JKSSB Laboratory Assistant 2025 Solved Paper - 240 MCQs

Q1

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsDrugs Price Control Order (DPCO)

The drug price control order was exercised by central government in:

Q2

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsD&C Act Regulatory Authorities

The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, is implemented and enforced by which authority?

Q3

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsIntellectual Property & Trademarks

What does Collective Trademarks indicate?

Q4

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsPharmacy Act 1948

The Pharmacy Act, 1948, was enacted to regulate:

Q5

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsPCI Constitution

Pharmacy council of India is constituted by the central government on every

Q6

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsState Pharmacy Councils

According to the Pharmacy Act, 1948, a State Pharmacy Council is responsible for:

Q7

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsDPCO 2013 Chronology

When did the Drug Price Control Order improvised the availability of basic medicines at affordable prices across the country?

Q8

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsMTP Act 1971

The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act was enacted in which year?

Q9

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsMTP Gestational Limits

Up to how many weeks of gestation is the opinion of one registered medical practitioner sufficient for Medical Termination of Pregnancy?

Q10

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsMTP Amendment 2021

The 2021 amendment to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act introduced provisions for:

Q11

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsPoisons Act 1919

According to Poisons Act, the central govt. is authorised to

Q12

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsState Government Powers under Poisons Act

Under the Poison Act, 1919, the rules for Storage, labelling, and Transport of poisons are made by

Q13

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsDMRA 1954 Enforcement Date

The Drugs and Magic Remedies Act was passed on which date?

Q14

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsProhibited Diseases under DMRA

The Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954 was enacted to prevent the advertisement of drugs that claim to cure which of the following?

Q15

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsM&TP Act 1955

The excise duty under the Medicinal and Toilet Preparations (Excise Duties) Act is levied on

Q16

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsM&TP Penalties

According to Medicinal & Toilet Preparation (Excise Duties) Act penalty for non-compliance with conditions of license and failure to pay duty is

Q17

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsBonded vs Non-Bonded Laboratories

In which of the following manufacturing of Medicinal and Toilet Preparation take place in presence of excise officer

Q18

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsAnimal Welfare Legislation

Which body was established under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 to ensure the welfare of animals in India?

Q19

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsCentral Drugs Testing Laboratories

Biologicals are tested at which of the following centres?

Q20

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsIAEC Functions

Which of the following is the objective of IAEC under 'The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1960'?

Q21

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsCPCSEA Headquarters

The head office of Committee for the purpose of control and supervision of experiment on animals (CPCSEA)?

Q22

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsBreeder Registration

Which of the following gives permission for the registration of breeders?

Q23

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsTrademarks Office

Which of the following authorities is responsible for registering trademarks in India under the Trademark Registration Act?

Q24

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsProhibited Drug Advertisements

Cure for cancer is an example of the following advertisements

Q25

Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsPoisons Act Schedules

Which poisonous substances from the following are exempted from certain provisions of the Poison Act?

Q26

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsTablet Manufacturing Defects

Unequal distribution of color in tablet is known as:

Q27

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsDissolution Testing Parameters

In dissolution test, flask is maintained at

💡Correct Answer: Option A ($37^\circ\text{C} \pm 0.5^\circ\text{C}$)

Pharmacopoeial dissolution testing requires the water bath and dissolution vessel medium to be maintained at human physiological body temperature of

37^\circ\text{C} \pm 0.5^\circ\text{C}

.

Q28

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsPowder Flowability Indices

The mathematical formula for calculating Hausner ratio is:

💡Correct Answer: Option B ($\frac{\text{Tapped density}}{\text{Bulk density}}$)

Hausner Ratio (

HR

) measures powder flowability and is calculated as:

\text{Hausner Ratio} = \frac{\text{Tapped Density} (\rho_{\text{tapped}})}{\text{Bulk Density} (\rho_{\text{bulk}})}

.

Q29

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsIP Dissolution Standards

According to the Indian Pharmacopoeia, for the dissolution test, what is the typical volume of the dissolution medium used for capsules?

Q30

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsCapsule Sizes & Capacities

Which capsule size has the smallest capacity?

Q31

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsCapsule Weight Variation Test

The Indian Pharmacopoeia specifies that the uniformity of weight test for capsules should be performed on how many capsules?

Q32

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsGelatin Bloom Strength

A high Bloom strength in gelatin used for capsules typically indicates:

Q33

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsPharmaceutical Excipients Chemistry

Which of the following is correct about Gum Arabic?

Q34

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsRheology Fundamentals

The force per unit area which is used to apply to bring about the flow is:

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Shear stress)

Shear stress (

\tau = F/A

) is the tangential force applied per unit area to induce fluid deformation or flow.

Q35

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsOintment Bases Classification

Which of the following is an example of water-soluble ointment bases?

Q36

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsFilter Integrity Testing

The bubble point test is performed to determine:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (The surface tension of the liquid in capillary tubes)

The bubble point test measures the pressure required to force gas through liquid-filled pores of a membrane filter, characterizing maximum pore size based on liquid surface tension (

\Delta P = \frac{4\gamma \cos\theta}{d}

).

Q37

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsOphthalmic Preparations

Sodium chloride is added in ophthalmic preparation as:

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Tonicity adjuster)

Sodium chloride (

0.9\%\text{ w/v}

) is universally added to ophthalmic drops and parenteral solutions to adjust osmotic pressure and achieve isotonicity with lacrimal fluid.

Q38

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsIsotonicity Criteria

An ophthalmic solution is isotonic with another solution when:

💡Correct Answer: Option B (The magnitudes of their colligative properties are identical.)

Isotonic solutions have identical osmotic pressures and colligative properties (such as identical freezing point depression

\Delta T_f = -0.52^\circ\text{C}

matching human tears and blood plasma).

Q39

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsLyophilization in Pharmaceuticals

What is the technique commonly used for drying blood plasma?

Q40

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsParenteral Additives

The anticoagulant heparin solution does not contain:

Q41

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsMechanisms of Drug Absorption

Which is the major process of absorption for more than 90% of drugs?

Q42

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsFacilitated vs Passive Transport

What is major difference between Facilitated & passive diffusion

Q43

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsBCS Drug Classification

Low solubility Low permeability is BCS class,

Q44

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsPharmacokinetic Renal Clearance

The renal clearance expressed mathematically

💡Correct Answer: Option A ($\frac{\text{Rate of urinary excretion}}{\text{plasma drug concentration}}$)

Renal Clearance (

Cl_R

) is the volume of plasma cleared of drug by the kidneys per unit time:

Cl_R = \frac{\text{Rate of Urinary Drug Excretion } (dXu/dt)}{\text{Plasma Drug Concentration } (C_p)} = \frac{U \cdot V}{P}

.

Q45

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsBiological Products & Sera

Which of the following sera contains?

Q46

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsBacterial Endotoxin Testing

In quality control of parenteral preparations, which of the following tests is performed to ensure the preparation is free from pyrogens?

Q47

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsSterile Filtration in Parenterals

What is the main purpose of filtration through $0.22\ \mu\text{m}$ in the preparation of parenteral solutions?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (To ensure the solution is free of microorganisms)

Filtration through a sterile

0.22\ \mu\text{m}

microporous membrane filter achieves sterilization by physically sieving out all vegetative bacteria, molds, and spores (Sterile filtration).

Q48

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsColloidal Chemistry of Emulsions

Which of the following statements regarding emulsions is false?

Q49

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsSurgical Dressings (Cotton)

What distinguishes the production process of absorbent cotton from that of non-absorbent cotton?

Q50

Pharmaceutics, Dosage Forms & BiopharmaceuticsWool Fat Emulsifiers

Which of the following is an emulsifying fraction of wool fat?

Q51

Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisLimit Test for Sulfates

In the limit test for sulfate, the formation of a white precipitate is due to the reaction of sulfate ions with:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Barium chloride)

In the IP limit test for sulfates, sulfate ions react with Barium Chloride reagent in the presence of dilute HCl to produce an insoluble white precipitate of Barium Sulfate (

BaSO_4

).

Q52

Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisLimit Test for Iron

In the limit test for iron, the presence of iron is detected by the formation of a reddish-brown color when:

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Potassium thiocyanate is added)

Iron (

Fe^{3+}

) forms a blood-red/reddish-brown coordination complex

[Fe(SCN)]^{2+}

upon reaction with Potassium Thiocyanate (or with thioglycolic acid under alkaline conditions).

Q53

Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisLimit Test for Chlorides

Which of the following factors can affect the result of the limit test for chloride when using silver nitrate as a reagent?

Q54

Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisIron Analysis Chemistry

Which of the following is the most critical for ensuring the accuracy of the limit test for iron when using potassium thiocyanate?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (The presence of strong acids like hydrochloric acid in the sample)

A strong acidic medium (dilute

HCl

) is critical to prevent precipitation of iron hydroxides and ensure all iron is in the ionic form to complex with thiocyanate.

Q55

Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisAnticoagulant Bioassays

To perform the test for anticoagulant activity of drugs, which bioassay would be used?

Q56

Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisMicrobiological Bioassays

Which of the following is the most common method of bioassay for determining the potency of a drug?

Q57

Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisStandard Calibration Curves

What is the purpose of a standard curve in a bioassay?

Q58

Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisMicrobiological Assays

Which of the following is an example of a microbiological assay?

Q59

Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisCleanroom Classifications

Which of the following is classified as 'Aseptic area'?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Class 100)

Under US Federal Standard 209E and GMP Grade A standards, Class 100 (maximum 100 particles

\ge 0.5\ \mu\text{m}

per cubic foot / ISO 5) defines the critical aseptic manufacturing area.

