In a national competitive examination, 35% of the total candidates were girls. The results revealed the following: • 75% of the boys passed the exam. • 80% of the girls passed the exam. • Among all the candidates who passed, 20% were awarded a merit scholarship. • Among all the candidates who failed, 10% were eligible to apply for secondary "recovery" test. If the number of candidates who were awarded a scholarship exceeds the number of candidates eligible for the recovery test by 2,605, what was the total number of candidates who appeared for the exam?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (20,000)
Let total candidates = T. Girls = 0.35T, Boys = 0.65T. Total passed = (0.75 × 0.65T) + (0.80 × 0.35T) = 0.4875T + 0.28T = 0.7675T. Total failed = 1 - 0.7675T = 0.2325T. Scholarship recipients = 0.20 × 0.7675T = 0.1535T. Recovery eligible = 0.10 × 0.2325T = 0.02325T. Difference = 0.1535T - 0.02325T = 0.13025T = 2605. Thus, T = 2605 / 0.13025 = 20,000.
Q2
Basic MathematicsProfit and Loss - Successive Discounts
A shopkeeper marks the price of an item 40% above the cost price. He then gives two successive discounts of 10% and 5% on the marked price. If the shopkeeper makes a profit of Rs.492.5, find the cost price of the item.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rs.2,500)
Let CP = C. MP = 1.40C. After successive discounts of 10% and 5%, SP = 1.40C × 0.90 × 0.95 = 1.197C. Profit = SP - CP = 1.197C - C = 0.197C = Rs. 492.5. Therefore, C = 492.5 / 0.197 = Rs. 2,500.
Q3
Basic MathematicsPercentage - Discount and Tax
A gadget was sold for Rs. 522 after a 10% discount and then a 10% sales tax was applied on the discounted price. What was the original price of the gadget? (Round to nearest ten)
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rs. 527)
Let original price = P. Discounted price = 0.90P. Final price with 10% sales tax = 0.90P × 1.10 = 0.99P. Given 0.99P = 522, so P = 522 / 0.99 ≈ Rs. 527.27. Rounded to the nearest option, it is Rs. 527.
Q4
Basic MathematicsDiscount and Sales Tax Evaluation
A storekeeper gives 20% discount on an item and then adds 12% sales tax on the discounted price. If the original price of the item is Rs 500, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The final price the customer pays is Rs. 450.)
Original price = Rs. 500. Discounted price = 500 - (0.20 × 500) = Rs. 400 (Statement A is correct). Sales tax = 12% of 400 = Rs. 48 (Statement B is correct). Final price = 400 + 48 = Rs. 448. Since Rs. 448 is less than Rs. 500, Statement D is correct. Statement C claims final price is Rs. 450, which is INCORRECT.
Q5
Basic MathematicsAverages
The average score of 10 students in a class is 72. One student scored 90 marks, and another scored 30 marks less than the first. If these two students are removed, what is the new average of the remaining students?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (71.2)
Total score of 10 students = 10 × 72 = 720. Student 1 scored 90 marks. Student 2 scored 90 - 30 = 60 marks. Total marks of these two students = 90 + 60 = 150. Remaining total for 8 students = 720 - 150 = 570. New average = 570 / 8 = 71.25 ≈ 71.2.
Q6
Basic MathematicsAverages - Correction of Errors
The average of 12 students in a class is 68. Later, it was found that one student's score was incorrectly recorded as 72 instead of 96. What is the correct average of the class?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (70)
Difference in score = 96 - 72 = +24. Net increase in the average = +24 / 12 = +2. Correct average = 68 + 2 = 70.
Q7
Basic MathematicsAverages
The average score of 20 students in a class is 75. It is later found that 5 students had been absent. In a re-examination, 4 of them scored 85 each. After including the marks of all 5 students, the overall average becomes 77. Determine the marks scored by the fifth student.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (85)
Initial 20 students scored total 20 × 75 = 1500. When the 5 students take the re-exam, total students = 25 and overall average becomes 77. Total marks of 25 students = 25 × 77 = 1925. Total marks of the 5 students = 1925 - 1500 = 425. Marks of 4 students = 4 × 85 = 340. Marks of the fifth student = 425 - 340 = 85.
Q8
Basic MathematicsAverages - Complex Data Adjustment
The average score of a group of n students in a mathematics competition is 60. A series of adjustments is made to the data. The top 25% of students (by score) are removed from the data set. Their average score was 80. A new group of 10 students joins the remaining group. This new group has an average score of 40. After these changes, it was discovered that a score belonging to one of the original remaining students was misrecorded as 100 instead of 80. After all departures, additions, and corrections, the final average score of the group is exactly 50. What was the original number of students (n)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (48)
Original sum = 60n. Top 25% students (0.25n) with average 80 removed: sum removed = 0.25n × 80 = 20n. Remaining sum = 40n. 10 students with average 40 added: sum added = 400. Correction: -20 (since 100 was recorded instead of 80). New sum = 40n + 400 - 20 = 40n + 380. New count of students = 0.75n + 10. Given final average = 50: (40n + 380) / (0.75n + 10) = 50 => 40n + 380 = 37.5n + 500 => 2.5n = 120 => n = 48.
Q9
Basic MathematicsTime and Work - Variable Efficiencies
A, B, and C can complete a complex engineering project in 25 days working together. The ratio of their individual efficiencies is 4 : 3 : 5 respectively. The project begins with all three working together. However, the following events occur: After 5 days, A leaves the project. To compensate for A's departure, B increases his efficiency 33.3 %, while C continues to work at his original efficiency. C leaves d days before the completion of project. The entire project is completed in exactly 35 days. What is the value of d?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (6)
Let efficiencies be A = 4, B = 3, C = 5. Total work = (4 + 3 + 5) × 25 = 12 × 25 = 300 units. In the first 5 days, all three do 5 × 12 = 60 units. Remaining work = 300 - 60 = 240 units to be completed in remaining 35 - 5 = 30 days. B increases efficiency by 33.3% => 3 × 4/3 = 4 units/day. B works all 30 days, completing 30 × 4 = 120 units. C works for (30 - d) days with efficiency 5, doing 5(30 - d) = 150 - 5d units. Total remaining work: 120 + 150 - 5d = 240 => 270 - 5d = 240 => 5d = 30 => d = 6.
Q10
Basic MathematicsTime and Work - Quadratic Equations
A contractor assigns a task to two workers, A and B. Worker A can complete the work in x days, while worker B takes 5 days more than A. Working together, they can finish the task in 6 days. Find the value of x.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (10)
We have 1/x + 1/(x + 5) = 1/6. Testing x = 10: 1/10 + 1/15 = (3 + 2)/30 = 5/30 = 1/6, which exactly matches the 6 days requirement. Thus, x = 10.
Q11
Basic MathematicsSpeed, Time and Distance
The speed of a car travelling from city A to city B was recorded as 60 km/h, and the journey time was noted as 5 hours. However, the actual speed was 50 km/h. Calculate the real time taken for the trip.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (6 hours)
Distance between city A and city B = Speed × Time = 60 km/h × 5 h = 300 km. Real time taken at the actual speed of 50 km/h = Distance / Actual Speed = 300 km / 50 km/h = 6 hours.
Q12
Basic MathematicsSpeed, Time and Distance
A train covers a distance S at a speed U. If its speed is increased by 10 km/h, the travel time reduces by 2 hours, and if increased by 20 km/h, the time reduces by 3 hours. Find the distance S.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (120 km)
Using S = [U(U + ΔU) / ΔU] × Δt: (1) S = [U(U + 10) / 10] × 2 = U(U + 10) / 5. (2) S = [U(U + 20) / 20] × 3 = 3U(U + 20) / 20. Equating both: (U + 10) / 5 = 3(U + 20) / 20 => 4(U + 10) = 3(U + 20) => 4U + 40 = 3U + 60 => U = 20 km/h. Substituting U = 20 into (1): S = 20(30) / 5 = 120 km.
Q13
Basic MathematicsRatio and Proportion - Types of Ratios
Match the mathematical descriptions (List-A) with their corresponding ratios (List-B): List -A i. Sub-duplicate ratio of 25:36 ii. Duplicate ratio of 3:4 iii. Reciprocal ratio of 5:7 iv. Compound ratio of 2:3 and 9:4 List -B a. 9:16 b. 3:2 c. 5:6 d. 7:5 Choose the correct match:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b)
Sub-duplicate ratio of 25:36 is √25 : √36 = 5:6 (i-c). Duplicate ratio of 3:4 is 3² : 4² = 9:16 (ii-a). Reciprocal ratio of 5:7 is 1/5 : 1/7 = 7:5 (iii-d). Compound ratio of 2:3 and 9:4 is (2×9) : (3×4) = 18:12 = 3:2 (iv-b). Thus, i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b.
