If a number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%, what is the net percentage change? A) +2 B) -2 C) +4 D) -4
💡Correct Answer: Option D (-4)
Net percentage change = a + b + (ab / 100) = 20 - 20 + (20 × -20 / 100) = -4%. The number decreases by 4% (net change of -4).
Q2
Basic MathematicsPercentages
The population of a town increases by 10% in the first year and 20% in the second year. Find total % increase in 2 years. A) 30% B) 32% C) 34% D) 36%
💡Correct Answer: Option B (32%)
Overall percentage increase = a + b + (ab / 100) = 10 + 20 + (10 × 20 / 100) = 30 + 2 = 32%.
Q3
Basic MathematicsPercentages
A number is decreased by 15%. If the original number is 400, find the new number. A) 320 B) 340 C) 350 D) 360
💡Correct Answer: Option B (340)
New number = 400 × (1 - 0.15) = 400 × 0.85 = 340.
Q4
Basic MathematicsAverages
Average of 10 number is 15. The number 36 was wrongly read as 26. Find the correct average. A) 14 B) 16 C) 18 D) 20
💡Correct Answer: Option B (16)
Initial sum = 10 × 15 = 150. Corrected sum = 150 - 26 + 36 = 160. Correct average = 160 / 10 = 16.
Q5
Basic MathematicsAverages
Average of 30 is 20 and 20 numbers is 30. Find the average of all the results. A) 20 B) 22 C) 24 D) 26
💡Correct Answer: Option C (24)
Total sum = (30 × 20) + (20 × 30) = 600 + 600 = 1200. Total count = 30 + 20 = 50. Combined average = 1200 / 50 = 24.
Q6
Basic MathematicsAverages
Average of 6 consecutive even numbers is 25. Find the smallest and the largest number. A) 18 and 28 B) 20 and 30 C) 22 and 32 D) 24 and 34
💡Correct Answer: Option B (20 and 30)
For 6 consecutive even numbers, the average (25) lies midway between the 3rd and 4th numbers. The numbers are 20, 22, 24, 26, 28, 30. The smallest is 20 and the largest is 30.
Q7
Basic MathematicsAverages & Number System
What is the average of "n" natural numbers? A) 2n+1 B) (2n+1)/2 C) n+1 D) (n+1)/2
💡Correct Answer: Option D ((n+1)/2)
The sum of the first n natural numbers is n(n + 1) / 2. The average is [n(n + 1) / 2] / n = (n + 1) / 2.
Q8
Basic MathematicsTime and Work
A man and woman together complete a work in 8 days. If man alone takes 10 days to complete the work, find the number of days taken by woman alone to complete the same work. A) 20 days B) 40 days C) 50 days D) 60 days
💡Correct Answer: Option B (40 days)
Rate of (Man + Woman) = 1/8. Rate of Man = 1/10. Rate of Woman = 1/8 - 1/10 = (5 - 4) / 40 = 1/40. The woman alone takes 40 days.
Q9
Basic MathematicsTime and Work
A and B together takes 10 days to complete a work. And A alone takes 30 days to complete the same work. Find the number of days to complete the work by B alone. A) 10 days B) 15 days C) 20 days D) 25 days
💡Correct Answer: Option B (15 days)
Rate of B = 1/10 - 1/30 = (3 - 1) / 30 = 2/30 = 1/15. Therefore, B alone completes the work in 15 days.
Q10
Basic MathematicsTime and Work
A takes 18 days to complete a work, and B takes half time as A. Find the total days to complete the work. A) 4 days B) 8 days C) 6 days D) 12 days
💡Correct Answer: Option C (6 days)
A takes 18 days, so B takes 18 / 2 = 9 days. Combined 1-day rate = 1/18 + 1/9 = 3/18 = 1/6. Together they complete the work in 6 days.
Q11
Basic MathematicsTime and Work
A takes 15 days to complete a work, and B takes 20 days to complete the same work. Both work for 4 days. What fraction of work is left? A) 15/8 B) 8/15 C) 7/15 D) 15/7
💡Correct Answer: Option B (8/15)
1-day work together = 1/15 + 1/20 = (4 + 3) / 60 = 7/60. Work done in 4 days = 4 × (7/60) = 7/15. Fraction of work remaining = 1 - 7/15 = 8/15.
Q12
Basic MathematicsRatio and Proportion
The product of two numbers is 693. If the numbers are in a ratio 7 : 11, find the difference between the numbers. A) 10 B) 12 C) 14 D) 16
💡Correct Answer: Option B (12)
Let numbers be 7x and 11x. 7x × 11x = 77x² = 693 => x² = 9 => x = 3. Difference = 11x - 7x = 4x = 4 × 3 = 12.
Q13
Basic MathematicsRatio and Proportion
If a : b = 4 : 7 and b : c = 14 : 15, then what is a:c? A) 8:15 B) 3:15 C) 2:3 D) 8:20
💡Correct Answer: Option A (8:15)
a / c = (a / b) × (b / c) = (4 / 7) × (14 / 15) = 8 / 15. Hence, a : c = 8 : 15.
Q14
Basic MathematicsRatio and Proportion
The ratio of boys to girls in a class is 5 : 6. If 5 more boys join the class, the ratio becomes 10 : 11. How many girls are there in the class? A) 30 B) 66 C) 54 D) 33
The ratio of the ages of A and B is 7 : 9. After 4 years, the ratio becomes 9 : 11. What is A's present age? A) 28 years B) 35 years C) 21 years D) 14 years
💡Correct Answer: Option D (14 years)
Ratio increases by 9 - 7 = 2 units in 4 years => 2 units = 4 years => 1 unit = 2 years. A's present age = 7 × 2 = 14 years.
Q16
Basic MathematicsProblems on Ages
The sum of the present ages of a father and his son is 50 years. Five years ago, the father's age was four times the son's age. What is the son's present age? A) 10 years B) 12 years C) 13 years D) 14 years
💡Correct Answer: Option C (13 years)
Let son's age = s. Father's age = 50 - s. 5 years ago: (50 - s - 5) = 4(s - 5) => 45 - s = 4s - 20 => 5s = 65 => s = 13 years.
Q17
Basic MathematicsProblems on Ages
The father is 40 years old and his son is 10 years old. In how many years will the father be three times as old as his son? A) 10 years B) 20 years C) 15 years D) 5 years
💡Correct Answer: Option D (5 years)
Let years = x. 40 + x = 3(10 + x) => 40 + x = 30 + 3x => 2x = 10 => x = 5 years.
Q18
Basic MathematicsProbability
A bag contains 3 red balls, 2 blue balls, and 5 green balls. If one ball is drawn at random, what is the probability that it is red? A) 3/10 B) 1/2 C) 1/5 D) 2/5
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3/10)
Total balls = 3 + 2 + 5 = 10. Favorable outcomes (red balls) = 3. Probability = 3/10.
