning ability (possesses thinking and reasoning ability).
Q2869
General Knowledge & Current AffairsCurrent Affairs & Awards (J&K)
He is a recipient of Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar award in the field of art and culture. A) Umran Malik B) Abdul Samad C) Ishfaq Hamid D) Pandit Bhajan Sopori
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ishfaq Hamid)
Master Ishfaq Hamid, a young maestro of the Rabab and Matka from Kreeri, Baramulla / Pulwama, Jammu & Kashmir, was awarded the prestigious Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar by the President of India in January 2024 for his extraordinary contribution to Art & Culture.
Q2870
General Knowledge & Current AffairsCurrent Affairs & Awards
Recently, who has been conferred the prestigious 'Freedom of City of London' award? A) Madhur Kumar B) Loknath Mishra C) Sharukh T Wadia D) Ajit Mishra
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ajit Mishra)
Prominent India-born lawyer and UK-India Legal Partnership founder Ajit Mishra was conferred the prestigious 'Freedom of the City of London' award in recognition of his outstanding contribution to legal and business sectors and fostering bilateral ties between India and the UK.
Q2871
General Knowledge & Current AffairsImportant Days & Dates
When is the 'International Day of Sign Languages' celebrated? A) September 21 B) September 23 C) September 25 D) September 27
💡Correct Answer: Option B (September 23)
The United Nations General Assembly has designated 23 September as the International Day of Sign Languages to raise awareness of the importance of sign language in the full realization of the human rights of deaf people. The date commemorates the establishment of the World Federation of the Deaf in 1951.
Q2872
General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Affairs & Bilateral Agreements
India launched the 'NET Zero' Innovation Virtual Centre with which country? A) USA B) UK C) Australia D) South Korea
💡Correct Answer: Option B (UK)
India and the United Kingdom (UK) jointly announced the creation of the India-UK 'NET Zero' Innovation Virtual Centre at the India-UK Science & Innovation Council meeting to facilitate joint research on decarbonisation of manufacturing and green hydrogen.
Q2873
General Knowledge & Current AffairsGeography & Tourism of Jammu & Kashmir
The north India's largest zoo 'Jamboo Zoo' is situated in A) Udhampur B) Srinagar C) Pahalgam D) Nagrota
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Nagrota)
North India's largest zoological park, the Jamboo Zoo, named after King Jambu Lochan, is situated in Nagrota (Khanpur), Jammu, along the Jammu-Srinagar National Highway.
Q2874
General Knowledge & Current AffairsCurrent Affairs & Industry
Which company has launched the first Made-in-India helmet to meet Europe's ECE 22.06 standard A) Vega B) Steelbird C) Studds D) Royal Enfield
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Steelbird)
Steelbird Hi-Tech India launched the 'Ignyte IGN-7', which is the first Made-in-India helmet to meet Europe's stringent ECE 22.06 safety standard as well as DOT (FMVSS No. 218) and BIS (IS 4151:2015) certifications.
Q2875
Quantitative AptitudeNumber Systems (Unit Digit)
If the unit digit in the product (459 × 46 × 28 × 484) is 2, the digit in place of is A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 0
💡Correct Answer: Option C (7)
To find the unit digit of the product: Unit digits of known numbers: 9 (from 459), 6 (from 46), 4 (from 484). 9 × 6 = 54 -> unit digit 4. 4 × 4 = 16 -> unit digit 6. Now, 6 × () must yield a unit digit of 2.
Testing single-digit integers:
6 × 2 = 12 (unit digit 2)
6 × 7 = 42 (unit digit 2)
Among the given options (3, 5, 7, 0), the digit 7 satisfies the condition (6 × 7 = 42). Hence, is 7.
Q2876
Quantitative AptitudeProfit, Loss & Discount
Amit sold an article for Rs. 369.60 after allowing 12% discount on the marked price. Had he not allowed any discount he would have earned a profit of 20%. What is the cost price of the article? A) 350 B) 400 C) 380 D) 320
General Knowledge & Current AffairsBusiness Regulations & Companies Act
As per companies Act 2013 to form a partnership firm, there should be atleast two persons and maximum of A) 40 B) 100 C) 50 D) Unlimited
💡Correct Answer: Option C (50)
Under Section 464 of the Companies Act 2013, the maximum number of partners in a partnership firm can be up to 100 as prescribed by the Government. Under Rule 10 of Companies (Miscellaneous) Rules 2014, the central government prescribed this maximum limit as 50 persons.
Q2878
General EnglishSpotting the Error (Pronoun Cases)
In the following sentence identify the part having error. It was him / who came / running / into the classroom. A) It was him B) who came C) running D) into the classroom
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It was him)
In formal grammar, a predicate pronoun following the linking verb 'to be' (was) must take the nominative (subjective) case, not the objective case. Therefore, 'It was him' is grammatically incorrect and should be corrected to 'It was he who came running into the classroom'.
Q2879
General Awareness & ScienceCurrent Affairs & National Awards
Which Indian city ranked first in the Swachh Bharat Mission 2025 for cleanliness and waste management? A) Indore B) Mysore C) Ranchi D) Trivandrum
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Indore)
Indore (Madhya Pradesh) has consistently retained the top rank as India's cleanest city under the annual Swachh Survekshan / Swachh Bharat rankings.
Q2880
General Awareness & ScienceCurrent Affairs & National Bodies
Which Indian company became the 26th 'Navratna' company in 2025? A) IRCON B) RITES C) IRFC D) ONGC
💡Correct Answer: Option C (IRFC)
Indian Railway Finance Corporation (IRFC), the dedicated market borrowing arm of the Indian Railways under the Ministry of Railways, was officially accorded the coveted 'Navratna' CPSE status.
Q2881
General Awareness & ScienceCurrent Affairs & National Bodies
Which organization conducted India's first nationwide civil defence mock drill since 1971? A) Ministry of Defence B) Ministry of Home Affairs C) National Disaster Management Authority D) Indian Army
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ministry of Home Affairs)
The Directorate General of Fire Services, Civil Defence & Home Guards under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), Government of India, conducted the nationwide civil defence exercise and mock drill.
Q2882
General Awareness & ScienceSocio-Religious Movements
Who is known as the 'Father of Indian Renaissance'? A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy B) Mahatma Gandhi C) Swami Vivekananda D) Rabindranath Tagore
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Raja Ram Mohan Roy)
Raja Ram Mohan Roy is celebrated as the 'Father of the Indian Renaissance' and the 'Maker of Modern India' for his pioneering socio-religious reform movements, foundation of the Brahmo Samaj (1828), and successful campaign against Sati (banned in 1829).
Q2883
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Heritage & Art Architecture
The famous Sun Temple of Konark is located in which state? A) Tamil Nadu B) Odisha C) Andhra Pradesh D) Karnataka
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Odisha)
The 13th-century Konark Sun Temple (also known as the Black Pagoda), built by King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga dynasty, is situated in Puri district of Odisha and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Q2884
General Awareness & ScienceIndian History & Ancient Religions
'Sanchi Stupa' is associated with which religion? A) Hinduism B) Jainism C) Buddhism D) Sikhism
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Buddhism)
The Great Stupa at Sanchi (Madhya Pradesh) was originally commissioned by Mauryan Emperor Ashoka the Great in the 3rd century BCE to enshrine the relics of the Buddha, making it one of the oldest and most important monuments of Buddhism.
Q2885
General Awareness & ScienceSocio-Religious Movements
Who founded the Arya Samaj movement? A) Swami Vivekananda B) Swami Dayananda Saraswati C) Mahatma Gandhi D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Swami Dayananda Saraswati)
Swami Dayananda Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj on 10 April 1875 in Bombay. He championed Vedic teachings, rejected idol worship and rigid caste hierarchies, and gave the motto 'Go back to the Vedas'.
Q2886
General Awareness & ScienceFamous Books & Authors
Who wrote the book 'Discovery of India'? A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Mahatma Gandhi C) Rabindranath Tagore D) Sardar Patel
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Jawaharlal Nehru)
'The Discovery of India' was written by India's first Prime Minister, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, during his imprisonment at Ahmednagar Fort (1942–1946) following the Quit India Movement.
Q2887
General Awareness & ScienceMedieval Indian History
Which Mughal emperor built the Red Fort? A) Akbar B) Shah Jahan C) Aurangzeb D) Jahangir
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Shah Jahan)
Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan commissioned the construction of the historic Red Fort (Lal Qila) in Delhi in 1638 when he decided to shift his capital from Agra to Shahjahanabad (Delhi). It was designed by architect Ustad Ahmad Lahori.
Q2888
General Awareness & ScienceIndian National Movement
The Indian National Congress was founded in which year? A) 1883 B) 1905 C) 1985 D) 1885
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1885)
The Indian National Congress (INC) was founded on 28 December 1885 at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay by retired British civil servant Allan Octavian Hume (A.O. Hume). Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee served as its first president.
Q2889
General Awareness & ScienceMedieval Indian History
Which emperor was defeated in the Battle of Panipat (1526)? A) Ibrahim Lodi B) Sher Shah Suri C) Humayun D) Akbar
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ibrahim Lodi)
The First Battle of Panipat took place on 21 April 1526 between the invading forces of Babur and the Lodi Empire. Babur defeated Sultan Ibrahim Lodi, marking the end of the Delhi Sultanate and the foundation of the Mughal Empire in India.
Q2890
General Awareness & ScienceModern Indian History & Constitutional Acts
The Indian Councils Act of 1909 is also known as A) Morley-Minto Reforms B) Government of India Act C) Rowlatt Act D) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Morley-Minto Reforms)
The Indian Councils Act 1909 is widely known as the Morley-Minto Reforms after John Morley (Secretary of State for India) and Lord Minto (Viceroy of India). It introduced separate electorates for Muslims.
Q2891
General Awareness & ScienceMedieval Indian History
Which ruler is credited with building the Grand Trunk Road? A) Chandragupta Maurya B) Sher Shah Suri C) Iltutmish D) Jaichand
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sher Shah Suri)
Sher Shah Suri (founder of the Sur Empire) renovated and extended the ancient royal highway into the 'Sadak-e-Azam' (later called the Grand Trunk Road by the British), connecting Sonargaon in Bengal with Peshawar.
Q2892
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Geography
Which is the largest state in India by area? A) Maharashtra B) Madhya Pradesh C) Rajasthan D) Uttar Pradesh
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rajasthan)
Rajasthan is the largest state in India by geographical area, covering approximately 342,239 sq km (about 10.4% of India's total land area), followed by Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.
Q2893
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Geography - Rivers
Which river is known as the 'Sorrow of Bihar' due to its frequent floods? A) Ganga B) Kosi C) Yamuna D) Gandak
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kosi)
The Kosi River is known as the 'Sorrow of Bihar' because of its rapid course changes and catastrophic seasonal floods that cause widespread destruction across northern Bihar.
Q2894
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Geography - Coastal Features
Which Indian state has the longest coastline? A) Tamil Nadu B) Gujarat C) Andhra Pradesh D) Odisha
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Gujarat)
Gujarat has the longest coastline of any Indian state, stretching approximately 1,600 km along the Kathiawar peninsula and Gulfs of Kutch and Khambhat, followed by Andhra Pradesh.
Q2895
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Geography - Rivers
Which Indian river originates from the Amarkantak Plateau? A) Godavari B) Narmada C) Mahanadi D) Tapi
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Narmada)
The Narmada River originates from the Amarkantak Plateau in Anuppur district of Madhya Pradesh and flows westwards through a rift valley between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges into the Arabian Sea.
Q2896
General Awareness & ScienceLakes of India
The largest freshwater lake in India, Wular, is located in which district? A) Jammu B) Shopian C) Reasi D) Bandipora
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Bandipora)
Wular Lake, the largest freshwater lake in India and a designated Ramsar wetland site, is located in Bandipora district of Jammu and Kashmir. It is fed by the Jhelum River.
Q2897
General Awareness & ScienceIndian States & Capitals
What is the capital of Arunachal Pradesh? A) Itanagar B) Kohima C) Imphal D) Gangtok
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Itanagar)
Itanagar is the capital city of Arunachal Pradesh. Kohima is the capital of Nagaland, Imphal of Manipur, and Gangtok of Sikkim.
Q2898
General Awareness & ScienceIndian States & Capitals
Which state has Imphal as its capital? A) Mizoram B) Nagaland C) Manipur D) Meghalaya
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Manipur)
Imphal is the capital city of the northeastern Indian state of Manipur. Aizawl is the capital of Mizoram, Kohima of Nagaland, and Shillong of Meghalaya.
Q2899
General Awareness & ScienceBasic Chemistry
What is the chemical symbol for Iron? A) Ir B) Fe C) I D) In
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Fe)
The chemical symbol for Iron is 'Fe', derived from its Latin name 'Ferrum'. 'Ir' stands for Iridium, 'I' for Iodine, and 'In' for Indium.
Q2900
General Awareness & ScienceVitamins & Nutrition
Which vitamin is produced when the skin is exposed to sunlight? A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin C D) Vitamin D
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Vitamin D)
Vitamin D (specifically cholecalciferol or Vitamin D3) is synthesized in the human skin when 7-dehydrocholesterol absorbs ultraviolet B (UVB) radiation from sunlight.
Q2901
General Awareness & ScienceBasic Biology
What is the basic unit of life? A) Atom B) Cell C) Molecule D) Organ
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cell)
The cell is universally recognized as the fundamental structural, functional, and biological unit of all known living organisms.
Q2902
General Awareness & ScienceHuman Physiology & Circulatory System
What is the main function of red blood cells? A) Fighting infection B) Carrying oxygen C) Clotting blood D) Producing hormones
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Carrying oxygen)
Red blood cells (erythrocytes) contain the iron-rich protein hemoglobin, whose primary physiological function is to bind oxygen in the lungs and transport it to tissues throughout the body.
Q2903
General Awareness & ScienceEndocrine System & Hormones
Which organ in the human body produces insulin? A) Liver B) Pancreas C) Kidney D) Heart
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pancreas)
Insulin is a peptide hormone synthesized and secreted by the beta cells of the Islets of Langerhans within the pancreas, responsible for regulating blood glucose levels.
Q2904
General Awareness & ScienceBasic Chemistry
What is the chemical formula of table salt? A) NaCl B) KCl C) CaCl2 D) Na2CO3
💡Correct Answer: Option A (NaCl)
Common table salt is chemically known as sodium chloride, represented by the chemical formula NaCl.
Q2905
General Awareness & ScienceSolar System & Astronomy
Which planet is known as the "Red Planet"? A) Venus B) Mars C) Mercury D) Earth
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mars)
Mars is known as the 'Red Planet' due to the widespread presence of iron oxide (rust) on its surface, which gives it a reddish appearance.
Q2906
General Awareness & ScienceHuman Anatomy & Physiology
The largest gland in the human body is A) Pancreas B) Thyroid C) Liver D) Adrenal
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Liver)
The liver is the largest internal organ and the largest gland in the human body, weighing approximately 1.5 kg in an adult. It performs vital metabolic functions including bile production, detoxification, and protein synthesis.
Q2907
General Knowledge with special reference to UT of J&KGeography of J&K - Mountain Peaks
What is the highest peak in Jammu and Kashmir? A) Nun B) Harmukh C) Kolahoi D) Apharwat
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Nun)
Mount Nun (7,135 m) in the Suru Valley / Zanskar range is the highest peak in the territory. (Within the Kashmir Valley proper, Mount Kolahoi is 5,425 m, Harmukh is 5,142 m).
Q2908
General Knowledge with special reference to UT of J&KMountain Passes of J&K
Which of the following passes connects Leh with the Kashmir Valley? A) Banihal Pass B) Rohtang Pass C) Zoji La Pass D) Khardung La
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Zoji La Pass)
Zoji La Pass (3,528 m) on National Highway 1 (NH-1) connects the Kashmir Valley (via Sonamarg/Ganderbal) with Dras, Kargil, and Leh in Ladakh.
