The senator's apology was widely viewed as "too little, too late" after months of public outrage. The idiom "too little, too late" most precisely conveys that the apology: A) Was insincere and strategically calculated B) Failed to address the full extent of the controversy C) Was inadequate in both substance and timing to be effective D) Was overshadowed by more pressing political developments
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Was inadequate in both substance and timing to be effective)
The idiom "too little, too late" refers to an action, effort, or remedy that is insufficient in amount/substance and happens too late to have any beneficial or remedial effect.
Q2
General EnglishIdioms and Phrases
The committee's proposal, though ambitious, was dismissed as "a bridge too far" by senior officials. In this context, "a bridge too far" suggests that the proposal was: A) Poorly structured and lacking practical detail B) Conceptually sound but politically unpopular C) Excessively ambitious beyond what was feasible or acceptable D) Intentionally provocative to test institutional boundaries
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Excessively ambitious beyond what was feasible or acceptable)
The idiom "a bridge too far" originates from Operation Market Garden in WWII and denotes an act or plan that is overly ambitious, overreaching, or beyond the limits of what is practically achievable or acceptable.
Q3
General EnglishSynonyms and Antonyms
The scholar was known for his perspicacious analysis of complex philosophical texts. Which option is the closest synonym of perspicacious as used here? A) Methodical B) Astute C) Meticulous D) Circumspect
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Astute)
"Perspicacious" means having a ready insight into and keen understanding of things; discerning, perceptive, or astute.
Q4
General EnglishSynonyms and Antonyms
The editor criticized the article for its prolix treatment of an otherwise simple topic. Which word is the most appropriate synonym of prolix in this context? A) Discursive B) Redundant C) Verbose D) Diffuse
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Verbose)
"Prolix" describes speech or writing that uses far too many words and is tediously long; "verbose" is its most direct and appropriate synonym.
Q5
General EnglishSynonyms and Antonyms
Her argument was praised for being cogent and logically compelling. Which option is the best antonym of cogent? A) Specious B) Tentative C) Ambiguous D) Superficial
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Specious)
"Cogent" means clear, logical, convincing, and well-reasoned. Its strongest philosophical antonym is "specious", which means superficially plausible or attractive, but actually wrong and fallacious.
Q6
General EnglishSynonyms and Antonyms
The professor was admired for his equanimous response to harsh criticism. Which word is the most precise antonym of equanimous? A) Volatile B) Indifferent C) Impulsive D) Belligerent
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Volatile)
"Equanimous" means calm, even-tempered, and emotionally composed, especially under stress. Its direct antonym is "volatile", meaning liable to change rapidly and unpredictably, or easily agitated.
Q7
General EnglishPunctuation
Choose the option that correctly punctuates the sentence: The proposal which was submitted last week however requires further revision A) The proposal, which was submitted last week however, requires further revision. B) The proposal which was submitted last week, however, requires further revision. C) The proposal, which was submitted last week, however requires further revision. D) The proposal, which was submitted last week, however, requires further revision.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The proposal, which was submitted last week, however, requires further revision.)
The non-defining relative clause "which was submitted last week" must be set off by commas: ", which was submitted last week,". Additionally, the parenthetical conjunctive adverb "however" must also be enclosed by commas: ", however,". Thus, option D is punctuated correctly.
Q8
General EnglishClauses and Sentence Structure
Identify the type of clause in the sentence below: What the committee decided surprised everyone present. The clause "What the committee decided" is a: A) Noun clause functioning as the subject B) Adjective clause modifying committee C) Adverbial clause of result D) Independent clause with an implied subject
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Noun clause functioning as the subject)
"What the committee decided" functions as the grammatical subject of the main verb "surprised". A subordinate clause that acts as a subject or object in a sentence is a noun clause.
Q9
General EnglishVocabulary - Homonyms
In which sentence is the word "bank" used as a homonym when compared to its use in the sentence below? She deposited the cheque at the bank. A) The pilot had to bank the aircraft sharply during the landing. B) The children played on the bank of the river after school. C) The bank approved the loan after a detailed review. D) He works at a multinational bank in the city.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The children played on the bank of the river after school.)
In the prompt sentence, "bank" refers to a financial depository. In option B, "bank" is a homonym meaning the land alongside a body of water (riverbank) — sharing the identical spelling and pronunciation but having a completely unrelated etymology and meaning.
Q10
General EnglishHomophones
Choose the sentence in which the correct homophone has been used. A) The principal asked the students to bare the consequences of their actions. B) She decided to compliment the dress with a matching scarf. C) The hikers were advised to pause the trail before nightfall. D) He could not cite a single example to support his claim.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (He could not cite a single example to support his claim.)
In option D, "cite" (meaning to quote or refer to as evidence) is correctly used. In A, "bare" should be "bear". In B, "compliment" (praise) should be "complement" (to enhance or complete).
Q11
General EnglishPronoun Agreement
Choose the sentence in which the pronoun usage is grammatically correct. A) Each of the participants must submit their assignment by Friday. B) Neither of the proposals achieved their intended objective. C) Every applicant should bring his or her identification for verification. D) The committee reached their decision after prolonged deliberation.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Every applicant should bring his or her identification for verification.)
In standard formal grammar, singular distributive antecedents like "Every applicant" require singular pronouns like "his or her". Options A, B, and D incorrectly match singular antecedents with plural pronouns in formal prescriptive usage.
Q12
General EnglishPronoun Reference
Identify the sentence with a clear and unambiguous pronoun reference. A) When Sara met Lina, she was already upset. B) The students informed the teacher that they would submit the project late. C) Rahul told Amit that he had won the scholarship. D) After the report was revised, it was criticized by the editor.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The students informed the teacher that they would submit the project late.)
In option B, "they" is plural and can grammatically and logically refer only to "The students" (plural), as "teacher" is singular. In A and C, "she" and "he" have ambiguous antecedent references.
Q13
General EnglishArticles
Choose the sentence in which the use of articles is grammatically and contextually correct. A) She is a expert in medieval literature and teaches at the university in Delhi. B) He was appointed the head of department after an extensive review process. C) An honest administrator is essential for a effective governance. D) The committee reached a unanimous decision after the long discussion.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The committee reached a unanimous decision after the long discussion.)
In option D, "a unanimous decision" correctly uses "a" before the consonant sound /juː/ in "unanimous". In A, "a expert" is wrong (should be "an expert"). In C, "a effective" is wrong (should be "an effective").