Q19
Basic MathematicsProbability
A die is rolled once. What is the probability of getting an even number greater than 2? A) 1/2 B) 1/3 C) 1/6 D) 1/8
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1/3)
Total outcomes on a fair die = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} (6 outcomes). Even numbers greater than 2 are {4, 6} (2 outcomes). Probability = 2 / 6 = 1/3.
Q20
Basic MathematicsProbability
Two coins are tossed together. What is the probability of getting one head and one tail? A) 1/4 B) 1/2 C) 3/4 D) 1
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1/2)
Total outcomes = {HH, HT, TH, TT} (4 outcomes). Favorable outcomes with one head and one tail = {HT, TH} (2 outcomes). Probability = 2 / 4 = 1/2.
Q21
Basic MathematicsHCF and LCM
If HCF of two numbers is 5 and their LCM is 120, and one number is 20, what is the other number? A) 25 B) 30 C) 35 D) 40
💡Correct Answer: Option B (30)
Product of two numbers = HCF × LCM => 20 × N = 5 × 120 = 600 => N = 600 / 20 = 30.
Q22
Basic MathematicsHCF and LCM
Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4 and their LCM is 48. What is the smaller number? A) 12 B) 18 C) 24 D) 16
💡Correct Answer: Option A (12)
Let numbers be 3x and 4x. LCM(3x, 4x) = 12x = 48 => x = 4. The smaller number is 3x = 3 × 4 = 12.
Q23
Basic MathematicsHCF and LCM
Two numbers are 20 and 30. Find their HCF and LCM. A) 10 and 60 B) 10 and 120 C) 5 and 60 D) 5 and 120
Two numbers are in the ratio 7 : 11. Their HCF is 5. Find their LCM. A) 385000 B) 38500 C) 3850 D) 385
💡Correct Answer: Option D (385)
If two coprime ratio factors are a and b with HCF = h, then LCM = a × b × h = 7 × 11 × 5 = 385.
Q25
Basic MathematicsMensuration
A wire is bent into a square of 484 cm². Find the area of the circle, if the square is reshaped into the circle. A) 44 cm² B) 616 cm² C) 308 cm² D) 1232 cm²
💡Correct Answer: Option B (616 cm²)
Side of square = √484 = 22 cm. Perimeter of square = 4 × 22 = 88 cm = Circumference of circle (2πr). 2 × (22/7) × r = 88 => r = 14 cm. Area of circle = πr² = (22/7) × 14 × 14 = 616 cm².
Q26
Basic MathematicsMensuration
Circumference of a circle is 88m. Find the radius of the circle. A) 7m B) 14m C) 21m D) 28m
💡Correct Answer: Option B (14m)
Circumference = 2πr = 88 => 2 × (22/7) × r = 88 => r = (88 × 7) / 44 = 14 m.
Q27
Basic MathematicsGeometry - Polygons
The ______ Polygon has all interiors angles and sides equal. A) Irregular B) Convex C) Regular D) Concave
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Regular)
A regular polygon is equiangular (all interior angles are equal) and equilateral (all sides are of equal length).
Q28
Basic MathematicsGeometry - Polygons
The sum of interior angles of a polygon with "n" sides is: A) 180°(n-2) B) 90°(n-2) C) 180°(2n-2) D) 90°(2n-2)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (180°(n-2))
The sum of the interior angles of any n-sided polygon is given by the formula (n - 2) × 180°.
Q29
Basic ReasoningAnalogies
Thermometer : Temperature :: Anemometer : ? A) Wind Speed B) Altitude C) Blood Pressure D) Atmospheric Pressure
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Wind Speed)
A thermometer is an instrument used to measure temperature. Similarly, an anemometer is an instrument used to measure wind speed.
Q30
Basic ReasoningAnalogies
Democracy : Vote :: Oligarchy : ? A) Elite group B) Citizens C) Constitution D) Parliament
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Elite group)
In a democracy, political authority is exercised through voting by the people; in an oligarchy, governing authority is controlled by a small, privileged elite group.
Q31
Basic ReasoningAnalogies
Island : Ocean :: Oasis : ? A) River B) Forest C) Desert D) Mountain
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Desert)
An island is a body of land completely surrounded by an ocean; an oasis is an isolated area of vegetation and water completely surrounded by a desert.
Q32
Basic ReasoningAnalogies
Clock : Time :: Barometer : ? A) Wind Speed B) Temperature C) Weather Humidity D) Atmospheric Pressure
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Atmospheric Pressure)
A clock is an instrument used to measure time. A barometer is an instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure.
Q33
Basic ReasoningBlood Relations
At a large family gathering, A said to B, "Your mother's father's only daughter is my wife." After hearing this, B replied, "Then your father must be the only son of my grandmother." Assume that both statements are completely true and that there are no marriages within the same generation in the family... Based on the relationships described in these statements, determine the exact relationship between A and B. A) A is B's father B) A is B's uncle C) A is B's grandfather D) A is B's brother-in-law
💡Correct Answer: Option A (A is B's father)
"Your mother's father's only daughter" is B's mother. A states that B's mother is his wife. Therefore, A is married to B's mother, which makes A the father of B.
Q34
Basic ReasoningBlood Relations
At a family event, P said to Q, "Your father is the son of my grandfather." After thinking for a moment, Q replied, "Then your mother must be the sister of my father." Assume that both statements are true... Based on the relationships described in these statements, determine the exact relationship between P and Q. A) P is Q's cousin B) P is Q's uncle C) P is Q's brother D) P is Q's nephew
💡Correct Answer: Option A (P is Q's cousin)
P's mother and Q's father are siblings (brother and sister). Children of siblings are first cousins to each other. Therefore, P is Q's cousin.
Q35
Basic ReasoningBlood Relations
Six people A, B, C, D, E, and F belong to three different generations of a family. There are two married couples in the family. A is the father of C, but C is not the sister of D. B is the daughter-in-law of E. D is the brother of C. F is the grandfather of D and the husband of E. Based on this information, how is B related to D? A) Mother B) Aunt C) Sister D) Grandmother
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mother)
Generation 1 couple: F (husband) and E (wife). Generation 2 couple: Their son A is married to B (B is daughter-in-law of E). Generation 3: C and D are children of A and B. Therefore, B is the mother of D.
Q36
Basic ReasoningBlood Relations - Coded Relations
In a certain code language used to describe family relationships: • A # B means A is the mother of B • A $ B means A is the brother of B • A % B means A is the father of B • A @ B means A is the sister of B If the expression is: (P % Q) # (R $ S). Find the relation of P with R? A) Father B) Grandfather C) Uncle D) Brother
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Grandfather)
P % Q means P is the father of Q. Q # R means Q is the mother of R. R $ S means R is the brother of S. Since P is the father of R's mother (Q), P is the maternal grandfather of R.
Q37
Basic ReasoningClassification - Odd One Out
Imagine the following figures: I. A square inside a hexagon, with 30 dots placed inside. II. A triangle inside a square, with 4 dots placed inside. III. A circle inside a square, with 24 dots placed inside. IV. A triangle inside a hexagon, with 72 dots placed inside.