The recharging rate of groundwater depends upon _______ and on the depth of water stored, and is generally less. A) the permeability of the spread area B) Renney type wells C) Infiltration tube springs D) None of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (the permeability of the spread area)
In groundwater artificial recharge techniques (such as spreading basins or recharge ponds), the infiltration and recharging rate depends directly on the hydraulic conductivity and permeability of the soil in the spreading area as well as the hydraulic head (depth of water stored).
Q2910
Civil EngineeringFluid Mechanics - Fluid Units & Dimensions
Pascal-second (Pa.s) is the unit of A) Pressure B) Specific gravity C) Dynamic viscosity D) Compressibility
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dynamic viscosity)
Pascal-second (Pa·s = N·s/m² = kg/(m·s)) is the SI unit of dynamic (or absolute) viscosity μ. (Kinematic viscosity ν has the SI unit m²/s, pressure has Pa or N/m², and specific gravity is dimensionless).
The fundamental relationship between space-mean speed (u), traffic density (k) and traffic flow (q) is A) q = u k
B) q = k / u
C) q = u / k
D) q = 1 / (u k)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (q = u * k)
The fundamental equation of traffic flow theory is: q = u * k, where q is traffic flow or volume (vehicles/hour), u is space-mean speed (km/hour), and k is traffic density (vehicles/km).
Q2912
Civil EngineeringEstimating and Costing - Units of Measurement (IS 1200)
The Damp Proof Course (D.P.C) is measured in A) Cubic meter B) Square meter C) Meters D) Rupees per meter
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Square meter)
According to IS 1200 (Method of Measurement of Building and Civil Engineering Works), Damp Proof Course (DPC) has a specified thin thickness (normally 2.5 cm to 4 cm) and is measured in area units of Square meters (sq m or m²).
Q2913
Electrical EngineeringBasic Electrical Engineering - AC Fundamentals
An alternating voltage is given by v=30sin(314t). The time taken by the voltage to reach from 0 V at t=0 to -30 V for the first time is _______? A) 0.015 second B) 0.02 second C) 0.03 second D) 0.1 second
💡Correct Answer: Option A (0.015 second)
Given v(t)=30sin(314t), angular frequency ω=314 rad/s≈100π rad/s, corresponding to a frequency f=50 Hz and time period T=ω2π=501=0.02 s. The voltage reaches 0 V at t=0, positive peak (+30 V) at t=T/4=0.005 s, zero again at t=T/2=0.01 s, and its negative peak (-30 V) for the first time at t=43T=43×0.02=0.015 s. Mathematically: sin(314t)=−1⟹314t=23π⟹t=100π1.5π=0.015 s.
Q2914
Electrical EngineeringControl Systems - Transfer Function & Impulse Response
The Laplace transform of a linear system's output represents the system's transfer function when the input is _______? A) An impulse signal B) A ramp signal C) A step signal D) A sinusoidal signal
💡Correct Answer: Option A (An impulse signal)
The transfer function H(s) of a linear time-invariant system with zero initial conditions is defined as the ratio of the Laplace transform of the output Y(s) to the Laplace transform of the input X(s), i.e., H(s)=X(s)Y(s). When the input is a unit impulse signal δ(t), its Laplace transform is X(s)=L{δ(t)}=1. Consequently, Y(s)=H(s)⋅1=H(s), meaning the Laplace transform of the system's impulse response is identically the transfer function.
Q2915
Electrical EngineeringControl Systems - System Transfer Function & Poles
Consider a linear time-invariant system whose input r(t) and output y(t) are related by the following differential equation: dt2d2y(t)+4y(t)=6r(t) The poles of this system are at A) +2, -2 B) +4, -4 C) +2j, -2j D) +4j, -4j
💡Correct Answer: Option C (+2j, -2j)
Taking the Laplace transform on both sides under zero initial conditions: s2Y(s)+4Y(s)=6R(s)⟹Y(s)(s2+4)=6R(s). The transfer function is H(s)=R(s)Y(s)=s2+46. The poles of the system are the roots of the characteristic equation s2+4=0⟹s2=−4⟹s=±−4=±2j. Hence, the poles are at +2j,−2j.
The AND function can be realized by using only 'N' NOR gates. What is 'N' equal to? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3)
To implement a 2-input AND function (Y=AB) using only NOR gates: By De Morgan's laws: AB=A+B=NOR(A,B). 1. NOR gate 1 (with inputs tied together) produces A. 2. NOR gate 2 (with inputs tied together) produces B. 3. NOR gate 3 takes A and B as inputs, producing A+B=AB. Thus, exactly N=3 NOR gates are required to realize the AND function.
For a given applied voltage and current, the speed of the universal motor will be A) Higher in AC excitation than in DC excitation B) Higher in DC excitation than in AC excitation C) Same in both DC and AC excitation D) Dangerously high in DC excitation
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Higher in DC excitation than in AC excitation)
A universal motor is a series wound motor designed to operate on either DC or single-phase AC. When operated on AC, the inductive reactance of the field and armature windings produces a significant reactive voltage drop (IX), which reduces the net back EMF available (Eb=V2−(IX)2−IR), leading to a lower operating speed. Under DC excitation, there is zero inductive reactance drop, so back EMF is higher (Eb=V−IR), resulting in a higher speed for the same terminal voltage and current.
Q2918
Electrical EngineeringPower Systems - Transmission Line Performance & Tuned Lines
When the sending end voltage and current are numerically equal to the receiving end voltage and current, respectively, then the line is called _______? A) A transposed line B) A tuned line C) A long line D) A short line
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A tuned line)
When the sending end voltage and current are numerically equal to the receiving end voltage and current, respectively, then the line is called _______? A transmission line whose distributed inductance and capacitance parameters (or auxiliary terminal reactive networks) are chosen such that ∣Vs∣=∣Vr∣ and ∣Is∣=∣Ir∣ regardless of the line length or load is termed a 'Tuned power line'. In a tuned line, the natural propagation angle corresponds to an integer multiple of wavelengths (or quarter/half wave tuning), ensuring that voltage and current profiles at the receiving end are identically reproduced at the sending end.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Distance between the objective lens and surface of cover slip when the specimen is in focus)
Working distance is the linear distance between the front optical element of the objective lens and the top surface of the coverslip (or specimen) when the specimen is sharply in focus.
The dermal nitrate test (paraffin test) utilizes diphenylamine to detect unburned or partially burned nitrate and nitrite particles from gunshot residue deposited on a shooter's hand.
What term refers to the study of the structure and form of bones?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Osteology)
Osteology is the scientific study of the structure, anatomy, pathology, and morphology of bones and skeletal elements. Odontology studies teeth, entomology studies insects, and taphonomy studies postmortem decay.
Wads (including over-powder wads, cushion wads, and closure wads) are characteristic components of smoothbore shotgun ammunition, such as 12-bore cartridges, designed to seal propellant gases and cushion shot pellets.
Which of the following is an component of primer mixture?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mercury Fulminate)
Mercury fulminate is a primary initiating high explosive historically used as the active percussion detonating agent in firearm primer mixtures.
Q2925
Forensic Ballistics & FirearmsShotgun Mechanisms & Firing Pin Marks
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:\nAssertion (A): The firing - pin marks found on a fired cartridge case by a hammerless shotgun are both impressed and striated.\nReason (R): In a hammerless shotgun, the hammers are visible and move to cocked position when the breech end of the barrel is moved upward for re-loading.\nIn light of the above statements, choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A is true but R is false)
Assertion (A) is true because as the break-action shotgun is opened, the firing pin drags across the primer creating striated marks superimposed on the firing pin indent. Reason (R) is false because in a 'hammerless' shotgun, the hammers are internal and concealed inside the lock, NOT visible.
Q2926
Criminal Law & Forensic ProcedureMandatory Videography under BNSS
When a crime scene is processed under Section 176(3), what additional procedural requirement is mandated for the collection of evidence?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Videography of the process on a mobile phone or electronic device)
Under Section 176(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, the investigating police officer is statutorily mandated to cause videography of the crime scene forensic search and evidence collection process on a mobile phone or any other electronic device.
Singeing of hair around a wound of entry is seen at which range?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Close range)
Singeing (scorching or burning of hair) around a firearm entry wound is caused by the hot expanding muzzle flash gases and flame, characteristically occurring at close range (within several inches / ~15 cm from the muzzle).
Q2928
Forensic Foundations & CriminalisticsPioneers of Forensic Science
Father of criminal investigation:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Alphonse Bertillon)
In standard forensic examination curricula, Alphonse Bertillon is celebrated as the father of criminal identification/investigation for introducing anthropometry and systematic scientific crime scene processing. (Hans Gross is also historically recognized as the father of criminalistics).
Q2929
Forensic Foundations & CriminalisticsHistory of Firearms Identification
Who established comparison microscope as indispensible tool of modern firearms examination?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Calvin Goddard)
Colonel Calvin Goddard pioneered the forensic comparison microscope to examine fired bullets and cartridge cases side-by-side, establishing forensic ballistics as a rigorous scientific discipline.
Q2930
Forensic Foundations & CriminalisticsFundamental Principles of Forensic Science
Match the following forensic laws with their proponents:\ni. Law of Mutual Exchange\nii. Law of Individuality\niii. Law of Probability\nProponents:\na. Edmond Locard\nb. Paul Kirk\nc. Prof. Simon Newcomb\nOptions:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-a, ii-b, iii-c)
The Law of Mutual Exchange was stated by Edmond Locard (i-a); the fundamental Law of Individuality in forensic evidence was formalized by Paul L. Kirk (ii-b); and the Law of Probability in forensic identification was articulated by Simon Newcomb (iii-c). Thus, i-a, ii-b, iii-c.
Q2931
Forensic Physics & MechanicsUnits and Astronomical Dimensions
Consider the following statements:\nI. Light year and the year both measures time\nII. Light year is the time light take to reach the earth from the sun\nChoose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Both I and II are false)
Both statements are false: A light-year is a unit of astronomical distance (the distance light travels in one Julian year, ~9.46*10^15 m), not time. Sunlight takes approximately 8 minutes and 20 seconds to reach Earth, not a light-year.
Q2932
Forensic Statistics & Quality ControlFundamentals of Statistics
Statistics deals with:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both (A) and (B))
Statistics is the science of collecting, analyzing, and interpreting data, encompassing both quantitative numerical data and qualitative categorical/attribute data.
Q2933
Questioned Documents & HandwritingFundamental Principles of Handwriting
Which statement is true for handwriting identification?\nI. A writer cannot exceed his/her writing skill and ability unless he/she makes serious efforts and practice.\nII. Handwriting does not exclusively depend upon the physical movement of hand or writing instrument used.\nIII. A writer can put 2 or more signatures exactly similar.\nIV. A person can adopt difference styles of writing at different times as to change one's normal style of writing.\nOptions:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both I and II)
Statements I and II are foundational axioms of handwriting science: (I) a writer cannot write better than their neuromuscular ability without extensive training; (II) handwriting is 'brain writing' controlled by the central nervous system and not solely the physical hand. Statement III is false because no two natural signatures are ever identical.
Q2934
Forensic Law & BNSSMandatory Forensic Investigation under Sec 176(3) BNSS
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion (A): Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023, forensic examination is mandatory in all offences punishable with imprisonment of seven years or more. Reason (R): The law recognises that scientific evidence strengthens the fact-finding process and requires expert forensic involvement. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A)
Section 176(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 mandates that forensic experts must visit crime scenes and collect evidence for all offences punishable with 7 years or more of imprisonment. Reason (R) provides the exact legislative rationale for this statutory mandate.
Q2935
Forensic Quality Assurance & ISO 17025Measurement Uncertainty & Method Validation
A forensic report states drug concentration without uncertainty or validation data. This is problematic because:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Quantitative results depend on method performance)
Under international forensic accreditation standards (ISO/IEC 17025), any quantitative measurement is scientifically incomplete without an estimate of measurement uncertainty and proof of method validation (accuracy, precision, linearity), because the numerical value's reliability is strictly dependent on the method's performance.
Q2936
General EnglishPronouns - Subject Pronouns
Which pronoun correctly refers to "local stakeholders" in blank (2)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (they)
The plural third-person personal pronoun 'they' correctly serves as the subject pronoun referring back to the plural noun phrase 'local stakeholders' in the clause '...as they have firsthand insights...'.
Q2937
General EnglishPunctuation Rules - Parenthetical Adverbs
Select the sentence that correctly punctuates the given sentence. I therefore request you to grant me leave.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I, therefore, request you to grant me leave.)
When a conjunctive adverb like 'therefore' is used parenthetically within a clause, it must be enclosed by commas on both sides: 'I, therefore, request you to grant me leave.'
Q2938
General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Awards and Honors
Who has received the 2025 World Leader for Peace and Security award?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sri Sri Ravi Shankar)
Global humanitarian leader and Art of Living founder Gurudev Sri Sri Ravi Shankar was conferred the prestigious 2025 World Leader for Peace and Security Award by the Boston Global Forum (BGF) and the AI World Society for his tireless efforts toward global conflict resolution and non-violence.
Q2939
Environment and Biodiversity of J&KFauna of J&K and IUCN Status
Which of the following species found in Jammu & Kashmir are critically endangered? I. Hangul II. Snow Leopard III. Himalayan Tahr IV. Markhor Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I and IV only)
The Hangul (Kashmir Stag, Cervus hanglu hanglu) is officially categorized as Critically Endangered (CR) by the IUCN Red List. In J&K examination question banks, Hangul and Markhor (historically evaluated as highly threatened/endangered ungulates of the high Himalayas) are grouped together in Option C (I and IV only). Snow Leopard is Vulnerable (VU).
Q2940
Geography of Jammu & KashmirMountain Passes of J&K - Sadhna Pass
The Sadhna Pass is in which district of Jammu & Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Kupwara)
Sadhna Pass (historically known as Nastachun Pass, elevation 3,130 meters / 10,269 ft) is a prominent high-altitude mountain pass in Kupwara district of Jammu and Kashmir, connecting Karnah tehsil (Tangdhar valley) with the main Kashmir valley.
Q2941
Computer Science & ITOperating Systems Fundamentals
Operating System: A) Links a program with subordinate interferences B) Enables the programmer to draw a flowchart C) Provides a layer, user friendly interface D) All of these
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Provides a layer, user friendly interface)
An Operating System (OS) is system software that acts as an intermediary layer between computer hardware and the user/applications, providing a user-friendly interface (GUI/CLI) and managing hardware resources.
Q2942
Computer Science & ITCPU Architecture - Control Unit
Which component of the CPU is responsible for controlling the sequence of operations and managing the flow of data?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Control Unit)
The Control Unit (CU) is the component of the Central Processing Unit (CPU) that directs and coordinates all operations inside the processor, fetching, decoding, and executing instructions and managing the flow of data between the ALU, registers, and memory.
Q2943
Computer FundamentalsUnits of Memory Measurement
The smallest unit of data in a computer is called:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bit)
A Bit (binary digit) is the basic and smallest unit of data in computing and digital communications, representing a logical state with one of two possible values: 0 or 1. Eight bits equal one byte.
Q2944
Computer FundamentalsNumber Systems - Decimal to Binary Conversion
Basic MathematicsProfit and Loss - Successive Discounts
A shopkeeper marks the price of an item 40% above the cost price. He then gives two successive discounts of 10% and 5% on the marked price. If the shopkeeper makes a profit of Rs.492.5, find the cost price of the item.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rs.2,500)
Let CP = C. MP = 1.40C. After successive discounts of 10% and 5%, SP = 1.40C × 0.90 × 0.95 = 1.197C. Profit = SP - CP = 1.197C - C = 0.197C = Rs. 492.5. Therefore, C = 492.5 / 0.197 = Rs. 2,500.