Q14
General EnglishModals
Choose the option that best expresses a logical deduction about a past event. A) She may finish the experiment before the deadline. B) He should have informed the committee earlier. C) They must have overlooked the crucial data. D) You can submit the application online.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (They must have overlooked the crucial data.)
"Must have + past participle" (They must have overlooked the crucial data) is the modal construction specifically used to express a logical deduction or high certainty about an event that occurred in the past.
Q15
General EnglishDirect and Indirect Speech
Choose the option that correctly converts the following sentence into indirect speech: The professor said, "I will review your thesis tomorrow." A) The professor said that he would review your thesis tomorrow. B) The professor said that he will review your thesis the next day. C) The professor said that he would review my thesis the next day. D) The professor said that I would review your thesis the next day.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The professor said that he would review my thesis the next day.)
In reported speech with a past reporting verb ("said"): "I" shifts to "he", "will" shifts to "would", second person possessive "your" shifts to "my" (the listener), and temporal adverb "tomorrow" shifts to "the next day". Hence, option C is correct.
Q16
General EnglishPara Jumbles
Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful paragraph: I. He worked hard to achieve his goals. II. Success did not come easily to him. III. Eventually, his efforts paid off. IV. From a young age, he was determined to succeed.
Choose the correct order: A) IV -> I -> II -> III B) IV -> II -> I -> III C) II -> IV -> I -> III D) I -> IV -> II -> III
💡Correct Answer: Option B (IV -> II -> I -> III)
The logical narrative sequence begins with the subject's foundational aspiration (IV: From a young age, he was determined to succeed), introduces the challenge (II: Success did not come easily to him), details the response/action taken (I: He worked hard to achieve his goals), and concludes with the result (III: Eventually, his efforts paid off). Thus, IV -> II -> I -> III.
Q17
General EnglishPara Jumbles
Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: I. She practiced every day to improve her skills. II. As a result, she won the competition. III. She wanted to become a professional dancer. IV. Her dedication impressed her teachers.
Choose the correct order: A) III -> I -> IV -> II B) I -> III -> IV -> II C) III -> IV -> I -> II D) IV -> I -> III -> II
💡Correct Answer: Option A (III -> I -> IV -> II)
The paragraph opens with her overarching ambition (III: She wanted to become a professional dancer), followed by her consistent action (I: She practiced every day to improve her skills), the admiration gained (IV: Her dedication impressed her teachers), and the culmination (II: As a result, she won the competition). Hence, III -> I -> IV -> II.
Q18
General EnglishSubject-Verb Agreement
The following sentence has an error. Identify the part that contains the error. The students (A) has submitted (B) their assignments (C) before the deadline (D). A) The students B) has submitted C) their assignments D) before the deadline
💡Correct Answer: Option B (has submitted)
The subject "The students" is plural and requires the plural auxiliary verb "have submitted" rather than the singular "has submitted". Therefore, segment B contains the error.
Q19
General EnglishPrepositions
Choose the option that correctly completes the sentence: She is proficient ____ French and German. A) in B) at C) on D) with
💡Correct Answer: Option A (in)
The adjective "proficient" is conventionally followed by the preposition "in" when referring to competence in a language, field of study, or activity (e.g., "proficient in French and German").
Q20
General EnglishActive and Passive Voice
Choose the option that correctly converts the following sentence into the passive voice: The committee will announce the results tomorrow. A) The results will be announced by the committee tomorrow. B) The results are announced by the committee tomorrow. C) The results will announce by the committee tomorrow. D) The committee will be announced the results tomorrow.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The results will be announced by the committee tomorrow.)
In simple future active voice ("will + verb"), the passive transformation follows "will be + past participle": "The results will be announced by the committee tomorrow."
Q21
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityNumber System & Divisibility
If a number 45678x9231 is divisible by 3, then how many values are possible for x? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
💡Correct Answer: Option D (4)
A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3. Sum of digits = 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + x + 9 + 2 + 3 + 1 = 45 + x. Since 45 is divisible by 3, (45 + x) will be divisible by 3 whenever x is a multiple of 3. The possible single-digit values for x are {0, 3, 6, 9}. Thus, exactly 4 values are possible.
Q22
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityNumber System - Trailing Zeros
If x = 2¹⁰ × 5⁶, then how many zeros will be there at the end of x? A) 6 B) 5 C) 4 D) 3
💡Correct Answer: Option A (6)
Each trailing zero is produced by a pair of factors (2 × 5 = 10). Here, the prime factorization has ten 2s and six 5s: 2¹⁰ × 5⁶ = 2⁴ × (2 × 5)⁶ = 16 × 10⁶. The number of trailing zeros is min(10, 6) = 6.
Q23
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityPercentages
The price of an article is reduced by 10%. By what percent should the new price be increased to get the original price? A) 10% B) 9(1/9)% C) 11(1/9)% D) 12%
💡Correct Answer: Option C (11(1/9)%)
Let original price = 100. After a 10% reduction, new price = 90. To return from 90 back to 100, the required increase is (10 / 90) × 100% = 100/9% = 11(1/9)%.
Q24
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityPercentages
If x% of y = y% of x, then which of the following is true? A) x > y B) y > x C) y = x D) Cannot be determined
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Cannot be determined)
The equation (x/100) × y = (y/100) × x simplifies to xy/100 = yx/100, which is an algebraic identity that holds universally true for ANY values of x and y (whether x = y, x > y, or x < y). Therefore, the specific relation between x and y cannot be determined.
Q25
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityAverages and Alligation
The average of x numbers is 15. The average of y numbers is 20. The average of all x+y numbers is 18. Find the ratio x:y. A) 1:2 B) 2:1 C) 2:3 D) 3:2
If a discount 10% given on the marked price of a book, the publisher gains 20%. If a discount is increased to 15%, the gain of the publisher is? A) 12% B) 13(1/3)% C) 11(1/9)% D) 10%
💡Correct Answer: Option B (13(1/3)%)
Let CP = 100. With a 20% profit, SP1 = 120. Since discount was 10%, 0.90 × MP = 120 => MP = 120 / 0.9 = 400/3. If discount is 15%, SP2 = 0.85 × MP = 0.85 × (400/3) = 340/3 = 113(1/3). Profit = 113(1/3) - 100 = 13(1/3)%.