Q14
Basic MathematicsRatio and Proportion - Componendo and Dividendo
If a:b = c:d, which of the following is correct using Componendo and Dividendo?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ((a+b):(a-b) = (c+d):(c-d))
By the algebraic theorem of Componendo and Dividendo, if a / b = c / d, then (a + b) / (a - b) = (c + d) / (c - d), which in ratio form is (a+b):(a-b) = (c+d):(c-d).
Q15
Basic MathematicsVariation and Proportions
A high-end jeweller manufactures gold bars where the price of a bar is directly proportional to the square of its weight. During transit, a bar of weight 5 units and worth Rs. 25,000 accidentally breaks into two pieces with weights in the ratio 2:3. What is the total reduction in the value of the gold due to this breakage?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rs. 12,000)
Price P = k × W². For the original bar: 25000 = k × (5²) => 25000 = 25k => k = 1000. The two broken pieces weigh 2 units and 3 units. Value of 1st piece = 1000 × (2²) = Rs. 4,000. Value of 2nd piece = 1000 × (3²) = Rs. 9,000. Total value of broken pieces = 4000 + 9000 = Rs. 13,000. Reduction in value = 25000 - 13000 = Rs. 12,000.
Q16
Basic MathematicsAlgebra - Ratios and Proportions
If x/a = y/b = z/c = k, then find the value of: (bx + cy + az)/k
💡Correct Answer: Option D (ab + bc + ac)
From x/a = y/b = z/c = k, we have x = ak, y = bk, and z = ck. Substituting these into the expression: (b(ak) + c(bk) + a(ck)) / k = k(ab + bc + ac) / k = ab + bc + ac.
Q17
Basic MathematicsProblems on Ages
Match the scenarios in List-I with the correct "Present Age of the Older Person" in List-II. List-I P. The sum of the ages of a father and son is 45 years. Five years ago, the product of their ages was four times the father's age at that time. Q. A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of his son. R. The ratio of the ages of A and B is 3:4. The sum of their ages is 28. S. 10 years ago, a father was 4 times as old as his son. 2 years hence, he will be twice as old as his son. List-II 1) 16years 2) 36years 3) 46years 4) 34 years Choose the correct match:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4)
P: F + S = 45. Five years ago: (F-5)(S-5) = 4(F-5) => S-5 = 4 => S = 9, so F = 36 (2). Q: M = S + 24. In 2 years: M + 2 = 2(S + 2) => S + 26 = 2S + 4 => S = 22, so M = 46 (3). R: Ratio 3:4, sum 28 => Older person B = 4/7 × 28 = 16 (1). S: F - 10 = 4(S - 10) and F + 2 = 2(S + 2) => S = 16, F = 34 (4). Thus, P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4.
Q18
Basic MathematicsProblems on Ages
Six years ago, the ratio of the ages of Kunal and Sagar was 6:5. Four years hence, the ratio of their ages will be 11:10. Based on this information, identify the single correct statement from the list below:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Six years ago, Kunal was 12 years old)
Let ages 6 years ago be 6x and 5x. Four years hence (after 10 years): (6x + 10) / (5x + 10) = 11 / 10 => 60x + 100 = 55x + 110 => 5x = 10 => x = 2. Six years ago, Kunal was 6(2) = 12 years old, making Statement C true. (Present ages: Kunal = 18, Sagar = 16).
Q19
Basic MathematicsAverages and Linear Equations
An HR department is auditing the ages of its 5-member executive board A, B, C, D, and E, to comply with a "balanced experience" policy. The average age of the board members is 25 years. Member D (age 30) quits and is replaced by Member F. The new average age becomes 24 years. Additionally, Member B is 5 years younger than Member C. Member A is 2 years older than Member F. Member E and Member B have same age. What is the current age of Member E?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (21 years)
Original sum = 5 × 25 = 125. New sum = 5 × 24 = 120 => F - D = 120 - 125 = -5 => F = 30 - 5 = 25 years. Member A = F + 2 = 25 + 2 = 27 years. Since A + B + C + D + E = 125, we have 27 + B + C + 30 + E = 125 => B + C + E = 68. Given E = B and C = B + 5: B + (B + 5) + B = 68 => 3B + 5 = 68 => 3B = 63 => B = 21. Since E = B, Member E is 21 years old.
Q20
Basic MathematicsProblems on Ages - Quadratic Equations
The present age of a man is equal to the square of his son's age. One year ago, the man's age was exactly eight times the age of his son. Two years hence, the sum of their ages will be 6 more than six times the son's age at that time. If the son's present age is 'x', which of the following represents the man's present age?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (49 years)
Let son's age = x, man's age = x². One year ago: x² - 1 = 8(x - 1) => x² - 1 = 8x - 8 => x² - 8x + 7 = 0 => (x - 7)(x - 1) = 0. Since x > 1, x = 7. Thus, the man's present age is x² = 7² = 49 years. (Verification: In 2 years, man = 51, son = 9; sum = 60, which equals 6(9) + 6 = 60).
Q21
Basic MathematicsProbability - Binomial Distribution
A coin is tossed 5 times. Each head contributes +1 and each tail contributes -1. What is the probability that the total sum is exactly +1?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (5/16)
Let H = number of heads, T = number of tails. Total tosses H + T = 5. Net sum H - T = 1. Solving gives 2H = 6 => H = 3 and T = 2. Number of favorable outcomes = C(5, 3) = 10. Total possible outcomes = 2⁵ = 32. Probability = 10 / 32 = 5/16.
Q22
Basic MathematicsConditional Probability
A die is thrown 3 times. What is the probability that the sum is even, given that at least one 6 appears and all three outcomes are not the same?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1/2)
Condition B: At least one 6 appears, but not (6,6,6). Total outcomes with at least one 6 = 6³ - 5³ = 216 - 125 = 91. Excluding (6,6,6), |B| = 90. Out of the 108 even sum outcomes in 3 rolls, outcomes without any 6 having an even sum = (3 evens from {2,4}) + (1 even, 2 odds from {1,3,5}) = 2³ + 3(2)(3²) = 8 + 54 = 62. Thus, even sums with at least one 6 = 108 - 62 = 46. Excluding (6,6,6) (sum 18 is even), favorable even sums in B = 46 - 1 = 45. Probability = 45 / 90 = 1/2.
Q23
Basic MathematicsProbability - Combinations
A bag contains 4 red, 3 blue, and 3 green balls. Three balls are drawn without replacement. What is the probability that exactly two balls are of the same colour and one is different?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (13/20)
Total balls = 10. Total ways to draw 3 balls = C(10, 3) = 120. All 3 same colour: C(4,3) + C(3,3) + C(3,3) = 4 + 1 + 1 = 6. All 3 different colours: C(4,1) × C(3,1) × C(3,1) = 4 × 3 × 3 = 36. Favorable outcomes (exactly two of same colour) = 120 - (6 + 36) = 120 - 42 = 78. Probability = 78 / 120 = 13/20.
Q24
Basic MathematicsProbability - Number Sets
Two numbers are chosen at random from the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} without replacement. What is the probability that their sum is prime?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (7/15)
Total pairs = C(6, 2) = 15. The prime sums possible from {1..6} are 3, 5, 7, 11: Sum 3: (1,2); Sum 5: (1,4), (2,3); Sum 7: (1,6), (2,5), (3,4); Sum 11: (5,6). Total favorable pairs = 1 + 2 + 3 + 1 = 7. Probability = 7/15.
Q25
Basic MathematicsHCF and LCM Applications
A florist is preparing for a large event and has 200 roses and 180 orchids. She wants to create the maximum possible number of identical bouquets such that every bouquet has the same number of roses and orchids, and no flowers are left over. How many roses will be present in each bouquet?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (10)
The maximum number of bouquets is HCF(200, 180) = 20. The number of roses in each bouquet = Total roses / Number of bouquets = 200 / 20 = 10 roses.
Q26
Basic MathematicsProperties of HCF and LCM
Identify the single correct statement regarding the properties of HCF and LCM: A) If the product of two numbers is 2028 and their HCF is 13, there are exactly 2 such pairs of numbers possible B) The HCF of any two numbers always divides their LCM C) If the HCF of two numbers is 8, then 60 can never be their LCM D) All of the above statements are correct
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above statements are correct)
All three statements are mathematically correct: (A) Let numbers be 13a, 13b. 169ab = 2028 => ab = 12, giving co-prime pairs (1,12) and (3,4) (exactly 2 pairs); (B) HCF is always a factor of LCM; (C) Since 8 does not divide 60, 60 cannot be the LCM. Hence, 'All of the above statements are correct'.