Q60

Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisPyrogen Testing Challenges

Which of the following is a challenge in pyrogen testing?

Q61

Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisIn Vitro Pyrogen Assays (MAT)

Which of the following is an advantage of the Monocyte Activation Test (MAT) over the Rabbit Pyrogen Test (RPT)?

Q62

Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisColorimetry Principles

A colorimeter is used for measurement of:

Q63

Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisBeer-Lambert Law

How is absorbance related to transmittance?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Inversely proportional)

Absorbance (

A

) is logarithmically and inversely related to Transmittance (

T

):

A = -\log_{10} T = \log_{10}(1/T) = 2 - \log_{10}(\%T)

. As transmittance decreases, absorbance increases.

Q64

Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisSpectrophotometer vs Colorimeter

What is the difference between a spectrophotometer and a colorimeter?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (A spectrophotometer can measure absorbance at a wider range of wavelengths)

A spectrophotometer uses a diffraction grating/prism monochromator to measure continuous spectra across UV, Visible, and NIR regions (

200\text{--}800\text{ nm}

), whereas a colorimeter uses broad glass/gelatin filters in the visible range only.

Q65

Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisTurbidimetry vs Nephelometry

What would you use to measure the intensity of light transmitted through a solution containing suspended particles?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Turbidimetry)

Turbidimetry measures the reduction in transmitted light intensity passing directly through a turbid suspension along the primary optical axis (

0^\circ

).

Q66

Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisAnalytical Sensitivity

Which technique is generally more sensitive, nephelometry or turbidimetry?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Nephelometry)

Nephelometry measures light scattered at

90^\circ

against a dark background, making it far more sensitive at detecting extremely low particle/precipitate concentrations than turbidimetry.

Q67

Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisNephelometric Rayleigh Scattering

How are the concentration of particles in a solution and the intensity of scattered light in nephelometry related:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Directly proportional)

In nephelometry, for dilute suspensions with uniform particles, the intensity of scattered light (

I_s

) is directly proportional to particle concentration (

C

):

I_s = K \cdot I_0 \cdot C

.

Q68

Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisUV-Visible Electronic Transitions

If ethylene acts as chromophore then which of the following type of transition will occur?

💡Correct Answer: Option A ($\pi -> \pi^*$)

Ethylene (

CH_2=CH_2

) contains a non-bonding-free carbon-carbon double bond, which undergoes a

\pi -> \pi^*

electronic excitation upon absorption of UV radiation at

\lambda_{\max} \approx 165\text{ nm}

.

Q69

Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisChromophores and Auxochromes

Which of the following functional groups will not acts as auxochrome?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (-C=O)

Auxochromes are saturated groups with non-bonding lone pairs (

-OH, -NH_2, -OR, -SH

) that modify absorption without themselves absorbing UV radiation;

-C=O

(carbonyl) contains unsaturated

\pi

bonds and is an independent chromophore.

Q70

Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisSterilization Kinetics (D-Value)

Which of the following defines correctly the 'D value' in sterility?

Q71

Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARAntiepileptic Pharmacology

Which of the following is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor?

Q72

Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARBarbiturate Synthesis

Which of the following is the precursor of barbituric acid?

Q73

Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARBenzodiazepine Heterocycles

The heterocyclic ring that is present in Alprazolam is:

Q74

Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARAntidepressant History & SAR

Modifications of which antitubercular drug leads to the production of antidepressant drugs

Q75

Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARHydantoin Anticonvulsants

Which of the following contains imidazolidine-2,4-dione ring?

Q76

Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARTCA Structure-Activity Relationships

The bridge that is present between ring nitrogen and the basic amino nitrogen in the tricyclic antidepressants is:

Q77

Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARAnxiolytic Drug Chemistry

$5\text{-HT}_{1A}$ agonist 'Buspirone' contains:

Q78

Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARAntihistamine Synthesis

Antihistamine synthesized starting from phthalide is

Q79

Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARAntihistamine Rings

Type of ring present in the structure of pheniramine is?

Q80

Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARHistamine Receptors

Histaminic receptor found in blood vessels and blocked by mepyramine is:

💡Correct Answer: Option A ($H_1$ receptor)

Mepyramine (Pyrilamine) is a classic first-generation selective antagonist of vascular and smooth muscle histamine

H_1

receptors.

Q81

Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARNSAID Mechanism of Action

Mefenamic acid acts as an inhibitor of which of the following enzymes?

Q82

Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARAspirin Chemical Nomenclature

Ortho-acetoxy benzoic acid is a chemical name of which of the following drug?

Q83

Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARFenamate NSAIDs

Which of the following NSAID contains 2-aminobenzoic acid group?

Q84

Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARDrug Stereochemistry & Isomerism

Which of the following drug shows E-Z isomerism?

💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sulindac)

Sulindac contains a rigid exocyclic double bond

(Z)\text{-5-fluoro-2-methyl-1-(4-methylsulfinylbenzylidene)indene-3-acetic acid}

, exhibiting geometrical E-Z (cis-trans) isomerism.

Q85

Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARAntipsychotic Classes

Which drug is an antipsychotic from the benzamide class?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sulpiride)

Sulpiride (and Amisulpride) is a selective

D_2/D_3

dopamine antagonist belonging to the substituted benzamide class of atypical antipsychotics.

Q86

Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARSteroid Ring Chiral Centers

How many chiral centers are in a sterane nucleus?

Q87

Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARCorticosteroid SAR

At which position in methylprednisolone, the methyl group is present?

💡Correct Answer: Option D ($6^{\text{th}}$)

Methylprednisolone is chemically

6\alpha

-methylprednisolone, bearing a methyl substituent at the C-6 position of the steroid steroid A/B ring junction.

Q88

Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARAldosterone Antagonists

Which of the following adrenocorticoid is an antagonist of aldosterone?

Q89

Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARProgestin Steroids SAR

A synthetic progestin without a 3-keto group is:

Q90

Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARCardiac Glycosides Glycosidic Linkages

The glycosidic linkage that is present in cardiac glycosides is:

💡Correct Answer: Option A ($\beta$-1,4)

In digitalis cardiac glycosides (like Digoxin and Digitoxin), the aglycone is linked to the sugar chain via a

\beta

-1,4-glycosidic linkage at the C-3 position.

Q91

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPharmacognosy Microscopy

What is the microscopic characteristic feature of rauwolfia?

Q92

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPlant Alkaloids

The primary toxic alkaloid found in Nux Vomica is:

Q93

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessHerbal Synonyms

Deadly Nightshade is the synonym of:

Q94

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPhytochemical Identification Tests

Goldbeater skin test is used for identification of:

Q95

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessOpium Botanical Source

Opium is derived from which part of the plant?

Q96

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPharmacognostic Microscopy Matching

Given below are some of the microscopical diagnostic features of the drugs listed. Match the pair:
i) Cluster crystals of calcium oxalate
ii) Lignified parenchyma
iii) Phloem fibres
iv) Glandular trichomes

Drugs:
p) Rauwolfia roots
q) Cinnamon Bark
r) Alexandrian senna
s) Digitalis leaves

Choose the appropriate option:

Q97

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPhytochemical Nutrition

Bael fruit is rich in which vitamin?

Q98

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPhytochemical Toxicology

Coumarin, found in cassia cinnamon, can cause toxicity to which organ when consumed in excess?

Q99

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessMorphine Chemical Properties

The chemical behaviour of morphine alkaloid is

Q100

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessTraditional Herbal Medicines

Kurchi is traditionally used for treating:

Q101

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessOpium Pharmacology

Which of the following is a therapeutic use of opium alkaloids?

Q102

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessMorphine Derivatives

Codeine is

Q103

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPurine Alkaloid Identification

Murexide test is used to detect which class of the following alkaloids?

Q104

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessAshwagandha Bioactive Phytochemicals

The primary bioactive compounds in Ashwagandha are:

Q105

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIpecac Botanical Source

Ipecac is derived from which part of the plant?

Q106

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessSenna Laxative Mechanism

What is the mode of action of Senna as a laxative?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Stimulating peristalsis of the colon)

Senna's active sennosides

A

and

B

are hydrolyzed by colon bacteria to rheinanthrone, which irritates the Auerbach plexus and stimulates active propulsive colon peristalsis.

Q107

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessAloe Vera Herbal Uses

Which of the following is a traditional use of Aloe vera gel?

Q108

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessBotanical Families

Cinchona belongs to which plant family?

Q109

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessEphedra Therapeutic Uses

Ephedra is commonly used in the treatment of:

💡Correct Answer: Option D (Asthma and nasal congestion)

Ephedra (Ma Huang), containing the sympathomimetic alkaloid ephedrine, stimulates

\beta_2

-adrenergic receptors to produce bronchodilation in asthma and decongest nasal airways.

Q110

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessBrahmi Pharmacology

Brahmi exhibits which of the following pharmacological properties?

Q111

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIndian Constitution Fundamental Rights

Which article of the Indian constitution guarantee the right to equality?

Q112

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessScientific Disciplines

What is the scientific term for the study of the structure, behaviour and evaluation of the universe?

Q113

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessModern Indian History

Which of the following battle marked the beginning of the British rule in India?

Q114

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIndian Olympic Hockey History

In which year did India win its first Olympic gold medal in Hockey?

Q115

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessFIFA World Cup

Which country hosted the 2022 FIFA world cup?

Q116

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessForms of Government

Which of the following forms of government characterized by a single person holding absolute power and control?

Q117

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPublic Finance & Budgeting

What is the primary purpose of a budget?

Q118

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessCurrent National Symbols

What is the name of the new parliament building in India, which was inaugurated in 2023?