Q27
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityMixtures and Alligations
A barrel contains a mixture of wine and water in the ratio 3:1. How much fraction of the mixture must be drawn off and substituted by water so that the ratio of wine and water in the resultant mixture in the barrel becomes 1:1? A) 1/2 B) 1/3 C) 1/4 D) 2/3
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1/3)
Let total volume = 4 units (Wine = 3, Water = 1). The target ratio 1:1 in 4 units requires Wine = 2 and Water = 2. Wine must reduce from 3 to 2, a loss of 1 unit out of 3 units of wine. The fraction of mixture drawn off is 1/3.
Q28
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityRatio and Proportion
Find the Compound Ratio of a:b and c:d A) ac:bd B) ab:cd C) ad:bc D) abc:bcd
💡Correct Answer: Option A (ac:bd)
The compound ratio of two given ratios a:b and c:d is obtained by multiplying the antecedents together and the consequents together: (a × c) : (b × d) = ac : bd.
Q29
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityTime and Work
Three men A, B and C complete a work in 10 days, 12 days and 15 days respectively. All three of them start the work together. After 2 days A left and after next 2 days C also left. Find in how many days whole work will be completed? A) 6 days B) 6(2/5) days C) 6(1/5) days D) 6(4/5) days
💡Correct Answer: Option B (6(2/5) days)
Let total work = LCM(10, 12, 15) = 60 units. Daily efficiencies: A = 6, B = 5, C = 4 units/day. First 2 days (A+B+C): 15 × 2 = 30 units done. Next 2 days (B+C): (5+4) × 2 = 18 units done. Total done in 4 days = 48 units. Remaining work = 60 - 48 = 12 units, finished by B alone in 12 / 5 = 2(2/5) days. Total time for whole work = 2 + 2 + 2(2/5) = 6(2/5) days.
Q30
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityTime and Work
A can complete a work in 15 days and B can complete a work in 25 days. If they start work together and B leaves 7 days before completion, then the work will be completed in how many days? A) 16 days B) 14 days C) 12 days D) 10 days
💡Correct Answer: Option C (12 days)
Total work = LCM(15, 25) = 75 units. Rates: A = 5 units/day, B = 3 units/day. In the last 7 days, A worked alone: 7 × 5 = 35 units. Remaining work done together = 75 - 35 = 40 units. Time worked together = 40 / (5 + 3) = 5 days. Total time taken = 5 + 7 = 12 days.
Q31
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityNumber Series
Complete the series: 1, 9, 35, 99, 225, ? A) 375 B) 441 C) 451 D) 299
💡Correct Answer: Option B (441)
First differences: 9 - 1 = 8, 35 - 9 = 26, 99 - 35 = 64, 225 - 99 = 126. Second differences: 26 - 8 = 18, 64 - 26 = 38, 126 - 64 = 62. Third differences increase by 4: 38 - 18 = 20, 62 - 38 = 24, next third difference = 28. Next second difference = 62 + 28 = 90. Next first difference = 126 + 90 = 216. Next term = 225 + 216 = 441 (which is 21²).
Q32
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityLetter Series
Complete the letter series: C, E, K, Q, W, ? A) C B) D C) E D) F
💡Correct Answer: Option A (C)
Letter numerical positions: C = 3, E = 5, K = 11, Q = 17, W = 23. From E onwards, differences are constant (+6): 5 + 6 = 11 (K), 11 + 6 = 17 (Q), 17 + 6 = 23 (W). Adding 6 to W gives 23 + 6 = 29. Wrapping around the 26-letter alphabet: 29 - 26 = 3, which corresponds to C.
Q33
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityLetter Series
Complete the letter series: A, D, I, P, Y, ? A) I B) J C) K D) L
💡Correct Answer: Option B (J)
Letter positions are perfect squares: A = 1 (1²), D = 4 (2²), I = 9 (3²), P = 16 (4²), Y = 25 (5²). The next term is 6² = 36. In the 26-letter alphabet, 36 - 26 = 10, which corresponds to the letter J.
Q34
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityCoding and Decoding
In a code language: • Letters are arranged in reverse order • Each vowel is replaced by its position number in alphabet If BALLOON -> N1515LL1B, find MONDAY. A) Y1DN15M B) M1DN15Y C) Y15DN1M D) M15DN15Y
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Y1DN15M)
For MONDAY: 1. Reverse letters: Y, A, D, N, O, M. 2. Replace vowels with alphabet position numbers: A is 1st letter -> 1; O is 15th letter -> 15. Consonants remain unchanged: Y - 1 - D - N - 15 - M = Y1DN15M.
Q35
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityDirection Sense
A man is facing east. He turns 135° clockwise, then 90° anticlockwise. Which direction is he facing now? A) South B) South-East C) South-West D) East
💡Correct Answer: Option B (South-East)
Net angular rotation = +135° (clockwise) - 90° (anticlockwise) = +45° clockwise. Turning 45° clockwise from East points directly towards South-East.
Q36
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityBlood Relations
A man said, "This girl is the daughter of my father's only son's wife." How is the girl related to him? A) Sister B) Niece C) Daughter D) Mother
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Daughter)
"My father's only son" = the man himself. "My father's only son's wife" = the man's wife. "The daughter of my wife" = the man's daughter. Hence, the girl is his daughter.
Q37
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityInequalities and Logical Deduction
Given: P ≥ Q > R, R ≤ S < T, P > T. Which statement is always true? A) P = S B) S < Q C) Q > T D) T > R
💡Correct Answer: Option D (T > R)
From the given condition R ≤ S < T, since S is strictly less than T and R is less than or equal to S, it immediately and unequivocally follows that T > R. All other choices depend on unconstrained relative magnitudes.
Q38
Numerical & Reasoning AbilitySpeed, Distance and Time
Ram while going to school reduces his speed to 4/5th of his actual speed and reaches 15 minutes late. Find the actual time of Ram. A) 45 minutes B) 60 minutes C) 30 minutes D) 75 minutes
💡Correct Answer: Option B (60 minutes)
Speed is inversely proportional to time for a constant distance. New speed = (4/5)S => New time = (5/4)T. The increase in time is (5/4)T - T = T/4 = 15 minutes. Therefore, original actual time T = 15 × 4 = 60 minutes (1 hour).
Q39
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityStatement and Conclusions
Statement: "The government plans to reduce the import duty on electronics." Conclusions: I. Prices of electronics may fall. II. Domestic production of electronics will stop.
A) Only I follows B) Only II follows C) Both follow D) Neither follows
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only I follows)
Lower import duty reduces the cost of imported goods, leading to possible price reductions in the domestic market (Conclusion I logically follows). Conclusion II is an extreme and unfounded assumption, so it does not follow.