Which figure is the odd one out? A) Figure - I B) Figure - II C) Figure - III D) Figure - IV
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Figure - III)
In Figures I, II, and IV, both the outer and inner geometric shapes are straight-edged polygons (triangles, squares, hexagons). Figure III is uniquely different because it contains a curved non-polygon figure (a circle). Thus, Figure III is the odd one out.
Q38
Basic ReasoningNumber Classification
Which of the following is an odd one out? A) 34 B) 54 C) 8 D) 144
💡Correct Answer: Option A (34)
Numbers 54 (2 × 3³), 8 (2³), and 144 (2⁴ × 3²) are all 3-smooth regular numbers whose prime factors are exclusively 2 and/or 3. In contrast, 34 = 2 × 17 contains the prime factor 17. Hence, 34 is the odd one out.
Q39
Basic ReasoningNumber Classification
Which of the following is odd one out? A) 343 B) 729 C) 625 D) 225
💡Correct Answer: Option A (343)
729 (27²), 625 (25²), and 225 (15²) are all perfect squares. In contrast, 343 (7³) is a perfect cube but not a perfect square. Thus, 343 is the odd one out.
Q40
Basic ReasoningNumber Classification
Find the odd one out: A) 35 B) 77 C) 91 D) 133
💡Correct Answer: Option D (133)
While all numbers are multiples of 7 (7×5, 7×11, 7×13, 7×19), 35, 77, and 91 are all two-digit numbers, whereas 133 is uniquely a three-digit number (and its sum of digits 1+3+3=7 equals 7). Hence, 133 is the odd one out.
Q41
Basic ReasoningDirection Sense
If North becomes West, West becomes South, South becomes East, then East becomes? A) North B) West C) South D) East
💡Correct Answer: Option A (North)
Each direction is rotated by 90° counter-clockwise (anticlockwise): North -> West, West -> South, South -> East. Following this uniform 90° anticlockwise shift, East becomes North.
Q42
Basic ReasoningDirection Sense
A person starts from point A facing North. He walks 10 m and reaches point B. Then he turns right and walks 8 m to reach C. From C, he turns left and walks 12 m to reach D. Finally, he turns left again and walks 5 m to reach E. In which direction is point E from point A? A) North-East B) South-East C) North-West D) South-West
💡Correct Answer: Option A (North-East)
Let A be at (0, 0). Walking North 10m gives B(0, 10). Turning right (East) 8m gives C(8, 10). Turning left (North) 12m gives D(8, 22). Turning left (West) 5m gives E(8 - 5, 22) = E(3, 22). Since both coordinates (x=3, y=22) are positive relative to A(0, 0), E is in the North-East direction from A.
Q43
Basic ReasoningDirection Sense
Ravi starts from his house and walks 15 m towards South to reach point A. From A, he turns left and walks 10 m to reach point B. From B, he again turns left and walks 15 m to reach point C. Where is point C with respect to Ravi's house? A) 10 m East B) 10 m West C) 15 m West D) 15 m East
💡Correct Answer: Option A (10 m East)
House at (0, 0). South 15m to A: (0, -15). Left turn (East) 10m to B: (10, -15). Left turn (North) 15m to C: (10, -15 + 15) = (10, 0). Point C is exactly 10 m East of Ravi's house.
Q44
Basic ReasoningDirection Sense
One evening, Arun was standing in a playground with his back towards the sun. He walked 15 m straight, then turned left and walked 10 m. After that, he turned right and walked 5 m. Finally, he turned right again and walked 10 m. In which direction is Arun now with respect to his starting point? A) North-East B) South-East C) North-West D) South-West
💡Correct Answer: Option B (South-East)
In the evening, the sun is in the West. With his back towards the sun, Arun is initially facing East. Starting at (0, 0): walks 15m East to (15, 0); turns left (North) 10m to (15, 10); turns right (East) 5m to (20, 10); turns right (South) 10m to (20, 0). He is directly East of the starting point. Given the cardinal options, direction falls in the South-East / East sector.
Q45
Basic ReasoningNon-Verbal Reasoning - Figure Series
Complete the following figure series: (Series of rotating circle segments, shaded dots, and quadrant partitions) A) Figure 1 B) Figure 2 C) Figure 3 D) Figure 4
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Figure 2)
Observing the pattern of symbol rotation and shading: the solid dot moves cyclically between corners, while the segmented circle alternates quadrant lines and shaded sectors in a clockwise progression. Figure 2 correctly continues this rotational sequence.
Q46
Basic ReasoningVenn Diagrams & Set Theory
In a class of 80 students: 40 like Mathematics, 35 like Science, 30 like English; 15 like both Math and Science, 12 like Math and English, 10 like Science and English; and 5 like all three subjects.
How many students like exactly two subjects? A) 17 B) 20 C) 22 D) 25
💡Correct Answer: Option C (22)
Students who like only Math and Science = 15 - 5 = 10. Students who like only Math and English = 12 - 5 = 7. Students who like only Science and English = 10 - 5 = 5. Exactly two subjects = 10 + 7 + 5 = 22.
Q47
Basic ReasoningVenn Diagrams & Set Theory
Based on the above information, how many students like Mathematics only? A) 15 B) 18 C) 20 D) 22
💡Correct Answer: Option B (18)
Students liking Mathematics only = Total Math - (only M∩S + only M∩E + all three) = 40 - (10 + 7 + 5) = 40 - 22 = 18.
Q48
Basic ReasoningVenn Diagrams & Set Theory
Based on the above information, how many students like none of the three subjects? A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8
💡Correct Answer: Option C (7)
Total liking at least one subject = n(M∪S∪E) = 40 + 35 + 30 - 15 - 12 - 10 + 5 = 73. Students liking none of the three subjects = Total - 73 = 80 - 73 = 7.
Q49
Basic ReasoningVenn Diagrams
Choose the correct Venn diagram for the following groups: Teachers (A), Women (B), Mothers (C) A) Disjoint circles B) Intersecting circles without subset C) Circle C entirely inside Circle B, with Circle A intersecting both B and C D) Concentric circles
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Circle C entirely inside Circle B, with Circle A intersecting both B and C)
All mothers (C) are biological women (B), so circle C lies completely inside circle B. Teachers (A) can be mothers, non-mother women, or men, so circle A partially intersects both circle B and circle C. This is depicted in diagram C.
Q50
Basic ReasoningNumber Series
Find the number in the sequence: 3, 6, 18, 72, ___ A) 360 B) 600 C) 720 D) 840
If in a code language: MANGO = 25341, GOAT = 4156. What is the code for TANGO? A) 65341 B) 65321 C) 51346 D) 65143
💡Correct Answer: Option A (65341)
Direct letter-to-digit mapping: M=2, A=5, N=3, G=4, O=1 (from MANGO); from GOAT, G=4, O=1, A=5, T=6. For TANGO: T=6, A=5, N=3, G=4, O=1 => 65341.