Q27
Basic MathematicsAlgebraic LCM and HCF
The LCM of two expressions is 3x³ + 18x² + 30x + 12, and their HCF is x+2. One of the expressions is x+2. What is the sum of the coefficients (a,b), if the other expression can be represented as k(x² + ax + b)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (6)
Since First × Other = HCF × LCM, and First = x+2 = HCF, the other expression equals the LCM: 3x³ + 18x² + 30x + 12 = 3(x + 2)(x² + 4x + 2) = 3(x² + 4x + 2). Comparing with k(x² + ax + b) gives a = 4, b = 2. Thus, the sum of coefficients (a, b) = 4 + 2 = 6.
Q28
Basic MathematicsHCF and LCM of Numbers
The LCM of two numbers is 180, and their HCF is 6. One of the numbers is 18 and the other number can be written in the form 6 × k. What is the value of k?
Basic MathematicsMensuration - Spheres and Surface Area
A solid metallic sphere of radius R is melted and recast into n identical small solid spheres of radius r. Let S be the surface area of the original large sphere and s be the sum of the surface areas of all n small spheres. Identify the single correct relationship between s and S:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (s = n^(1/3)S)
Volume conservation: (4/3)πR³ = n × (4/3)πr³ => R³ = nr³ => r = R·n^(-1/3). Surface area S = 4πR². Sum of surface areas s = n × (4πr²) = n × 4π(R·n^(-1/3))² = n × 4πR²·n^(-2/3) = n^(1 - 2/3)·S = n^(1/3)S.
Q30
Basic MathematicsMensuration - Combination of Solids
A wooden toy is shaped like a rocket with a cone mounted on a cylinder. The total height of the rocket is 26 cm, while the height of the conical part is 8 cm. The base of the conical portion has a diameter of 12 cm, while the base diameter of the cylindrical portion is 6 cm. The conical portion is to be painted orange and the cylindrical portion yellow. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the orange-painted area?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The orange area is calculated as (CSA of cone) + (Base area of cone - Base area of cylinder))
The orange painted area consists of the slanted outer surface of the cone (CSA of cone) plus the exposed circular annular base of the cone that overhangs the cylinder. This exposed base is the Area of the base of the cone minus the Area of the base of the cylinder.
Q31
Basic MathematicsMensuration - Surface Area and Cost Calculation
A wooden toy is shaped like a rocket with a cone mounted on a cylinder. The total height of the rocket is 26 cm, while the height of the conical part is 8 cm. The base of the conical portion has a diameter of 12 cm, while the base diameter of the cylindrical portion is 6 cm. The conical portion is to be painted orange and the cylindrical portion yellow. Calculate the total cost of painting the orange portion in terms of π, if the cost of painting is 0.1 Rs per mm².
💡Correct Answer: Option A (870π)
Cone radius R = 6 cm, height h = 8 cm => slant height l = √(6² + 8²) = 10 cm. CSA of cone = πRl = π × 6 × 10 = 60π cm². Cylinder radius r = 3 cm. Base ring area = πR² - πr² = π(36 - 9) = 27π cm². Total orange area = 60π + 27π = 87π cm² = 87π × 100 mm² = 8700π mm². Cost at Rs. 0.1 per mm² = 8700π × 0.1 = Rs. 870π.
Q32
Basic MathematicsMensuration - Ratio of Volumes
A right circular cylinder and a sphere have the same radius r. If their total surface areas are also exactly equal, what is the ratio of the volume of the cylinder to the volume of the sphere?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3 : 4)
Total surface area of cylinder = 2πr(r + h). Total surface area of sphere = 4πr². Equating them: 2πr² + 2πrh = 4πr² => 2πrh = 2πr² => h = r. Volume of cylinder = πr²h = πr³. Volume of sphere = (4/3)πr³. Ratio of cylinder volume to sphere volume = πr³ / [(4/3)πr³] = 3/4 = 3 : 4.
Q33
Basic ReasoningAnalogy - Respiratory Organs
HUMAN : NOSE :: FROGS : __ ?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (SKIN)
Humans take in air primarily through the nose. Frogs are celebrated amphibians whose primary mode of continuous respiration (cutaneous respiration), especially in water and hibernation, takes place directly through their permeable moist SKIN.
Q34
Basic ReasoningLetter Analogy - Vowels and Consonants Sorting
WOMEN : EOMNW :: APPLE : __ ?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (AELPP)
In the word WOMEN, the vowels are arranged first in alphabetical order (E, O), followed by the consonants arranged in alphabetical order (M, N, W) -> EOMNW. Applying the same logic to APPLE: Vowels alphabetically: A, E; Consonants alphabetically: L, P, P -> AELPP.
In a certain language, 'CHANGE' is written as 'BDFHIO' and 'AMEND' is written as 'BEFNO'. How will 'SHIFT' be coded in that language?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (GIJTU)
Shift each letter by +1, then arrange all resulting letters in alphabetical order: For CHANGE: C->D, H->I, A->B, N->O, G->H, E->F => {D, I, B, O, H, F} arranged alphabetically is B, D, F, H, I, O. For SHIFT: S->T, H->I, I->J, F->G, T->U => {T, I, J, G, U} arranged alphabetically is G, I, J, T, U -> GIJTU.
Q36
Basic ReasoningNumber Coding - Letter Position Sum
Pointing to a photograph, Anisha said, "I did not have any siblings, but that woman's father is the only son of my grandfather". Whose photograph was it?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Herself)
'The only son of my grandfather' refers to Anisha's father. 'That woman's father is Anisha's father'. Since Anisha has no siblings, that woman must be Anisha herself. Thus, the photograph was of herself.
Q38
Basic ReasoningBlood Relations
Introducing a woman, Rohan said, "Her mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-law". How is the woman related to Rohan?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Daughter)
'The only daughter of my mother-in-law' refers to Rohan's wife. 'Her mother is Rohan's wife' means the woman's mother is Rohan's wife. Therefore, the woman is Rohan's daughter.
Q39
Basic ReasoningBlood Relations
Arpan is the son of Barkha. Barkha has a sister Charu, who has a son Dharmesh and a daughter Aditi. Dharmesh has a paternal uncle Feroz. How is Arpan related to Dharmesh?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Cousin)
Barkha and Charu are sisters. Arpan is Barkha's son and Dharmesh is Charu's son. Since their mothers are sisters, Arpan and Dharmesh are maternal cousins.
Q40
Basic ReasoningBlood Relations
"My father is the only son of your Father", a man said to a woman. How is the woman related to the man?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Paternal aunt)
'The only son of your Father' = the woman's brother. 'My father is the woman's brother' => the man's father is the woman's brother. Therefore, the woman is the man's father's sister, which is his Paternal aunt (Bua).
Q41
Mental Ability & ReasoningClassification (Odd One Out)
Find the odd one out: A) Tsunami B) Cyclone C) Nuclear explosion D) Volcano
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Nuclear explosion)
Tsunami, Cyclone, and Volcano are natural disasters/phenomena caused by nature. A Nuclear explosion is a man-made anthropogenic event/disaster. Hence, 'Nuclear explosion' is the odd one out.
Which pair is the odd one out? A) 32-18 B) 63-42 C) 77-42 D) 95-68
💡Correct Answer: Option D (95-68)
Let us examine the difference between the numbers in each pair: - In 32-18: Difference = 32 - 18 = 14 (divisible by 7: 7 x 2 = 14) - In 63-42: Difference = 63 - 42 = 21 (divisible by 7: 7 x 3 = 21) - In 77-42: Difference = 77 - 42 = 35 (divisible by 7: 7 x 5 = 35) - In 95-68: Difference = 95 - 68 = 27 (NOT divisible by 7). Therefore, 95-68 is the odd one out.
Q43
Mental Ability & ReasoningLetter Classification
Which letter cluster is the odd one out? A) KMI B) TVR C) FHE D) MOK
💡Correct Answer: Option C (FHE)
Check the alphabetical positional differences: - K(11) -> M(13) [+2], M(13) -> I(9) [-4] - T(20) -> V(22) [+2], V(22) -> R(18) [-4] - M(13) -> O(15) [+2], O(15) -> K(11) [-4] - F(6) -> H(8) [+2], H(8) -> E(5) [-3] (differs from the -4 rule). Hence, FHE is the odd one out.