Q40
Numerical & Reasoning AbilitySyllogisms
Statement: Some books are fiction. All fictional books are popular. Conclusions: I. Some books are popular. II. All popular things are fiction.
A) Only I follows B) Only II follows C) Both follow D) Neither follows
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only I follows)
Since some books are fiction, and all fiction books are popular, the portion of books that are fiction are necessarily popular. Thus, "Some books are popular" (Conclusion I) definitely follows. "All popular things are fiction" is an invalid illicit conversion of an A-proposition.
Q41
General Awareness with special ref to J&KWorld Geography - Cities and Countries
Consider the following pairs: City — Respective Country I. Maracaibo — Ukraine II. Tabriz — Venezuela III. Nuuk — Greenland IV. Donetsk — Iran
How many of the pairs are correct? A) Only one pair B) Only two pairs C) Only three pairs D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Only one pair)
Evaluating the pairs: - Maracaibo is a major city in Venezuela (not Ukraine). - Tabriz is an ancient historic city in Iran (not Venezuela). - Nuuk is the capital and largest city of Greenland (Correct). - Donetsk is an industrial city in eastern Ukraine (not Iran). Therefore, only one pair (III) is correct.
Q42
General Awareness with special ref to J&KGovernment Schemes & Agriculture
What are the key components of the recently launched Digital Agriculture Mission in India? I. Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) for Agriculture, i.e. Agristack, Krishi Decision Support System, Comprehensive Soil Fertility, and Profile Maps. II. Digital General Crop Estimation Survey (DGCES). III. Support for the Mahalanobis National Crop Forecasting Centre (MNCFC).
Identify the correct statements: A) I and III only B) II and III only C) I and II only D) I, II and III only
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II and III only)
Approved by the Union Cabinet in September 2024 with a budget outlay of ₹2,817 crore, the Digital Agriculture Mission incorporates: 1) AgriStack (farmer registry, geo-referenced village maps, crop sowing registry), 2) Krishi Decision Support System (DSS) using remote sensing and soil maps, 3) Digital General Crop Estimation Survey (DGCES) for accurate yield estimations, and 4) institutional capacity building including the Mahalanobis National Crop Forecasting Centre (MNCFC). All three statements are correct.
Q43
General Awareness with special ref to J&KNational Monuments & Statues
Match the following and choose the correct option: Statues: 1. Statue of Unity 2. Statue of Oneness 3. Statue of Equality
Personalities Associated: i. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel ii. Adi Shankaracharya iii. Sri Ramanuja Acharya
A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii B) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii C) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i D) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii)
Matching the iconic statues: - Statue of Unity (1) -> Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in Kevadia, Gujarat (i) - Statue of Oneness (2) -> 108-ft statue of Adi Shankaracharya at Omkareshwar, MP (ii) - Statue of Equality (3) -> 216-ft statue of Sri Ramanujacharya in Hyderabad, Telangana (iii) Therefore, 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii is the correct option.
Q44
General Awareness with special ref to J&KUNESCO World Heritage Sites
Which of the following sites are included in the Tentative List of World Heritage Sites released by UNESCO? I. Khangchendzonga National Park II. Natural Heritage of Varkala III. Naga Hill Ophiolite IV. Natural Heritage of Tirumala Hills V. Meghalayan Age Caves VI. Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka
Choose the correct option: A) II, III, IV and VI only B) I, IV, V and VI only C) II, III, IV and V only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II, III, IV and V only)
Sites on UNESCO's Tentative List are those proposed for future World Heritage inscription: Natural Heritage of Varkala (II), Naga Hill Ophiolite (III), Natural Heritage of Tirumala Hills (IV), and Meghalayan Age Caves (V) are on India's Tentative List. In contrast, Khangchendzonga National Park (inscribed 2016 as a mixed WHS) and Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka (inscribed 2003 as a cultural WHS) are already fully designated UNESCO World Heritage Sites. Thus, only II, III, IV, and V are on the Tentative List.
Q45
General Awareness with special ref to J&KIndian Freedom Struggle - Tribal Uprisings
Consider the following statements about the Tribal Freedom Fighters: I. Tilka Majhi mobilized the Pahadia tribe to which he belonged and raided the Company treasury. II. Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu from the Santhal community led the Santhal in the Hul rebellion. III. Malati Mem of the Tea-garden community strictly opposed Mahatma Gandhi's satyagraha movement.
Which of the above statements are correct? A) I and II only B) I and III only C) All of the above D) None of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I and II only)
Evaluating the statements: - Statement I is correct: Tilka Majhi organized tribal resistance against British East India Company oppression in 1784 and raided the Company treasury in Bhagalpur. - Statement II is correct: Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu led the historic Santhal Hul rebellion (1855–56) against the British and zamindars. - Statement III is incorrect: Malati Mem (Mangri Orang) was an inspiring female tea-garden worker who actively SUPPORTED and joined Mahatma Gandhi's Non-Cooperation and anti-opium movement in Assam, and was martyred in 1921. Thus, only I and II are correct.
Q46
General Awareness with special ref to J&KModern Indian History - Freedom Movement
With reference to the Indian Freedom struggle, consider the following events: I. Poona Pact II. Lord Irwin's declaration III. Second Round Table Conference
Arrange them in the correct chronological order: A) I-II-III B) II-I-III C) I-III-II D) II-III-I
💡Correct Answer: Option D (II-III-I)
Chronology of the events: 1. Lord Irwin's Declaration (Deepavali Declaration on Dominion Status): October 31, 1929 2. Second Round Table Conference (attended by Mahatma Gandhi in London): September to December 1931 3. Poona Pact (agreement between Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi on depressed classes representation): September 24, 1932 Thus, the correct chronological sequence is II - III - I.
Q47
General Awareness with special ref to J&KPhysical Geography of India
Match the following pairs: Hills — Related Regions 1. Nilgiri Hills 2. Anaimalai Hills 3. Mahadeo Hills 4. Vindhyan Range
Regions: i. Part of the Satpura Range ii. Parallel to the Narmada Valley iii. Junction of Eastern and Western Ghats iv. The Southern Part of the Western Ghats
Choose the correct match: A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv B) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i C) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-i D) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii)
Matching hill ranges with geographic descriptions: - Nilgiri Hills (1) -> Junction of Eastern and Western Ghats (iii) - Anaimalai Hills (2) -> The southern part of the Western Ghats (home to Anamudi peak) (iv) - Mahadeo Hills (3) -> Part of the Satpura Range in central India (i) - Vindhyan Range (4) -> Runs parallel north of the Narmada Valley (ii) Hence, 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii.