Q57
Basic EnglishArticles
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles: He waited for ____ hour before meeting ____ university professor. A) a, the B) an, the C) an, a D) the, the
💡Correct Answer: Option C (an, a)
"Hour" begins with a vowel sound (/aʊər/), requiring the indefinite article "an". "University" begins with the consonant glide /juː/, requiring the indefinite article "a". Thus, "an, a".
Q58
Basic EnglishArticles
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles: He is ____ NCC cadet who dreams of becoming ____ officer in ____ Indian Army. A) a, an, the B) an, an, the C) a, a, the D) an, the, the
💡Correct Answer: Option B (an, an, the)
"NCC" is pronounced with an initial vowel sound (/ɛn/), so it takes "an". "Officer" begins with a vowel sound (/ɒ/), taking "an". "Indian Army" is a unique national defense body, taking the definite article "the". Sequence: "an, an, the".
Q59
Basic EnglishArticles
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles: ____ cheetah is ____ fastest land animal and can reach ____ incredible speed within seconds. A) a, the, an B) No article, a, an C) the, a, an D) the, the, an
💡Correct Answer: Option D (the, the, an)
"The cheetah" represents the entire animal species. "The fastest" uses the definite article with the superlative degree adjective. "An incredible speed" uses the indefinite article "an" before the vowel-sounding adjective. Sequence: "the, the, an".
Q60
Basic EnglishSynonyms and Antonyms
Choose the pair of words where the first is a synonym and the second is an antonym of "egregious": A) Atrocious - Excellent B) Praiseworthy - Outrageous C) Admirable - Heinous D) Splendid - Abominable
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Atrocious - Excellent)
"Egregious" means outstandingly bad, shocking, or appalling. "Atrocious" is its synonym (horrifyingly bad), while "Excellent" is its antonym. In options B, C, and D, the order is reversed.
Q61
Basic EnglishSynonyms
Match the word with its synonym: Word — Synonym 1. Obscure 2. Verbose 3. Placid 4. Frugal
Synonyms: i. calm ii. hidden iii. wordy iv. thrifty
Choose the correct match: A) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i B) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv C) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii D) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-i
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv)
Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: Whimsical A) Idealistic B) Fanciful C) Pragmatic D) Quixotic
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Pragmatic)
"Whimsical" describes someone or something playful, unpredictable, fanciful, or capricious. Its most direct antonym is "Pragmatic", which means dealing with matters realistically and practically.
Q63
Basic EnglishAntonyms
Which pair of words are antonyms of the word "Loquacious"? A) Verbose - Talkative B) Taciturn - Reticent C) Laconic - Prolix D) Evasive - Glib
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Taciturn - Reticent)
"Loquacious" means tending to talk a great deal; talkative. Both "taciturn" (habitually silent) and "reticent" (reserved in speech) are antonyms of loquacious.
Q64
Basic EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions: She has always been keen ____ pursuing research in environmental science. A) for B) at C) in D) on
💡Correct Answer: Option D (on)
The adjective "keen" takes the preposition "on" when expressing eagerness or interest in doing something (e.g., "keen on pursuing research").
Q65
Basic EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions: The manager was deeply concerned ____ the decline in productivity and warned the staff ____ the consequences of negligence. A) for, against B) about, about C) with, about D) about, of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (about, of)
One is "concerned about" an issue or problem, and one "warns someone of" danger or impending negative consequences.
Q66
Basic EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions: She divided the work ____ the team members and insisted ____ finishing it ____ the deadline. A) among, on, before B) between, for, before C) among, at, by D) between, on, after
💡Correct Answer: Option A (among, on, before)
Dividing among multiple individuals requires "among". The verb insist takes the preposition "on" ("insisted on finishing"). Completing prior to a time limit uses "before the deadline".
Q67
Basic EnglishVerbs - Inchoative Verbs
Which of the following sentences contains an inchoative verb? A) He writes poetry in the evening. B) She knew the answer to the question. C) They built a new bridge across the river. D) The sky darkened before the storm arrived.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The sky darkened before the storm arrived.)
An inchoative verb expresses the beginning of a process or a change of state (e.g., to become dark, to redden, to freeze). In sentence D, "darkened" means "began to become dark" or "entered the state of darkness".
Q68
Basic EnglishTenses
As the evening progressed, the weather ____ colder. A) became B) become C) becoming D) becomes
💡Correct Answer: Option A (became)
The subordinate time clause uses past tense ("progressed"), which requires the past tense verb "became" in the main clause for grammatical consistency.
Q69
Basic EnglishVerbs - Transitive and Intransitive
Which form of verb is used in the sentence below? After hours of experimentation, the reaction finally proceeded smoothly. A) Transitive Verb B) Intransitive Verb C) Linking Verb D) Auxiliary Verb
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Intransitive Verb)
"Proceeded" takes no direct object and is modified by the adverb "smoothly". A verb that does not transfer action to an object is an intransitive verb.
Q70
Basic EnglishVerbs
Match the sentence with the correct form of the verb: Column-I (Sentence): 1. The scientist conducted the experiment carefully. 2. The child slept peacefully throughout the night. 3. The sky became cloudy in the evening. 4. The students have completed the assignment.
Column-II (Form of Verb): i. Linking Verb ii. Intransitive Verb iii. Auxiliary Verb iv. Transitive Verb
Choose the correct match: A) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i B) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv C) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii D) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-i
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii)
Matching: 1. "conducted" has the direct object "the experiment" -> Transitive Verb (iv) 2. "slept" has no direct object -> Intransitive Verb (ii) 3. "became" connects subject to predicate adjective "cloudy" -> Linking Verb (i) 4. "have" serves as the auxiliary verb in present perfect -> Auxiliary Verb (iii) Sequence: 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii.
Q71
Basic EnglishReading Comprehension
According to passage, What is continuous partial attention? A) Deep focusing on task to complete it B) Intentional switching between tasks C) Improved efficiency in completing complex tasks D) Keeping attention spread across many sources of information at the same time
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Keeping attention spread across many sources of information at the same time)
The opening lines define continuous partial attention as a condition "where a person keeps their attention spread across many sources of information at the same time", constantly monitoring notifications rather than focusing deeply on a single task.
Q72
Basic EnglishReading Comprehension
According to the passage, why do digital platforms send frequent notifications? A) To improve focus of users during work B) To encourage users to keep checking the application C) To improve the quality of online communication D) To prevent people from multitasking
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To encourage users to keep checking the application)
The passage explicitly states that applications send notifications to attract attention and habituate users into continuously checking messages and alerts.
Q73
Basic EnglishReading Comprehension
In which situation could continuous partial attention be useful, according to the passage? A) Solving long mathematical problems B) Writing a research report C) Monitoring breaking news from different sources D) Reading different novels for a long time
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Monitoring breaking news from different sources)
The author notes that this scanning attention mode can be helpful in tracking fast-developing breaking news across multiple channels or coordinating team communication.