Q44
Mental Ability & ReasoningNumber Classification
Find the odd number in the set: 515, 732, 1725, 346 A) 515 B) 732 C) 1725 D) 346
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1725)
Examine the pattern based on cubes of integers (n³ + 3): - 8³ + 3 = 512 + 3 = 515 - 9³ + 3 = 729 + 3 = 732 - 7³ + 3 = 343 + 3 = 346 - 12³ = 1728, and 1728 - 3 = 1725 (this follows n³ - 3 instead of n³ + 3). Thus, 1725 is the odd one out.
Q45
Mental Ability & ReasoningDirection Sense Test
A man is facing north. He turns 135 degrees in the anti-clockwise direction. Then he turned 180 degrees in a clockwise direction. In which direction is he facing now? A) North-west B) South-east C) North-east D) South-west
💡Correct Answer: Option C (North-east)
Initial facing direction = North (0°). 1. Turns 135° anti-clockwise: Net direction = -135° = South-West. 2. Turns 180° clockwise: Net rotation = -135° + 180° = +45° (clockwise from North). 45° clockwise from North is North-East. Hence, he is facing North-east.
Q46
Mental Ability & ReasoningClock & Direction Sense
At 9:15 am, the minute hand of a clock faces west. Then, at 6 pm on the same day, in which direction will the hour hand point? A) South B) West C) East D) North
💡Correct Answer: Option D (North)
At 9:15 am, the minute hand is at 3 on the clock face. Normally, 3 represents East. Here, 3 points West (a 180° inversion or reversal of directions). At 6 pm, the hour hand points at 6 on the clock face. On a standard clock face, position 6 is 90° clockwise from position 3. Since position 3 points West, 90° clockwise from West is North. Therefore, at 6 pm, the hour hand points North.
Q47
Mental Ability & ReasoningDirection Sense (Shadow Concept)
A man walks 57 m, turns right and walks 76 m, then turns right again and walks 57 m. If at the time of sunset, his shadow is to his left, in which direction did he start? A) South B) East C) West D) North
💡Correct Answer: Option D (North)
At sunset, the sun is in the West, so shadows are cast towards the East. Given that his shadow is to his left, his left side must be facing East, which means he is currently facing South. Now trace his movements backwards: - He is currently facing South after taking two right turns (each 90° right = 180° reversal of direction). - Two right turns reverse your facing direction by 180°. - Since his final facing direction is South, his initial starting direction was 180° opposite, which is North. Let's verify: Starting North -> turns right (faces East) -> turns right again (faces South). Facing South, East is to his left, where his shadow falls. Hence, he started walking North.
Q48
Mental Ability & ReasoningDirection and Distance
Rehman travelled 32km north, 17km south and then 8km east. How far is he away from his starting point and in which direction? A) 13km, North B) 17km, North-East C) 13km, North-East D) 17km, East
💡Correct Answer: Option B (17km, North-East)
1. Net displacement in North-South axis: 32 km North - 17 km South = 15 km North. 2. Net displacement in East-West axis: 8 km East. Distance from starting point = √(15² + 8²) = √(225 + 64) = √289 = 17 km. Direction from starting point: North and East = North-East. Hence, 17km, North-East.
Q49
Mental Ability & ReasoningNon-Verbal Series
Look at the sequence of figures (Fig 1 to Fig 4) showing a stick figure, an arrow, and a dot inside a box. Which figure replaces the question mark (Fig 5 = ?)? A) Fig with horizontal stick figure facing East, arrow at top-left pointing down, dot at bottom-right B) Fig with horizontal stick figure, arrow at bottom-left, dot at top-right C) Fig with upright stick figure, arrow at top-left, dot at bottom-right D) Fig with upright stick figure, arrow at bottom-left, dot at top-right
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Figure as shown in Option A)
1. The stick figure rotates 90° counter-clockwise at each step: Fig 1 upright (head North) -> Fig 3 horizontal (head West) -> Fig 4 inverted (head South) -> Fig 5 horizontal with head pointing East. 2. The dot moves counter-clockwise along the four corners: Bottom-Right -> Top-Right -> Top-Left -> Bottom-Left -> back to Bottom-Right in Fig 5. 3. The arrow cycles along the four positions and directions: Top-Left (down) -> Bottom-Left (right) -> Bottom-Right (up) -> Top-Right (left) -> back to Top-Left pointing down in Fig 5. All three features uniquely match Option A.
Q50
Mental Ability & ReasoningNon-Verbal Series (Polygon Vertices)
A regular hexagon has vertices labeled V0 (top), V1 (top-right), V2 (bottom-right), V3 (bottom), V4 (bottom-left), and V5 (top-left). The position of the dot moves across successive figures: Fig 1 at V0, Fig 2 at V2, Fig 3 at V5, Fig 4 at V3, Fig 5 at V4. The position of the dot in the question mark (?) figure is: A) V0 B) V2 C) V3 D) V4
💡Correct Answer: Option A (V0)
The path followed by the dot across the vertices of the hexagon is: V0 (top) -> V2 (bottom-right) -> V5 (top-left) -> V3 (bottom) -> V4 (bottom-left). This sequence completes a continuous geometric traversal tracing across opposite and adjacent vertices, returning to the apex vertex V0 to complete the cycle. Hence, the dot returns to V0.
A circle is divided into 5 equal slices. In each figure, x slices are removed, and the remaining slices form a pattern that corresponds to a number. Observe the following: Figure 1: When 2 slices are removed, the remaining pattern corresponds to 211. Figure 2: When 1 slice is removed, the remaining pattern corresponds to 1023. When 0 slices are removed, what number will the remaining figure represent? A) 3125 B) 7776 C) 6561 D) 2401
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3125)
Let total slices = 5, removed slices = x, remaining slices = 5 - x. The rule connecting the figures to numbers is: (5 - x)⁵ - x⁵. - For Figure 1 (x = 2 slices removed): (5 - 2)⁵ - 2⁵ = 3⁵ - 2⁵ = 243 - 32 = 211. - For Figure 2 (x = 1 slice removed): (5 - 1)⁵ - 1⁵ = 4⁵ - 1⁵ = 1024 - 1 = 1023. - For 0 slices removed (x = 0): (5 - 0)⁵ - 0⁵ = 5⁵ - 0 = 3125. Therefore, the number is 3125.
In a pattern problem, row 1 illustrates an operation: Figure A ⊕ Figure B = Figure C, where common overlapping elements disappear (XOR logic). Row 2 gives Figure D and Figure E. Find the missing figure for Figure D ⊕ Figure E: A) Figure with central tilted square, dot at top-right, and 3 dots at bottom B) Figure retaining triangle with dots C) Figure with only central tilted square and dot at top-right D) Figure retaining triangle with 4 dots
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Option C figure)
In Row 1, the operation ⊕ represents XOR (Exclusive OR / Superposition): elements common to both figures are removed, while non-overlapping elements are retained. The circle in both A and B vanishes in C. In Row 2, the leftward pointing triangle is present in both Figure D and Figure E, so it cancels out. The internal tilted square and the top-right corner dot are unique to Figure E and remain. The overlapping dots along the common triangle edge cancel out, leaving exactly Option C.
Q53
Mental Ability & ReasoningVenn Diagrams / Set Theory
In a research facility, there are 122 scientists. Some specialize in Quantum Physics (Q), Molecular Biology (M), and Organic Chemistry (O), while a few have no specialization in any of these fields. There are 65 in Q, 45 in M, and 42 in O. The intersection of Q and M is 20, Q and O is 25, and M and O is 15. The number of scientists in all three fields is exactly half the number of scientists who have no specialization in any of these three fields. How many scientists are specialized only in Organic Chemistry? A) 10 B) 12 C) 15 D) 18
💡Correct Answer: Option B (12)
Let x be the number of scientists in all three fields (Q ∩ M ∩ O). Then the number with no specialization is 2x. Total scientists = |Q ∪ M ∪ O| + (None) = 122. By principle of inclusion-exclusion: |Q ∪ M ∪ O| = n(Q) + n(M) + n(O) - n(Q ∩ M) - n(Q ∩ O) - n(M ∩ O) + n(Q ∩ M ∩ O) = 65 + 45 + 42 - (20 + 25 + 15) + x = 152 - 60 + x = 92 + x. So: (92 + x) + 2x = 122 => 92 + 3x = 122 => 3x = 30 => x = 10. Now, number of scientists specializing only in Organic Chemistry: = n(O) - n(Q ∩ O) - n(M ∩ O) + n(Q ∩ M ∩ O) = 42 - 25 - 15 + 10 = 12.