Q48
General Awareness with special ref to J&KIndian Geography - Channels & Straits
The Ten-degree channel separates which two regions? A) Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands B) Minicoy and Lakshadweep C) Nicobar and Indonesia D) Andaman and Myanmar
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands)
The Ten Degree Channel is a maritime channel in the Bay of Bengal that separates the Andaman Islands (specifically Little Andaman) to the north from the Nicobar Islands (specifically Car Nicobar) to the south along the 10° N parallel.
Q49
General Awareness with special ref to J&KDemography and Indian Economy
Consider the following statements regarding India's demographic trends: I. Demographic dividend refers to the economic growth potential arising from a declining dependency ratio, due to a rising working-age population. II. Demographic winter refers to the economic and social challenges arising from an increasing working-age population and decreasing old-age dependency. III. India is expected to enjoy its demographic dividend till the mid-21st century, and its realization depends on education, skill development, health, and employment generation.
Which of the above statements are correct? A) I and III only B) II and III only C) I and II only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I and III only)
Evaluating demographic trends: - Statement I is correct: Demographic dividend is the economic boost resulting from a shift in population age structure when the working-age population (15-64) exceeds the dependent population. - Statement II is incorrect: 'Demographic winter' describes sub-replacement birth rates, declining population, and a rapidly aging society with INCREASING old-age dependency. - Statement III is correct: India's median age remains under 29 and its dividend window extends up to ~2047–2055, dependent on skill and health investments. Therefore, statements I and III only are correct.
Q50
General Awareness with special ref to J&KEcology - Wetlands and National Parks
Consider the following pairs: Wetlands — States I. Kolleru Lake — Tamil Nadu II. Tawa Reservoir — Madhya Pradesh III. Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary — Andhra Pradesh IV. Sultanpur National Park — Haryana
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? A) One pair only B) Two pairs only C) Three pairs only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Two pairs only)
Evaluating wetland locations: - Kolleru Lake is in Andhra Pradesh (between Krishna and Godavari deltas), not Tamil Nadu. - Tawa Reservoir is in Hoshangabad district, Madhya Pradesh (Correct). - Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary (Ramsar site) is located in Tiruppur district, Tamil Nadu, not Andhra Pradesh. - Sultanpur National Park is in Gurugram district, Haryana (Correct). Thus, exactly two pairs (II and IV) are correctly matched.
Q51
General Awareness with special ref to J&KClimatology - Köppen Classification
Which Köppen climate type is described by the following characteristics? I. Average monthly temperature rarely falls below 18°C. II. Annual rainfall exceeds 2000 mm, distributed evenly throughout the year. III. Humid conditions support dense evergreen forests.
A) Aw - Tropical savanna B) Af - Tropical rainforest C) Am - Tropical monsoon D) BWh - Hot desert
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Af - Tropical rainforest)
In the Köppen climate classification, 'Af' denotes a Tropical Rainforest climate ('A' = megathermal/tropical with monthly temperatures above 18°C, 'f' = fully humid without a dry season). Constant precipitation throughout the year exceeding 2000 mm sustains tropical evergreen rainforest biomes.
Q52
General Awareness with special ref to J&KTransport and National Waterways
Which of the following statements about India's National Waterways are correct? I. National Waterway 2 (NW-2) is the Brahmaputra River stretch from Dhubri to Sadiya in Assam, covering about 891 km. II. National Waterway 3 (NW-3) is the West Coast Canal, which connects Kollam and Kottapuram in Kerala. III. National Waterway 97 (NW-97) runs on the Zuari River, connecting Sanvordem Bridge to Marmugao Port. IV. National Waterways 111 (NW-111) is operational in the Sunderbans Region.
Choose the correct option: A) I only B) I and II only C) I, II and III only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I and II only)
Evaluating India's National Waterways: - Statement I is correct: NW-2 spans the Brahmaputra River between Sadiya and Dhubri (891 km) in Assam. - Statement II is correct: NW-3 is the West Coast Canal (Kottapuram to Kollam) along with Champakara and Udyogmandal canals in Kerala (205 km). - Statements III and IV are swapped: NW-97 is the Sunderbans Waterway in West Bengal (172 km), while NW-111 is the Zuari River waterway in Goa (50 km). Thus, only statements I and II are correct.
Q53
General Awareness with special ref to J&KHistory of Jammu and Kashmir - Dynasties
According to Kalhana's Rajtarangini, identify the correct sequential order of the following dynasties in the Jammu and Kashmir region: I. Gonanda dynasty II. Utpala dynasty III. Karkota Dynasty IV. Lohara dynasty
Choose the correct option: A) I-II-III-IV B) I-II-IV-III C) I-IV-III-II D) I-III-II-IV
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I-III-II-IV)
According to Kalhana's Rajatarangini, the historical dynasties of Kashmir followed this chronological order: 1. Gonanda Dynasty (ancient proto-historic and early classical era) 2. Karkota Dynasty (founded by Durlabhavardhana in 625 CE, famous for Lalitaditya Muktapida) 3. Utpala Dynasty (founded by Avantivarman in 855 CE) 4. Lohara Dynasty (founded by Sangramaraja in 1003 CE, Queen Didda's lineage) Therefore, the correct sequential order is I - III - II - IV.
Q54
General Awareness with special ref to J&KMonuments and Heritage of J&K
Consider the following statements about Bahu Fort in Jammu: I. The ancient Bahu Fort in Jammu is believed to have been originally built by Raja Bahu Lochan about 3,000 years ago. II. It was refurbished by the Dogra rulers in the 19th century. III. Just beneath the fort is the terraced Bagh-e-Bahu Garden laid in the style of Mughal gardens.
Which of the above statements are correct? A) I only B) I and II only C) II and III only D) I, II and III
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II and III)
All three statements are historically accurate: Bahu Fort was originally constructed by Raja Bahu Lochan (brother of Raja Jambu Lochan), later restored and rebuilt by Maharaja Gulab Singh and Dogra rulers in the 19th century, houses the revered Bawe Wali Mata temple, and overlooks the sprawling terraced Bagh-e-Bahu garden beside the Tawi River.
Q55
General Awareness with special ref to J&KCulture and Folk Theatre of J&K
Which Kashmiri art form is described by the following lines? I. It is a traditional folk theatre style combination of play and dance. II. It differs from other forms as it features a single performer who performs, dances, and plays music. III. It was mentioned by Kashmiri Sufi Saint, Sheikh Noor-ud-din Noorani (RA) in his verses and travel book of English writer, Sir Walter Lawrence.