Q119

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessFinancial Markets Terminology

What is the term for the process of managing risk in financial markets?

Q120

Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessGoods and Services Tax (GST)

IGST is payable when the supply is?

Q121

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationInorganic Salt Analysis (Cation Coloration)

While analysing the salt in qualitative inorganic analysis, the pale pink colour of the salt solution is characteristic of which transition metal cation?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Mn2+)

In inorganic qualitative salt analysis, hydrated manganese(II) salts (

Mn^{2+}

, such as

MnSO_4

or

MnCl_2

) exhibit a characteristic pale pink (or faint flesh) coloration due to spin-forbidden

d-d

transitions in the

d^5

high-spin complex. (

Cu^{2+}

is blue/green,

Cr^{3+}

is green/violet,

Co^{2+}

is deep pink/red).

Q122

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationGravimetric Analysis Principles

Which of the following statements are true regarding gravimetric analysis?
I. The precipitate must be filtered and washed to remove soluble impurities.
II. The precipitate should be weighed before it is dried or ignited to avoid loss of mass.
III. The sample should be in a homogeneous form to ensure accurate results.
IV. The filtration process does not affect the accuracy of the results as long as the precipitate is large.
Choose the correct option:

Q123

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationPrecipitation & Coagulation

The process of smaller colloidal particles of a precipitate clumping together to form larger, filterable particles is called:

Q124

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationGravimetric Analysis Methodology

In gravimetric analysis, the chemical substance to be determined is quantitatively converted into:

Q125

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationQualitative Cation Analysis Groups

In systematic qualitative inorganic analysis of cations by group precipitation, which transition element cation does NOT belong to analytical Group IV?

💡Correct Answer: Option D (Fe3+)

In systematic inorganic qualitative analysis: Group IV cations are precipitated as sulphides in alkaline medium (

NH_4OH + H_2S

) and include

Co^{2+}, Ni^{2+}, Mn^{2+},

and

Zn^{2+}

.

Fe^{3+}

belongs to analytical Group III (precipitated as insoluble hydroxide

Fe(OH)_3

by

NH_4Cl + NH_4OH

). Choice D.

Q126

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationPesticide Residue Analysis Workflow

Arrange the following steps in the correct chronological order for pesticide residue analysis in food matrices:
I. Sample extraction
II. Sample collection
III. Instrumental analysis (e.g., GC-MS)
IV. Sample preparation (e.g., clean-up / dSPE)
Choose the correct option:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (II, I, IV, III)

The standard chronological workflow in analytical toxicology and pesticide residue testing is: II. Representative Sample Collection

->

I. Solvent Extraction (e.g. using acetonitrile)

->

IV. Sample Clean-up (e.g. QuEChERS dispersive solid-phase extraction dSPE)

->

III. Instrumental Quantification (GC-MS/MS or LC-MS/MS). Choice A (II, I, IV, III).

Q127

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationChromatographic Techniques Matching

Match the analytical separation techniques in Column -A with their respective applications or detectors in Column -B:
Column -A (Techniques):
1. Gas Chromatography (GC)
2. HPLC
3. GC-MS
4. QuEChERS

Column -B (Applications/Detectors):
i) Electron Capture Detector (ECD)
ii) UV-Visible Detector
iii) Molecular Structure Identification
iv) Sample Preparation

Choose the correct option:

Q128

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationInorganic Qualitative Tests (Mg2+)

A qualitative analytical test is conducted on an unknown aqueous solution T:
I. Add sodium hydroxide solution dropwise until excess: White precipitate is formed and is insoluble in excess sodium hydroxide.
II. Add ammonium hydroxide solution dropwise until excess: White precipitate is formed and is insoluble in excess ammonium hydroxide.
Which cation is present in solution T?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Mg2+)

Magnesium ions (

Mg^{2+}

) react with

OH^-

to precipitate white gelatinous

Mg(OH)_2

that is insoluble in excess

NaOH

(unlike amphoteric

Zn^{2+}

and

Pb^{2+}

, which redissolve as zincate

[Zn(OH)_4]^{2-}

and plumbite) and also insoluble in excess

NH_4OH

. (

Ca^{2+}

does not precipitate with dilute

NH_4OH

). Therefore, the cation is

Mg^{2+}

. Choice C.

Q129

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationAnion Identification (Sulphate Test)

Which chemical reagent is standardly used to confirm the presence of sulphate ions ( $SO_4^{2-}$ ) in qualitative inorganic analysis?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Barium chloride solution)

The addition of Barium Chloride solution (

BaCl_2

) in the presence of dilute hydrochloric acid forms a heavy, insoluble white crystalline precipitate of Barium Sulphate (

BaSO_4

), confirming sulphate (

SO_4^{2-}

) ions.

Q130

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationSample Preparation (QuEChERS Solvent)

Which organic solvent is standardly used in the QuEChERS extraction method for extracting pesticide residues from agricultural produce?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Acetonitrile)

Acetonitrile (

CH_3CN

) is the universally accepted primary extraction solvent in the official QuEChERS (Quick, Easy, Cheap, Effective, Rugged, and Safe) methodology due to its excellent extraction recovery for polar and non-polar pesticides, and clean salting-out separation with

MgSO_4

and

NaCl

.

Q131

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationChromatographic Detectors Matching

Match the detectors in Column -A with their most suitable application in Column -B:
Column - A (Detectors):
1. Electron Capture Detector (ECD)
2. Flame Ionization Detector (FID)
3. UV-Vis Photometric Detector
4. Fluorescence Detector

Column - B (Application):
i) Halogenated organochlorine pesticides
ii) Organic hydrocarbons
iii) Analytes possessing chromophores absorbing in UV range
iv) Highly sensitive selective detection of naturally fluorescent or derivatized molecules

Choose the correct option:

Q132

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationElectrochemical Analysis (Potentiometry)

The analytical titrations in which equivalence end points are determined by measuring the electromotive force (emf) of an indicator-reference electrode cell are called:

Q133

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationSpectroscopy (Atomic Absorption)

Which of the following instrumental spectroscopic techniques is most widely suitable for quantitatively estimating trace levels of metal cations (parts per million or billion)?

Q134

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifePesticide Environmental Fate (DDT)

Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT) is chemically classified as a:

Q135

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationGas Chromatography Principles

Which of the following statements about Gas Chromatography (GC) are correct?
I. GC is suitable for analysing volatile pesticide residues.
II. The Electron Capture Detector (ECD) in GC is highly sensitive to halogenated compounds.
III. GC is the best technique for non-volatile pesticide residue analysis.
IV. GC can be coupled with Mass Spectrometry (MS) for compound identification.
Choose the correct statement:

Q136

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationFlame Photometry Principles

What is the fundamental operating physical principle of Flame Photometry (Flame Emission Spectroscopy)?

Q137

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationGravimetric Estimation of Iron

In the gravimetric quantitative estimation of iron as ferric oxide ( $Fe_2O_3$ ), which hydroxide reagent is added to precipitate iron as hydrated ferric hydroxide?

💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ammonium)

In gravimetric iron determination, Ammonium Hydroxide solution (

NH_4OH

, in the presence of

NH_4Cl

) is used to precipitate iron quantitatively as reddish-brown ferric hydroxide:

Fe^{3+} + 3NH_4OH -> Fe(OH)_3\downarrow + 3NH_4^+

, which is then ignited to

Fe_2O_3

. Choice D.

Q138

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationSample Preparation (QuEChERS)

Which modern sample preparation technique is most commonly used for the multi-residue extraction of pesticides from complex food matrices?

Q139

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationAnalytical Instrumentation (ICP-MS vs AAS)

Which of the following is a key analytical advantage of Inductively Coupled Plasma Mass Spectrometry (ICP-MS) over Flame/Furnace Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (AAS)?

Q140

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationFlame Photometry Limitations

Which of the following is a primary analytical limitation of Flame Photometry?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Limited to alkali and alkaline earth metals)

Because relatively low-temperature flames (air-propane or air-natural gas) supply limited thermal energy, flame emission photometry is practically limited to easily excitable alkali metals (

Na, K, Li

) and alkaline earth metals (

Ca, Ba

).

Q141

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationPesticide Residue Analytical Challenges

Which of the following are recognized common challenges in pesticide residue analysis in food testing?
I. Matrix interference from co-extracted food lipids and pigments
II. Detection of ultra-trace levels of multiple pesticide residues
III. Limited availability of sensitive analytical techniques
IV. Regulatory variations in Maximum Residue Limits across countries
Choose the correct option:

Q142

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationRedox Titrations Primary Standards

Why is potassium dichromate ( $K_2Cr_2O_7$ ) preferred over sodium dichromate ( $Na_2Cr_2O_7$ ) as a primary standard in analytical redox titrations?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (It is less hygroscopic.)

Potassium dichromate can be prepared in exceptionally high purity, dried easily at

150^\circ\text{C}

, and is stable and Non-Hygroscopic (does not absorb atmospheric moisture), making it an ideal primary standard. Sodium dichromate is highly deliquescent/hygroscopic and cannot be weighed accurately.

Q143

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationGC-MS Analyte Suitability

What type of pesticides are best and most appropriately analyzed using Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry (GC-MS)?

Q144

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationWater Analysis (EDTA Complexometry)

Which of the following methods is most standardly and accurately appropriate for the quantitative estimation of $Ca^{2+}$ ions in an environmental water sample?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Complexometric titration using EDTA with Eriochrome Black T as the indicator.)