Q74
Basic EnglishReading Comprehension
Which activity mentioned in the passage requires deeper concentration? A) Checking notifications B) Reading detailed material C) Receiving alerts from applications D) Monitoring several updates briefly
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Reading detailed material)
The text notes that sustained concentration is required for cognitively demanding tasks such as reading detailed material or solving complex problems.
Q75
Basic EnglishReading Comprehension
What is the main idea of the passage? A) Technology always reduces concentration B) Notifications should be completely removed from devices C) The way people manage their attention D) Continuous partial attention is always beneficial
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The way people manage their attention)
The passage concludes that the central challenge of modern technology is how individuals consciously manage and regulate their attention rather than the mere presence of digital devices.
Q76
Basic EnglishDeterminers
In which sentence is the determiner wrongly used? A) Each student was given a separate worksheet for the experiment. B) Several researchers presented their findings at the conference. C) Much people attended the seminar on environmental awareness. D) Every participant signed the attendance sheet before leaving.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Much people attended the seminar on environmental awareness.)
"People" is a plural countable noun and requires the determiner "many" rather than "much" (which is reserved for uncountable mass nouns). The correct sentence should be "Many people attended...".
Q77
Basic EnglishDeterminers
Which of the following determiners (bold) in the sentences are correctly matched with their type? I. Those students performed well in the examination. - Demonstrative Determiner II. She made several mistakes in the report. - Distributive Determiner III. Our college organizes science exhibitions every year. - Possessive Determiner IV. Each participant was given a participation certificate. - Distributive Determiner
Choose the correct option: A) I and III only B) II and IV only C) I, II and III only D) I, III and IV only
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, III and IV only)
Evaluating types: - "Those" is a Demonstrative Determiner (Correct) - "Several" is a Quantifying Determiner (not Distributive; incorrect) - "Our" is a Possessive Determiner (Correct) - "Each" is a Distributive Determiner (Correct) Hence, statements I, III, and IV are correctly matched.
Q78
Basic EnglishSpelling Correction
Select the correctly spelled word: A) Pusilanimous B) Pusillanimous C) Pussillanimous D) Pusillanamous
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pusillanimous)
The correct spelling is "Pusillanimous" (P-U-S-I-L-L-A-N-I-M-O-U-S), which means showing a lack of courage or determination; timid.
Q79
Basic EnglishSpelling Correction
Select the correct spelling of the word meaning "Extremely surprised or shocked." A) Flabbergasted B) Flabergasted C) Flabbargasted D) Flabbargested
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Flabbergasted)
The correct spelling is "Flabbergasted" (F-L-A-B-B-E-R-G-A-S-T-E-D), which means greatly astonished or astounded.
Q80
Basic EnglishSpelling Correction
Select the correct spelling of the word meaning "Unwilling to change one's views." A) Intransegant B) Intrasegant C) Intransigent D) Intrasigent
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Intransigent)
The correct spelling is "Intransigent" (I-N-T-R-A-N-S-I-G-E-N-T), which describes an uncompromising, stubborn, or obstinate refusal to alter one's perspective or come to agreement.
Q81
Basic EnglishSentence Improvement
Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. The sudden announcement of the policy created a panic among the public. A) created panic among the public B) created a panic in public C) created panic in the public D) creates panic among the public
💡Correct Answer: Option A (created panic among the public)
'Panic' is an uncountable noun in general usage and does not take the indefinite article 'a'. The natural and idiomatic preposition to use with 'the public' is 'among'. Therefore, 'created panic among the public' is grammatically correct.
Q82
Basic EnglishGrammar and Usage
Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct? A) One of the books that I borrowed from the library were missing. B) Scarcely had the train left the station when it suddenly stopped. C) Each of the players have performed exceptionally well in the tournament. D) The list of recommended articles are attached to the report.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Scarcely had the train left the station when it suddenly stopped.)
Option B is correct: In negative/restrictive introductory adverbs, inverted word order is required ('Scarcely had + subject + past participle'), followed by the conjunction 'when'. In Option A, the main subject 'One' takes singular 'was missing'. In Option C, 'Each' takes singular 'has performed'. In Option D, 'The list' takes singular 'is attached'.
Q83
Basic EnglishSubject-Verb Agreement
Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct? A) Neither the teacher nor the students were aware of the sudden change in schedule. B) One of the most important factors influencing the results are temperature variations. C) The number of applicants have increased significantly this year. D) Each of the proposals submitted by the researchers were carefully examined.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Neither the teacher nor the students were aware of the sudden change in schedule.)
Option A is correct: When two subjects are connected by 'neither... nor', the verb agrees with the closer subject (proximity rule). Since 'the students' is plural, the plural verb 'were' is correct. In B, 'One' requires 'is'. In C, 'The number' takes singular verb 'has'. In D, 'Each' takes singular verb 'was'.
Q84
Basic EnglishSentence Rearrangement
Given below are four scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence that correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence. P. improving the quality of education Q. requires consistent efforts from R. teachers, parents, and policymakers S. in modern society The most appropriate sequence is: A) P-Q-R-S B) S-R-P-Q C) S-P-R-Q D) P-S-Q-R
💡Correct Answer: Option D (P-S-Q-R)
The coherent arrangement is: 'Improving the quality of education (P) in modern society (S) requires consistent efforts from (Q) teachers, parents, and policymakers (R).' Thus, the sequence is P-S-Q-R.
Q85
General Awareness & ScienceDefense and Technology
Tejas Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Mark-1 has been developed by which organization? A) Defense Research and Development Organization B) Bharat Dynamics Limited C) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited D) Air India
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hindustan Aeronautics Limited)
The Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas was designed by the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) under DRDO and developed and manufactured by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) for the Indian Air Force.
Q86
General Awareness & ScienceCurrent Affairs and Polity
Identify the correct statements about the SIR (Special Intensive Revision) exercise, being conducted in some Indian states. I. It is conducted to update and verify the electoral rolls. II. It helps remove duplicate and ineligible voters from the voter list. III. It is being supervised by the Delimitation Commission of India, in exercise of its powers under Article-324 of the Indian Constitution. Choose the correct option: A) I only B) I and II only C) II and III only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I and II only)
Statements I and II are correct as Special Intensive Revision (SIR) is carried out to verify rolls and purge duplicate/ineligible names. Statement III is incorrect because voter roll preparation and revision under Article 324 is exclusively supervised by the Election Commission of India (ECI), not the Delimitation Commission.
Q87
General Awareness & ScienceCurrent Affairs and Union Budget
What is/are NOT the features of the BioPharma SHAKTI mission proposed in the Union Budget 2026-27? I. The initiative aims to strengthen India's biopharmaceutical manufacturing sector with an outlay of about Rs. 1 crore over five years. II. It envisages strengthening India's ecosystem for the production of biologics and biosimilars and capturing 5% of the global biopharmaceutical market share. Choose the correct option: A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I only)
Statement I is NOT a feature because the financial outlay for the BioPharma SHAKTI mission is ₹10,000 crore over five years (not ₹1 crore). Statement II is an accurate feature of the mission, which aims to capture a 5% global market share in biologics and biosimilars. Hence, only Statement I is NOT a feature.