Q54
Mental Ability & ReasoningVenn Diagrams / Set Theory
A survey of 500 people was conducted regarding their ownership of Smartwatches (S), Tablets (T), and VR Headsets (V). 285 people own a Smartwatch, 215 own a Tablet, and 115 own a VR Headset. Exactly 45 people own all three devices. There are 70 who own a Smartwatch and a VR Headset, while 50 own a Tablet and a VR Headset. 50 people own none of these devices. How many people own a Smartwatch and a Tablet, but not a VR Headset? A) 45 B) 55 C) 90 D) 105
💡Correct Answer: Option A (45)
Total = 500, None = 50 => |S ∪ T ∪ V| = 500 - 50 = 450. Given: n(S) = 285, n(T) = 215, n(V) = 115. n(S ∩ T ∩ V) = 45. n(S ∩ V) = 70, n(T ∩ V) = 50. By inclusion-exclusion formula: |S ∪ T ∪ V| = n(S) + n(T) + n(V) - [n(S ∩ T) + n(S ∩ V) + n(T ∩ V)] + n(S ∩ T ∩ V) 450 = 285 + 215 + 115 - [n(S ∩ T) + 70 + 50] + 45 450 = 615 - n(S ∩ T) - 120 + 45 450 = 540 - n(S ∩ T) n(S ∩ T) = 540 - 450 = 90. The number of people owning a Smartwatch and a Tablet, but not a VR Headset: = n(S ∩ T) - n(S ∩ T ∩ V) = 90 - 45 = 45.
Q55
Mental Ability & ReasoningVenn Diagrams / Set Theory
A library has 300 rare books categorised by Fiction (F), Hardcover (H), and Best-sellers (B). There are 140 Fiction books, 120 Hardcover books, and 100 Best-sellers. 40 books are both Fiction and Hardcover, 30 are both Hardcover and Best-sellers, and 50 are both Fiction and Best-sellers. Exactly 20 books fall in all three categories. How many books are either Fiction or Hardcover, but not both, and are not Best-sellers? A) 110 B) 120 C) 140 D) 160
💡Correct Answer: Option C (140)
We need: (Books that are ONLY Fiction) + (Books that are ONLY Hardcover). 1. Only Fiction: = n(F) - n(F ∩ H) - n(F ∩ B) + n(F ∩ H ∩ B) = 140 - 40 - 50 + 20 = 70. 2. Only Hardcover: = n(H) - n(F ∩ H) - n(H ∩ B) + n(F ∩ H ∩ B) = 120 - 40 - 30 + 20 = 70. Total = 70 + 70 = 140.
Q56
Mental Ability & ReasoningVenn Diagrams / Set Theory
In a software firm of 200 developers, everyone knows at least one language: Python (P), Java (J), and C++. The number of developers who know only Python is equal to the number of developers who know only Java. 30 developers know only C++. Exactly 10 developers know all three languages. 35 developers know both Python and Java, 25 know both Java and C++, and 30 know both Python and C++. What is the total number of developers who know Python? A) 50 B) 85 C) 105 D) 115
💡Correct Answer: Option C (105)
Let Only P = Only J = k. Given: - Only C++ = 30 - All three = 10 - Only (P and J) = 35 - 10 = 25 - Only (J and C++) = 25 - 10 = 15 - Only (P and C++) = 30 - 10 = 20 Total developers = (Only P) + (Only J) + (Only C++) + (Only P∩J) + (Only J∩C++) + (Only P∩C++) + (All three) 200 = k + k + 30 + 25 + 15 + 20 + 10 200 = 2k + 100 => 2k = 100 => k = 50. Now total developers who know Python: = (Only P) + (Only P∩J) + (Only P∩C++) + (All three) = 50 + 25 + 20 + 10 = 105.
Q57
Mental Ability & ReasoningNumber Series
Which of the following terms replaces the '?' in the given series: 121, 130, 148, ?, 256 A) 184 B) 166 C) 196 D) 175
💡Correct Answer: Option A (184)
Calculate the successive differences: - 130 - 121 = 9 - 148 - 130 = 18 (= 9 x 2) Following the geometric doubling difference pattern (9, 18, 36, 72): - Next term = 148 + 36 = 184 - Check next term: 184 + 72 = 256 (matches exactly). Hence, the missing term is 184.
Q58
Mental Ability & ReasoningNumber Series
Find the next term in the given series: 12, 6, 6, 9, 18, ? A) 54 B) 36 C) 27 D) 45
💡Correct Answer: Option D (45)
Check the multiplication factors: - 12 x 0.5 = 6 - 6 x 1.0 = 6 - 6 x 1.5 = 9 - 9 x 2.0 = 18 - 18 x 2.5 = 45. Hence, the next term is 45.
Q59
Mental Ability & ReasoningNumber Series
Which of the following options replaces the '?' in the given series: 22, 23, 27, 36, ?, 77 A) 47 B) 52 C) 45 D) 54
Find the next term in the given series: 8, 7, 12, 33, 128, ? A) 512 B) 384 C) 540 D) 635
💡Correct Answer: Option D (635)
Pattern: multiply by n and subtract n: - 8 x 1 - 1 = 7 - 7 x 2 - 2 = 12 - 12 x 3 - 3 = 33 - 33 x 4 - 4 = 128 - 128 x 5 - 5 = 640 - 5 = 635. Hence, the next term is 635.
Q61
Mental Ability & ReasoningCoding-Decoding
If 'BEAR' is written as 'AFBQ' and 'LION' is written as 'KJPM', how will 'KITE' be written? A) JJUD B) LJUF C) FJSS D) LUFJ
💡Correct Answer: Option A (JJUD)
Analyze the letter shift pattern: In BEAR -> AFBQ: - B - 1 = A - E + 1 = F - A + 1 = B - R - 1 = Q Pattern is: -1, +1, +1, -1. Check LION -> KJPM: - L - 1 = K - I + 1 = J - O + 1 = P - N - 1 = M Now apply -1, +1, +1, -1 to KITE: - K - 1 = J - I + 1 = J - T + 1 = U - E - 1 = D Result: JJUD.
In a certain code language, 'CANDLE' is written as 13451214. How will 'LIGHT' be written in the same language? A) 8792012 B) 7891220 C) 9812720 D) 1297820
💡Correct Answer: Option B (7891220)
Letters of 'CANDLE' and their alphabetical positions: C(3), A(1), N(14), D(4), L(12), E(5). Sort the letters alphabetically: - A = 1 - C = 3 - D = 4 - E = 5 - L = 12 - N = 14 Concatenating these positions gives: 1 3 4 5 12 14 = 13451214. Now for 'LIGHT': Letters: L(12), I(9), G(7), H(8), T(20). Sort alphabetically: G(7), H(8), I(9), L(12), T(20). Concatenating their positions gives: 7 8 9 12 20 = 7891220.
Q63
Mental Ability & ReasoningNumber Analogy
17 : 136 :: 27 : _ ? A) 223 B) 269 C) 243 D) 257
💡Correct Answer: Option C (243)
Pattern: multiply the number by the sum of its digits. - For 17: Sum of digits = 1 + 7 = 8. Then 17 x 8 = 136. - For 27: Sum of digits = 2 + 7 = 9. Then 27 x 9 = 243. Hence, the missing value is 243.
Q64
Mental Ability & ReasoningAnalogies
CUBE : 36 :: CUBOID : _ ? A) 74 B) 36 C) 48 D) 24
💡Correct Answer: Option B (36)
A cube is a 3D polyhedron with 6 faces (6² = 36). A cuboid is topologically identical to a cube, having exactly 6 faces, 12 edges, and 8 vertices. Under the same geometric face-based rule (faces² = 6² = 36), the value for CUBOID is also 36.
Q65
General EnglishArticles
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles: _ rich should help _ poor. A) No article, no article B) The, a C) No article, the D) The, the
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The, the)
When an adjective is used to represent an entire class or group of people as a plural collective noun, it takes the definite article 'the' ('The rich' = wealthy people in general; 'the poor' = impoverished people in general). Hence: 'The rich should help the poor.'
Q66
General EnglishArticles
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles: _ juice in this jug is bitter, but _ juice is generally good for health. A) No article, no article B) The, the C) The, no article D) No article, the
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The, no article)
1. 'The juice in this jug' refers to a specific, definite quantity of juice in a particular jug, requiring the definite article 'The'. 2. '...juice is generally good for health' refers to juice as an uncountable noun in a general sense, taking no article. Hence, 'The, no article'.
Q67
General EnglishArticles
Identify the correct sentence(s) regarding the use of article 'The': I. The higher you climb, the colder it gets. II. He is the most hardworking of the two brothers. III. The gold is a precious metal. Choose the correct option: A) only I B) I and II C) I and III D) All are correct
💡Correct Answer: Option A (only I)
- Sentence I is correct: uses parallel comparative structure ('The higher..., the colder...'). - Sentence II is incorrect: when comparing between two entities, the comparative degree is used ('He is the MORE hardworking of the two brothers', not 'most'). - Sentence III is incorrect: material nouns used in a general sense do not take 'the' ('Gold is a precious metal'). Hence, only I is correct.