In environmental and water testing laboratories, Complexometric Titration with disodium EDTA at

pH \approx 10

using Eriochrome Black T (or Patton-Reeder indicator at

pH \approx 12

specifically for calcium) is the standard titrimetric method for determining water hardness and calcium ions.

Q145

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationWater Sulphate Gravimetry

Which of the following techniques is most suitable and recognized as an analytical referee method for the quantitative estimation of sulphate ( $SO_4^{2-}$ ) in a water sample?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Precipitation as BaSO4, followed by gravimetric analysis.)

The classical standard referee method for sulphate determination in water is Gravimetric Analysis by precipitation with barium chloride in acidic medium as Barium Sulphate (

BaSO_4

), filtered, ignited at

800^\circ\text{C}

, and weighed. Choice A.

Q146

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationMatrix Interference (Lipids)

Which food matrix is typically considered the most analytical challenging for pesticide residue extraction and analysis?

Q147

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationAcid-Base Volumetric Titration

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the volumetric estimation of sulfuric acid ( $H_2SO_4$ ) by acid-base titration?
I. Sodium hydroxide is used as the titrant
II. The indicator used is phenolphthalein
III. The endpoint is reached when the solution becomes colorless
IV. The titration is an acid-base neutralization titration
Choose correct option:

Q148

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationPrimary Standards

Which of the following chemicals is standardly utilized as a high-purity primary standard in gravimetric and volumetric analytical standardization?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (K2Cr2O7)

Potassium Dichromate (

K_2Cr_2O_7

) is an exemplary primary standard because it can be obtained in

>99.9\%

purity, is stable, non-hygroscopic, resistant to photo-oxidation, and can be dried to constant mass at

150^\circ\text{C}

. Choice C.

Q149

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationLC-MS vs GC-MS Advantages

What is the primary technical advantage of Liquid Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry (LC-MS) over Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry (GC-MS) in pesticide residue analysis?

Q150

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationElectrochemistry (Molar Conductivity)

Arrange the following electrolyte solutions in increasing order of their molar conductivity at infinite dilution:
$NaCl, KCl, MgCl_2$

💡Correct Answer: Option C (NaCl < KCl < MgCl2)

At infinite dilution: Between the 1:1 univalent electrolytes,

K^+

has a smaller hydrated ionic radius and higher ionic mobility than

Na^+

, so

\Lambda_m^\circ(NaCl) < \Lambda_m^\circ(KCl)

.

MgCl_2

is a 2:1 electrolyte releasing 3 ions including divalent

Mg^{2+}

, producing a significantly higher limiting molar conductivity. Thus:

NaCl < KCl < MgCl_2

. Choice C.

Q151

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationRegulatory Food Safety Limits

What is the benchmark statutory Limit of Detection (LOD) / default Maximum Residue Limit for pesticides in food commodities set by most international food safety agencies (such as EU and FSSAI)?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (0.01 mg/kg)

Under the European Union, Codex Alimentarius, and FSSAI regulations, the default statutory maximum residue limit and target analytical limit of detection for unlisted or prohibited pesticide residues in food is

0.01\text{ mg/kg}

(equivalent to 10 parts per billion). Choice A.

Q152

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationElemental Analysis (ICP-MS)

Which of the following modern analytical techniques is commonly used for the multi-elemental qualitative and quantitative determination of toxic heavy metal cations in agricultural and pesticide formulations?

Q153

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationGlobal Pesticide Regulations

Which of the following countries maintains a strict 'zero-tolerance' (positive list system default 0.01 ppm) policy for unauthorized pesticide residues in food products?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Japan)

Japan introduced the strict 'Positive List System' for agricultural chemicals in food in 2006, enforcing a rigid zero-tolerance default threshold (

0.01\text{ ppm}

) prohibiting the distribution of foods containing agricultural chemicals without established maximum residue limits. Choice C.

Q154

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationQualitative Anion Tests (Sulfite)

Which of the following chemical qualitative tests is used to confirm the presence of the sulfite ion ( $SO_3^{2-}$ ) in a given salt solution?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Addition of dilute HCl releases a gas that turns potassium dichromate paper green.)

Sulfite ions (

SO_3^{2-}

) react with dilute acids to evolve sulfur dioxide gas (

SO_2

):

SO_3^{2-} + 2H^+ -> SO_2\uparrow + H_2O

. The pungent

SO_2

gas reduces orange acidified potassium dichromate paper (

Cr_2O_7^{2-}

) to green chromium(III) sulphate (

Cr^{3+}

). Choice B.

Q155

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationComplexometric Titrations (EDTA)

In a complexometric titration using disodium EDTA, which of the following statements is true?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Eriochrome Black T is used as an indicator.)

In complexometric EDTA titrations of metal cations (like

Mg^{2+}, Zn^{2+}, Ca^{2+}

), Eriochrome Black T (EBT) is the standard metallochromic indicator, turning from wine-red (metal-indicator complex) to steel blue (free indicator) at the stoichiometric endpoint. (EDTA always forms 1:1 stoichiometric chelate complexes regardless of cation valency). Choice C.

Q156

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationFlame Test Color Intensities

Arrange the following cations in decreasing order of the visual brightness/intensity of their characteristic flame emission color:
$Na^+, K^+, Ba^{2+}$

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Na+ > Ba2+ > K+)

Sodium (

Na^+

) emits an intensely brilliant, persistent golden-yellow flame (D-lines at 589 nm) of very high luminous intensity. Barium (

Ba^{2+}

) produces an apple-green flame of moderate brightness. Potassium (

K^+

) emits a faint, delicate lilac/violet flame of low visual luminosity that is easily masked by traces of sodium. Decreasing order:

Na^+ > Ba^{2+} > K^+

. Choice C.

Q157

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationAnalytical Quality Control (Blanks)

Which of the following is NOT a potential problem or analytical issue when analyzing pesticide residues in fruit samples?

Q158

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationFood Safety Standards (MRL)

What does the internationally standardized regulatory term 'Maximum Residue Limit' (MRL) refer to in food safety?

Q159

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationVolumetric Calculations (Molarity)

What is the molarity (M) of a sodium hydroxide ( $NaOH$ ) solution if 25 mL of it is required to completely neutralize 50 mL of $0.1\text{ M } HCl$ solution? (Formula: $M_1V_1 = M_2V_2$ )

💡Correct Answer: Option C (0.2 M)

In a 1:1 neutralization reaction:

M_{NaOH} \times V_{NaOH} = M_{HCl} \times V_{HCl} \implies M_{NaOH} \times 25 = 0.1 \times 50 \implies M_{NaOH} = \frac{5.0}{25} = 0.2\text{ M}

. Choice C.

Q160

Analytical Chemistry, Chemical Quality Control & InstrumentationLaboratory Apparatus (Crucibles)

Which of the following types of crucibles is standardly and commonly used in gravimetric analysis for heating precipitates to high temperatures ( $>1000^\circ\text{C}$ ) in a muffle furnace?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Porcelain crucible)

Porcelain crucibles (made of glazed high-grade refractory porcelain) are standard in analytical gravimetry because they withstand temperatures exceeding

1100^\circ\text{C}

without thermal distortion or chemical reaction. Choice A.

Q161

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyMendelian Genetics (ABO Blood Groups)

A woman with blood type AB (genotype $I^A I^B$ ) has a child with a man who has blood type O (genotype $i i$ ). What is the mathematical probability that their child will have blood type B?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (50%)

Cross: Mother (

I^A I^B

)

\times

Father (

i i

). Offspring genotypes:

50\%\, I^A i

(Blood Type A) and

50\%\, I^B i

(Blood Type B). The probability of having a child with blood type B is exactly 50% (

1/2

). Choice C.

Q162

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyCellular Metabolism (Glycolysis)

In a living cell, which of the following biochemical reactions occurs FIRST during the enzymatic breakdown of glucose in glycolysis?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (ATP is consumed to add a phosphate group to glucose (phosphorylation))

The initial priming reaction of glycolysis is the irreversible phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate catalyzed by hexokinase/glucokinase, which consumes one molecule of ATP (

ATP -> ADP

). Choice A.

Q163

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyMicrobial Taxonomy (Archaea vs Bacteria)

Which of the following biochemical and structural features fundamentally distinguishes Archaea from Bacteria?

Q164

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyMolecular Biology (PCR Cycles)

In the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR), which of the following is the primary purpose of the initial high-temperature thermal cycling step (usually 94–98°C)?

Q165

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyBiotechnology & Biosafety

Which of the following is a recognized environmental challenge or biosafety risk associated with using Genetically Engineered Microorganisms (GEMs) in field bioremediation?

Q166

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyBiological Classification (Fungi)

Which of the following organisms is biologically classified as a type of fungus?

Q167

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeSustainable Development

Which of the following environmental practices is a definitive example of sustainability?

Q168

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyAgricultural Microbiology (Biofertilizers)

Biofertilizers primarily assist crop plants by biologically providing and fixing which essential nutrient in an available form?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Nitrogen)

Biofertilizers (such as Rhizobium, Azotobacter, and Azospirillum) primarily enhance plant growth by fixing atmospheric nitrogen (

N_2

) into bioavailable ammonia (

NH_3

/

NH_4^+

). Choice B.

Q169

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyPhotosynthesis (Calvin Cycle)

Which of the following biochemical molecules are directly consumed or involved in the light-independent Calvin Cycle of photosynthesis?
(A) NADPH
(B) ATP
(C) Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP)
(D) All of the above

💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)

The enzymatic Calvin-Benson cycle utilizes the five-carbon carbon dioxide acceptor RuBP (fixed by RuBisCO), consumes ATP for phosphorylation, and consumes NADPH as the reducing agent to generate glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

\implies

All of the above. Choice D.