A) Rouf B) Chakri C) Bhand Pather D) Hafiza Dance
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bhand Pather)
Bhand Pather is Kashmir's renowned centuries-old traditional folk theatre that intricately weaves drama, satirical comedy, dance, and music (using dhol and surnai). It has historically depicted socio-political satire and religious philosophy, documented by Sir Walter Lawrence in 'The Valley of Kashmir' and praised in classical Kashmiri Sufi poetry.
Q56
General Awareness with special ref to J&KMughal Gardens of Kashmir
Which of the following statements about Mughal Gardens in Kashmir are correct? I. Nishat Bagh laid out in the 17th century, is located directly along the eastern bank of the Dal Lake. II. The two most important structures within the Shalimar Bagh are the Pink Pavilion, in the Diwan-i-Aam zone of the garden, and the Black Pavilion, located in the Diwan-i-Khas. III. Achabal Bagh was also known as Sahebabad during the Mughal period, in memory of the Mughal Emperor Jahangir.
Choose the correct option: A) I, II and III B) I and II only C) I and III only D) II and III only
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I and II only)
Evaluating Mughal Gardens: - Statement I is correct: Nishat Bagh was designed by Asif Khan (Nur Jahan's brother) in 1633 on the eastern bank of Dal Lake. - Statement II is correct: Shalimar Bagh features the Diwan-i-Aam with its pinkish sandstone hall and the Diwan-i-Khas featuring the famed Black Marble Pavilion supported by fluted pillars. - Statement III is incorrect: Achabal was designed and developed by Empress Nur Jahan in 1620 and was historically named 'Begamabad' (not Sahebabad). Thus, statements I and II only are correct.
Q57
General Awareness with special ref to J&KGeography of Jammu and Kashmir
Which of the following statements about the geographic characteristics of the Jammu region are correct? I. Jammu city is situated on a series of uneven ridges of low heights in the Shivalik Hills. II. It is surrounded by the Ladakh range to the north, east, and southeast, while the Trikuta Range borders it in the northwest.
Choose the correct option: A) I only B) II only C) Both of the above D) Neither of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I only)
Statement I is correct: Jammu city (the city of temples) lies on a series of uneven ridges of the sub-Himalayan Shivalik Range on the banks of the Tawi River. Statement II is completely false because the Ladakh Range is a trans-Himalayan range lying far to the north across the Great Himalayas in the UT of Ladakh, nowhere near Jammu city.
Q58
General Awareness with special ref to J&KNational Parks and Geography of J&K
Dachigam National Park is located in which mountain range? A) Ladakh Range B) Zanskar Range C) Karakoram Range D) Zabarwan Range
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Zabarwan Range)
Dachigam National Park is situated in the Zabarwan Range of the western Himalayas, approximately 22 kilometers from Srinagar. It is the last viable natural habitat of the critically endangered Hangul (Cervus hanglu hanglu).
Q59
General Awareness with special ref to J&KWildlife Conservation in J&K
A Census planned in J & K in early 2026 is aimed at conservation of which species? A) Markhor B) Hangul C) Snow Leopard D) Himalayan Brown Bear
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Hangul)
The Department of Wildlife Protection J&K conducts the biennial Hangul Census in Dachigam National Park and adjoining protected corridors to assess the population, fawn survival rate, and sex ratio of the critically endangered Kashmir Stag (Hangul).
Q60
General Awareness with special ref to J&KRivers and Drainage System of J&K
Which of the following rivers are tributaries of the river Chenab? I. Ujh river II. Tawi river III. Poonch river IV. Neeru river
Choose the correct option: A) I and II only B) II and IV only C) I, II and III only D) II, III and IV only
💡Correct Answer: Option B (II and IV only)
Evaluating tributaries: - Tawi River (II) is a major left-bank tributary of the Chenab. - Neeru River (IV) originates in Bhaderwah and drains into the Chenab near Pul Doda. - Ujh River (I) is a tributary of the Ravi River. - Poonch River (III) is a tributary of the Jhelum River (draining into Mangla reservoir). Thus, II and IV only are tributaries of the Chenab.
Q61
Basic Concepts of ComputersComputer Architecture - ALU
Which of the following is the fundamental operation performed by computers to carry out arithmetic computations in the ALU? A) Using transistors to store decimal values directly B) Processing binary data through logic gate operations C) Executing floating-point operations in software only D) Running high-level programming instructions in the CPU
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Processing binary data through logic gate operations)
The Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) performs all basic arithmetic (addition, subtraction) and logic (AND, OR, NOT, XOR) operations by processing electrical high/low voltage states representing binary data (0s and 1s) through combinations of semiconductor logic gates (such as half adders and full adders).
Q62
Basic Concepts of ComputersComputer Architecture - Pipelining & Hazards
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the relationship between instruction execution, memory hierarchy, and addressing modes in a typical von Neumann architecture computer system? A) Immediate addressing always speeds up execution by avoiding memory access. B) A larger cache always improves performance, regardless of hit ratio. C) Data hazards can occur in pipelined CPUs even with only register addressing. D) Virtual memory removes the need for cache memory.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Data hazards can occur in pipelined CPUs even with only register addressing.)
In pipelined processor architectures, data hazards (such as Read-After-Write / RAW) arise when an instruction depends on the result of a previous instruction that has not yet completed its writeback stage, even if all operands are located entirely in processor registers. Hence, data forwarding or stalling is required regardless of addressing mode.
Q63
Basic Concepts of ComputersMemory Hierarchy - Cache & RAM
Which statement is correct concerning computer memory and data storage fundamentals? A) RAM is non-volatile memory and retains data without power B) ROM allows both read and write operations during normal computer functioning. C) Cache memory is faster than the Main memory and stores frequently accessed data. D) CPU directly accesses secondary storage devices without involving the main memory.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Cache memory is faster than the Main memory and stores frequently accessed data.)
Cache memory consists of high-speed SRAM located directly on or adjacent to the CPU chip. It operates much faster than main memory (DRAM) and temporarily holds the most frequently accessed instructions and data to reduce CPU memory latency.
Q64
Basic Concepts of ComputersCPU Registers & Instruction Cycle
Which statement is correct regarding CPU operation and instruction execution? A) The Program counter stores the address of the current instruction, executed by the CPU. B) An interrupt is processed only after the completion of the entire program. C) The instruction register stores the current instruction being decoded or executed. D) All machine instructions require the same number of clock cycles to execute.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The instruction register stores the current instruction being decoded or executed.)