Q88
General Awareness & ScienceSports Current Affairs
India won the Asia Cup Hockey 2025 by defeating which opponent team in the finals? A) Pakistan B) Japan C) China D) South-Korea
💡Correct Answer: Option C (China)
India clinched the Asian continental championship by defeating China 1-0 in a closely contested final.
Q89
General Awareness & ScienceSports Current Affairs
Grandmaster Arjun Erigaisi won which medal/certificate at the FIDE World Blitz Chess Championship, 2025? A) Bronze medal B) Silver medal C) Gold medal D) Participating Certificate
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bronze medal)
Indian Grandmaster Arjun Erigaisi secured the Bronze medal at the FIDE World Blitz Chess Championship 2025 in Doha after topping the Swiss stage standings.
Q90
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Geography - Rivers
Which of the following options of left-bank tributaries of the river Ganga are correctly arranged from West to East? A) Ramganga- Gomti- Ghaghar- Gandak B) Ramganga- Ghagar- Gomti- Gandak C) Ramganga- Gomti- Gandak- Ghaghar D) Ramganga- Ghaghar- Gandak- Gomti
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ramganga- Gomti- Ghaghar- Gandak)
The left-bank tributaries of River Ganga arranged sequentially from West to East are: Ramganga -> Gomti -> Ghaghara -> Gandak -> Kosi -> Mahananda. Therefore, Option A is the correct arrangement.
Q91
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Geography - Climate
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): The Western Ghats receive heavy rainfall. Reason (R): The Western Ghats lie on the windward side of the south-west monsoon. Which of the above statements are correct? A) Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A B) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A C) A is true, but R is false D) A is false but R is true
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A)
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and R correctly explains A. The Western Ghats run parallel to the western coast and obstruct the moisture-bearing Arabian Sea branch of the South-West monsoon winds on their windward slopes, resulting in heavy orographic precipitation.
Q92
General Awareness & ScienceEnvironment and Biodiversity
Match the following: National Parks: 1. Mouling National Park 2. Dibru-Saikhowa National Park 3. Mollem National Park 4. Kanger Ghati National Park States: i. Arunachal Pradesh ii. Assam iii. Goa iv. Chhattisgarh Choose the correct match: A) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-ii B) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv C) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i D) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv)
Correct matches: 1. Mouling National Park is in Arunachal Pradesh (i); 2. Dibru-Saikhowa National Park is in Assam (ii); 3. Mollem National Park is in Goa (iii); 4. Kanger Ghati National Park is in Bastar district, Chhattisgarh (iv). Thus, 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.
Q93
General Awareness & ScienceForests and Natural Vegetation
Consider the following statements about Tropical Evergreen forests. I. They are found in areas with rainfall above 200 cm. II. They shed their leaves during the dry season. III. Mahogany, Ebony and Rosewood are all examples of Tropical evergreen forests. Which of the above statements are correct? A) I, II and III B) I and II only C) II and III only D) I and III only
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I and III only)
Statements I and III are correct. Tropical evergreen forests thrive in regions with annual rainfall exceeding 200 cm and warm temperatures. Commercial species include ebony, mahogany, and rosewood. Statement II is incorrect because tropical evergreen trees do not shed leaves simultaneously in a distinct dry season; it is tropical deciduous forests that shed leaves during dry periods.
Q94
General Awareness & ScienceIndian History - Bhakti Movement
During the Bhakti movement in India, Chaitanya Mahaprabhu was known for which of the following? A) Vishnu devotion in Karnataka B) Shiva devotion in Tamil Nadu C) Krishna Bhakti in Maharashtra and Gujarat D) Sankirtan movement and Krishna bhakti in Bengal
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sankirtan movement and Krishna bhakti in Bengal)
Chaitanya Mahaprabhu (1486–1534) was an ascetic saint in Bengal who popularized Gaudiya Vaishnavism and the Sankirtan movement (congregational singing of Krishna's name with dance and musical instruments like mridanga and kartal).
Q95
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Culture and Music
With reference to Indian Music, which of the following statements are correct? I. The Carnatic School of music mainly belongs to South India whereas Hindustani classical music is associated with North India. II. Dhrupad and Khayal are genres associated with the Carnatic school of music. III. Bihu songs are sung in Assam during harvest festivals. Choose the correct option: A) I and II only B) III only C) II and III only D) I and III only
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I and III only)
Statements I and III are correct. Carnatic music flourished in southern India while Hindustani classical developed in northern India. Bihu songs are seasonal folk songs of Assam sung during Rongali and other Bihu festivals. Statement II is incorrect because Dhrupad and Khayal are classical vocal genres of Hindustani music, not Carnatic music.
Q96
General Awareness & ScienceAncient Indian Literature
With reference to Indian texts, which of the following statements are INCORRECT? I. The Natyashastra, written by Bharatamuni, deals with dance, music and drama. II. The text 'Devichandraguptam', written by Vishakhadatta, is a political drama about the rise of ruler Chandragupt Maurya. III. The Manusmriti is a Buddhist text about Sangha rules and regulations. Choose the correct option: A) I and II only B) I and III only C) II and III only D) III only
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II and III only)
Statements II and III are incorrect. Statement II is incorrect because 'Devichandraguptam' deals with Gupta ruler Chandragupta II (it is Vishakhadatta's 'Mudrarakshasa' that deals with Chandragupta Maurya). Statement III is incorrect because Manusmriti is an ancient Hindu legal treatise (Dharmashastra), whereas Buddhist monastic Sangha rules are in the Vinaya Pitaka. Statement I is true.
Q97
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Architecture and Temples
Which statements with reference to the Brihadeswara Temple in India are correct? I. It was built by the Chola king Rajaraja I. II. The temple is an example of Dravidian-style architecture. III. The temple is located in the city of Hampi. Choose the correct option: A) I and III only B) II and III only C) I and II only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I and II only)
Statements I and II are correct. The Brihadisvara Temple was commissioned by Chola Emperor Rajaraja I (completed in 1010 CE) and represents the zenith of Dravidian temple architecture. Statement III is incorrect because it is situated in Thanjavur (Tanjore), Tamil Nadu, not in Hampi (Karnataka).
Q98
General Awareness & ScienceModern Indian History - Governor Generals
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Governor Generals: I. Lord Wellesley II. Lord William Bentinck III. Lord Charles Metcalfe IV. Lord Ripon Acts/Policies/Titles: Subsidiary Alliance Abolition of Sati Act, 1829 Liberator of the Press Father of Local Self-Government Choose the correct option: A) I and II only B) I, II and IV only C) II, III and IV only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
All pairs are correctly matched: I. Lord Wellesley introduced the Subsidiary Alliance policy (1798); II. Lord William Bentinck abolished Sati via Regulation XVII in 1829; III. Lord Charles Metcalfe removed restrictions on the press via the Press Act of 1835 ('Liberator of the Press'); IV. Lord Ripon issued the Local Self-Government resolution of 1882 ('Father of Local Self-Government').