Q170

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyMolecular Genetics (DNA Replication)

In cellular DNA replication, which enzyme is directly responsible for catalyzing the synthesis of the new complementary DNA strand by adding deoxynucleotides to a free 3'-OH end?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (DNA polymerase)

DNA Polymerase (such as DNA Pol III in prokaryotes or Pol

\delta/\varepsilon

in eukaryotes) synthesizes new DNA strands in the

5' -> 3'

direction by adding complementary deoxynucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs).

Q171

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyMutations & Protein Translation

Which of the following types of point mutations is most likely to cause the most catastrophic and significant structural alteration to the translated polypeptide chain?

Q172

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyBiofertilizers (Azospirillum)

The beneficial rhizosphere biofertilizer bacterium Azospirillum improves agricultural crop yields mainly by:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Synthesizing ammonia directly available to plants (biological nitrogen fixation))

While Azospirillum synthesizes plant growth-promoting phytohormones (IAA), its classical primary agro-biological benefit is associative Biological Nitrogen Fixation (BNF), converting atmospheric

N_2

into bioavailable ammonia for non-leguminous cereals and grasses. Choice A.

Q173

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyEvolutionary Biology (Natural Selection)

According to evolutionary biology, which of the following conditions is NOT fundamentally necessary for Darwinian natural selection to operate within a population?

Q174

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyInvertebrate Phyla Characteristics

Which of the following pairs correctly matches an animal phylum with a diagnostic anatomical characteristic of its members?

Q175

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBioremediation & Phytoremediation

A major operational drawback and practical limitation of using phytoremediation to decontaminate heavy-metal-polluted soils is:

Q176

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyTaxonomy & Phylogenetics

The classical Linnaean artificial/natural system of classification had limitations that have been comprehensively addressed by modern phylogenetics based on molecular DNA sequence data. Which of the following best describes this primary limitation?

Q177

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyProtein Synthesis (tRNA Role)

The primary biological role of transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules during protein translation in ribosomes is to:

Q178

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeRainforest Ecology (Coevolution)

Which of the following ecological and evolutionary processes is most influential in maintaining exceptionally high biodiversity and niche partitioning in a tropical rainforest ecosystem?

Q179

Biostatistics, Hypothesis Testing & Research MethodologyStatistics (Normal Distribution)

In a perfectly symmetrical, bell-shaped normal distribution curve (Gaussian distribution), the Mean, Median, and Mode are all:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Equal)

By mathematical definition of a Gaussian normal distribution, the unimodal curve is perfectly symmetric around its central peak; hence, the Mean, Median, and Mode coincide and are exactly Equal (

\mu = \text{Median} = \text{Mode}

). Choice A.

Q180

Biostatistics, Hypothesis Testing & Research MethodologyInferential Statistics (p-value Interpretation)

In inferential statistics, a calculated test result with a p-value of 0.03 ( $p = 0.03 < 0.05$ ) indicates that:

💡Correct Answer: Option D (There is strong evidence against the null hypothesis (reject null hypothesis at alpha = 0.05).)

A

p

-value of

0.03

is less than the standard significance threshold

\alpha = 0.05

, providing statistically significant evidence to reject the null hypothesis (

H_0

) in favor of the alternative hypothesis. Choice D (and choice A reflects probability of null observation).

Q181

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeProtected Area Categories

A strict forest conservation strategy that involves the absolute legal protection of designated pristine forest reserves and prohibits all human resource extraction is known as:

Q182

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeScope of Environmental Science

The academic discipline of Environmental Science primarily focuses on understanding the:

Q183

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEnvironmental Ethics & Principles

Which of the following is NOT considered a valid core ethical and operational principle of Environmental Science?

Q184

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEcosystem Definition

Which of the following definitions best describes an ecosystem?

Q185

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeResource Depletion Drivers

What is the primary driving root cause for the accelerated depletion of non-renewable natural resources worldwide?

Q186

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeAtmospheric Chemistry (Acid Rain)

Which atmospheric air pollutants are most directly responsible for causing acidic precipitation (Acid Rain)?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Nitrogen oxide and sulfur dioxide)

Acid rain forms when emissions of Sulfur Dioxide (

SO_2

) and Nitrogen Oxides (

NO_x

) react with atmospheric water, oxygen, and oxidants to form dilute sulfuric acid (

H_2SO_4

) and nitric acid (

HNO_3

). Choice B.

Q187

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeMarine Pollution Remediation

Which physical and mechanical method is most commonly deployed immediately to contain and remove floating oil from the water surface during marine oil spill remediation?

Q188

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeClimate Economics (Carbon Credits)

The international 'carbon credit' and cap-and-trade market system allows countries and corporations to:
(A) Buy the right to pollute in exchange for forest conservation/offsets
(B) Set a cap on carbon emissions and trade emission allowances among countries
(C) Receive credits from the UN for reducing emissions
(D) Both A and B are correct

💡Correct Answer: Option D (Both A and B are correct.)

Under the Kyoto Protocol's Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) and compliance emissions trading schemes, an overall cap is placed on emissions (B), and regulated entities can trade carbon credits or purchase verified emission reductions from forestry/renewable projects (A)

\implies

Both A and B are correct. Choice D.

Q189

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBiogeochemical Cycles (Nitrogen)

Which of the following biological sequences correctly represents the steps of Nitrogen Fixation and Nitrification in the terrestrial nitrogen cycle?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Nitrogen gas -> Ammonia -> Nitrites -> Nitrates)

The nitrogen fixation and nitrification pathways proceed: Atmospheric dinitrogen (

N_2

) is fixed into Ammonia (

NH_3/NH_4^+

) by diazotrophs

->

Ammonia is oxidized to Nitrites (

NO_2^-

) by Nitrosomonas

->

Nitrites are oxidized to bioavailable Nitrates (

NO_3^-

) by Nitrobacter. Sequence:

N_2 -> NH_3 -> NO_2^- -> NO_3^-

. Choice A.

Q190

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEcological Succession (Climax Community)

A climax community in ecological succession is ecologically characterized by having:

Q191

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeLandscape Ecology (Ecotone)

In ecology, an 'ecotone' is best defined as:

Q192

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeConservation History (UNESCO MAB 1971)

The Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme was launched by UNESCO in which year?

Q193

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBiodiversity Hotspots of India

Which among the following geographical regions is officially recognized as a global Biodiversity Hotspot in India?

Q194

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeWildlife Conservation (Tiger Reserves)

Which famous tiger reserve located in Madhya Pradesh has the highest recorded density of Bengal Tigers in India and played a key role in their population recovery?

Q195

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEcosystem Biomass

Among the following ecosystems, which one possesses the maximum standing biomass per unit area?

Q196

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEnvironmental Treaties (Kyoto Protocol)

Which international treaty was adopted in 1997 to commit industrialized countries to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions globally?

Q197

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeWastewater Treatment (AOPs)

Which of the following advanced chemical processes is most effective for completely degrading and mineralizing refractory hazardous organic pollutants in industrial wastewater?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Advanced Oxidation Processes (AOPs))

Advanced Oxidation Processes (AOPs—e.g. Fenton's reagent,

UV/H_2O_2

, ozone catalysis) generate highly reactive hydroxyl free radicals (

\cdot OH

) that non-selectively oxidize complex, recalcitrant, and toxic synthetic organic contaminants into harmless

CO_2

and

H_2O

. Choice B.

Q198

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeRadiological Hazards (Cesium-137)

Which anthropogenic radioactive isotope is most commonly associated with severe fallout, widespread soil contamination, and bioaccumulation following major nuclear power plant accidents (such as Chernobyl and Fukushima)?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Cesium-137)

Cesium-137 (

^{137}Cs

, half-life

\approx 30.17\text{ years}

) is a volatile, high-yield nuclear fission product that mimics potassium in biological systems, rapidly dispersing and binding to soils to create long-term environmental radiological hazards following nuclear accidents. Choice C.

Q199

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEnvironmental Toxicology (Minamata Disease)

The devastating neurological disorder Minamata disease, first discovered in 1956 around Minamata Bay in Japan, was caused by industrial environmental pollution of:

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Methylmercury)

Minamata disease was caused by the release of industrial wastewater containing high concentrations of Methylmercury (

CH_3Hg^+

) by the Chisso Corporation chemical plant, which bioaccumulated in shellfish and fish eaten by local residents. (Cadmium causes Itai-itai disease). Choice C.

Q200

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifePhotochemical Smog & Ozone

Which type of environmental pollution is most directly responsible for the photochemical generation of harmful ground-level tropospheric ozone ( $O_3$ )?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Air pollution from vehicular emissions)

Tropospheric ozone is a secondary air pollutant formed when Nitrogen Oxides (

NO_x

) and Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) emitted from vehicular tailpipes and fossil fuel combustion undergo photochemical reactions in the presence of strong sunlight. Choice C.

Q201

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyDNA Molecular Structure

Which of the following statements about the Watson-Crick model of DNA structure are true?
I. DNA is composed of two polynucleotide strands arranged in an antiparallel configuration.
II. The sugar in DNA is ribose.
III. Adenine pairs with thymine via two hydrogen bonds.
IV. The backbone of DNA is made of alternating phosphate and deoxyribose sugar groups.
Choose the correct statements:

💡Correct Answer: Option B (I, III, IV)

Statements I, III, and IV are correct: DNA strands run antiparallel (

5'-> 3'

and

3'-> 5'

) (I), Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with Thymine (

A=T

) while

G\equiv C

forms three (III), and the structural backbone consists of phosphodiester linkages between deoxyribose sugars and phosphate groups (IV). Statement II is false because the pentose sugar in DNA is 2'-deoxyribose (ribose is found in RNA). Choice B (I, III, IV).