During the instruction fetch-decode-execute cycle, the Instruction Register (IR) holds the binary opcode and operands of the instruction currently undergoing decoding and execution. (The Program Counter holds the address of the NEXT instruction to be fetched).
Q65
Basic Concepts of ComputersData Representation & Binary Arithmetic
Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. Overflow in two's complement addition can be detected by examining only the carry out of the most significant bit. II. When converting an unsigned integer to a larger type, zero extension is used to preserve its value. III. In Binary-Coded Decimal (BCD) representation, each decimal digit is encoded separately using four binary bits. IV. In a byte-addressable system, the effective address calculation is dependent on instruction length.
Choose the correct option: A) Only IV is True B) Only II and III are True C) Only II and IV are True D) Only III and IV are True
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Only II and III are True)
Evaluating statements: - Statement I is false: In two's complement addition, overflow occurs if and only if the carry-in into the sign bit differs from the carry-out from the sign bit (Cin XOR Cout = 1). - Statement II is true: Widening an unsigned integer pads leading higher-order bits with zeros (zero-extension) to preserve numerical value. - Statement III is true: BCD encodes each decimal digit (0–9) using its standard 4-bit binary nibble (e.g., 9 is 1001). - Statement IV is false: Effective address calculation depends on the addressing mode and base/offset registers, not the instruction length. Thus, only II and III are True.
Q66
Basic Concepts of ComputersHardware and Software Classification
Which of the following correctly classifies hardware and system software? A) Device Driver - Hardware; Keyboard - System Software B) Compiler - Hardware; RAM - System Software C) CPU - Hardware; Operating System - System Software D) Adobe Scan - Hardware; Monitor - System Software
💡Correct Answer: Option C (CPU - Hardware; Operating System - System Software)
The CPU (Central Processing Unit) is a physical electronic chip (Hardware), while the Operating System (e.g., Windows, Linux) is essential system software that manages hardware and provides an execution environment for applications.
Q67
Basic Concepts of ComputersSystem Performance and Troubleshooting
A computer has a quad-core CPU with a 2.4 GHz frequency, 16 GB RAM, and a 1TB SSD. A program that uses many threads and performs frequent disk operations is running very slowly and sometimes crashes. What is the most likely cause? A) Inefficient multithreading and high memory usage B) Insufficient CPU core performance C) Large SSD causing slow disk access D) Slow processor frequency
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Inefficient multithreading and high memory usage)
Given the robust hardware specifications (16 GB RAM, fast 1 TB SSD, Quad-core processor), the severe slowdown and intermittent crashing are caused by software-level architectural bottlenecks: improper thread synchronization (leading to deadlocks or thread thrashing) and unmanaged memory allocation (memory leaks causing out-of-memory crashes).
Q68
Basic Concepts of ComputersInput and Output Devices
Categorize the following devices as Input (I) and Output (O): i) Light Pen ii) Punch Card Reader iii) Plotter iv) Sound Card v) Digitizer Tablet vi) Drum Printer vii) Scanner
Classification of devices: - Input Devices: Light Pen (i), Punch Card Reader (ii), Digitizer Tablet (v), and Scanner (vii). - Output Devices: Plotter (iii), Sound Card audio generation (iv), and Drum Printer (vi). Therefore, Option D correctly partitions them.
Q69
Basic Concepts of ComputersModern Input-Output & VR Peripherals
Match the following devices with their corresponding descriptions: Devices: 1. Haptic Gloves 2. Tactile Display 3. Voice Response Unit (VRU) 4. Data Glove
Statements: i. Generates tactile sensations and may sense user interaction. ii. Captures fine hand/finger movements for computer input. iii. Detect user gestures and provide force feedback. iv. Generates synthesised audio output for interaction with users.
Choose the correct match: A) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii B) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii C) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii D) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii)
Device mappings: - Haptic Gloves (1): Combine sensors and actuators to detect hand gestures and apply physical force feedback resistance (iii) - Tactile Display (2): Uses mechanical actuators to dynamically generate tactile sensations or braille patterns (i) - Voice Response Unit / VRU (3): Generates synthesized voice or recorded audio responses in automated telecommunications (iv) - Data Glove (4): Pure sensory glove measuring joint bends and hand kinematics to capture fine input movements (ii) Hence, 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii.
Q70
Basic Concepts of ComputersOperating System - Deadlock Recovery
In a system with multiple processes and resource types, which of the following is a valid method to recover from a deadlock? A) Decreasing the CPU priority of all processes B) Preempt resources from one process and allocate to another C) Increase the priority of all processes in the deadlock D) Increase the priority of one of the processes in the deadlock
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Preempt resources from one process and allocate to another)
In operating system resource management, once a deadlock has occurred, the two standard recovery strategies are: 1) Process termination (killing processes to break circular wait), and 2) Resource preemption (forcibly reclaiming held resources from a victim process, rolling back its state, and reallocating those resources to another deadlocked process to allow it to finish).
Q71
Basic Concepts of ComputersOperating System - Priority Inversion & Scheduling
Consider a system using preemptive priority scheduling with multiple real-time and user-level processes. Priority inheritance protocol is implemented. I. Priority inversion can occur when a low-priority process holds a resource that a high-priority process needs. II. Under priority inheritance, the low-priority process temporarily inherits the higher priority to avoid blocking. III. Priority inversion can be completely avoided if all processes are scheduled in a round-robin fashion. IV. Starvation may still occur for low-priority processes even with priority inheritance.
Which of the statements are correct? A) I and II only B) II and III only C) II and IV only D) I, II and IV only
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II and IV only)
Evaluating the statements: - Statement I is true: Priority inversion happens when a lower-priority task blocks a higher-priority task because it holds a mutually exclusive resource. - Statement II is true: Under priority inheritance, the task holding the resource temporarily inherits the highest priority of any blocked task waiting for that resource to speed up release. - Statement III is false: Round-robin scheduling applies to CPU slicing, but does not eliminate synchronization contention on exclusive locks. - Statement IV is true: Low-priority non-resource-holding processes can still suffer starvation if high-priority processes continually arrive. Thus, statements I, II, and IV are correct.
Q72
Basic Concepts of ComputersMS Word Features
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about MS Word? A) A content control can restrict editing in a document; however cannot enforce data validation. B) You can apply different first-line indents and hanging indents to different paragraphs within the same style. C) The Navigation Pane allows searching by headings, pages, or results, but cannot directly display comments. D) In Track Changes, accepting a change permanently removes the author's metadata associated with that change.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (A content control can restrict editing in a document; however cannot enforce data validation.)