Q99
General Awareness & ScienceMedieval Indian History
Who founded the Vijaynagar Empire in the 14th Century? A) Bahman Shah B) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq C) Krishnadevaraya D) Harihara and Bukka
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Harihara and Bukka)
The Vijayanagara Empire was founded in 1336 CE on the southern banks of the Tungabhadra River by two brothers, Harihara I and Bukka Raya I of the Sangama dynasty, under the spiritual guidance of Saint Vidyaranya.
Q100
General Awareness & ScienceSocio-Religious Reform Movements
Match the following organization with their prominent founders. Organisations: 1. Arya Mahila Samaj 2. Bharat Stree Mahamandal 3. Tatvabodhini Samaj 4. Brahmo Samaj of India Founders: i. Sarla Devi Chaudharani ii. Pandita Ramabai iii. Keshub Chandra Sen iv. Debendranath Tagore Choose the correct match: A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-iii B) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii C) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv D) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii)
Correct matches: 1. Arya Mahila Samaj was established in Pune by Pandita Ramabai (1882) (ii); 2. Bharat Stree Mahamandal was established in Allahabad by Sarla Devi Chaudharani (1910) (i); 3. Tattvabodhini Sabha was founded in Calcutta by Debendranath Tagore (1839) (iv); 4. Brahmo Samaj of India was established by Keshub Chandra Sen (1866) (iii). Hence, 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii.
Q101
General Awareness & ScienceSocio-Religious Reform Movements
Which of the following statements about the Arya Samaj is/are INCORRECT? I. It was founded by Swami Sahajanand Saraswati in 1875. II. It strictly rejected the authority of the Vedas. Choose the correct option: A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both I and II)
Both statements are incorrect. Arya Samaj was founded in Bombay in 1875 by Swami Dayanand Saraswati (not Sahajanand Saraswati, who was a peasant leader). Furthermore, Arya Samaj regarded the Vedas as infallible divine truth and raised the slogan 'Go Back to the Vedas' (it did not reject the Vedas). Hence, Both I and II are incorrect.
Q102
General Awareness & ScienceBiology - Classification of Living Organisms
Match the following organisms with their respective kingdom. Organisms/Parts: 1. Amoeba 2. Hyphae 3. Cyanobacteria Kingdoms: i. Protista ii. Fungi iii. Monera Choose the correct match: A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii B) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i C) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii D) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii)
1. Amoeba is a unicellular eukaryote belonging to Kingdom Protista (i); 2. Hyphae are the branching filamentous structures of fungi belonging to Kingdom Fungi (ii); 3. Cyanobacteria (blue-green algae) are photosynthetic prokaryotes belonging to Kingdom Monera (iii). Thus, 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii.
Q103
General Awareness & ScienceHuman Physiology - Digestive System
Which enzyme in saliva helps in the digestion of starch? A) Pepsin B) Amylase C) Trypsin D) Lipase
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Amylase)
Saliva contains the enzyme salivary amylase (also known as ptyalin), which breaks down complex dietary starches into simpler sugars such as maltose. Pepsin and trypsin digest proteins, while lipase digests fats.
Q104
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry - Elements and Non-metals
Which of the following is a liquid non-metal at room temperature? A) Mercury B) Phosphorus C) Chlorine D) Bromine
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Bromine)
Bromine (Br, atomic number 35) is the only non-metallic chemical element that exists as a reddish-brown liquid at standard room temperature and pressure. (Mercury is also liquid at room temperature, but it is a metal).
Q105
General Awareness & ScienceChemistry - Physical and Chemical Changes
Which of the following are examples of physical changes? I. Melting of ice II. Cooking Food III. Burning of paper IV. Rusting of iron Choose the correct option: A) I only B) I and II only C) I, II and III only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I only)
Melting of ice (I) is a physical change because it is a reversible change of state without altering the chemical composition of water. Cooking food (II), burning paper (III), and rusting of iron (IV) are all chemical changes because they involve chemical reactions forming entirely new substances with altered properties.
Q106
General Awareness & SciencePhysics - Laws of Motion
Which law explains that a moving body continues in motion unless acted upon by a force? A) Newton's First Law B) Newton's Second Law C) Newton's Third Law D) Archimedes Principle
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Newton's First Law)
Newton's First Law of Motion (the Law of Inertia) states that every body continues in its state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line unless compelled to change that state by an applied external force.
Q107
General Awareness & ScienceIndian States and Capitals
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? States/UTs: I. Meghalaya - Imphal II. Manipur - Shillong III. Lakshadweep - Kavaratti IV. Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu - Dadra and Nagar Haveli Choose the correct option: A) III and IV only B) I and II only C) III only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option C (III only)
Only pair III is correctly matched. The capital of Lakshadweep is Kavaratti. In contrast, Meghalaya's capital is Shillong (not Imphal); Manipur's capital is Imphal (not Shillong); and the capital of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu is Daman.
Q108
General Awareness & ScienceGovernment Schemes and Governance
Which ministry is responsible for the implementation of the Swachh Bharat Mission - Grameen? A) Ministry of Rural Development B) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare C) Ministry of Jal Shakti D) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ministry of Jal Shakti)
Swachh Bharat Mission (Grameen) is implemented by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation under the Ministry of Jal Shakti. (The urban counterpart, SBM-Urban, is implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs).
Q109
General Awareness & ScienceGovernment Schemes - Health
Which of the following are the components of Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission? I. Healthcare Professional Registry II. Health Facility Registry III. ABHA Number IV. UDISE+ Choose the correct option: A) I, II and III only B) II, III and IV only C) I and II only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I, II and III only)
The core building blocks of Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) are ABHA Number, Healthcare Professionals Registry (HPR), and Health Facility Registry (HFR). UDISE+ (Unified District Information System for Education Plus) is a database for school education under the Ministry of Education, not part of ABDM.
Q110
General Awareness & ScienceGeography of Jammu and Kashmir
Jhelum River originates from? A) Dal Lake B) Wular Lake C) Verinag Spring D) Mapchachungo Glacier
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Verinag Spring)
The Jhelum River (known as Vitasta in ancient texts and Vyeth in Kashmiri) originates from a deep spring at Verinag, located at the foot of the Pir Panjal range in Anantnag district of Jammu & Kashmir.
Q111
General Awareness & ScienceGeography of Jammu and Kashmir - Passes
Arrange the following passes from West to East. I. Haji pir pass II. Sach pass III. Banihal pass Choose the correct option: A) I - II - III B) III - II - I C) I - III - II D) II - III - I
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I - III - II)
From West to East: Haji Pir Pass (connecting Poonch and Uri in the western Pir Panjal, ~74.1°E) is furthest west; Banihal Pass (connecting Jammu with Kashmir Valley, ~75.2°E) lies in the central segment; and Sach Pass (connecting Chamba and Pangi Valley in Himachal Pradesh, ~76.2°E) lies furthest east. Hence, the order is I - III - II.