Q202

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyEvolutionary Biology Principles

Which of the following statements regarding the modern synthetic theory of evolution are true?
I. The fossil record provides conclusive physical evidence of macroevolutionary transitions over time.
II. Comparative anatomy and homologous structures support the theory of common ancestry.
III. Evolution occurs only through natural selection, with no role for genetic drift.
IV. Molecular evidence (such as DNA sequence comparisons) demonstrates phylogenetic relationships among species.
Choose the correct statements:

Q203

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEcological Succession Principles

Which of the following statements about ecological succession are true?
I. Primary succession occurs in areas where soil is already present.
II. Secondary succession occurs after a major disturbance such as fire or flood in an area with pre-existing soil.
III. Climax communities are the final stable stage of ecological succession.
IV. Ecological succession is a one-time, irreversible process that can never be reset.
Choose the correct statements:

Q204

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyBiofertilizer Agronomy

Which of the following statements about the production and use of biofertilizers are true?
I. Biofertilizers are produced by fermenting organic materials such as plant residues or manure.
II. The effectiveness of biofertilizers can be influenced by environmental factors, including soil temperature and moisture content.
III. Biofertilizers must always be used in conjunction with chemical fertilizers to be effective.
IV. Certain types of biofertilizers can provide resistance to plant diseases, enhancing overall plant health.
Choose the correct statements:

Q205

Biostatistics, Hypothesis Testing & Research MethodologyHypothesis Testing Principles

Which of the following statements about statistical hypothesis testing are true?
I. The null hypothesis ( $H_0$ ) states that there is no significant difference or relationship between groups or variables.
II. In hypothesis testing, a smaller p-value suggests stronger empirical evidence against the null hypothesis.
III. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it should be rejected.
IV. A p-value greater than 0.05 usually indicates strong evidence for rejecting the null hypothesis.
Choose the correct statements:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (I, II)

Statements I and II are correct: The null hypothesis posits zero difference or no effect (I), and a smaller

p

-value represents greater discrepancy with

H_0

, indicating stronger evidence to reject it (II). Statement III is false (Type I error is rejecting a true null hypothesis; accepting a false null is Type II error). Statement IV is false (

p > 0.05

means failing to reject the null). Choice A (I, II).

Q206

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyFungal Biology

Which of the following biological statements about Kingdom Fungi are true?
I. Fungi are autotrophic organisms.
II. Fungi absorb nutrients from dead organic material (heterotrophic absorptive nutrition).
III. Fungi are always multicellular.
IV. Fungi can reproduce sexually and asexually.
Choose the correct statements:

Q207

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeForest Management & Conservation

Which of the following statements about forest management and conservation are true?
I. Sustainable forest management includes balancing forest resource extraction with conservation efforts.
II. Deforestation for urban expansion always leads to long-term ecological damage.
III. Reforestation programs can help restore degraded ecosystems and improve biodiversity.
IV. Forestry practices that emphasize monoculture plantations are more beneficial for biodiversity.
Choose the correct statements:

Q208

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEnvironmental Biotechnology Challenges

Which of the following statements regarding the challenges of environmental biotechnology are true?
I. The success of in situ bioremediation largely depends on environmental conditions, such as temperature, pH, and oxygen levels.
II. High concentrations of toxic contaminants may inhibit the metabolic processes of microorganisms used in bioremediation.
III. The use of Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs) in environmental biotechnology is widely accepted globally without any regulations.
IV. Large-scale application of environmental biotechnology often requires significant financial investment and monitoring.
Choose the correct statements:

Q209

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBiogeochemical Cycles

Which of the following statements about biogeochemical cycles are true?
I. The nitrogen cycle involves the biological conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into forms that plants can assimilate.
II. The phosphorus cycle involves the continuous movement of phosphorus between the atmosphere and terrestrial ecosystems.
III. In the carbon cycle, carbon dioxide is released into the atmosphere during cellular respiration and fossil fuel combustion.
IV. The sulfur cycle does not involve any biological processes.
Choose the correct statements:

💡Correct Answer: Option B (I, III)

Statements I and III are correct: Diazotrophs convert

N_2

into plant-absorbable ammonium/nitrates (I), and aerobic respiration and combustion oxidize carbon to

CO_2

(III). Statement II is false because the phosphorus cycle is a strictly sedimentary cycle with virtually no gaseous atmospheric component. Statement IV is false because bacteria (Thiobacillus, sulfate reducers) play central biological roles in the sulfur cycle. Choice B (I, III).

Q210

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEcosystem Energetics & Nutrient Cycling

Which of the following statements about ecosystem trophic structure and energetics are true?
I. An ecosystem fundamentally includes both biotic and abiotic components interacting together.
II. Energy flows through an ecosystem in a one-way, non-cyclic direction.
III. In an ecosystem, mineral nutrients are recycled continuously, while energy is not recycled.
IV. Primary producers in an ecosystem are typically herbivores.
Choose the correct statements:

Q211

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeScope of Environmental Science

Select the correct statements regarding the scope and nature of Environmental Science:
I. It deals with understanding the impacts of human activities on the natural environment.
II. Environmental science includes studying ecological systems without involving social factors.
III. Environmental science is an inherently interdisciplinary subject spanning physical, biological, and social sciences.
IV. It only focuses on pollution levels and health issues.
Choose the correct statements:

Q212

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeGlobal Environmental Treaties (POPs)

What does the internationally recognized environmental term 'The Dirty Dozen' specifically refer to?

Q213

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeCommunity Ecology (Keystone Species)

Consider the following ecological statements about keystone species:
I. Keystone species are organisms whose impact on their community or ecosystem is disproportionately large relative to their abundance or biomass.
II. Keystone species play a critical, irreplaceable role in maintaining the structure, diversity, and integrity of an ecological community.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Q214

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeAtmospheric Nitrogen Chemistry

Consider the following statements regarding atmospheric nitrogen:
I. Nitrogen gas ( $N_2$ ) is the most abundant gas in Earth's atmosphere, constituting approximately 78% by volume.
II. Atmospheric nitrogen can be absorbed and utilized directly by most living plants and animals.
Select the correct answer:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (I only)

Statement I is correct: Diatomic nitrogen gas makes up

\approx 78.08\%

of dry air by volume. Statement II is false because the triple covalent bond (

N\equiv N

) renders

N_2

chemically inert; higher plants and animals cannot assimilate atmospheric nitrogen directly and depend on specialized nitrogen-fixing bacteria to convert it into ammonium or nitrates. Correct: I only (Choice A).

Q215

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeInternational Environmental Governance

Which of the following statements about the global management of environmental pollution and treaties are true?
I. The Paris Agreement focuses on reducing greenhouse gas emissions to hold global warming well below 2°C.
II. International environmental protocols such as the Montreal Protocol have been exceptionally instrumental in phasing out ozone-depleting substances.
III. Transboundary pollution problems, including transboundary river basins and marine plastic pollution, require multinational cooperation.
IV. Environmental regulations have been completely successful in totally eliminating lead and asbestos in all industries worldwide.
Choose the correct statements:

💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II, III)

Statements I, II, and III are correct: The Paris Agreement aims to limit global temperature rise (I), the Montreal Protocol has phased out

>99\%

of controlled ODS (II), and shared river/ocean pollution demands multilateral governance (III). Statement IV is false because asbestos mining/use and industrial lead contamination persist in numerous developing nations. Choice D (I, II, III).

Q216

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeWildlife of J&K (Project Hangul)

Consider the following statements regarding 'Project Hangul':
I. It was launched to protect and conserve the critically endangered Kashmiri stag (Hangul, Cervus hanglu hanglu).
II. It was launched in the state of Jammu and Kashmir in 1970 with support from IUCN and WWF.
III. The Kashmiri stag is the official state/UT animal of Jammu and Kashmir.
Select the correct answer:

Q217

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyMacromolecules Matching

Match the following biological macromolecules in Column -A with their primary biological roles in Column -B:
Column -A:
1. DNA
2. mRNA
3. Enzymes
4. rRNA

Column - B:
i. Carrying hereditary genetic information across generations
ii. Catalyzes biological biochemical reactions
iii. Serving as the working template coding for protein synthesis
iv. Structural and catalytic core component of the ribosome

Choose the correct option:

Q218

Biostatistics, Hypothesis Testing & Research MethodologyStatistical Tests Matching

Match the following inferential statistical tests in Column -A with their appropriate research applications in Column -B:
Column - A:
1. One-Way ANOVA
2. Chi-square Test of Independence
3. Pearson's Correlation Coefficient ( $r$ )
4. Independent Samples t-test

Column - B:
i. Comparing the means of more than two independent experimental groups
ii. Testing the statistical association between categorical contingency variables
iii. Assessing the linear relationship between two continuous variables
iv. Comparing the difference between the means of two independent groups

Choose the correct option:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv)

1 -> i (ANOVA tests differences among three or more group means), 2 -> ii (Chi-square test of independence analyzes frequencies in categorical contingency tables), 3 -> iii (Pearson's

r

evaluates the strength and direction of linear correlation between continuous variables), 4 -> iv (Independent

t

-test compares two group means). Correct match: 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv (Choice A).