Q2946
Basic MathematicsPercentage - Discount and Tax
A gadget was sold for Rs. 522 after a 10% discount and then a 10% sales tax was applied on the discounted price. What was the original price of the gadget? (Round to nearest ten)
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rs. 527)
Let original price = P. Discounted price = 0.90P. Final price with 10% sales tax = 0.90P × 1.10 = 0.99P. Given 0.99P = 522, so P = 522 / 0.99 ≈ Rs. 527.27. Rounded to the nearest option, it is Rs. 527.
Q2947
Basic MathematicsDiscount and Sales Tax Evaluation
A storekeeper gives 20% discount on an item and then adds 12% sales tax on the discounted price. If the original price of the item is Rs 500, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The final price the customer pays is Rs. 450.)
Original price = Rs. 500. Discounted price = 500 - (0.20 × 500) = Rs. 400 (Statement A is correct). Sales tax = 12% of 400 = Rs. 48 (Statement B is correct). Final price = 400 + 48 = Rs. 448. Since Rs. 448 is less than Rs. 500, Statement D is correct. Statement C claims final price is Rs. 450, which is INCORRECT.
Q2948
General Knowledge & Current AffairsGovernment Schemes & Policies
Which of the following statements about the Research Development and Innovation (RDI) Fund, approved by the Union Cabinet, is/are correct? I. The RDI Scheme incentivises private sector participation in R&D, with a total outlay of Rs. 10 Lakh crore over six years. II. It aims to finance transformative projects at higher levels of Technology Readiness Level (TRL) of 4 and above. Which of the statement are correct? A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I Nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option B (II only)
- Statement I is incorrect: The corpus established under the ANRF / RDI framework for private sector R&D financing is Rs. 1 Lakh crore (one lakh crore, not 10 lakh crore) provided as long-term low/zero-interest loans. - Statement II is correct: The scheme specifically targets financing technology commercialization and demonstration at higher Technology Readiness Levels (TRL 4 and above). Hence, II only is correct.
Q2949
General Knowledge & Current AffairsScience & Technology (Space Missions)
Consider the following statements about the mission POEM conducted by ISRO: I. PS4-Orbital Experiment Module, designated as POEM, refers to the usage of the spent fourth stage of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV). II. PSLV-C60 SpaDeX mission is the first POEM Mission of the upcoming series. Which of the above statements are correct? A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I Nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I only)
- Statement I is correct: POEM (PSLV Orbital Experimental Module) utilizes the spent fourth stage (PS4) of ISRO's PSLV as a stabilized in-orbit scientific platform after primary satellite separation. - Statement II is incorrect: The PSLV-C60 SpaDeX mission carried POEM-4, which is the fourth POEM mission in the series (POEM-1 was on PSLV-C53 in 2022, POEM-2 on PSLV-C55 in 2023, and POEM-3 on PSLV-C58 in 2024). Hence, I only is correct.
Q2950
General Knowledge & Current AffairsSports Awards of India
Match the following Sports Awards with their criteria: Sports Awards: i. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award ii. Arjuna Award Lifetime iii. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy iv. Arjuna Award
Awarded For: a. Presented for good performance and contributing towards the promotion of sports. b. Given out for consistent good performance over a period of four years. c. Awarded for outstanding performances in sports spanning over a period of four years. d. Given to the university for top performance in inter-university tournaments over the last one year.
Choose the correct match: A) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b B) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b D) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b)
- Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award: Awarded for the most spectacular and outstanding performance over a period of 4 years (i -> c). - Arjuna Award Lifetime / Dhyan Chand Lifetime: Given for contributing towards sports promotion and lifetime achievement (ii -> a). - Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA) Trophy: Conferred upon the overall top-performing university in inter-university tournaments (iii -> d). - Arjuna Award: Given for consistent good performance over 4 years with qualities of leadership, sportsmanship and discipline (iv -> b). Matching: i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b.
Q2951
General Knowledge & Current AffairsSports & J&K UT Affairs
Jammu and Kashmir clinched their maiden Ranji Trophy title by defeating which opposition team? A) Maharashtra B) Saurashtra C) Haryana D) Karnataka
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Karnataka)
In the 2025-26 domestic season, Jammu and Kashmir created history by winning their maiden Ranji Trophy title, defeating 8-time champions Karnataka in the final held at Hubballi, Karnataka, securing victory on the basis of a massive 291-run first-innings lead.
Q2952
General Knowledge & Current AffairsBhakti Movement & Culture
Given below are two statements: I. Bhakti saint Shankaradeva addressed "Vaishnav Dharma" as "Sanatan Dharma". II. Shankaradeva's main composition is Kirtanghosh. Identify the correct statements: A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I Nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both I and II)
- Statement I is correct: Srimanta Sankaradeva (1449–1568), the great medieval polymath and Vaishnavite saint from Assam who propounded Ekasarana Dharma, aligned his teachings with and referred to the core of Vaishnava faith as Sanatan Dharma. - Statement II is correct: His magnum opus and most celebrated devotional literary work is the 'Kirtan Ghosha' (a collection of poetical songs for congregational prayers). Therefore, Both I and II are correct.
Q2953
General Knowledge & Current AffairsAncient Indian Literature
Consider the following pairs: I. Silappadikaram - Ilango Adigal II. Manimegalai - Sittalai Sattanar III. Buddhacharita - Ashvaghosha Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? A) I only B) I and II only C) II and III only D) I, II and III
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II and III)
- Pair I: Silappadikaram (the Jewelled Anklet), the legendary Tamil epic, was authored by the Jain monk poet Ilango Adigal. - Pair II: Manimegalai, the sequel to Silappadikaram and Buddhist epic, was written by Sittalai Sattanar. - Pair III: Buddhacharita, the epic Sanskrit poem depicting the life of Gautama Buddha, was composed by Ashvaghosha (court philosopher of Kanishka). All three pairs are correctly matched.
Q2954
General Knowledge & Current AffairsModern Indian History (Freedom Struggle)
Arrange the following events in correct chronological order: I. Poorna Swaraj Resolution II. Launch of Civil Disobedience Movement III. Poona Pact IV. Second Round Table Conference Choose the correct option: A) I - II - III - IV B) I - II - IV - III C) II - I - IV - III D) II - I - III - IV
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I - II - IV - III)
Chronology of events: I. Poorna Swaraj Resolution: Adopted at the Lahore session of the Indian National Congress in December 1929. II. Launch of Civil Disobedience Movement: Commenced with the Dandi March on March 12, 1930 (breaking of salt law on April 6, 1930). IV. Second Round Table Conference: Held in London between September 7 and December 1, 1931 (attended by Mahatma Gandhi). III. Poona Pact: Signed between Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and representatives of caste Hindus on September 24, 1932. Chronological order: I - II - IV - III.
Q2955
General Knowledge & Current AffairsEarly Medieval Indian History
The 'Tripartite struggle' for control over the city of Kannauj was fought between which dynasties? A) Palas, Senas, Pushyabhutis B) Palas, Pratiharas, Chalukyas C) Palas, Pratiharas, Reddis D) Palas, Pratiharas, Rashtrakutas
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Palas, Pratiharas, Rashtrakutas)
The Tripartite Struggle for control over Kannauj (the imperial symbol of Northern India in the 8th to 10th centuries CE) was fought for two centuries between three major powers: the Gurjara-Pratiharas of western India, the Palas of eastern India (Bengal/Bihar), and the Rashtrakutas of the Deccan.
Q2956
General Knowledge & Current AffairsJ&K Historical Monuments & Heritage
Consider the following pairs: I. Achabal Garden - Anantnag District II. Avantipur Ruins - Poonch District III. Parihaspore archaeological sites - Pulwama District Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? A) I only B) I and II only C) II and III only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I only)
- Pair I is correct: Achabal Garden (a famed Mughal Garden built by Empress Nur Jahan around an ancient natural spring) is in Anantnag District. - Pair II is incorrect: Avantipur ruins (Avantiswami and Avantishvara temples built by King Avantivarman in the 9th century) are in Pulwama District, not Poonch. - Pair III is incorrect: Parihaspore (the ancient capital built by King Lalitaditya Muktapida of the Karkota dynasty) is located in Baramulla District, not Pulwama. Therefore, only Pair I is correctly matched.
Q2957
General Knowledge & Current AffairsHistory of Jammu & Kashmir
Identify the correct sequential order of the following dynasties of Kashmir: I. Lohara Dynasty II. Utpala Dynasty III. Chak Dynasty IV. Shah Mir Dynasty Choose the correct option: A) I - III - IV - II B) I - II - III - IV C) II - I - III - IV D) II - I - IV - III
💡Correct Answer: Option D (II - I - IV - III)
Chronological order of rulers in Kashmir history: II. Utpala Dynasty: Founded by Avantivarman in c. 855 CE (ruled until 1003 CE). I. Lohara Dynasty: Founded by Sangramaraja in 1003 CE (ruled until 1320 CE). IV. Shah Mir Dynasty: Founded by Shah Mir (Sultan Shams-ud-Din) in 1339 CE (ruled until 1561 CE). III. Chak Dynasty: Founded by Ghazi Chak in 1561 CE (ruled until Mughal conquest in 1586 CE). Hence, correct sequential order is II - I - IV - III.
Q2958
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Polity (High Courts of India)
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Description / Capitals: I. Judicial Capital of Arunachal Pradesh - Itanagar II. Judicial Capital of Goa - Panaji III. Judicial Capital of Madhya Pradesh - Jabalpur Choose the correct match: A) I only B) I and II only C) III only D) I and III only
💡Correct Answer: Option C (III only)
- Madhya Pradesh has its administrative capital at Bhopal, while its Principal Seat of High Court (Judicial Capital) is at Jabalpur. Hence, Pair III is correctly matched. - Arunachal Pradesh does not have an independent High Court; it falls under the jurisdiction of the Gauhati High Court (Principal Seat in Guwahati, Assam; Itanagar is merely a permanent bench). - Goa does not have its own High Court; it falls under the jurisdiction of the Bombay High Court (Principal Seat in Mumbai, Maharashtra; Panaji is a bench). Therefore, only III represents a true state Judicial Capital seat distinct from the state capital.
Q2959
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Polity (Reorganisation of States)
Chronologically arrange the following states based on their elevation to the status of a state under the Constitution of India: I. Himachal Pradesh II. Nagaland III. Arunachal Pradesh IV. Statehood to Sikkim Choose the correct option: A) I - II - IV - III B) II - I - III - IV C) II - I - IV - III D) I - II - III - IV
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II - I - IV - III)
Chronology of Indian statehood elevation: II. Nagaland: Attained full statehood on 1 December 1963 (16th State of India). I. Himachal Pradesh: Elevated to statehood from UT on 25 January 1971 (18th State). IV. Sikkim: Integrated and made the 22nd state of India via the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act on 16 May 1975. III. Arunachal Pradesh: Conferred statehood on 20 February 1987 (24th State). Chronological order: II - I - IV - III.
Q2960
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Geography (Soils of India)
Consider the following statements about Laterite soils: I. These are formed in areas with high temperatures and low rainfall. II. These soils contain excess iron oxide, giving them a reddish colour. III. Lime and silica get leached due to atmospheric conditions. Which of the above statements are INCORRECT? A) I and II only B) I only C) II only D) None of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I only)
- Statement I is INCORRECT: Laterite soils develop in tropical regions with high temperature AND alternate periods of HEAVY / high rainfall (not low rainfall). - Statement II is correct: Laterite soils are rich in iron oxide and aluminium, giving them a characteristic reddish brick color. - Statement III is correct: Under heavy rains and tropical leaching, silica and lime are intensely leached away into deeper subsoil. Since the question asks which statement is INCORRECT, the answer is I only.
Q2961
General Knowledge & Current AffairsPhysical Geography (Glaciers of India)
Match the following Glaciers with their States/UT: Glaciers: i. Kangto Glacier ii. Rimo Glacier iii. Zemu Glacier iv. Bara Shigri
States/UT: a. Ladakh b. Arunachal Pradesh c. Sikkim d. Himachal Pradesh
Choose the correct match: A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d B) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a C) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d D) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d)
- Kangto Glacier is located near Mount Kangto in Arunachal Pradesh (i -> b). - Rimo Glacier is located in the Karakoram range in Ladakh, feeding the Shyok River (ii -> a). - Zemu Glacier is located at the base of Kangchenjunga in Sikkim, source of the Teesta River (iii -> c). - Bara Shigri is the second longest glacier in the Himalayas, located in Lahaul-Spiti, Himachal Pradesh, feeding the Chandra river (iv -> d). Matching: i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d.
Q2962
General Knowledge & Current AffairsGeography of Jammu & Kashmir (Mountain Passes)
If a group of tourists moves from Jammu to Srinagar by road, then most likely they will cross which mountain pass? A) Fotu La B) Bara Lacha La C) Rohtang Pass D) Banihal Pass
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Banihal Pass)
The Jammu-Srinagar National Highway (NH 44) traverses the Pir Panjal Range via the Banihal Pass (traversed via the Jawahar Tunnel and the newer Banihal-Qazigund Road Tunnel/Navyug Tunnel), connecting the Jammu plains to the Kashmir Valley. (Fotu La connects Kargil to Leh; Bara Lacha La connects Himachal to Ladakh; Rohtang Pass connects Kullu to Lahaul).
Q2963
General Knowledge & Current AffairsGeography of Jammu & Kashmir
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? I. Bagh-e-Bahu - Tawi River II. Nagin Lake - Jhelum River III. Sasher Kangri - Nubra River Choose the correct match: A) I only B) I and III only C) I and II only D) I, II and III
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I and II only)
- Pair I: Bagh-e-Bahu is laid around the historic Bahu Fort, located right on the banks of the Tawi River in Jammu (Correct). - Pair II: Nagin Lake is hydro-geographically situated in Srinagar within the drainage basin of the Jhelum River system, connected via water channels (Tsunt Kol/Amir Khan Nallah) that feed into the Jhelum (Matched in local geography syllabi). - Pair III: Saser Kangri is situated in the Saser Muztagh of the Karakoram Range, overlooking the Shyok River basin. Hence, Pairs I and II are accepted as correctly matched.
Q2964
General Knowledge & Current AffairsNational Parks of Jammu & Kashmir
Which of the following National Parks encompasses the catchment area of Kiber, Nanth, and Kiyar Nallas, all of which drain south-west into the Marwah river, locally called Mariv Sudir? A) Dachigam National Park B) Kishtwar National Park C) Kazinag National Park D) Salim Ali National Park
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kishtwar National Park)
Kishtwar National Park, located in the Kishtwar district of Jammu and Kashmir, encompasses the high-altitude catchments of Kiyar, Nanth, and Kibber Nallas. All three major streams drain south-west into the Marwah River (locally known as the Mariv Sudir), a principal tributary of the Chenab River.
Q2965
General Knowledge & Current AffairsRivers and Drainage System of J&K
Which tributary of the river Jhelum originates from Lolab Valley in north south direction and joins the waters of the outfall channel of river Jhelum about 6.5 Km. downstream of Sopore town? A) Doodhganga B) Pohru C) Lidder D) Rambiara
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pohru)
The Pohru River originates from the high mountains surrounding the Lolab Valley in Kupwara district. It flows generally north-to-south through Kupwara and Handwara, receiving the Kahmil, Mawer, and Lolab streams, and discharges into the Jhelum outfall channel near Doabgah, approximately 6.5 km downstream of Sopore town.
Q2966
General EnglishPronouns
Identify the correct type of pronoun in the following sentence: "I enjoyed myself during the holidays." Here, 'myself' is a _ pronoun. A) demonstrative B) possessive C) distributive D) reflexive
💡Correct Answer: Option D (reflexive)
When the action of the verb reflects back upon the subject itself (the subject and object refer to the same person), the pronoun ending in -self/-selves is a Reflexive pronoun.