Q68
General EnglishArticles
Identify the correct use of articles with plural nouns: I. Lions are fierce animals. II. Lions of Gir forest are famous worldwide. III. The lions we saw at the zoo were sleeping. Choose the correct option: A) only II B) Only I and III C) Only II and III D) All are correct
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Only I and III)
- Sentence I is correct: plural nouns in general statements take no article ('Lions are fierce animals'). - Sentence II is incorrect: when a plural noun is modified and made specific by a prepositional phrase ('of Gir forest'), the definite article 'the' is mandatory ('The lions of Gir forest are famous worldwide'). - Sentence III is correct: 'The lions we saw at the zoo' refers to specific lions identified by a relative clause, correctly taking 'The'. Therefore, only I and III are correct.
Q69
General EnglishSynonyms
Select the most appropriate synonym of the word SAGACIOUS: A) Silly B) stupid C) Sincere D) Wise
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Wise)
'Sagacious' means having or showing keen mental discernment, good judgment, and wisdom; wise. Hence, 'Wise' is the correct synonym.
Q70
General EnglishSynonyms
Select the most appropriate synonym of the word CHASTE: A) Immaculate B) Wanton C) Ornate D) Debauched
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Immaculate)
'Chaste' means pure, morally uncorrupted, undefiled, or clean. 'Immaculate' means perfectly clean, pure, and free from flaw or blemish, making it the closest synonym. 'Wanton' and 'Debauched' are antonyms.
Q71
General EnglishAntonyms
Select the most appropriate antonym of the word TACITURN: A) Prolix B) Breviloquent C) Traumatise D) Reticent
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Prolix)
'Taciturn' means reserved or untalkative; saying very little (synonyms include Reticent, Breviloquent). 'Prolix' means using too many words; tediously lengthy or wordy (garrulous/talkative). Hence, 'Prolix' is the correct antonym.
Q72
General EnglishAntonyms
Select the most appropriate antonym of the word IMPULSIVE: A) Impetuous B) Whimsical C) Reflective D) Unpremeditated
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Reflective)
'Impulsive' means acting or done without forethought; rash. 'Reflective' means characterized by deep thought or careful consideration. Hence, 'Reflective' is the antonym of impulsive. (Impetuous, Whimsical, and Unpremeditated are synonyms).
Q73
General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate prepositions: He was acquitted _ the murder charge, but he was later charged _ theft and sentenced _ three years. A) from, for, with B) of, with, to C) off, of, for D) with, about, in
💡Correct Answer: Option B (of, with, to)
Standard fixed preposition rules: - 'acquitted OF' (cleared of a criminal charge) - 'charged WITH' (formally accused of a crime) - 'sentenced TO' (punished with a specific penalty/imprisonment). Hence: 'acquitted of... charged with... sentenced to'.
Q74
General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate prepositions: The young man was absorbed _ his work and was oblivious _ the noise occurring _ him. A) in, by, besides B) with, of, beside C) in, to, around D) for, about, towards
💡Correct Answer: Option C (in, to, around)
Fixed preposition collocations: - 'absorbed IN' (deeply engaged in) - 'oblivious TO' (unaware of) - 'occurring AROUND' (happening in the surrounding environment). Hence: 'in, to, around'.
Q75
General EnglishPrepositions
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate prepositions: I cannot provide you _ a loan, as I am already beset _ financial difficulties and am answerable _ my creditors. A) with, with, to B) for, by, for C) to, of, with D) against, from, about
💡Correct Answer: Option A (with, with, to)
Grammar collocations: - 'provide someone WITH something' (supply) - 'beset WITH difficulties' (troubled or plagued by) - 'answerable TO someone' (accountable or responsible to). Hence: 'with, with, to'.
Q76
General EnglishPrepositions & Phrasal Verbs
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate prepositions: While the professor was _ the middle _ a lecture, a student broke _ with a question. A) at, for, out B) in, of, in C) within, of, through D) during, of, up
💡Correct Answer: Option B (in, of, in)
- 'in the middle of' is the standard idiom meaning during the midst of. - 'break in' is a phrasal verb meaning to interrupt a conversation or lecture. Hence: 'in, of, in'.
Q77
General EnglishVerbs & Modals
In the sentence, 'Radha may visit the museum', the word 'may' is a: A) Main verb B) Transitive verb C) Gerund D) Modal verb
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Modal verb)
In English grammar, 'may' is a modal auxiliary verb used to express possibility, permission, or wishing. Here, it indicates possibility and modifies the main verb 'visit'.
Q78
General EnglishVerbs (Auxiliary vs Main)
Identify the sentence where the verb 'have' acts as a main verb rather than an auxiliary: A) I have finished my lunch. B) They have been working all day. C) We have a meeting at ten. D) Have they seen the movie yet?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (We have a meeting at ten.)
In options A, B, and D, 'have' is an auxiliary verb helping past participles ('finished', 'been', 'seen') to form perfect tenses. In option C ('We have a meeting at ten'), 'have' is the sole verb indicating possession/occurrence, acting as the main verb.
Q79
General EnglishModals
Select the most appropriate option: 'When Mrs. X was younger, she _ run five miles without stopping.' A) can B) might C) could D) should
💡Correct Answer: Option C (could)
The clause 'When Mrs. X was younger' sets the context in the past. To express general ability in the past, 'could' (past form of can) is used. Hence, 'could' is correct.
Q80
General EnglishSpelling Test
Select the correct spelling for the word meaning 'a person who organises and operates a business': A) Entreprenure B) Entrepreneur C) Entraprenuer D) Entreperneur
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Entrepreneur)
The correct spelling is 'Entrepreneur' (derived from French 'entreprendre', meaning to undertake).
Q81
General EnglishSpelling Test
Which spelling is correct for the word meaning 'a small, exclusive group of people'? A) Clike B) Cleek C) Clique D) Cleaque
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Clique)
The correct spelling is 'Clique' (pronounced kleek), meaning a small, close-knit, and often exclusive group of people who share common interests.
Q82
General EnglishSpelling Test
Select the correct spelling for the word meaning 'an expert judge in matters of taste': A) Connosseur B) Connoiseur C) Conoisseur D) Connoisseur
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Connoisseur)
The correct spelling is 'Connoisseur' (with double 'n' and double 's'), referring to an expert judge in matters of art, taste, or fine food.
Q83
General EnglishSynonyms
"The CEO's mercurial temperament made it difficult for the staff to predict how he would react to the news." Choose the SYNONYM for mercurial in this context: A) steadfast B) dependable C) capricious D) lethargic
💡Correct Answer: Option C (capricious)
'Mercurial' means subject to sudden or unpredictable changes of mood or mind; volatile or erratic. 'Capricious' means given to sudden and unaccountable changes of mood or behavior, making it the exact synonym.
Q84
General EnglishAntonyms
"Her laconic reply suggested that she was not interested in continuing the conversation." Choose the ANTONYM for laconic in this context: A) condensed B) garrulous C) succinct D) taciturn
💡Correct Answer: Option B (garrulous)
'Laconic' means using very few words; concise or terse. 'Garrulous' means excessively talkative, especially on trivial matters, making it the direct antonym. 'Condensed', 'succinct', and 'taciturn' are related in meaning to brevity.
Q85
General EnglishAntonyms
"While most of the team was exhausted, the captain remained resilient, pushing everyone to finish the final lap." Choose the ANTONYM for resilient in this context: A) Friable B) Tough C) Pliant D) Buoyant
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Friable)
'Resilient' means able to withstand or recover quickly from difficult conditions; strong, durable, and not easily broken. 'Friable' means easily crumbled, brittle, or fragile. In physical and metaphorical antonymy, friability is the opposite of resilience. 'Tough' and 'Buoyant' are synonyms.
Q86
General EnglishReading Comprehension
Based on the passage on Social Forestry, what is the central distinction between commercial forestry and social forestry? A) The type of soil required for planting. B) The focus on local community needs versus industrial timber. C) The involvement of government officials in management. D) The geographical location of the forest reserves.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The focus on local community needs versus industrial timber.)
The passage states explicitly: 'Unlike commercial forestry, which prioritises timber for industry, social forestry focuses on providing "the five F's": Fuel, Food, Fodder, Fibre, and Fertiliser' for local community subsistence.