Q219

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyCentral Dogma Matching

Match the following components of the central dogma of molecular biology with their respective biochemical functions:
Column - A:
1. DNA
2. mRNA
3. rRNA
4. tRNA

Column - B:
i. Forms structural core of ribosomes and catalyzes peptide bond formation
ii. Carries genetic codon information from gene to ribosome for protein synthesis
iii. Serves as double-stranded template for RNA transcription and replication
iv. Brings specific activated amino acids to the ribosome for protein synthesis

Choose the correct option:

Q220

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyMicrobial Nitrogen & Sulfur Cycles

Match the microorganisms in Column - I with their associated biological processes in Column - II:
Column - I:
1. Bacillus subtilis / B. ramosus
2. Thiobacillus denitrificans
3. Rhizobium leguminosarum
4. Thiobacillus thiooxidans

Column - II:
i. Denitrification
ii. Ammonification
iii. Oxidation of elemental Sulphur into Sulphate
iv. Symbiotic Nitrogen fixation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii)

1 -> ii (Ammonifying bacteria like Bacillus decompose organic nitrogenous proteins into ammonia), 2 -> i (Thiobacillus denitrificans reduces nitrates into dinitrogen gas via denitrification), 3 -> iv (Rhizobium executes symbiotic

N_2

fixation in legume root nodules), 4 -> iii (Thiobacillus thiooxidans oxidizes reduced sulfur into sulfate). Correct match: 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii (Choice A).

Q221

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyMendelian Genetics Concepts

Match the genetic phenomena in Column - I with their descriptions in Column - II:
Column - I:
1. Dominance
2. Codominance
3. Pleiotropy
4. Polygenic inheritance

Column - II:
i. Many genes cumulatively govern a single phenotypic quantitative character
ii. In a heterozygous organism, only one dominant allele expresses its phenotype
iii. In a heterozygous organism, both distinct alleles express themselves fully simultaneously
iv. A single gene influences multiple distinct phenotypic characters

Choose the correct option:

Q222

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyMembrane Biochemistry (Lipid Translocases)

Match the enzymes and translocases in Column -A with their biological function in Column -B:
Column -A:
1. Lipases
2. Flippases
3. Floppases
4. Scramblases

Column - B:
i. ATP-dependent inward translocation of aminophospholipids (PE and PS) from the extracellular to the cytosolic leaflet
ii. ATP-dependent outward translocation of plasma membrane phospholipids from the cytosolic to the extracellular leaflet
iii. Catalyze the enzymatic hydrolysis of triacylglycerols into glycerol and fatty acids
iv. ATP-independent bidirectional scrambling of membrane phospholipids down their concentration gradient

Choose the correct combination:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv)

1 -> iii (Lipases hydrolyze ester bonds of triglycerides), 2 -> i (Flippases are P-type ATPases moving phospholipids inward from outer to inner leaflet), 3 -> ii (Floppases are ABC transporters moving phospholipids outward from inner to outer leaflet), 4 -> iv (Scramblases are

Ca^{2+}

-activated bidirectional transporters facilitating passive equilibrium). Correct match: 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv (Choice A).

Q223

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyOrigin of Life Theories

Match the classical theories about the Origin of Life with the scientists who proposed or tested them:
Theories about origin of Life:
1. Materialists / Chemical Evolution Theory
2. Theory of Spontaneous Generation (Abiogenesis)
3. Theory of Biogenesis (Disproving Spontaneous Generation)
4. Biochemical Origin of Life

Name of Scientist:
i. J.B. van Helmont
ii. Ernst Haeckel
iii. A.I. Oparin (and J.B.S. Haldane)
iv. Francesco Redi

Choose the correct option:

Q224

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyNucleic Acid Biochemistry

Match the chemical compounds in Column - I with their biochemical class examples in Column - II:
Column - I (Chemical Compounds):
1. Nitrogen Base
2. Nucleoside
3. Nucleotide
4. Nucleic Acid

Column - II (Examples):
P. RNA
Q. Thymidylic Acid (Thymidine Monophosphate)
R. Cytidine
S. Uracil

Choose the correct option:

Q225

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEnvironmental Science Terminology

Match the environmental phenomena in Column - I with their definitions in Column - II:
Column - I:
P. Biomagnification
Q. Eutrophication
R. Pyrolysis
S. Incineration

Column - II:
i. Natural or accelerated cultural aging of a water body by nutrient enrichment
ii. Progressive increase in concentration of persistent toxic substances at successive higher trophic levels
iii. Chemical decomposition of organic waste materials by heating at high temperatures in the absence of oxygen
iv. High-temperature controlled thermal destruction and combustion of solid waste in the presence of oxygen

Choose the correct option:

Q226

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeWater Pollution Consequences Matching

Match the primary water pollution effects with their most direct biological consequences:
i. Eutrophication
ii. Contaminated drinking water
iii. Severe fish mortality
iv. Spread of waterborne infectious diseases
v. Aquatic habitat loss

Consequences:
1. Drastic reduction in dissolved oxygen (hypoxia) causing mass suffocation
2. Disruption of benthic ecosystem food webs and loss of species diversity
3. Increased nitrogen and phosphorus nutrient levels triggering dense algal blooms
4. Enteric pathogenic bacteria, viruses, and amoebae causing human illness
5. Human gastrointestinal ingestion of water contaminated with toxic industrial chemicals

Select the correct option:

Q227

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeConservation Organizations Matching

Match the international biodiversity organizations with their core mission and objectives:
Column - A:
1. IUCN
2. WWF
3. CBD (Convention on Biological Diversity)
4. CITES

Column - B:
i. Maintains and publishes the global Red List of Threatened Species
ii. Focuses on global wildlife conservation and reduction of human environmental footprint
iii. Promotes conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use, and fair and equitable sharing of genetic benefits
iv. Regulates and monitors international commercial trade in endangered species of wild fauna and flora

Choose the correct option:

Q228

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeConservation Ecology Categories

Match the biodiversity-related ecological terms in Column -A with their representative wildlife examples in Column -B:
Column -A:
1. Keystone species
2. Invasive species
3. Endemic species
4. Flagship species

Column - B:
i. Elephants in African savannas (maintains open grasslands)
ii. Water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes) in freshwater lakes
iii. Giant panda in China (symbol of conservation)
iv. Lion-tailed macaque in Western Ghats rainforests of India

Choose the correct option:

Q229

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeConservation Strategies Matching

Match the biodiversity conservation strategies in Column -A with their defining characteristics in Column -B:
Column - A:
1. In situ conservation
2. Ex situ conservation
3. Biodiversity hotspots
4. Wildlife corridors

Column - B:
i. Conservation of genetic components outside their natural habitats (e.g. botanical gardens, seed banks)
ii. Conservation of wild ecosystems and populations within their natural habitats (e.g. national parks, sanctuaries)
iii. Biogeographic regions with exceptional concentrations of endemic species undergoing significant habitat loss
iv. Protected ecological pathways that physically link fragmented forest patches to facilitate animal migration

Choose the correct option:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv)

1 -> ii (In-situ: on-site conservation in natural protected reserves), 2 -> i (Ex-situ: off-site gene banks and zoological parks), 3 -> iii (Hotspots: high endemism with

>70\%

habitat loss), 4 -> iv (Corridors: contiguous landscape strips connecting fragmented habitats). Correct match: 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv (Choice A).

Q230

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeResource Management Matching

Match the environmental conservation method in Column -A with its primary practical focus in Column -B:
Column -A (Conservation Method):
1. Soil Conservation
2. Forest Conservation
3. Water Resource Management
4. Wildlife Conservation

Column - B (Focus):
i. Contour Plowing and terrace farming to prevent erosion
ii. Prevention of Deforestation and enforcing afforestation
iii. Efficient Irrigation Techniques (drip and sprinkler systems)
iv. Establishment of National Parks and biosphere reserves

Options:

Q231

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEcosystem Services Matching

Match the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment categories of ecosystem services with their illustrative real-world examples:
Column - A (Service Type):
1. Provisioning Service
2. Regulating Service
3. Supporting Service
4. Cultural Service

Column - B (Example):
i. Timber, medicinal plants, and clean freshwater production
ii. Climate regulation and Carbon sequestration by forests and wetlands
iii. Soil formation, primary production, and Nutrient cycling
iv. Ecotourism, recreational, spiritual, and aesthetic inspiration

Choose the correct option:

Q232

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBiosphere Reserves of India

Match the iconic Biosphere Reserves of India in Column - A with the States in which they are located in Column - B:
Column - A (Biosphere Reserve):
1. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
2. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
3. Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve
4. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve

Column - B (State):
i. Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka
ii. Uttarakhand
iii. West Bengal
iv. Tamil Nadu

Options:

Q233

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBiosphere Reserve Zonation

Match the three concentric management zones of a UNESCO Biosphere Reserve with their primary characteristics and authorized activities:
Column - A (Zone):
1. Core Zone
2. Buffer Zone
3. Transition Zone
4. Research / Monitoring Site

Column - B (Characteristics):
i. Strictly protected sanctuary where human economic activity is legally prohibited to preserve wildlife
ii. Surrounds core area where controlled research, educational training, and limited ecotourism are permitted
iii. Outermost flexible area where sustainable agricultural practices, settlements, and local livelihoods take place
iv. Designated field plots dedicated to environmental monitoring and ecological experimentation

Choose the correct option:

Q234

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyDNA Thermal Denaturation (Tm)

Consider the following statements regarding DNA melting temperature ( $T_m$ ):
Assertion (A): In a double-stranded DNA molecule, A-T rich regions denature and melt at a lower temperature than G-C rich regions.
Reason (R): In between Adenine and Thymine there are three hydrogen bonds, whereas between Guanine and Cytosine there are two hydrogen bonds.
Which one of the following options is correct?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (If Assertion is true but Reason is false.)