Q2967
Basic MathematicsSimple & Compound Interest
If the difference between the compound interest and simple interest at 17% on a sum of money for 2 years (compounded annually) is Rs. 433.50, then the sum (in Rs.) is: A) 12,000 B) 15,000 C) 25,000 D) 20,000
💡Correct Answer: Option B (15,000)
The formula for the difference between CI and SI for 2 years is: CI - SI = P × (r / 100)² 433.50 = P × (17 / 100)² = P × (289 / 10000) P = (433.50 × 10000) / 289 = 4335000 / 289 = Rs. 15,000.
Q2968
Basic MathematicsSimple & Compound Interest
The compound interest (compounding annually) on a certain sum at the rate of 8 percent per annum for two years is Rs. 6656. What would be the simple interest on the same sum at the same rate of interest for two years? A) Rs. 6224 B) Rs. 6400 C) Rs. 5600 D) Rs. 6336
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rs. 6400)
Effective CI rate for 2 years at 8% p.a. = 8 + 8 + (8 × 8)/100 = 16.64%. Effective SI rate for 2 years at 8% p.a. = 2 × 8% = 16%. SI = (CI / 16.64) × 16 = (6656 / 16.64) × 16 = 400 × 16 = Rs. 6400.
Q2969
General Knowledge & Current AffairsNuclear Energy Policy & Legislation
Consider the following statements regarding India's nuclear energy policy and the SHANTI Act 2025: (I) The SHANTI Act, 2025, allows private sector participation in nuclear power generation. (II) India has set a target of achieving 100 GW of installed nuclear power capacity by the year 2030. (III) The SHANTI Act, 2025 retains unlimited supplier liability for nuclear damage to ensure enhanced accountability. Which of the above statements are correct? A) I only B) I and II only C) I and III only D) I, II and III
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I only)
- Statement I is correct: Legislative reforms and the SHANTI Act facilitate private sector and domestic vendor investment in small modular reactors (SMRs) and nuclear energy generation. - Statement II is incorrect: India's 100 GW nuclear capacity target is set for 2047 (the Viksit Bharat centenary year), not 2030. - Statement III is incorrect: The reform clarifies and caps supplier liability to facilitate international and private vendor participation. Hence, I only is correct.
Q2970
General Knowledge & Current AffairsDefence & Joint Military Exercises
Match List-I (Military Exercises) with List-II (Partner Country): Military Exercises: i. Yudh Abhyaas ii. Zapad iii. Mitra-Shakti iv. Bright Star
Partner Country: a. USA b. Egypt c. Sri Lanka d. Russia
Choose the correct match: A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d B) i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b C) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c D) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b)
Matching joint military exercises: - Yudh Abhyas: Bilateral army exercise between India and the USA (i -> a). - Zapad: Multilateral theatre-level military exercise hosted by Russia (ii -> d). - Mitra Shakti: Joint army exercise between India and Sri Lanka (iii -> c). - Bright Star: Multinational joint exercise hosted by Egypt at Cairo West Air Base (iv -> b). Match: i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b.
Q2971
General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Organizations (United Nations)
Consider the following statements about the United Nations Security Council: I. As per Article 23, the Security Council shall consist of fifteen Members of the United Nations. II. The non-permanent members of the Security Council shall be elected for a term of five years. III. A retiring non-permanent member shall not be eligible for immediate re-election. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) I only B) I and II only C) I and III only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I and III only)
- Statement I is correct: Under Article 23(1) of the UN Charter, the Security Council consists of 15 members (5 permanent members and 10 non-permanent members). - Statement II is incorrect: Non-permanent members are elected by the General Assembly for a term of TWO years, not five years. - Statement III is correct: Article 23(2) explicitly provides that 'a retiring member shall not be eligible for immediate re-election'. Therefore, statements I and III only are correct.
Q2972
General Knowledge & Current AffairsScience & Technology (Space Missions)
Consider the following statements about India's Space mission achievements: I. The Axiom Mission 4 has enabled human spaceflight for India, Poland, and Hungary, with each nation's first government-sponsored flight in more than 40 years. II. SpaDeX Mission made India the first country in the world to successfully carry out a satellite docking process in Low Earth Orbit (LEO). Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I Nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I only)
- Statement I is correct: Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4) to the ISS includes ISRO astronaut Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla representing India alongside astronauts from Poland and Hungary, marking the first government-backed spaceflights for all three nations in over 40 years. - Statement II is incorrect: SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment) made India the fourth nation (after USA, Russia, and China) to demonstrate autonomous space docking technology, not the first in the world. Hence, I only is correct.
Q2973
General Knowledge & Current AffairsNuclear Energy & Science
In India's three-stage nuclear program, the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) is considered important because: I. it is designed to use uranium-238 to breed plutonium in a sodium-cooled fast reactor design. II. Thorium-232, though not fissile, is proposed to be used as a blanket material. III. By transmutation, Thorium will create fissile Uranium-233, which will be used as fuel in the third stage. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) I and II only B) I and III only C) II and III only D) I, II and III
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II and III)
All three statements accurately define Stage II (Fast Breeder Reactor) of Homi Bhabha's three-stage nuclear power plan: - The PFBR at Kalpakkam uses mixed plutonium-uranium oxide (MOX) fuel in a liquid sodium coolant to breed more fissile plutonium from U-238. - Thorium-232 blankets are introduced into the reactor core. - Through neutron absorption, fertile Th-232 transmutes into fissile Uranium-233, laying the indispensable foundation for Stage III (Thorium reactors). Therefore, all three statements I, II, and III are correct.
Q2974
General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Scientific Projects (ITER)
ITER is considered important for India and the world because: I. it demonstrates sustainable, clean fusion energy for the future. II. It allows India to participate in cutting-edge nuclear fusion research. III. It provides immediate commercial electricity to reduce fossil fuel dependency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) I only B) I and II only C) I and III only D) I, II and III
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I and II only)
- Statements I and II are correct: ITER (located in Cadarache, France) is a 35-nation collaboration demonstrating the scientific and technological feasibility of magnetic confinement nuclear fusion power, in which India is an equal contributing member. - Statement III is incorrect: ITER is purely an experimental research facility designed to achieve net thermal power (Q ≥ 10), not a commercial power plant providing electricity to the public grid. Hence, I and II only are correct.
Q2975
General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Awards & Honours
Identify the correct statements about the Nobel Peace Prize, 2025: I. It was awarded to Maria Corina Machado of Venezuela. II. According to the Norwegian Nobel Committee, it can be transferred by the recipient to any other person. Which of the following statements is/are correct? A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Neither I nor II)
- Statement I is incorrect: While Venezuelan opposition leader Maria Corina Machado was awarded the Václav Havel Human Rights Prize in 2024 and nominated for the Nobel Peace Prize, she was not the recipient (Nihon Hidankyo was awarded the 2024 Nobel Peace Prize). - Statement II is incorrect: Under the statutes of the Nobel Foundation, Nobel Prizes are strictly personal distinctions and cannot be reassigned or transferred by recipients to any third party. Therefore, Neither I nor II is correct.
Q2976
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Economy & Foreign Trade
Consider the following statements: I. As per the Economic Survey 2025-26, India accounts for more than 5% of global merchandise exports. II. As per the Economic Survey 2025-26, India's service imports were greater than its exports. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Neither I nor II)
- Statement I is incorrect: India's share in global merchandise exports stands at approximately 1.8% to 2.2% (well below 5%). - Statement II is incorrect: India consistently runs a substantial trade surplus in services, meaning service exports are significantly higher than service imports. Therefore, Neither I nor II is correct.
Q2977
General Knowledge & Current AffairsEconomics (National Income & Development)
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): A rise in per capita GNP always reflects an improvement in living standards. Reason (R): Income levels are fundamental metrics of Economic development. Which of the statements is/are correct: A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A C) A is true, R is false D) A is false, R is true
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A is false, R is true)
- Assertion A is false: The word 'always' invalidates it. Per capita GNP is an aggregate average and does not account for income inequality, inflation, environmental degradation, or access to healthcare and education. A rise in per capita GNP concentrated among the wealthy does not improve living standards for the general populace. - Reason R is true: National income and per capita income are standard fundamental baseline metrics used in economic development analysis. Hence, A is false, R is true.
Q2978
General Knowledge & Current AffairsAgriculture & Government Schemes
Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses aims to make India self-sufficient in pulses by 2030–31. Statement II: The mission seeks to reduce import dependence, boost domestic production of pulses and sustainably improve farmers' incomes. Which of the statements is/are correct? A) Statement I and Statement II are correct B) Statement I and Statement II are incorrect C) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect D) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Statement I and Statement II are correct)
Both statements are correct: - Statement I is correct: Approved under the Union Budget and implemented from FY 2025-26 to FY 2030-31 with a target of 350 lakh tonnes of domestic pulses production by 2030-31. - Statement II is correct: The central mission objective is eliminating dependency on foreign pulses imports (Tur, Urad, Masoor) through guaranteed MSP procurement, seed hubs, and boosting farmer prosperity.
Q2979
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Geography (Major Ports of India)
Match the following Ports with their associated special features: Ports: i. Kamarajar Port ii. JNPT Port iii. Paradip Port iv. Vizhinjam Port
Special Features: a. First corporatised major port b. First deep-water transhipment hub c. India's first landlord-model port d. Top cargo-handling major port
Choose the correct option: A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d B) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b C) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b D) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b)
- Kamarajar Port (Ennore, Tamil Nadu): India's first corporatised major port registered as a public company (i -> a). - JNPT (Jawaharlal Nehru Port, Navi Mumbai): India's first 100% landlord major port where all berths are operated on PPP (ii -> c). - Paradip Port (Odisha): Surpassed Deendayal Port to become India's top cargo handling major port in FY24 (iii -> d). - Vizhinjam Port (Kerala): India's first dedicated international deep-water transhipment container port (iv -> b). Match: i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b.
Q2980
General Knowledge & Current AffairsModern Indian History (Anglo-Sikh Wars)
Arrange the following battles of the First Anglo-Sikh War in chronological order: I. Battle of Mudki II. Battle of Ferozeshah III. Battle of Aliwal IV. Battle of Sobraon Choose the correct option: A) I - II - III - IV B) I - III - II - IV C) II - I - III - IV D) II - III - I - IV
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I - II - III - IV)
Chronological order of the First Anglo-Sikh War (1845–1846): 1. Battle of Mudki: 18 December 1845 (I) 2. Battle of Ferozeshah: 21–22 December 1845 (II) 3. Battle of Aliwal: 28 January 1846 (III) 4. Battle of Sobraon: 10 February 1846 (decisive British victory ending the war) (IV). Correct sequence: I - II - III - IV.
Q2981
General Knowledge & Current AffairsCulture & Heritage of Jammu & Kashmir
Which of the following statements about Rauf is/are correct? I. Rauf is a traditional folk dance performed on typical folk songs in the Kashmir dialect. II. It is typically a solo performance by a woman only. III. Dancers wear traditional Kashmiri attire, including pherans (long, flowing gowns) and ornate jewelry. Choose the correct option: A) I only B) I and II only C) I and III only D) I, II and III
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I and III only)
- Statement I is correct: Rauf is Kashmir's most celebrated traditional celebratory dance, performed during Eid and spring festivals (Navreh). - Statement II is incorrect: Rauf is never a solo performance; it is performed by two facing rows of women who interlink arms and glide back and forth in rhythmic harmony. - Statement III is correct: Women wear traditional embroidered Kashmiri pherans, kasaba headgear, and ornate silver jewelry. Hence, statements I and III are correct.
Q2982
General Knowledge & Current AffairsGeography & Wetlands of J&K (Ramsar Sites)
How many of the following pairs are correct regarding Wetlands and their major associated Districts in J&K UT? - Hokersar wetland : Srinagar district - Mansar lake : Samba district - Wular lake : Bandipora district - Hygam wetland : Baramulla district Choose the correct option: A) One pair only B) Two pairs only C) Three pairs only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
All 4 pairs are correctly matched: - Hokersar Wetland: Ramsar site located in Srinagar/Budgam. - Mansar Lake: Ramsar site in Samba District, Jammu division. - Wular Lake: Asia's largest freshwater lake and Ramsar site in Bandipora District. - Hygam Wetland: Designated Ramsar site in Baramulla District. Hence, All of the above are correct.
Q2983
General Knowledge & Current AffairsGovernment Initiatives in J&K (ODOP)
Match the following Districts of J&K with their designated Products under One District One Product (ODOP): Districts: i. Baramulla ii. Udhampur iii. Samba iv. Ramban
Products under ODOP: a. Pickles b. Apples c. Honey d. Mushroom products
Choose the correct option: A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d B) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a C) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c D) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c)
Under the One District One Product (ODOP) initiative in Jammu & Kashmir: - Baramulla: Apple (i -> b) - Udhampur: Pickles / Kud Kaladi (ii -> a) - Samba: Mushroom / Mushroom products (iii -> d) - Ramban: Honey / Sulai Honey (iv -> c). Matching: i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c.
Q2984
General Knowledge & Current AffairsGovernment Schemes of J&K UT (Mission Youth)
Identify the correct statements about the MUMKIN scheme operational in J&K UT: I. "Mumkin - Livelihood Generation Scheme" is an initiative specifically aimed at empowering its young population. II. It provides up to Rs. 80,000 subsidy or 10% of the on-road price, whichever is lower, for unemployed youth to purchase small commercial vehicles. III. The age of the applicant should be between 18 to 35 years. Choose the correct option: A) I only B) I and II only C) I and III only D) I, II and III
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II and III)
All three statements are correct regarding the Mumkin scheme under Mission Youth J&K: - Statement I is correct: Mumkin is a flagship livelihood programme designed for unemployed youth in J&K. - Statement II is correct: The government provides 10% (up to Rs. 80,000) of on-road cost, and the vehicle manufacturer matches with another 10% upfront discount. - Statement III is correct: Eligibility criteria requires the candidate to be an unemployed domicile of J&K aged between 18 and 35 years. Therefore, I, II and III are all correct.
Q2985
General Knowledge & Current AffairsBiodiversity & Wildlife of Jammu & Kashmir
Which of the following species in the J&K region have Endangered / Threatened status as per the IUCN Red Book? I. Hangul II. Snow Leopard III. Ibex IV. Himalayan Tahr V. Markhor VI. Cheer Pheasant Choose the correct option: A) I, III, IV and V only B) II, IV, V and VI only C) II, III, IV and VI only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I, III, IV and V only)
In regional J&K biodiversity surveys and departmental questions, prominent ungulates and native mountain species such as Hangul (Kashmir Stag - Critically Endangered), Markhor (Capra falconeri - Near Threatened/Endangered), Himalayan Tahr, and Siberian Ibex are categorized together as key conservation species in the valley's sanctuaries. Option A is the standard answer.
Q2986
General Knowledge & Current AffairsJ&K Reorganisation Act, 2019
Which of the following was NOT a provision under the J&K Reorganization Act, 2019? A) The J&K High Court became the common high court for both UTs. B) Judges appointed to the High Court are selected by the Union Government only. C) The UT of J&K will have its own legislative assembly of 107-114 members. D) The act provides that the administration of Jammu and Kashmir will be as per Article 239A of the Indian Constitution.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Judges appointed to the High Court are selected by the Union Government only.)
Option B was NOT a provision of the Act. High Court judges in India are appointed by the President of India under Article 217 of the Constitution following the Supreme Court collegium process in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Lieutenant Governor, not selected 'by the Union Government only'. All other options (A, C, D) are genuine sections of the 2019 Act.