Q87
General EnglishReading Comprehension
How does the author's description of the "five F's" serve the overall argument of the passage? A) It provides a technical classification for botanical study. B) It illustrates the shift from an industrial priority to a subsistence priority. C) It highlights the economic profit potential for global timber markets. D) It proves that social forestry is more expensive than traditional forestry.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It illustrates the shift from an industrial priority to a subsistence priority.)
The author contrasts commercial forestry (which produces timber for industry) with social forestry (providing fuel, food, fodder, fibre, and fertilizer). This illustrates the fundamental shift from commercial/industrial exploitation to meeting local livelihood and subsistence needs.
Q88
General EnglishReading Comprehension
According to the passage, how does social forestry protect traditional forests? A) By imposing strict fines on villagers for entering reserves. B) By replacing natural forests with industrial plantations. C) By providing alternative, localised sources for fuel and fodder. D) By creating a physical barrier between villages and forests.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (By providing alternative, localised sources for fuel and fodder.)
The passage explains that rural demand for fuelwood and fodder forces villagers to exploit natural forests. By planting fast-growing trees on communal lands, social forestry creates a localized resource base, reducing the pressure on natural forests.
Q89
General EnglishReading Comprehension
What is identified as the most critical factor for the success of social forestry? A) High-quality industrial equipment. B) The speed at which the trees grow. C) Active participation from the local population. D) The amount of government funding allocated.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Active participation from the local population.)
The passage concludes by emphasizing that 'the success of these programs hinges on "people's participation." Without the active involvement of the local population in protecting saplings and managing resources, the long-term sustainability... remains in jeopardy.'
Q90
General EnglishTypes of Sentences
Which of the following is an example of an Imperative sentence? A) How wonderful the weather is today! B) Did you finish the report on time? C) Please ensure all windows are locked before leaving. D) The sun rises in the east.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Please ensure all windows are locked before leaving.)
An imperative sentence gives a command, direction, or makes a request (starting with an implied 'you'). 'Please ensure all windows are locked before leaving' is a request/instruction, making it an imperative sentence. (A is exclamatory, B is interrogative, D is declarative).
Q91
General EnglishSentence Transformation
Convert the following Simple sentence into a Complex sentence without changing the meaning: "Working hard, he passed the exam." A) He worked hard and passed the exam. B) Because he worked hard, he passed the exam. C) He worked hard; therefore, he passed the exam. D) He passed the exam with hard work.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Because he worked hard, he passed the exam.)
A complex sentence consists of one independent clause and at least one dependent (subordinate) clause connected by a subordinating conjunction. 'Because he worked hard' is a subordinate adverbial clause of reason, and 'he passed the exam' is the main independent clause. (A is compound with coordinating conjunction 'and'; C is compound; D is simple).
Q92
General EnglishClauses
In the sentence "The book that I bought yesterday is missing," the underlined part "that I bought yesterday" is a/an: A) Noun Clause B) Adjective Clause C) Adverbial Clause D) Main Clause
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Adjective Clause)
The clause 'that I bought yesterday' describes and qualifies the noun 'The book'. A relative/subordinate clause modifying a noun functions as an Adjective Clause (Relative Clause).
Q93
General EnglishParallelism & Sentence Structure
Which of the following sentences is structurally balanced and correct (parallel structure)? A) The candidate was praised for her intelligence, dedication, and how well she communicates. B) The candidate was praised for her intelligence, dedication, and communication skills. C) The candidate was praised for being intelligent, dedication, and hard work. D) The candidate was praised for intelligence, dedicated, and working hard.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The candidate was praised for her intelligence, dedication, and communication skills.)
Parallelism requires that items in a list have matching grammatical form. In option B, 'intelligence', 'dedication', and 'communication skills' are all parallel noun phrases. In other options, noun forms are mixed with clauses or participles.
Q94
General EnglishDeterminers
Fill in the blank with the most suitable determiner: _ idea was it to leave the gate open all night? A) Who's B) Whose C) Whom D) Which
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Whose)
'Whose' is the possessive determiner/pronoun asking about ownership or author of the idea. ('Who's' is a contraction of 'who is' or 'who has'). Hence, 'Whose' is correct.
Q95
General EnglishDeterminers & Articles
Fill in the blanks with the most suitable determiners/articles: I have _ friends who live in _ Netherlands, but I haven't visited them in years. A) a few / no article B) few / the C) a few / the D) little / the
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a few / the)
1. 'Friends' is a plural countable noun used in a positive sense ('some friends exist'), requiring 'a few'. 2. Countries with plural geographical names or unions take the definite article 'the' ('the Netherlands', 'the United States', 'the Philippines'). Hence, 'a few / the'.
Q96
General EnglishDeterminers
Fill in the blank with the most suitable determiner: You can take _ of the two roads; both lead to the same village. A) either B) neither C) every D) my
💡Correct Answer: Option A (either)
'Either' refers to one or the other of two options. Since the sentence notes that both roads lead to the village, the traveller is free to take either of the two.
Q97
General Knowledge & Current AffairsGovernment Schemes & Policies
Which of the following statements about the Research Development and Innovation (RDI) Fund, approved by the Union Cabinet, is/are correct? I. The RDI Scheme incentivises private sector participation in R&D, with a total outlay of Rs. 10 Lakh crore over six years. II. It aims to finance transformative projects at higher levels of Technology Readiness Level (TRL) of 4 and above. Which of the statement are correct? A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I Nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option B (II only)
- Statement I is incorrect: The corpus established under the ANRF / RDI framework for private sector R&D financing is Rs. 1 Lakh crore (one lakh crore, not 10 lakh crore) provided as long-term low/zero-interest loans. - Statement II is correct: The scheme specifically targets financing technology commercialization and demonstration at higher Technology Readiness Levels (TRL 4 and above). Hence, II only is correct.
Q98
General Knowledge & Current AffairsScience & Technology (Space Missions)
Consider the following statements about the mission POEM conducted by ISRO: I. PS4-Orbital Experiment Module, designated as POEM, refers to the usage of the spent fourth stage of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV). II. PSLV-C60 SpaDeX mission is the first POEM Mission of the upcoming series. Which of the above statements are correct? A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I Nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I only)
- Statement I is correct: POEM (PSLV Orbital Experimental Module) utilizes the spent fourth stage (PS4) of ISRO's PSLV as a stabilized in-orbit scientific platform after primary satellite separation. - Statement II is incorrect: The PSLV-C60 SpaDeX mission carried POEM-4, which is the fourth POEM mission in the series (POEM-1 was on PSLV-C53 in 2022, POEM-2 on PSLV-C55 in 2023, and POEM-3 on PSLV-C58 in 2024). Hence, I only is correct.
Q99
General Knowledge & Current AffairsSports Awards of India
Match the following Sports Awards with their criteria: Sports Awards: i. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award ii. Arjuna Award Lifetime iii. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy iv. Arjuna Award
Awarded For: a. Presented for good performance and contributing towards the promotion of sports. b. Given out for consistent good performance over a period of four years. c. Awarded for outstanding performances in sports spanning over a period of four years. d. Given to the university for top performance in inter-university tournaments over the last one year.
Choose the correct match: A) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b B) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a C) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b D) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b)
- Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award: Awarded for the most spectacular and outstanding performance over a period of 4 years (i -> c). - Arjuna Award Lifetime / Dhyan Chand Lifetime: Given for contributing towards sports promotion and lifetime achievement (ii -> a). - Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA) Trophy: Conferred upon the overall top-performing university in inter-university tournaments (iii -> d). - Arjuna Award: Given for consistent good performance over 4 years with qualities of leadership, sportsmanship and discipline (iv -> b). Matching: i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b.
Q100
General Knowledge & Current AffairsSports & J&K UT Affairs
Jammu and Kashmir clinched their maiden Ranji Trophy title by defeating which opposition team? A) Maharashtra B) Saurashtra C) Haryana D) Karnataka
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Karnataka)
In the 2025-26 domestic season, Jammu and Kashmir created history by winning their maiden Ranji Trophy title, defeating 8-time champions Karnataka in the final held at Hubballi, Karnataka, securing victory on the basis of a massive 291-run first-innings lead.
Q101
General Knowledge & Current AffairsBhakti Movement & Culture
Given below are two statements: I. Bhakti saint Shankaradeva addressed "Vaishnav Dharma" as "Sanatan Dharma". II. Shankaradeva's main composition is Kirtanghosh. Identify the correct statements: A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I Nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both I and II)
- Statement I is correct: Srimanta Sankaradeva (1449–1568), the great medieval polymath and Vaishnavite saint from Assam who propounded Ekasarana Dharma, aligned his teachings with and referred to the core of Vaishnava faith as Sanatan Dharma. - Statement II is correct: His magnum opus and most celebrated devotional literary work is the 'Kirtan Ghosha' (a collection of poetical songs for congregational prayers). Therefore, Both I and II are correct.