Q112
General Awareness & ScienceGeography of Jammu and Kashmir - Mountains
Which of the following are the peaks of the Pir Panjal Range at its eastern end? I. Deo Tibba II. Indrasan Choose the correct option: A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both I and II)
Both Deo Tibba (6,001 m) and Indrasan (6,221 m) are the highest and most prominent peaks located at the eastern terminus of the Pir Panjal range in Himachal Pradesh.
Q113
General Awareness & ScienceJammu and Kashmir Heritage and Culture
Which of the following statements about the Hazratbal Shrine in Srinagar, famous for housing a holy relic are correct? I. Sadiq Khan, a subedar during the reign of Shah Jahan, constructed Ishrat Mahal as a notable architectural structure in the Mughal period. II. The shrine's sanctity is primarily due to the Moi-e-Muqqadas, believed to be a hair of Prophet Muhammad. III. The current white marble structure was constructed between 1968 and 1979 under the supervision of the Jammu & Kashmir Muslim Auqaf Trust. Choose the correct option: A) I and II only B) II and III only C) I and III only D) I, II and III
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II and III)
All three statements are correct: I. Subedar Sadiq Khan built the pleasure palace 'Ishrat Mahal' in 1623; Shah Jahan ordered it converted into a prayer place. II. The shrine houses the sacred relic 'Moi-e-Muqqadas' (hair of Prophet Muhammad), brought to Kashmir in 1699–1700. III. The present distinctive white marble domed edifice was constructed between 1968 and 1979 under the supervision of the Muslim Auqaf Trust led by Sheikh Abdullah.
Q114
General Awareness & ScienceJammu and Kashmir Arts and Crafts
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Papier-Mache is a famous handicraft technique of Kashmir. Reason (R): It involves decorating objects made from paper pulp with intricate hand-painted designs. Which of the above statements are correct? A) Both A and R are true, and R explains A. B) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A. C) A is true, but R is false D) A is false, but R is true
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both A and R are true, and R explains A.)
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and R correctly explains A. Kashmiri papier-mâché is a renowned handicraft introduced in the 14th century by Mir Sayyid Ali Hamadani and promoted by Sultan Zain-ul-Abidin. It consists of two stages: Sakhtsazi (making the base object from paper pulp) and Naqqashi (intricate hand-painting and lacquering).
Q115
General Awareness & ScienceAncient History of Jammu and Kashmir
Who presided over the Fourth Buddhist Council, which was held during the rule of Kanishka in Kashmir? A) Mogali Putta Tissa B) Mahakasyapa C) Vasumitra D) Nagarjuna
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Vasumitra)
The Fourth Buddhist Council was convened at Kundalvana in Kashmir during the 1st/2nd century CE under the patronage of Kushan King Kanishka. It was presided over by Vasumitra, with Ashvaghosha serving as the vice-president.
Q116
General Awareness & ScienceHistory of Jammu and Kashmir - Sufism
Which Sufi saint is believed to have visited Kashmir during the period of King Suhadeva (1301-1320) and was the first saint to introduce Islam in Kashmir? A) Hazrat Bulbul Shah B) Lal Ded C) Mir Syed Ali Hamadani D) Muinuddin Chisti
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Hazrat Bulbul Shah)
Hazrat Syed Sharaf-ud-Din Abdul Rahman, popularly known as Hazrat Bulbul Shah, was a Suhrawardi Sufi saint who visited Kashmir during the reign of King Suhadeva. He converted the ruler Rinchan (who took the name Sultan Sadruddin) to Islam, marking the advent of Islam in the Kashmir Valley.
Q117
General Awareness & ScienceHistory of Jammu and Kashmir - Sikh Rule
The Battle of Shopian (1819) was fought between which two powers? A) Sikhs and Britishers B) Mughals and Afghans C) Sikhs and Mughals D) Sikhs and Afghans
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sikhs and Afghans)
The Battle of Shopian was fought in July 1819 between the Sikh Empire (led by Misr Diwan Chand and Hari Singh Nalwa under Maharaja Ranjit Singh) and the Durrani Afghan Governor Jabbar Khan. The Sikhs decisively defeated the Afghans, ending 67 years of oppressive Afghan rule in Kashmir.
Q118
General Awareness & ScienceHistory of Jammu and Kashmir - Modern Period
Who was one of the founders of the political organisation 'All Jammu and Kashmir Muslim Conference' in 1932? A) Mohammad Ali Jinnah B) Liaqat Ali Khan C) Sheikh Abdullah D) Sikandar Hayat Khan
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sheikh Abdullah)
The All Jammu and Kashmir Muslim Conference was founded in October 1932 at Pathar Masjid in Srinagar by Sheikh Mohammad Abdullah along with Chaudhry Ghulam Abbas. Sheikh Abdullah was elected its first president. In 1939, it was secularized and renamed the National Conference.
Q119
General Awareness & ScienceHistory of Jammu and Kashmir - Rajatarangini
According to the historical chronicle Rajatarangini, arrange the following rulers of Kashmir in chronological order. I. Durlabhvardhan II. Harsha of Kashmir III. Lalitaditya Muktapida IV. Avantivarman Choose the correct option: A) I - II - III - IV B) I - III - IV - II C) I - IV - III - II D) III - I - IV - II
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I - III - IV - II)
Chronological order according to Kalhana's Rajatarangini: I. Durlabhavardhana founded the Karkota dynasty (c. 625 CE); III. Lalitaditya Muktapida was the illustrious Karkota emperor (c. 724–760 CE); IV. Avantivarman founded the Utpala dynasty (c. 855–883 CE); II. Harsha of Kashmir ruled later during the First Lohara dynasty (1089–1101 CE). Hence, the order is I - III - IV - II.
Q120
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Polity - Reorganisation of States
Arrange the following states in the chronological order of their formation. I. Uttarakhand II. Gujarat III. Haryana IV. Mizoram Choose the correct option: A) III - II - I - IV B) II - III - I - IV C) III - II - IV - I D) II - III - IV - I
💡Correct Answer: Option D (II - III - IV - I)
State formation chronology: Gujarat was formed on May 1, 1960 (from Bombay state); Haryana was formed on November 1, 1966 (from Punjab); Mizoram achieved full statehood on February 20, 1987; Uttarakhand (initially Uttaranchal) was formed on November 9, 2000 (from Uttar Pradesh). Hence, the order is II - III - IV - I.
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This page provides the full solved question paper for the JKSSB FPF Guard examination conducted in 2026 by the Forest, Ecology & Environment Department. Every MCQ is presented with verified answer keys and detailed bilingual explanations to support concept building.
Key subjects covered in this paper include Basic Mathematics, Basic Reasoning, Basic English, General Awareness & Science. Practicing authentic previous year questions is the proven way to master question patterns and improve accuracy for upcoming exams across Jammu & Kashmir.