Q2987
General Knowledge & Current AffairsRivers and Drainage System of J&K
Which of the following rivers are tributaries of the river Jhelum? I. Niki Tawi II. Veshaw river III. Brengi river IV. Jajhar V. Rambiara river Choose the correct option: A) I, II and III only B) II, III and IV only C) II, III and V only D) II, III, IV and V only
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II, III and V only)
- Veshaw River (originating from Kousarnag Lake), Brengi River (originating from Sinthan), and Rambiara River (originating from Pir Panjal near Pir Ki Gali) are major tributaries that feed the Jhelum River in Kashmir. - Niki Tawi and Jajhar stream (Jhajjar Kotli) flow in the Jammu region and are part of the Tawi/Chenab river basin. Therefore, tributaries of Jhelum are II, III and V only.
Q2988
General EnglishPunctuation
Choose the option that correctly punctuates the sentence: The proposal which was submitted last week however requires further revision A) The proposal, which was submitted last week however, requires further revision. B) The proposal which was submitted last week, however, requires further revision. C) The proposal, which was submitted last week, however requires further revision. D) The proposal, which was submitted last week, however, requires further revision.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The proposal, which was submitted last week, however, requires further revision.)
The non-defining relative clause "which was submitted last week" must be set off by commas: ", which was submitted last week,". Additionally, the parenthetical conjunctive adverb "however" must also be enclosed by commas: ", however,". Thus, option D is punctuated correctly.
Q2989
General EnglishPronoun Agreement
Choose the sentence in which the pronoun usage is grammatically correct. A) Each of the participants must submit their assignment by Friday. B) Neither of the proposals achieved their intended objective. C) Every applicant should bring his or her identification for verification. D) The committee reached their decision after prolonged deliberation.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Every applicant should bring his or her identification for verification.)
In standard formal grammar, singular distributive antecedents like "Every applicant" require singular pronouns like "his or her". Options A, B, and D incorrectly match singular antecedents with plural pronouns in formal prescriptive usage.
Q2990
General EnglishPronoun Reference
Identify the sentence with a clear and unambiguous pronoun reference. A) When Sara met Lina, she was already upset. B) The students informed the teacher that they would submit the project late. C) Rahul told Amit that he had won the scholarship. D) After the report was revised, it was criticized by the editor.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The students informed the teacher that they would submit the project late.)
In option B, "they" is plural and can grammatically and logically refer only to "The students" (plural), as "teacher" is singular. In A and C, "she" and "he" have ambiguous antecedent references.
Q2991
General Awareness with special ref to J&KWorld Geography - Cities and Countries
Consider the following pairs: City — Respective Country I. Maracaibo — Ukraine II. Tabriz — Venezuela III. Nuuk — Greenland IV. Donetsk — Iran
How many of the pairs are correct? A) Only one pair B) Only two pairs C) Only three pairs D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only one pair)
Evaluating the pairs: - Maracaibo is a major city in Venezuela (not Ukraine). - Tabriz is an ancient historic city in Iran (not Venezuela). - Nuuk is the capital and largest city of Greenland (Correct). - Donetsk is an industrial city in eastern Ukraine (not Iran). Therefore, only one pair (III) is correct.
Q2992
General Awareness with special ref to J&KGovernment Schemes & Agriculture
What are the key components of the recently launched Digital Agriculture Mission in India? I. Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) for Agriculture, i.e. Agristack, Krishi Decision Support System, Comprehensive Soil Fertility, and Profile Maps. II. Digital General Crop Estimation Survey (DGCES). III. Support for the Mahalanobis National Crop Forecasting Centre (MNCFC).
Identify the correct statements: A) I and III only B) II and III only C) I and II only D) I, II and III only
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II and III only)
Approved by the Union Cabinet in September 2024 with a budget outlay of ₹2,817 crore, the Digital Agriculture Mission incorporates: 1) AgriStack (farmer registry, geo-referenced village maps, crop sowing registry), 2) Krishi Decision Support System (DSS) using remote sensing and soil maps, 3) Digital General Crop Estimation Survey (DGCES) for accurate yield estimations, and 4) institutional capacity building including the Mahalanobis National Crop Forecasting Centre (MNCFC). All three statements are correct.
Q2993
General Awareness with special ref to J&KNational Monuments & Statues
Match the following and choose the correct option: Statues: 1. Statue of Unity 2. Statue of Oneness 3. Statue of Equality
Personalities Associated: i. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel ii. Adi Shankaracharya iii. Sri Ramanuja Acharya
A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii B) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii C) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i D) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii)
Matching the iconic statues: - Statue of Unity (1) -> Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in Kevadia, Gujarat (i) - Statue of Oneness (2) -> 108-ft statue of Adi Shankaracharya at Omkareshwar, MP (ii) - Statue of Equality (3) -> 216-ft statue of Sri Ramanujacharya in Hyderabad, Telangana (iii) Therefore, 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii is the correct option.
Q2994
General Awareness with special ref to J&KUNESCO World Heritage Sites
Which of the following sites are included in the Tentative List of World Heritage Sites released by UNESCO? I. Khangchendzonga National Park II. Natural Heritage of Varkala III. Naga Hill Ophiolite IV. Natural Heritage of Tirumala Hills V. Meghalayan Age Caves VI. Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka
Choose the correct option: A) II, III, IV and VI only B) I, IV, V and VI only C) II, III, IV and V only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II, III, IV and V only)
Sites on UNESCO's Tentative List are those proposed for future World Heritage inscription: Natural Heritage of Varkala (II), Naga Hill Ophiolite (III), Natural Heritage of Tirumala Hills (IV), and Meghalayan Age Caves (V) are on India's Tentative List. In contrast, Khangchendzonga National Park (inscribed 2016 as a mixed WHS) and Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka (inscribed 2003 as a cultural WHS) are already fully designated UNESCO World Heritage Sites. Thus, only II, III, IV, and V are on the Tentative List.
Q2995
General Awareness with special ref to J&KIndian Freedom Struggle - Tribal Uprisings
Consider the following statements about the Tribal Freedom Fighters: I. Tilka Majhi mobilized the Pahadia tribe to which he belonged and raided the Company treasury. II. Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu from the Santhal community led the Santhal in the Hul rebellion. III. Malati Mem of the Tea-garden community strictly opposed Mahatma Gandhi's satyagraha movement.
Which of the above statements are correct? A) I and II only B) I and III only C) All of the above D) None of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I and II only)
Evaluating the statements: - Statement I is correct: Tilka Majhi organized tribal resistance against British East India Company oppression in 1784 and raided the Company treasury in Bhagalpur. - Statement II is correct: Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu led the historic Santhal Hul rebellion (1855–56) against the British and zamindars. - Statement III is incorrect: Malati Mem (Mangri Orang) was an inspiring female tea-garden worker who actively SUPPORTED and joined Mahatma Gandhi's Non-Cooperation and anti-opium movement in Assam, and was martyred in 1921. Thus, only I and II are correct.
Q2996
General Awareness with special ref to J&KModern Indian History - Freedom Movement
With reference to the Indian Freedom struggle, consider the following events: I. Poona Pact II. Lord Irwin's declaration III. Second Round Table Conference
Arrange them in the correct chronological order: A) I-II-III B) II-I-III C) I-III-II D) II-III-I
💡Correct Answer: Option D (II-III-I)
Chronology of the events: 1. Lord Irwin's Declaration (Deepavali Declaration on Dominion Status): October 31, 1929 2. Second Round Table Conference (attended by Mahatma Gandhi in London): September to December 1931 3. Poona Pact (agreement between Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi on depressed classes representation): September 24, 1932 Thus, the correct chronological sequence is II - III - I.
Q2997
General Awareness with special ref to J&KPhysical Geography of India
Match the following pairs: Hills — Related Regions 1. Nilgiri Hills 2. Anaimalai Hills 3. Mahadeo Hills 4. Vindhyan Range
Regions: i. Part of the Satpura Range ii. Parallel to the Narmada Valley iii. Junction of Eastern and Western Ghats iv. The Southern Part of the Western Ghats
Choose the correct match: A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv B) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i C) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-i D) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii)
Matching hill ranges with geographic descriptions: - Nilgiri Hills (1) -> Junction of Eastern and Western Ghats (iii) - Anaimalai Hills (2) -> The southern part of the Western Ghats (home to Anamudi peak) (iv) - Mahadeo Hills (3) -> Part of the Satpura Range in central India (i) - Vindhyan Range (4) -> Runs parallel north of the Narmada Valley (ii) Hence, 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii.
Q2998
General Awareness with special ref to J&KIndian Geography - Channels & Straits
The Ten-degree channel separates which two regions? A) Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands B) Minicoy and Lakshadweep C) Nicobar and Indonesia D) Andaman and Myanmar
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands)
The Ten Degree Channel is a maritime channel in the Bay of Bengal that separates the Andaman Islands (specifically Little Andaman) to the north from the Nicobar Islands (specifically Car Nicobar) to the south along the 10° N parallel.
Q2999
General Awareness with special ref to J&KDemography and Indian Economy
Consider the following statements regarding India's demographic trends: I. Demographic dividend refers to the economic growth potential arising from a declining dependency ratio, due to a rising working-age population. II. Demographic winter refers to the economic and social challenges arising from an increasing working-age population and decreasing old-age dependency. III. India is expected to enjoy its demographic dividend till the mid-21st century, and its realization depends on education, skill development, health, and employment generation.
Which of the above statements are correct? A) I and III only B) II and III only C) I and II only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I and III only)
Evaluating demographic trends: - Statement I is correct: Demographic dividend is the economic boost resulting from a shift in population age structure when the working-age population (15-64) exceeds the dependent population. - Statement II is incorrect: 'Demographic winter' describes sub-replacement birth rates, declining population, and a rapidly aging society with INCREASING old-age dependency. - Statement III is correct: India's median age remains under 29 and its dividend window extends up to ~2047–2055, dependent on skill and health investments. Therefore, statements I and III only are correct.
Q3000
General Awareness with special ref to J&KEcology - Wetlands and National Parks
Consider the following pairs: Wetlands — States I. Kolleru Lake — Tamil Nadu II. Tawa Reservoir — Madhya Pradesh III. Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary — Andhra Pradesh IV. Sultanpur National Park — Haryana
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? A) One pair only B) Two pairs only C) Three pairs only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Two pairs only)
Evaluating wetland locations: - Kolleru Lake is in Andhra Pradesh (between Krishna and Godavari deltas), not Tamil Nadu. - Tawa Reservoir is in Hoshangabad district, Madhya Pradesh (Correct). - Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary (Ramsar site) is located in Tiruppur district, Tamil Nadu, not Andhra Pradesh. - Sultanpur National Park is in Gurugram district, Haryana (Correct). Thus, exactly two pairs (II and IV) are correctly matched.
Q3001
General Awareness with special ref to J&KClimatology - Köppen Classification
Which Köppen climate type is described by the following characteristics? I. Average monthly temperature rarely falls below 18°C. II. Annual rainfall exceeds 2000 mm, distributed evenly throughout the year. III. Humid conditions support dense evergreen forests.
A) Aw - Tropical savanna B) Af - Tropical rainforest C) Am - Tropical monsoon D) BWh - Hot desert
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Af - Tropical rainforest)
In the Köppen climate classification, 'Af' denotes a Tropical Rainforest climate ('A' = megathermal/tropical with monthly temperatures above 18°C, 'f' = fully humid without a dry season). Constant precipitation throughout the year exceeding 2000 mm sustains tropical evergreen rainforest biomes.
Q3002
General Awareness with special ref to J&KTransport and National Waterways
Which of the following statements about India's National Waterways are correct? I. National Waterway 2 (NW-2) is the Brahmaputra River stretch from Dhubri to Sadiya in Assam, covering about 891 km. II. National Waterway 3 (NW-3) is the West Coast Canal, which connects Kollam and Kottapuram in Kerala. III. National Waterway 97 (NW-97) runs on the Zuari River, connecting Sanvordem Bridge to Marmugao Port. IV. National Waterways 111 (NW-111) is operational in the Sunderbans Region.
Choose the correct option: A) I only B) I and II only C) I, II and III only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I and II only)
Evaluating India's National Waterways: - Statement I is correct: NW-2 spans the Brahmaputra River between Sadiya and Dhubri (891 km) in Assam. - Statement II is correct: NW-3 is the West Coast Canal (Kottapuram to Kollam) along with Champakara and Udyogmandal canals in Kerala (205 km). - Statements III and IV are swapped: NW-97 is the Sunderbans Waterway in West Bengal (172 km), while NW-111 is the Zuari River waterway in Goa (50 km). Thus, only statements I and II are correct.
Q3003
General Awareness with special ref to J&KHistory of Jammu and Kashmir - Dynasties
According to Kalhana's Rajtarangini, identify the correct sequential order of the following dynasties in the Jammu and Kashmir region: I. Gonanda dynasty II. Utpala dynasty III. Karkota Dynasty IV. Lohara dynasty
Choose the correct option: A) I-II-III-IV B) I-II-IV-III C) I-IV-III-II D) I-III-II-IV
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I-III-II-IV)
According to Kalhana's Rajatarangini, the historical dynasties of Kashmir followed this chronological order: 1. Gonanda Dynasty (ancient proto-historic and early classical era) 2. Karkota Dynasty (founded by Durlabhavardhana in 625 CE, famous for Lalitaditya Muktapida) 3. Utpala Dynasty (founded by Avantivarman in 855 CE) 4. Lohara Dynasty (founded by Sangramaraja in 1003 CE, Queen Didda's lineage) Therefore, the correct sequential order is I - III - II - IV.
Q3004
General Awareness with special ref to J&KMonuments and Heritage of J&K
Consider the following statements about Bahu Fort in Jammu: I. The ancient Bahu Fort in Jammu is believed to have been originally built by Raja Bahu Lochan about 3,000 years ago. II. It was refurbished by the Dogra rulers in the 19th century. III. Just beneath the fort is the terraced Bagh-e-Bahu Garden laid in the style of Mughal gardens.
Which of the above statements are correct? A) I only B) I and II only C) II and III only D) I, II and III
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II and III)
All three statements are historically accurate: Bahu Fort was originally constructed by Raja Bahu Lochan (brother of Raja Jambu Lochan), later restored and rebuilt by Maharaja Gulab Singh and Dogra rulers in the 19th century, houses the revered Bawe Wali Mata temple, and overlooks the sprawling terraced Bagh-e-Bahu garden beside the Tawi River.
Q3005
General Awareness with special ref to J&KCulture and Folk Theatre of J&K
Which Kashmiri art form is described by the following lines? I. It is a traditional folk theatre style combination of play and dance. II. It differs from other forms as it features a single performer who performs, dances, and plays music. III. It was mentioned by Kashmiri Sufi Saint, Sheikh Noor-ud-din Noorani (RA) in his verses and travel book of English writer, Sir Walter Lawrence.
A) Rouf B) Chakri C) Bhand Pather D) Hafiza Dance
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bhand Pather)
Bhand Pather is Kashmir's renowned centuries-old traditional folk theatre that intricately weaves drama, satirical comedy, dance, and music (using dhol and surnai). It has historically depicted socio-political satire and religious philosophy, documented by Sir Walter Lawrence in 'The Valley of Kashmir' and praised in classical Kashmiri Sufi poetry.
Q3006
General Awareness with special ref to J&KMughal Gardens of Kashmir
Which of the following statements about Mughal Gardens in Kashmir are correct? I. Nishat Bagh laid out in the 17th century, is located directly along the eastern bank of the Dal Lake. II. The two most important structures within the Shalimar Bagh are the Pink Pavilion, in the Diwan-i-Aam zone of the garden, and the Black Pavilion, located in the Diwan-i-Khas. III. Achabal Bagh was also known as Sahebabad during the Mughal period, in memory of the Mughal Emperor Jahangir.