Statement A is incorrect (and thus the correct answer) because Content Controls in MS Word (such as Date Picker, Dropdown List, and plain text controls with XML data binding) CAN enforce strict data validation rules on user input.
Q73
Basic Concepts of ComputersMS Word - Section Breaks & Formatting
Which of the following statements is true about MS Word? A) Using Section Breaks allows different headers and footers in the same document. B) Using Page Break allows you to have different headers and footers in the same document. C) Headers and footers cannot be changed once set in a document. D) Headers and footers are automatically deleted when you close the document.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Using Section Breaks allows different headers and footers in the same document.)
In Microsoft Word, inserting a Section Break (such as Next Page) isolates a document into independent formatting segments. By unlinking the 'Link to Previous' setting, each section can maintain entirely distinct headers, footers, margins, and page numbering.
Q74
Basic Concepts of ComputersMS Excel - Nested IF Formulas
A company keeps sales data in column B and wants to categorise sales into three levels: "High" if sales ≥ 1000 "Medium" if sales ≥ 500 but < 1000 "Low" if sales < 500
A student writes the formula in cell C2 as: `=IF(B2>=1000,"High",IF(B2>=500,"Medium","Low"))`
Which of the following statements is/are correct? A) The formula will always give an error. B) The formula will give an error if B2 is blank. C) The formula will give an error for non-numeric values in B2. D) The formula will work correctly for all numeric values in B2.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The formula will work correctly for all numeric values in B2.)
The nested formula correctly checks if B2 is at least 1000 (returning 'High'). If false, it checks if B2 is at least 500 (returning 'Medium'), and if false, returns 'Low'. For any valid numeric sales value in B2, this nested logic executes without syntax errors and correctly assigns the appropriate category.
Q75
Basic Concepts of ComputersMS Excel - Statistical Functions
In Microsoft Excel, student scores are listed in column B (Math) and column C (Science). Which formula correctly counts the number of students who scored ≥ 80 in Math and ≥ 90 in Science? (≥ means greater than or equal to) A) =COUNTIFS(B2:B10,">=80",C2:C10,">=90") B) =SUMPRODUCT((B2:B10>=80),(C2:C10>=90)) C) =SUM(IF((B2:B10>=80),(C2:C10>=90),1,0)) D) None of these
💡Correct Answer: Option A (=COUNTIFS(B2:B10,">=80",C2:C10,">=90"))
The COUNTIFS function counts the number of cells across multiple ranges that simultaneously satisfy multiple criteria: `=COUNTIFS(criteria_range1, criteria1, criteria_range2, criteria2)`. Thus, `=COUNTIFS(B2:B10,">=80",C2:C10,">=90")` is the correct and standard Excel formula.
Q76
Basic Concepts of ComputersNetworking & Email Protocols
Which of the following statements is correct about email functionality? A) Email filters/rules cannot automatically forward emails to another account without user intervention. B) Digital signatures in email encrypt the message body so that only the recipient can read it. C) POP3 protocol is used to download emails from the server to a local computer. D) Using BCC ensures the sender and recipients cannot see each other.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (POP3 protocol is used to download emails from the server to a local computer.)
Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) is a standard mail access protocol designed to retrieve and download emails from a remote mail server directly onto the client's local computer, typically storing them locally and removing them from the server.
Q77
Basic Concepts of ComputersMS PowerPoint - SmartArt Graphics
In Microsoft PowerPoint, which of the following existing slide contents CANNOT be directly converted into SmartArt, without re-entering the data? A) A bulleted list B) A table of data C) A block of descriptive text D) An Indented text
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A table of data)
In Microsoft PowerPoint, the 'Convert to SmartArt' feature works directly on text boxes, bulleted lists, and indented hierarchical text. However, tabular data within an existing Table object cannot be automatically converted to SmartArt via this feature without manually copying or re-entering the data.
Q78
Basic Concepts of ComputersComputer Networks - TCP/IP Protocol Suite
Consider the following statements about TCP/IP and Internet communication: A) TCP guarantees delivery and the correct order of packets, but not the timing. B) TCP is faster than UDP because it does not perform any error checking. C) IPv6 uses 256-bit addresses, but the header size is fixed at 40 bytes. D) ICMP is used primarily for application-layer data transfer between web servers.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (TCP guarantees delivery and the correct order of packets, but not the timing.)
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) provides reliable, connection-oriented, ordered byte-stream delivery with end-to-end flow control and error recovery. However, it does not guarantee real-time delivery timing or packet arrival latency bounds.
Q79
Basic Concepts of ComputersNetworking - IPv6 and Routing
Which of the following statements about Internet routing and protocols is correct? A) BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is used primarily for routing within a single local network. B) ICMP is used to encrypt data packets over the Internet. C) IPv6 adoption eliminates the need for NAT because it provides a vastly larger address space. D) HTTP/3 relies on TCP for faster connections and multiplexing multiple streams.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (IPv6 adoption eliminates the need for NAT because it provides a vastly larger address space.)
Network Address Translation (NAT) was devised primarily as a stopgap measure due to the depletion of 32-bit IPv4 addresses. IPv6 provides a massive 128-bit address space (approx 3.4 × 10³⁸ addresses), enabling end-to-end addressing for every device on the planet and making NAT obsolete.
Q80
Basic Concepts of ComputersCloud Computing - Service Models
In the context of cloud computing in an IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) model, what is managed by the service provider? A) Networking hardware B) Operating system C) Hardware platform and operating system D) Operating system and data
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Networking hardware)
In the IaaS cloud computing model (e.g., AWS EC2, Microsoft Azure VMs), the cloud service provider manages the physical data center facilities, virtualization layer, physical servers, storage disks, and networking hardware. The customer is responsible for installing and configuring the operating system, middleware, runtime, and data.
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About JKSSB Junior Assistant 2026 Previous Year Paper
This page provides the full solved question paper for the JKSSB Junior Assistant examination conducted in 2026 by the General Administration Department. Every MCQ is presented with verified answer keys and detailed bilingual explanations to support concept building.
Key subjects covered in this paper include General English, Numerical & Reasoning Ability, General Awareness with special ref to J&K, Basic Concepts of Computers. Practicing authentic previous year questions is the proven way to master question patterns and improve accuracy for upcoming exams across Jammu & Kashmir.