Assertion (A) is TRUE: Adenine-Thymine pairs have fewer hydrogen bonds and lower stacking enthalpy than Guanine-Cytosine pairs, causing A-T rich tracts to melt and denature first at lower temperatures. Reason (R) is FALSE: Complementary base pairing rules dictate that A and T are linked by TWO hydrogen bonds (

A=T

), whereas G and C are linked by THREE hydrogen bonds (

G\equiv C

). Choice C (Assertion is true but Reason is false).

Q235

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeRadiation Biology & Mutagenesis

Consider the following statements regarding ionizing radiation hazards:
Assertion (A): Radioactive environmental pollution can induce severe genetic mutations and chromosomal aberrations in living organisms.
Reason (R): Ionizing radiation deposits high energy that damages DNA molecules by directly and indirectly breaking covalent phosphodiester and hydrogen chemical bonds.
Which one of the following options is correct?

Q236

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyInvertebrate Locomotion (Starfish)

Consider the following statements regarding the locomotion of echinoderms:
Assertion (A): Starfish (Asterias) execute slow crawling locomotion across the ocean floor.
Reason (R): Starfish utilize a superficial flow of water over their dorsal surface for movement.
Which one of the following options is correct?

Q237

Biochemistry, Molecular Biology, Genetics & MicrobiologyChromosomal Theory of Inheritance

Consider the following genetic statements regarding the Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance:
Assertion (A): The pairing and separation of homologous pairs of chromosomes during meiosis leads to the segregation of the pair of Mendelian factors (alleles) they carry.
Reason (R): Two alleles of a gene pair are located on similar homologous loci on non-homologous chromosomes.
Which one of the following options is correct?

Q238

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBioremediation Mechanisms

Consider the following statements regarding environmental biotechnology:
Assertion (A): Environmental biotechnology is successfully employed to clean up contaminated soil and aquatic pollution through bioremediation processes.
Reason (R): Bioremediation involves utilizing adapted microorganisms to metabolically degrade hazardous toxic pollutants in the environment, converting them into less harmful substances like $CO_2$ and $H_2O$ .
Which one of the following options is correct?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both the assertion and the reason are correct, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.)

Both statements are true and causally linked: Bioremediation cleans environmental pollutants (A) precisely because microbial metabolism breaks down complex toxic organic molecules via catabolic enzymatic pathways into harmless mineralized end-products (

CO_2, H_2O

, biomass) (R). Choice A.

Q239

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBiosphere Reserves (MAB Framework)

Consider the following statements regarding Biosphere Reserves:
Assertion (A): Biosphere reserves are officially designated to integrate in situ conservation of biodiversity with sustainable socioeconomic use and research.
Reason (R): The UNESCO MAB Programme focuses solely on basic scientific laboratory research, completely ignoring socio-economic factors and local communities.
Which one of the following options is correct?

Q240

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBiosphere Reserve Management Zones

Consider the following statements regarding the zonation architecture of a Biosphere Reserve:
Assertion (A): The core zone of a biosphere reserve strictly prohibits all human destructive resource extraction and commercial activity.
Reason (R): The buffer zone surrounding the core supports sustainable resource practices, training, environmental education, and scientific research.
Which one of the following options is correct?

Laboratory Assistant2025

📝 Solved Questions with Detailed Explanations100% Free • No Login Required

JKSSB — Laboratory Assistant (2025)

The drug price control order was exercised by central government in:

The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, is implemented and enforced by which authority?

What does Collective Trademarks indicate?

The Pharmacy Act, 1948, was enacted to regulate:

Pharmacy council of India is constituted by the central government on every

According to the Pharmacy Act, 1948, a State Pharmacy Council is responsible for:

When did the Drug Price Control Order improvised the availability of basic medicines at affordable prices across the country?

The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act was enacted in which year?

Up to how many weeks of gestation is the opinion of one registered medical practitioner sufficient for Medical Termination of Pregnancy?

The 2021 amendment to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act introduced provisions for:

According to Poisons Act, the central govt. is authorised to

Under the Poison Act, 1919, the rules for Storage, labelling, and Transport of poisons are made by

The Drugs and Magic Remedies Act was passed on which date?

The Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954 was enacted to prevent the advertisement of drugs that claim to cure which of the following?

The excise duty under the Medicinal and Toilet Preparations (Excise Duties) Act is levied on

According to Medicinal & Toilet Preparation (Excise Duties) Act penalty for non-compliance with conditions of license and failure to pay duty is

In which of the following manufacturing of Medicinal and Toilet Preparation take place in presence of excise officer

Which body was established under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 to ensure the welfare of animals in India?

Biologicals are tested at which of the following centres?

Which of the following is the objective of IAEC under 'The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1960'?

The head office of Committee for the purpose of control and supervision of experiment on animals (CPCSEA)?

Which of the following gives permission for the registration of breeders?

Which of the following authorities is responsible for registering trademarks in India under the Trademark Registration Act?

Cure for cancer is an example of the following advertisements

Which poisonous substances from the following are exempted from certain provisions of the Poison Act?

Unequal distribution of color in tablet is known as:

In dissolution test, flask is maintained at

The mathematical formula for calculating Hausner ratio is:

According to the Indian Pharmacopoeia, for the dissolution test, what is the typical volume of the dissolution medium used for capsules?

Which capsule size has the smallest capacity?

The Indian Pharmacopoeia specifies that the uniformity of weight test for capsules should be performed on how many capsules?

A high Bloom strength in gelatin used for capsules typically indicates:

Which of the following is correct about Gum Arabic?

The force per unit area which is used to apply to bring about the flow is:

Which of the following is an example of water-soluble ointment bases?

The bubble point test is performed to determine:

Sodium chloride is added in ophthalmic preparation as:

An ophthalmic solution is isotonic with another solution when:

What is the technique commonly used for drying blood plasma?

The anticoagulant heparin solution does not contain:

Which is the major process of absorption for more than 90% of drugs?

What is major difference between Facilitated & passive diffusion

Low solubility Low permeability is BCS class,

The renal clearance expressed mathematically

Which of the following sera contains?

In quality control of parenteral preparations, which of the following tests is performed to ensure the preparation is free from pyrogens?

What is the main purpose of filtration through 0.22 μm0.22\ \mu\text{m}0.22 μm in the preparation of parenteral solutions?

Which of the following statements regarding emulsions is false?

What distinguishes the production process of absorbent cotton from that of non-absorbent cotton?

Which of the following is an emulsifying fraction of wool fat?

In the limit test for sulfate, the formation of a white precipitate is due to the reaction of sulfate ions with:

In the limit test for iron, the presence of iron is detected by the formation of a reddish-brown color when:

Which of the following factors can affect the result of the limit test for chloride when using silver nitrate as a reagent?

Which of the following is the most critical for ensuring the accuracy of the limit test for iron when using potassium thiocyanate?

To perform the test for anticoagulant activity of drugs, which bioassay would be used?

Which of the following is the most common method of bioassay for determining the potency of a drug?

What is the purpose of a standard curve in a bioassay?

Which of the following is an example of a microbiological assay?

Which of the following is classified as 'Aseptic area'?

Which of the following is a challenge in pyrogen testing?

Which of the following is an advantage of the Monocyte Activation Test (MAT) over the Rabbit Pyrogen Test (RPT)?

A colorimeter is used for measurement of:

How is absorbance related to transmittance?

What is the difference between a spectrophotometer and a colorimeter?

What would you use to measure the intensity of light transmitted through a solution containing suspended particles?

Which technique is generally more sensitive, nephelometry or turbidimetry?

How are the concentration of particles in a solution and the intensity of scattered light in nephelometry related:

If ethylene acts as chromophore then which of the following type of transition will occur?

Which of the following functional groups will not acts as auxochrome?

Which of the following defines correctly the 'D value' in sterility?

Which of the following is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor?

Which of the following is the precursor of barbituric acid?

The heterocyclic ring that is present in Alprazolam is:

Modifications of which antitubercular drug leads to the production of antidepressant drugs

Which of the following contains imidazolidine-2,4-dione ring?

The bridge that is present between ring nitrogen and the basic amino nitrogen in the tricyclic antidepressants is:

5-HT1A5\text{-HT}_{1A}5-HT1A​ agonist 'Buspirone' contains:

What is the main purpose of filtration through $0.22\ \mu\text{m}$ in the preparation of parenteral solutions?

$5\text{-HT}_{1A}$ agonist 'Buspirone' contains:

Arrange the following steps in the correct chronological order for pesticide residue analysis in food matrices:
I. Sample extraction
II. Sample collection
III. Instrumental analysis (e.g., GC-MS)
IV. Sample preparation (e.g., clean-up / dSPE)
Choose the correct option:

Which chemical reagent is standardly used to confirm the presence of sulphate ions ( $SO_4^{2-}$ ) in qualitative inorganic analysis?

In the gravimetric quantitative estimation of iron as ferric oxide ( $Fe_2O_3$ ), which hydroxide reagent is added to precipitate iron as hydrated ferric hydroxide?

Why is potassium dichromate ( $K_2Cr_2O_7$ ) preferred over sodium dichromate ( $Na_2Cr_2O_7$ ) as a primary standard in analytical redox titrations?

Which of the following methods is most standardly and accurately appropriate for the quantitative estimation of $Ca^{2+}$ ions in an environmental water sample?

Which of the following techniques is most suitable and recognized as an analytical referee method for the quantitative estimation of sulphate ( $SO_4^{2-}$ ) in a water sample?