Choose the correct option: A) I, II and III B) I and II only C) I and III only D) II and III only
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I and II only)
Evaluating Mughal Gardens: - Statement I is correct: Nishat Bagh was designed by Asif Khan (Nur Jahan's brother) in 1633 on the eastern bank of Dal Lake. - Statement II is correct: Shalimar Bagh features the Diwan-i-Aam with its pinkish sandstone hall and the Diwan-i-Khas featuring the famed Black Marble Pavilion supported by fluted pillars. - Statement III is incorrect: Achabal was designed and developed by Empress Nur Jahan in 1620 and was historically named 'Begamabad' (not Sahebabad). Thus, statements I and II only are correct.
Q3007
General Awareness with special ref to J&KGeography of Jammu and Kashmir
Which of the following statements about the geographic characteristics of the Jammu region are correct? I. Jammu city is situated on a series of uneven ridges of low heights in the Shivalik Hills. II. It is surrounded by the Ladakh range to the north, east, and southeast, while the Trikuta Range borders it in the northwest.
Choose the correct option: A) I only B) II only C) Both of the above D) Neither of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I only)
Statement I is correct: Jammu city (the city of temples) lies on a series of uneven ridges of the sub-Himalayan Shivalik Range on the banks of the Tawi River. Statement II is completely false because the Ladakh Range is a trans-Himalayan range lying far to the north across the Great Himalayas in the UT of Ladakh, nowhere near Jammu city.
Q3008
General Awareness with special ref to J&KNational Parks and Geography of J&K
Dachigam National Park is located in which mountain range? A) Ladakh Range B) Zanskar Range C) Karakoram Range D) Zabarwan Range
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Zabarwan Range)
Dachigam National Park is situated in the Zabarwan Range of the western Himalayas, approximately 22 kilometers from Srinagar. It is the last viable natural habitat of the critically endangered Hangul (Cervus hanglu hanglu).
Q3009
General Awareness with special ref to J&KWildlife Conservation in J&K
A Census planned in J & K in early 2026 is aimed at conservation of which species? A) Markhor B) Hangul C) Snow Leopard D) Himalayan Brown Bear
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Hangul)
The Department of Wildlife Protection J&K conducts the biennial Hangul Census in Dachigam National Park and adjoining protected corridors to assess the population, fawn survival rate, and sex ratio of the critically endangered Kashmir Stag (Hangul).
Q3010
General Awareness with special ref to J&KRivers and Drainage System of J&K
Which of the following rivers are tributaries of the river Chenab? I. Ujh river II. Tawi river III. Poonch river IV. Neeru river
Choose the correct option: A) I and II only B) II and IV only C) I, II and III only D) II, III and IV only
💡Correct Answer: Option B (II and IV only)
Evaluating tributaries: - Tawi River (II) is a major left-bank tributary of the Chenab. - Neeru River (IV) originates in Bhaderwah and drains into the Chenab near Pul Doda. - Ujh River (I) is a tributary of the Ravi River. - Poonch River (III) is a tributary of the Jhelum River (draining into Mangla reservoir). Thus, II and IV only are tributaries of the Chenab.
Q3011
Basic Concepts of ComputersMS Excel - Statistical Functions
In Microsoft Excel, student scores are listed in column B (Math) and column C (Science). Which formula correctly counts the number of students who scored ≥ 80 in Math and ≥ 90 in Science? (≥ means greater than or equal to) A) =COUNTIFS(B2:B10,">=80",C2:C10,">=90") B) =SUMPRODUCT((B2:B10>=80),(C2:C10>=90)) C) =SUM(IF((B2:B10>=80),(C2:C10>=90),1,0)) D) None of these
💡Correct Answer: Option A (=COUNTIFS(B2:B10,">=80",C2:C10,">=90"))
The COUNTIFS function counts the number of cells across multiple ranges that simultaneously satisfy multiple criteria: `=COUNTIFS(criteria_range1, criteria1, criteria_range2, criteria2)`. Thus, `=COUNTIFS(B2:B10,">=80",C2:C10,">=90")` is the correct and standard Excel formula.
Q3012
General Awareness & ScienceDefense and Technology
Tejas Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Mark-1 has been developed by which organization? A) Defense Research and Development Organization B) Bharat Dynamics Limited C) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited D) Air India
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hindustan Aeronautics Limited)
The Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas was designed by the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) under DRDO and developed and manufactured by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) for the Indian Air Force.
Q3013
General Awareness & ScienceCurrent Affairs and Polity
Identify the correct statements about the SIR (Special Intensive Revision) exercise, being conducted in some Indian states. I. It is conducted to update and verify the electoral rolls. II. It helps remove duplicate and ineligible voters from the voter list. III. It is being supervised by the Delimitation Commission of India, in exercise of its powers under Article-324 of the Indian Constitution. Choose the correct option: A) I only B) I and II only C) II and III only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I and II only)
Statements I and II are correct as Special Intensive Revision (SIR) is carried out to verify rolls and purge duplicate/ineligible names. Statement III is incorrect because voter roll preparation and revision under Article 324 is exclusively supervised by the Election Commission of India (ECI), not the Delimitation Commission.
Q3014
General Awareness & ScienceCurrent Affairs and Union Budget
What is/are NOT the features of the BioPharma SHAKTI mission proposed in the Union Budget 2026-27? I. The initiative aims to strengthen India's biopharmaceutical manufacturing sector with an outlay of about Rs. 1 crore over five years. II. It envisages strengthening India's ecosystem for the production of biologics and biosimilars and capturing 5% of the global biopharmaceutical market share. Choose the correct option: A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I only)
Statement I is NOT a feature because the financial outlay for the BioPharma SHAKTI mission is ₹10,000 crore over five years (not ₹1 crore). Statement II is an accurate feature of the mission, which aims to capture a 5% global market share in biologics and biosimilars. Hence, only Statement I is NOT a feature.
Q3015
General Awareness & ScienceSports Current Affairs
India won the Asia Cup Hockey 2025 by defeating which opponent team in the finals? A) Pakistan B) Japan C) China D) South-Korea
💡Correct Answer: Option C (China)
India clinched the Asian continental championship by defeating China 1-0 in a closely contested final.
Q3016
General Awareness & ScienceSports Current Affairs
Grandmaster Arjun Erigaisi won which medal/certificate at the FIDE World Blitz Chess Championship, 2025? A) Bronze medal B) Silver medal C) Gold medal D) Participating Certificate
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bronze medal)
Indian Grandmaster Arjun Erigaisi secured the Bronze medal at the FIDE World Blitz Chess Championship 2025 in Doha after topping the Swiss stage standings.
Q3017
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Geography - Rivers
Which of the following options of left-bank tributaries of the river Ganga are correctly arranged from West to East? A) Ramganga- Gomti- Ghaghar- Gandak B) Ramganga- Ghagar- Gomti- Gandak C) Ramganga- Gomti- Gandak- Ghaghar D) Ramganga- Ghaghar- Gandak- Gomti
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ramganga- Gomti- Ghaghar- Gandak)
The left-bank tributaries of River Ganga arranged sequentially from West to East are: Ramganga -> Gomti -> Ghaghara -> Gandak -> Kosi -> Mahananda. Therefore, Option A is the correct arrangement.
Q3018
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Geography - Climate
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): The Western Ghats receive heavy rainfall. Reason (R): The Western Ghats lie on the windward side of the south-west monsoon. Which of the above statements are correct? A) Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A B) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A C) A is true, but R is false D) A is false but R is true
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A)
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and R correctly explains A. The Western Ghats run parallel to the western coast and obstruct the moisture-bearing Arabian Sea branch of the South-West monsoon winds on their windward slopes, resulting in heavy orographic precipitation.
Q3019
General Awareness & ScienceEnvironment and Biodiversity
Match the following: National Parks: 1. Mouling National Park 2. Dibru-Saikhowa National Park 3. Mollem National Park 4. Kanger Ghati National Park States: i. Arunachal Pradesh ii. Assam iii. Goa iv. Chhattisgarh Choose the correct match: A) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-ii B) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv C) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i D) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv)
Correct matches: 1. Mouling National Park is in Arunachal Pradesh (i); 2. Dibru-Saikhowa National Park is in Assam (ii); 3. Mollem National Park is in Goa (iii); 4. Kanger Ghati National Park is in Bastar district, Chhattisgarh (iv). Thus, 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.
Q3020
General Awareness & ScienceForests and Natural Vegetation
Consider the following statements about Tropical Evergreen forests. I. They are found in areas with rainfall above 200 cm. II. They shed their leaves during the dry season. III. Mahogany, Ebony and Rosewood are all examples of Tropical evergreen forests. Which of the above statements are correct? A) I, II and III B) I and II only C) II and III only D) I and III only
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I and III only)
Statements I and III are correct. Tropical evergreen forests thrive in regions with annual rainfall exceeding 200 cm and warm temperatures. Commercial species include ebony, mahogany, and rosewood. Statement II is incorrect because tropical evergreen trees do not shed leaves simultaneously in a distinct dry season; it is tropical deciduous forests that shed leaves during dry periods.
Q3021
General Awareness & ScienceIndian History - Bhakti Movement
During the Bhakti movement in India, Chaitanya Mahaprabhu was known for which of the following? A) Vishnu devotion in Karnataka B) Shiva devotion in Tamil Nadu C) Krishna Bhakti in Maharashtra and Gujarat D) Sankirtan movement and Krishna bhakti in Bengal
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sankirtan movement and Krishna bhakti in Bengal)
Chaitanya Mahaprabhu (1486–1534) was an ascetic saint in Bengal who popularized Gaudiya Vaishnavism and the Sankirtan movement (congregational singing of Krishna's name with dance and musical instruments like mridanga and kartal).
Q3022
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Culture and Music
With reference to Indian Music, which of the following statements are correct? I. The Carnatic School of music mainly belongs to South India whereas Hindustani classical music is associated with North India. II. Dhrupad and Khayal are genres associated with the Carnatic school of music. III. Bihu songs are sung in Assam during harvest festivals. Choose the correct option: A) I and II only B) III only C) II and III only D) I and III only
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I and III only)
Statements I and III are correct. Carnatic music flourished in southern India while Hindustani classical developed in northern India. Bihu songs are seasonal folk songs of Assam sung during Rongali and other Bihu festivals. Statement II is incorrect because Dhrupad and Khayal are classical vocal genres of Hindustani music, not Carnatic music.
Q3023
General Awareness & ScienceAncient Indian Literature
With reference to Indian texts, which of the following statements are INCORRECT? I. The Natyashastra, written by Bharatamuni, deals with dance, music and drama. II. The text 'Devichandraguptam', written by Vishakhadatta, is a political drama about the rise of ruler Chandragupt Maurya. III. The Manusmriti is a Buddhist text about Sangha rules and regulations. Choose the correct option: A) I and II only B) I and III only C) II and III only D) III only
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II and III only)
Statements II and III are incorrect. Statement II is incorrect because 'Devichandraguptam' deals with Gupta ruler Chandragupta II (it is Vishakhadatta's 'Mudrarakshasa' that deals with Chandragupta Maurya). Statement III is incorrect because Manusmriti is an ancient Hindu legal treatise (Dharmashastra), whereas Buddhist monastic Sangha rules are in the Vinaya Pitaka. Statement I is true.
Q3024
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Architecture and Temples
Which statements with reference to the Brihadeswara Temple in India are correct? I. It was built by the Chola king Rajaraja I. II. The temple is an example of Dravidian-style architecture. III. The temple is located in the city of Hampi. Choose the correct option: A) I and III only B) II and III only C) I and II only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I and II only)
Statements I and II are correct. The Brihadisvara Temple was commissioned by Chola Emperor Rajaraja I (completed in 1010 CE) and represents the zenith of Dravidian temple architecture. Statement III is incorrect because it is situated in Thanjavur (Tanjore), Tamil Nadu, not in Hampi (Karnataka).
Q3025
General Awareness & ScienceModern Indian History - Governor Generals
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Governor Generals: I. Lord Wellesley II. Lord William Bentinck III. Lord Charles Metcalfe IV. Lord Ripon Acts/Policies/Titles: Subsidiary Alliance Abolition of Sati Act, 1829 Liberator of the Press Father of Local Self-Government Choose the correct option: A) I and II only B) I, II and IV only C) II, III and IV only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
All pairs are correctly matched: I. Lord Wellesley introduced the Subsidiary Alliance policy (1798); II. Lord William Bentinck abolished Sati via Regulation XVII in 1829; III. Lord Charles Metcalfe removed restrictions on the press via the Press Act of 1835 ('Liberator of the Press'); IV. Lord Ripon issued the Local Self-Government resolution of 1882 ('Father of Local Self-Government').
Q3026
General Awareness & ScienceMedieval Indian History
Who founded the Vijaynagar Empire in the 14th Century? A) Bahman Shah B) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq C) Krishnadevaraya D) Harihara and Bukka
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Harihara and Bukka)
The Vijayanagara Empire was founded in 1336 CE on the southern banks of the Tungabhadra River by two brothers, Harihara I and Bukka Raya I of the Sangama dynasty, under the spiritual guidance of Saint Vidyaranya.
Q3027
General Awareness & ScienceSocio-Religious Reform Movements
Match the following organization with their prominent founders. Organisations: 1. Arya Mahila Samaj 2. Bharat Stree Mahamandal 3. Tatvabodhini Samaj 4. Brahmo Samaj of India Founders: i. Sarla Devi Chaudharani ii. Pandita Ramabai iii. Keshub Chandra Sen iv. Debendranath Tagore Choose the correct match: A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-iii B) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii C) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv D) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii)
Correct matches: 1. Arya Mahila Samaj was established in Pune by Pandita Ramabai (1882) (ii); 2. Bharat Stree Mahamandal was established in Allahabad by Sarla Devi Chaudharani (1910) (i); 3. Tattvabodhini Sabha was founded in Calcutta by Debendranath Tagore (1839) (iv); 4. Brahmo Samaj of India was established by Keshub Chandra Sen (1866) (iii). Hence, 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii.
Q3028
General Awareness & ScienceSocio-Religious Reform Movements
Which of the following statements about the Arya Samaj is/are INCORRECT? I. It was founded by Swami Sahajanand Saraswati in 1875. II. It strictly rejected the authority of the Vedas. Choose the correct option: A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both I and II)
Both statements are incorrect. Arya Samaj was founded in Bombay in 1875 by Swami Dayanand Saraswati (not Sahajanand Saraswati, who was a peasant leader). Furthermore, Arya Samaj regarded the Vedas as infallible divine truth and raised the slogan 'Go Back to the Vedas' (it did not reject the Vedas). Hence, Both I and II are incorrect.
Q3029
General Awareness & ScienceBiology - Classification of Living Organisms
Match the following organisms with their respective kingdom. Organisms/Parts: 1. Amoeba 2. Hyphae 3. Cyanobacteria Kingdoms: i. Protista ii. Fungi iii. Monera Choose the correct match: A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii B) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i C) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii D) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii)
1. Amoeba is a unicellular eukaryote belonging to Kingdom Protista (i); 2. Hyphae are the branching filamentous structures of fungi belonging to Kingdom Fungi (ii); 3. Cyanobacteria (blue-green algae) are photosynthetic prokaryotes belonging to Kingdom Monera (iii). Thus, 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii.
Q3030
General Awareness & ScienceHuman Physiology - Digestive System
Which enzyme in saliva helps in the digestion of starch? A) Pepsin B) Amylase C) Trypsin D) Lipase
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Amylase)
Saliva contains the enzyme salivary amylase (also known as ptyalin), which breaks down complex dietary starches into simpler sugars such as maltose. Pepsin and trypsin digest proteins, while lipase digests fats.
Q3031
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry - Elements and Non-metals
Which of the following is a liquid non-metal at room temperature? A) Mercury B) Phosphorus C) Chlorine D) Bromine
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Bromine)
Bromine (Br, atomic number 35) is the only non-metallic chemical element that exists as a reddish-brown liquid at standard room temperature and pressure. (Mercury is also liquid at room temperature, but it is a metal).
Q3032
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry - Physical and Chemical Changes
Which of the following are examples of physical changes? I. Melting of ice II. Cooking Food III. Burning of paper IV. Rusting of iron Choose the correct option: A) I only B) I and II only C) I, II and III only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I only)
Melting of ice (I) is a physical change because it is a reversible change of state without altering the chemical composition of water. Cooking food (II), burning paper (III), and rusting of iron (IV) are all chemical changes because they involve chemical reactions forming entirely new substances with altered properties.
Q3033
General Awareness & SciencePhysics - Laws of Motion
Which law explains that a moving body continues in motion unless acted upon by a force? A) Newton's First Law B) Newton's Second Law C) Newton's Third Law D) Archimedes Principle
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Newton's First Law)
Newton's First Law of Motion (the Law of Inertia) states that every body continues in its state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line unless compelled to change that state by an applied external force.
Q3034
General Awareness & ScienceIndian States and Capitals
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? States/UTs: I. Meghalaya - Imphal II. Manipur - Shillong III. Lakshadweep - Kavaratti IV. Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu - Dadra and Nagar Haveli Choose the correct option: A) III and IV only B) I and II only C) III only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option C (III only)
Only pair III is correctly matched. The capital of Lakshadweep is Kavaratti. In contrast, Meghalaya's capital is Shillong (not Imphal); Manipur's capital is Imphal (not Shillong); and the capital of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu is Daman.
Q3035
General Awareness & ScienceGovernment Schemes and Governance
Which ministry is responsible for the implementation of the Swachh Bharat Mission - Grameen? A) Ministry of Rural Development B) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare C) Ministry of Jal Shakti D) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ministry of Jal Shakti)
Swachh Bharat Mission (Grameen) is implemented by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation under the Ministry of Jal Shakti. (The urban counterpart, SBM-Urban, is implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs).
Q3036
General Awareness & ScienceGovernment Schemes - Health
Which of the following are the components of Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission? I. Healthcare Professional Registry II. Health Facility Registry III. ABHA Number IV. UDISE+ Choose the correct option: A) I, II and III only B) II, III and IV only C) I and II only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I, II and III only)
The core building blocks of Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) are ABHA Number, Healthcare Professionals Registry (HPR), and Health Facility Registry (HFR). UDISE+ (Unified District Information System for Education Plus) is a database for school education under the Ministry of Education, not part of ABDM.
Q3037
General Awareness & ScienceGeography of Jammu and Kashmir
Jhelum River originates from? A) Dal Lake B) Wular Lake C) Verinag Spring D) Mapchachungo Glacier
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Verinag Spring)
The Jhelum River (known as Vitasta in ancient texts and Vyeth in Kashmiri) originates from a deep spring at Verinag, located at the foot of the Pir Panjal range in Anantnag district of Jammu & Kashmir.
Q3038
General Awareness & ScienceGeography of Jammu and Kashmir - Passes
Arrange the following passes from West to East. I. Haji pir pass II. Sach pass III. Banihal pass Choose the correct option: A) I - II - III B) III - II - I C) I - III - II D) II - III - I
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I - III - II)
From West to East: Haji Pir Pass (connecting Poonch and Uri in the western Pir Panjal, ~74.1°E) is furthest west; Banihal Pass (connecting Jammu with Kashmir Valley, ~75.2°E) lies in the central segment; and Sach Pass (connecting Chamba and Pangi Valley in Himachal Pradesh, ~76.2°E) lies furthest east. Hence, the order is I - III - II.
Q3039
General Awareness & ScienceGeography of Jammu and Kashmir - Mountains
Which of the following are the peaks of the Pir Panjal Range at its eastern end? I. Deo Tibba II. Indrasan Choose the correct option: A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both I and II)
Both Deo Tibba (6,001 m) and Indrasan (6,221 m) are the highest and most prominent peaks located at the eastern terminus of the Pir Panjal range in Himachal Pradesh.
Q3040
General Awareness & ScienceJammu and Kashmir Heritage and Culture
Which of the following statements about the Hazratbal Shrine in Srinagar, famous for housing a holy relic are correct? I. Sadiq Khan, a subedar during the reign of Shah Jahan, constructed Ishrat Mahal as a notable architectural structure in the Mughal period. II. The shrine's sanctity is primarily due to the Moi-e-Muqqadas, believed to be a hair of Prophet Muhammad. III. The current white marble structure was constructed between 1968 and 1979 under the supervision of the Jammu & Kashmir Muslim Auqaf Trust. Choose the correct option: A) I and II only B) II and III only C) I and III only D) I, II and III
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II and III)
All three statements are correct: I. Subedar Sadiq Khan built the pleasure palace 'Ishrat Mahal' in 1623; Shah Jahan ordered it converted into a prayer place. II. The shrine houses the sacred relic 'Moi-e-Muqqadas' (hair of Prophet Muhammad), brought to Kashmir in 1699–1700. III. The present distinctive white marble domed edifice was constructed between 1968 and 1979 under the supervision of the Muslim Auqaf Trust led by Sheikh Abdullah.
Q3041
General Awareness & ScienceJammu and Kashmir Arts and Crafts
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Papier-Mache is a famous handicraft technique of Kashmir. Reason (R): It involves decorating objects made from paper pulp with intricate hand-painted designs. Which of the above statements are correct? A) Both A and R are true, and R explains A. B) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A. C) A is true, but R is false D) A is false, but R is true
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both A and R are true, and R explains A.)
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and R correctly explains A. Kashmiri papier-mâché is a renowned handicraft introduced in the 14th century by Mir Sayyid Ali Hamadani and promoted by Sultan Zain-ul-Abidin. It consists of two stages: Sakhtsazi (making the base object from paper pulp) and Naqqashi (intricate hand-painting and lacquering).
Q3042
General Awareness & ScienceAncient History of Jammu and Kashmir
Who presided over the Fourth Buddhist Council, which was held during the rule of Kanishka in Kashmir? A) Mogali Putta Tissa B) Mahakasyapa C) Vasumitra D) Nagarjuna
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Vasumitra)
The Fourth Buddhist Council was convened at Kundalvana in Kashmir during the 1st/2nd century CE under the patronage of Kushan King Kanishka. It was presided over by Vasumitra, with Ashvaghosha serving as the vice-president.
Q3043
General Awareness & ScienceHistory of Jammu and Kashmir - Sufism
Which Sufi saint is believed to have visited Kashmir during the period of King Suhadeva (1301-1320) and was the first saint to introduce Islam in Kashmir? A) Hazrat Bulbul Shah B) Lal Ded C) Mir Syed Ali Hamadani D) Muinuddin Chisti
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Hazrat Bulbul Shah)
Hazrat Syed Sharaf-ud-Din Abdul Rahman, popularly known as Hazrat Bulbul Shah, was a Suhrawardi Sufi saint who visited Kashmir during the reign of King Suhadeva. He converted the ruler Rinchan (who took the name Sultan Sadruddin) to Islam, marking the advent of Islam in the Kashmir Valley.
Q3044
General Awareness & ScienceHistory of Jammu and Kashmir - Sikh Rule
The Battle of Shopian (1819) was fought between which two powers? A) Sikhs and Britishers B) Mughals and Afghans C) Sikhs and Mughals D) Sikhs and Afghans
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sikhs and Afghans)
The Battle of Shopian was fought in July 1819 between the Sikh Empire (led by Misr Diwan Chand and Hari Singh Nalwa under Maharaja Ranjit Singh) and the Durrani Afghan Governor Jabbar Khan. The Sikhs decisively defeated the Afghans, ending 67 years of oppressive Afghan rule in Kashmir.
Q3045
General Awareness & ScienceHistory of Jammu and Kashmir - Modern Period
Who was one of the founders of the political organisation 'All Jammu and Kashmir Muslim Conference' in 1932? A) Mohammad Ali Jinnah B) Liaqat Ali Khan C) Sheikh Abdullah D) Sikandar Hayat Khan
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sheikh Abdullah)
The All Jammu and Kashmir Muslim Conference was founded in October 1932 at Pathar Masjid in Srinagar by Sheikh Mohammad Abdullah along with Chaudhry Ghulam Abbas. Sheikh Abdullah was elected its first president. In 1939, it was secularized and renamed the National Conference.
Q3046
General Awareness & ScienceHistory of Jammu and Kashmir - Rajatarangini
According to the historical chronicle Rajatarangini, arrange the following rulers of Kashmir in chronological order. I. Durlabhvardhan II. Harsha of Kashmir III. Lalitaditya Muktapida IV. Avantivarman Choose the correct option: A) I - II - III - IV B) I - III - IV - II C) I - IV - III - II D) III - I - IV - II
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I - III - IV - II)
Chronological order according to Kalhana's Rajatarangini: I. Durlabhavardhana founded the Karkota dynasty (c. 625 CE); III. Lalitaditya Muktapida was the illustrious Karkota emperor (c. 724–760 CE); IV. Avantivarman founded the Utpala dynasty (c. 855–883 CE); II. Harsha of Kashmir ruled later during the First Lohara dynasty (1089–1101 CE). Hence, the order is I - III - IV - II.
Q3047
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Polity - Reorganisation of States
Arrange the following states in the chronological order of their formation. I. Uttarakhand II. Gujarat III. Haryana IV. Mizoram Choose the correct option: A) III - II - I - IV B) II - III - I - IV C) III - II - IV - I D) II - III - IV - I
💡Correct Answer: Option D (II - III - IV - I)
State formation chronology: Gujarat was formed on May 1, 1960 (from Bombay state); Haryana was formed on November 1, 1966 (from Punjab); Mizoram achieved full statehood on February 20, 1987; Uttarakhand (initially Uttaranchal) was formed on November 9, 2000 (from Uttar Pradesh). Hence, the order is II - III - IV - I.
Q3048
Basic MathematicsSimple and Compound Interest
The difference between simple and compound interests compounded annually on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% per annum is Re. 1. The sum (in Rs.) is A) 625 B) 635 C) 645 D) 655
💡Correct Answer: Option A (625)
For a period of 2 years, the difference between CI and SI is given by: D = P(r/100)². Here D = 1, r = 4. 1 = P(4/100)² = P(1/25)² = P / 625 => P = Rs. 625.
Q3049
Basic MathematicsCompound Interest
The compound interest on Rs. 30,000 at 7% per annum is Rs. 4347. The period (in years) is A) 2.5 B) 2 C) 5 D) 4
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2)
Amount A = P + CI = 30000 + 4347 = 34347. Using A = P(1 + r/100)ⁿ => 34347 / 30000 = (1 + 7/100)ⁿ => 11449 / 10000 = (107/100)ⁿ => (107/100)² = (107/100)ⁿ => n = 2 years.
Q3050
Basic MathematicsProfit, Loss and Discount
A shopkeeper marks his goods 30% above his cost price but allows a discount of 10% at the time of sale. His gain is A) 20% B) 2.5% C) 15% D) 17%
General Awareness & ScienceIndian National Movement - Books and Authors
Match the following books/texts with their respective authors Books/Texts: i. Voice of India ii. Economic History of India iii. Unhappy India iv. India Divided Authors: a. R.C. Dutt b. Dadabhai Naoroji c. Rajendra Prasad d. Lala Lajpat Rai Choose the correct match: A) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c B) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d C) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c D) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c)
Correct matches: i. 'Voice of India' journal was started by Dadabhai Naoroji in Bombay (b); ii. 'Economic History of India' was written by Romesh Chunder Dutt (a); iii. 'Unhappy India' was authored by Lala Lajpat Rai (d); iv. 'India Divided' was written by Dr. Rajendra Prasad (c). Thus, i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c.
Q3052
General Awareness & ScienceWorld Geography - Explorers and Discoveries
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Geographical Discoveries - Discoverers: I. Cape of Good Hope - Vasco De Gama II. Solar System - Kepler III. Australia - James Cook Choose the correct option: A) I only B) III only C) I and III only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option B (III only)
Only pair III is correctly matched: Captain James Cook charted and claimed the eastern coast of Australia in 1770. In contrast: Cape of Good Hope was discovered by Portuguese explorer Bartolomeu Dias in 1488 (Vasco da Gama was the first to sail past it to India in 1497); and the heliocentric model of the Solar System was discovered by Nicolaus Copernicus (Kepler discovered the laws of planetary motion).
Q3053
General Awareness & ScienceInternational Organizations - IMF and SDR
Consider the following information regarding the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and identify the INCORRECT statements. I. Every member country has an equal voting power regardless of its financial contribution. II. The IMF created Special Drawing Rights (SDR) as an international reserve asset in 1969. III. Private entities and individuals can also hold Special Drawing Rights (SDR). Choose the correct option: A) I only B) II only C) I and III only D) II and III only
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I and III only)
Statements I and III are INCORRECT. Statement I is false because voting power in the IMF is weighted based on each member's quota and capital contribution (not one country, one vote). Statement III is false because SDRs cannot be held by private parties or individuals; only the IMF, member countries, and designated official entities can hold them. Statement II is correct (SDR was created in 1969). Hence, I and III only are incorrect.
Q3054
General Awareness & ScienceScience and Technology - Space Missions
Which of the following Space Missions are successfully conducted by ISRO to develop and demonstrate the technology needed for the docking and undocking of two small spacecraft in a low-Earth circular orbit? A) Aditya L-1 B) Gaganyaan C) NISAR D) SPADEX
💡Correct Answer: Option D (SPADEX)
SPADEX (Space Docking Experiment) is an ISRO twin-spacecraft mission specifically designed to develop and demonstrate autonomous rendezvous, docking, and undocking technologies in low-Earth orbit, a critical prerequisite for human spaceflight, satellite servicing, and lunar sample return.
Q3055
General Awareness & ScienceCurrent Affairs - Padma Awards 2026
Which of the following personalities of Jammu and Kashmir was recently awarded Padma Shri (2026) for his/her social work? A) Omar Abdullah B) Ghulam Nabi Azad C) Rehman Rahi D) Brij Lal Bhat
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Brij Lal Bhat)
Brij Lal Bhat from Jammu and Kashmir was conferred the prestigious Padma Shri in 2026 in recognition of his distinguished humanitarian service and lifelong grassroots social work in the region.
Q3056
General Awareness & ScienceJ&K Reorganisation Act, 2019
Following the 2019 Reorganization, while the legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir can legislate on state matters, which of the following subjects are exclusively reserved for the Union government, unlike other states? A) Public order and Police B) Education and Health C) Local self-government D) Agriculture and Industries
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Public order and Police)
Under Section 32 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir can make laws with respect to any matters in the State List or Concurrent List except 'Public Order' (Entry 1 of the State List) and 'Police' (Entry 2 of the State List), which remain directly under the Union Government.
Q3057
General Awareness & ScienceGeography of Jammu and Kashmir - Rivers
Which of the following rivers are tributaries of the river Chenab? I. Ujh river II. Marusudar river III. Niru river IV. Ans river V. Tawi river Choose the correct option: A) I, II, IV and V only B) II, IV and V only C) II, III, IV and V only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II, III, IV and V only)
Marusudar (the largest tributary of Chenab in Kishtwar), Niru (joins at Pul Doda/Bhaderwah), Ans (joins in Reasi), and Tawi (major left-bank tributary) are all tributaries of the Chenab river. In contrast, Ujh river is a major tributary of the Ravi river. Therefore, II, III, IV, and V only.
Q3058
General Awareness & ScienceHistory of Jammu and Kashmir - Kashmir Sultanate
Match the following: Kashmir Sultans: i. Shams-ud-din Shah Mir ii. Sikandar Butshikan iii. Yusuf Shah Chak Major Contribution/Title: a. Establishment of the Sultanate in Kashmir in 1339 CE b. Construction of the magnificent Jama Masjid in Srinagar in 1394 AD c. The last Independent ruler of Kashmir Choose the correct match: A) i-a, ii-c, iii-b B) i-b, ii-c, iii-a C) i-a, ii-b, iii-c D) i-b, ii-a, iii-c
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-a, ii-b, iii-c)
Correct matches: i. Shams-ud-din Shah Mir founded the Shah Mir dynasty and established the Kashmir Sultanate in 1339 CE (a); ii. Sultan Sikandar Butshikan built the grand Jamia Masjid in Nowhatta, Srinagar in 1394–1400 AD (b); iii. Yusuf Shah Chak was the last independent monarch of Kashmir before annexation by the Mughal Empire under Akbar in 1586 (c). Hence, i-a, ii-b, iii-c.
Q3059
General Awareness & ScienceJ&K Infrastructure - USBRL Project
Identify the correct statements about the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project: I. Indian Railway's first cable-stayed bridge has been constructed over the Anji Khad in this project. II. The iconic 1315 m long Chenab bridge is the World's highest railway arch bridge, standing 359 m above the river bed. A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both I and II)
Both statements are correct: I. The Anji Khad Bridge is Indian Railways' first asymmetrical cable-stayed bridge, connecting tunnels T2 and T3. II. The Chenab Rail Bridge (1,315 m length, 359 m height above the Chenab riverbed) is the highest railway arch bridge in the world.
Q3060
Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Rights & Constitutional Amendments
The Right to elementary education was made a Fundamental right under Article-21A through which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (86th Amendment Act)
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A into the Constitution, providing free and compulsory education to all children aged 6 to 14 years as a Fundamental Right. It also amended Article 45 (DPSP) and added clause (k) to Article 51A (Fundamental Duties).
Q3061
Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Duties
Consider the following statements about the Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A) and select the INCORRECT statements- I. These Duties were part of the original Constitution adopted in 1950. II. These Duties can always be enforced through Writ jurisdiction in the court of law. III. Promoting Scientific temper and spirit of enquiry is one of the Fundamental Duties.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I and II only)
Statements I and II are incorrect: - Statement I is INCORRECT: Fundamental Duties were not part of the original 1950 Constitution; they were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee. - Statement II is INCORRECT: Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable; unlike Fundamental Rights, they cannot be enforced directly through writ jurisdiction in the courts. - Statement III is CORRECT: Article 51A(h) states that it is the duty of every citizen to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform. Hence, statements I and II are incorrect.
Q3062
General Knowledge & Current AffairsUnited Nations Organization
Consider the following statements about the United Nations and select the correct option. I. All UN Members are part of the General Assembly. II. States are admitted to membership by the decision of the General Assembly on the recommendations of the Security Council. III. Members have the voting rights proportional to their financial contributions only.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I and II only)
- Statement I is CORRECT: Under Article 9 of the UN Charter, the General Assembly consists of all member states of the United Nations (currently 193 members). - Statement II is CORRECT: Under Article 4(2) of the UN Charter, admission of any state to UN membership is decided by a two-thirds majority in the General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council. - Statement III is INCORRECT: In the UN General Assembly, each member state has exactly one vote regardless of its size, population, wealth, or financial contributions, adhering to the principle of sovereign equality (Article 18(1)). Hence, statements I and II only are correct.
Q3063
General Knowledge & Current AffairsSolar System & Astronomy
Which of the following statements about the solar system are correct? I. The planet Venus is also known as 'the Morning Star'. II. The asteroid belt, a region of rocky debris, lies between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. III. The Kuiper belt, a region of icy bodies, lies between the orbits of Planets Saturn and Uranus.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I and II only)
- Statement I is CORRECT: Venus is commonly called the 'Morning Star' and 'Evening Star' because of its high reflectivity and visibility near sunrise and sunset. - Statement II is CORRECT: The Main Asteroid Belt is located between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. - Statement III is INCORRECT: The Kuiper Belt is a circumstellar disc of icy bodies located beyond the orbit of Neptune (approx. 30 to 50 AU from the Sun), NOT between Saturn and Uranus. Therefore, statements I and II only are correct.
Q3064
General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Date Line & Longitudes
A ship is sailing from the International Date Line on Wednesday, from East to West (from America to Russia). What will happen to the day or date on the ship?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Date will change to Thursday (one day forward))
The International Date Line (IDL) lies around the 180° meridian. Moving from East to West across the IDL (from the Western Hemisphere / Americas into the Eastern Hemisphere / Asia / Russia) means advancing by 24 hours (gaining/forwarding a day). Therefore, a traveller crossing the line on Wednesday advances their calendar directly to Thursday (one day forward).
Q3065
General Knowledge & Current AffairsEarth Movements & Solstices
On December 22nd, Winter Solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, which of the following statements stands true?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The sun never sets at the Antarctic Circle)
On December 21/22 (Winter Solstice in Northern Hemisphere / Summer Solstice in Southern Hemisphere), the South Pole is tilted towards the Sun and the Sun is vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn (23.5° S). Consequently, regions south of the Antarctic Circle (66.5° S) experience continuous 24-hour daylight where the sun never sets. Meanwhile, the Arctic Circle experiences 24 hours of darkness.
Q3066
General Knowledge & Current AffairsHydroelectric Projects & Rivers of J&K
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Dams | Rivers I. Uri-II | Jhelum II. Salal dam | Chenab III. Pakal Dul dam | Marusudar IV. Dulhasti dam | Ravi
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I, II and III only)
- I. Uri-II Hydroelectric Project is located on the Jhelum River in Baramulla district. (Correct) - II. Salal Hydroelectric Project is located on the Chenab River in Reasi district. (Correct) - III. Pakal Dul Dam (1,000 MW) is located on the Marusudar River (the largest tributary of the Chenab) in Kishtwar district. (Correct) - IV. Dulhasti Hydroelectric Power Station (390 MW) is located on the Chenab River in Kishtwar district, NOT on the Ravi River. (Incorrect) Therefore, pairs I, II and III only are correctly matched.
Q3067
General Knowledge & Current AffairsInfrastructure & Tunnels of J&K
Identify the INCORRECT statements about tunnels in Jammu and Kashmir- I. Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel is a 9 km long, twin-tube, all-weather road tunnel connecting Udhampur and Ramban. II. Tunnel T 50, a 12.77 km engineering feat connecting Khari and Sumber in Jammu & Kashmir, stands as one of India's longest transportation tunnels constructed under the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Neither I nor II)
Both statements are factually correct, so neither is incorrect: - Statement I is CORRECT: Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel (formerly Chenani-Nashri Tunnel) on NH-44 is ~9.28 km long, twin-tube, all-weather tunnel connecting Chenani in Udhampur district with Nashri in Ramban district. - Statement II is CORRECT: Tunnel T-50 is 12.77 km long between Khari and Sumber railway stations in Ramban district on the USBRL section, making it India's longest transportation railway tunnel. Since both statements are true, Neither I nor II is incorrect.
Q3068
General Knowledge & Current AffairsUNESCO World Heritage Sites in India
The UNESCO World Heritage Sites 'Mountain Railways of India' recognises which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
The UNESCO World Heritage Site 'Mountain Railways of India' includes three historic railway lines: 1. Darjeeling Himalayan Railway (West Bengal) - inscribed in 1999 2. Nilgiri Mountain Railway (Tamil Nadu) - inscribed in 2005 3. Kalka-Shimla Railway (Himachal Pradesh) - inscribed in 2008 Hence, all of the above are recognized as UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
Q3069
Basic MathematicsAverages & Compound Ratios
The average age of 3 students is 21 years. If the ratio of their ages is x : y : z, find the value with which y is related. It is known that x : y = 1 : 2 and y : z = 1 : 3.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (14)
Total age of 3 students = 3 × 21 = 63 years. Given: x : y = 1 : 2 y : z = 1 : 3 = 2 : 6 Compound ratio x : y : z = 1 : 2 : 6. Total parts = 1 + 2 + 6 = 9. Value of 1 part = 63 / 9 = 7. Value related to y = 2 parts = 2 × 7 = 14.
Q3070
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
Intensive cultivation refers to:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Raising production by intensive use of existing land)
Intensive agriculture (or intensive farming) is an agricultural intensification system that aims to maximize agricultural output per unit area of existing cultivated land using high inputs of capital, fertilizers, pesticides, irrigation, and labor. Therefore, it refers to 'raising production by intensive use of existing land'.
Q3071
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
Serena Williams equalled the Open Era record of 22 Grand Slam singles titles previously held by:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Steffi Graf)
At the 2016 Wimbledon Championships, Serena Williams won her 22nd Grand Slam singles title, equalling the Open Era record held by Germany's Steffi Graf (who won 22 major singles titles between 1987 and 1999).
Q3072
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
Which of the following blood groups is considered the universal donor?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (O)
Blood group O (specifically O negative) lacks both A and B surface antigens on red blood cells, which prevents an immunological reaction when transfused into recipients of any ABO blood type. Hence, Blood Group O is the universal donor, whereas AB is the universal recipient.
Q3073
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
Amir Khusro was a famous:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Poet)
Ab'ul Hasan Yamin al-Din Khusrow, famously known as Amir Khusro (1253–1325), was an iconic Sufi musician, poet, and scholar during the Delhi Sultanate. Revered as the 'Parrot of India' (Tuti-e-Hind) and the 'Father of Qawwali', he composed poetry in Persian and Hindavi.
Q3074
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
The members of the All India Services serve:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Both the Union and State Governments)
Under Article 312 of the Constitution of India, the All India Services (IAS, IPS, and IFoS) are recruited and trained by the Union Government but allocated to state cadres. Officers serve both the Union and State Governments during their careers.
Q3075
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
The term of office of the Vice-President of India is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (5 years)
According to Article 67 of the Constitution of India, the Vice-President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
Q3076
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
Who was instrumental in the integration of the princely states into the Indian Union?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel)
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (the first Deputy Prime Minister and Minister of Home Affairs), assisted by V. P. Menon, successfully integrated more than 565 princely states into the Indian Union following independence in 1947, earning him the title 'Iron Man of India'.
Q3077
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
The west coast of India receives more rainfall than the east coast because:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The Western Ghats obstruct the winds causing rainfall)
The Western Ghats form an unbroken continuous mountain barrier perpendicular to the incoming moisture-laden South-West monsoon winds from the Arabian Sea. These winds are forced to rise, condense, and precipitate heavy orographic rainfall on the windward western coastal plain.
Q3078
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
The plateau that has both West and East flowing drainage systems is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Malwa)
The Malwa Plateau acts as a water divide between the Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal drainages. Rivers like the Chambal, Betwa, and Ken flow north-eastward to join the Yamuna and Ganga (draining into the Bay of Bengal), while the Mahi and nearby Narmada drainage basins head westwards into the Arabian Sea.
Q3079
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
In which of the following plants are nitrogen-fixing symbiotic bacteria found?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Peas)
Leguminous plants such as peas (Pisum sativum), beans, and lentils form symbiotic relationships with nitrogen-fixing bacteria (Rhizobium) within specialized root nodules, converting atmospheric nitrogen into bioavailable ammonium compounds.
Q3080
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
Lack of sunshine in children causes:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rickets)
Sunlight stimulates the synthesis of Vitamin D (cholecalciferol) in the skin. In children, prolonged lack of sunlight leads to Vitamin D deficiency, causing impaired calcium and phosphorus absorption, leading to Rickets (softening, deformation, and weakening of growing bones).
Q3081
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
Chloramines are used in municipal water treatment for:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Disinfection)
Chloramines (formed by reacting chlorine with ammonia) are widely used as secondary disinfectants in drinking water distribution systems because they produce lower levels of harmful disinfection byproducts (trihalomethanes) and provide longer-lasting residual protection against microbial contamination.
Q3082
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
Supercooling is cooling of a liquid:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Below freezing point)
Supercooling (undercooling) is the process of lowering the temperature of a liquid below its freezing point without it becoming a solid, which occurs in the absence of a crystal nucleus or seed around which crystallization can initiate.
Q3083
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
Alcohol is more volatile than water because its ______ is lower:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Boiling point)
Ethanol has weaker intermolecular hydrogen bonding than water, giving it a much lower boiling point (78.37∘C compared to water's 100∘C) and a higher vapor pressure at ambient temperatures, making it significantly more volatile.
Q3084
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
Protection of objects and access control in a computer operating system is commonly achieved through:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Passwords)
In operating systems and computer security, passwords represent the primary, universal mechanism of user authentication and access control to protect files, accounts, and system objects from unauthorized modification or viewing.
Q3085
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
Which of the following is NOT a Non-Banking Financial Institution (NBFI)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (BOI)
Bank of India (BOI) is a Scheduled Public Sector Commercial Bank accepting demand deposits from the general public. In contrast, EXIM Bank, SIDBI, and NABARD are All-India Specialized Development Financial Institutions (AIFIs / NBFIs) that do not conduct general commercial retail banking.
Q3086
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
Hardness of water is tested by:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Formation of lather with soap)
Hard water contains dissolved calcium and magnesium ions (Ca2+,Mg2+) that react with soap molecules to precipitate an insoluble curdy scum (calcium stearate) rather than forming a rich lather. Soft water forms lather immediately, providing the classic empirical test for water hardness.
Q3087
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
Who is the first Indian Gold Medal Winner in individual category in Olympic games?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Abhinav Bindra)
Abhinav Bindra created history by winning India's first-ever individual Olympic Gold medal in the Men's 10m Air Rifle shooting event at the 2008 Beijing Olympic Games.
(Note on SSC Preliminary Key: In the tentative answer key, Option 4 Leander Paes was erroneously indicated due to a question-drafting confusion between India's first individual Olympic medal in tennis [Paes won Bronze in 1996] vs. Olympic Gold medal. Abhinav Bindra is the undisputed, factually verified first Indian individual Olympic Gold Medalist).
Q3088
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
Which is the warmest layer of the atmosphere?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Thermosphere)
The Thermosphere (extending from roughly 85 km to 600 km above Earth) is the warmest atmospheric layer. In this layer, highly energetic solar X-rays and short-wave ultraviolet radiation are directly absorbed by residual nitrogen and oxygen atoms, causing temperatures to reach up to 1,500∘C to 2,000∘C or higher.
Q3089
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
Which of the following blood groups is known as the universal donor?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (O)
Blood group O red blood cells contain neither A nor B antigens on their surface, so they can be safely given to individuals of any ABO blood type without triggering an adverse hemolytic immune response. Thus, Group O is the universal donor.
Q3090
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
The melting waters of the Siachen Glacier are the main source of which river?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Nubra)
The snout of the Siachen Glacier in Ladakh gives rise to the Nubra River, which flows through the Nubra Valley before converging with the Shyok River (which subsequently drains into the Indus River).
Q3091
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
The Thomas Cup is associated with which sport?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Badminton)
The Thomas Cup (officially known as the World Men's Team Championships) is the premier international badminton competition contested by national men's teams of the Badminton World Federation (BWF).
Q3092
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
The famous historical novel 'Anandmath' was written by:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bankim Chandra Chatterjee)
'Anandmath' was written in 1882 by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee. Set during the Sannyasi Rebellion of late 18th-century Bengal, the novel is famed for introducing India's national song, 'Vande Mataram'.
Q3093
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
The term 'Hindu rate of growth' was coined by which economist?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Raj Krishna)
The term 'Hindu rate of growth' was coined in 1978 by Indian economist Prof. Raj Krishna to describe the sluggish annual GDP growth rate of around 3.5% achieved by India from the 1950s through the late 1970s prior to the economic liberalisation reforms.
Q3094
General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
The BRICS New Development Bank (NDB) was established primarily for:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Funding infrastructure projects in emerging economies for sustainable development)
The New Development Bank (NDB), established by the BRICS nations (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) in 2014 at the Fortaleza Summit, was founded to mobilize resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging market economies and developing countries.
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