Q102
General Knowledge & Current AffairsAncient Indian Literature
Consider the following pairs: I. Silappadikaram - Ilango Adigal II. Manimegalai - Sittalai Sattanar III. Buddhacharita - Ashvaghosha Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? A) I only B) I and II only C) II and III only D) I, II and III
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II and III)
- Pair I: Silappadikaram (the Jewelled Anklet), the legendary Tamil epic, was authored by the Jain monk poet Ilango Adigal. - Pair II: Manimegalai, the sequel to Silappadikaram and Buddhist epic, was written by Sittalai Sattanar. - Pair III: Buddhacharita, the epic Sanskrit poem depicting the life of Gautama Buddha, was composed by Ashvaghosha (court philosopher of Kanishka). All three pairs are correctly matched.
Q103
General Knowledge & Current AffairsModern Indian History (Freedom Struggle)
Arrange the following events in correct chronological order: I. Poorna Swaraj Resolution II. Launch of Civil Disobedience Movement III. Poona Pact IV. Second Round Table Conference Choose the correct option: A) I - II - III - IV B) I - II - IV - III C) II - I - IV - III D) II - I - III - IV
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I - II - IV - III)
Chronology of events: I. Poorna Swaraj Resolution: Adopted at the Lahore session of the Indian National Congress in December 1929. II. Launch of Civil Disobedience Movement: Commenced with the Dandi March on March 12, 1930 (breaking of salt law on April 6, 1930). IV. Second Round Table Conference: Held in London between September 7 and December 1, 1931 (attended by Mahatma Gandhi). III. Poona Pact: Signed between Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and representatives of caste Hindus on September 24, 1932. Chronological order: I - II - IV - III.
Q104
General Knowledge & Current AffairsEarly Medieval Indian History
The 'Tripartite struggle' for control over the city of Kannauj was fought between which dynasties? A) Palas, Senas, Pushyabhutis B) Palas, Pratiharas, Chalukyas C) Palas, Pratiharas, Reddis D) Palas, Pratiharas, Rashtrakutas
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Palas, Pratiharas, Rashtrakutas)
The Tripartite Struggle for control over Kannauj (the imperial symbol of Northern India in the 8th to 10th centuries CE) was fought for two centuries between three major powers: the Gurjara-Pratiharas of western India, the Palas of eastern India (Bengal/Bihar), and the Rashtrakutas of the Deccan.
Q105
General Knowledge & Current AffairsJ&K Historical Monuments & Heritage
Consider the following pairs: I. Achabal Garden - Anantnag District II. Avantipur Ruins - Poonch District III. Parihaspore archaeological sites - Pulwama District Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? A) I only B) I and II only C) II and III only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I only)
- Pair I is correct: Achabal Garden (a famed Mughal Garden built by Empress Nur Jahan around an ancient natural spring) is in Anantnag District. - Pair II is incorrect: Avantipur ruins (Avantiswami and Avantishvara temples built by King Avantivarman in the 9th century) are in Pulwama District, not Poonch. - Pair III is incorrect: Parihaspore (the ancient capital built by King Lalitaditya Muktapida of the Karkota dynasty) is located in Baramulla District, not Pulwama. Therefore, only Pair I is correctly matched.
Q106
General Knowledge & Current AffairsHistory of Jammu & Kashmir
Identify the correct sequential order of the following dynasties of Kashmir: I. Lohara Dynasty II. Utpala Dynasty III. Chak Dynasty IV. Shah Mir Dynasty Choose the correct option: A) I - III - IV - II B) I - II - III - IV C) II - I - III - IV D) II - I - IV - III
💡Correct Answer: Option D (II - I - IV - III)
Chronological order of rulers in Kashmir history: II. Utpala Dynasty: Founded by Avantivarman in c. 855 CE (ruled until 1003 CE). I. Lohara Dynasty: Founded by Sangramaraja in 1003 CE (ruled until 1320 CE). IV. Shah Mir Dynasty: Founded by Shah Mir (Sultan Shams-ud-Din) in 1339 CE (ruled until 1561 CE). III. Chak Dynasty: Founded by Ghazi Chak in 1561 CE (ruled until Mughal conquest in 1586 CE). Hence, correct sequential order is II - I - IV - III.
Q107
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Polity (High Courts of India)
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Description / Capitals: I. Judicial Capital of Arunachal Pradesh - Itanagar II. Judicial Capital of Goa - Panaji III. Judicial Capital of Madhya Pradesh - Jabalpur Choose the correct match: A) I only B) I and II only C) III only D) I and III only
💡Correct Answer: Option C (III only)
- Madhya Pradesh has its administrative capital at Bhopal, while its Principal Seat of High Court (Judicial Capital) is at Jabalpur. Hence, Pair III is correctly matched. - Arunachal Pradesh does not have an independent High Court; it falls under the jurisdiction of the Gauhati High Court (Principal Seat in Guwahati, Assam; Itanagar is merely a permanent bench). - Goa does not have its own High Court; it falls under the jurisdiction of the Bombay High Court (Principal Seat in Mumbai, Maharashtra; Panaji is a bench). Therefore, only III represents a true state Judicial Capital seat distinct from the state capital.
Q108
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Polity (Reorganisation of States)
Chronologically arrange the following states based on their elevation to the status of a state under the Constitution of India: I. Himachal Pradesh II. Nagaland III. Arunachal Pradesh IV. Statehood to Sikkim Choose the correct option: A) I - II - IV - III B) II - I - III - IV C) II - I - IV - III D) I - II - III - IV
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II - I - IV - III)
Chronology of Indian statehood elevation: II. Nagaland: Attained full statehood on 1 December 1963 (16th State of India). I. Himachal Pradesh: Elevated to statehood from UT on 25 January 1971 (18th State). IV. Sikkim: Integrated and made the 22nd state of India via the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act on 16 May 1975. III. Arunachal Pradesh: Conferred statehood on 20 February 1987 (24th State). Chronological order: II - I - IV - III.
Q109
General ScienceHuman Diseases & Pathogens
Which of the following are bacterial diseases? I. Tuberculosis II. Cholera III. Hepatitis IV. Leprosy V. Measles VI. Yellow Fever Choose the correct option: A) I, II and V only B) I, II and IV only C) I, II, IV and VI only D) II, III and IV only
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I, II and IV only)
Classification of diseases by causative pathogens: - Bacterial diseases: Tuberculosis (Mycobacterium tuberculosis)
Cholera (Vibrio cholerae) Leprosy (Mycobacterium leprae)
- Viral diseases:
Hepatitis (Hepatitis virus - A, B, C, etc.) Measles (Rubeola virus / Paramyxovirus)
Yellow Fever (Flavivirus / arbovirus transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes). Therefore, bacterial diseases are I, II and IV only.
Q110
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Geography (Soils of India)
Consider the following statements about Laterite soils: I. These are formed in areas with high temperatures and low rainfall. II. These soils contain excess iron oxide, giving them a reddish colour. III. Lime and silica get leached due to atmospheric conditions. Which of the above statements are INCORRECT? A) I and II only B) I only C) II only D) None of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I only)
- Statement I is INCORRECT: Laterite soils develop in tropical regions with high temperature AND alternate periods of HEAVY / high rainfall (not low rainfall). - Statement II is correct: Laterite soils are rich in iron oxide and aluminium, giving them a characteristic reddish brick color. - Statement III is correct: Under heavy rains and tropical leaching, silica and lime are intensely leached away into deeper subsoil. Since the question asks which statement is INCORRECT, the answer is I only.
Q111
General Knowledge & Current AffairsPhysical Geography (Glaciers of India)
Match the following Glaciers with their States/UT: Glaciers: i. Kangto Glacier ii. Rimo Glacier iii. Zemu Glacier iv. Bara Shigri
States/UT: a. Ladakh b. Arunachal Pradesh c. Sikkim d. Himachal Pradesh
Choose the correct match: A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d B) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a C) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d D) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d)
- Kangto Glacier is located near Mount Kangto in Arunachal Pradesh (i -> b). - Rimo Glacier is located in the Karakoram range in Ladakh, feeding the Shyok River (ii -> a). - Zemu Glacier is located at the base of Kangchenjunga in Sikkim, source of the Teesta River (iii -> c). - Bara Shigri is the second longest glacier in the Himalayas, located in Lahaul-Spiti, Himachal Pradesh, feeding the Chandra river (iv -> d). Matching: i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d.
Q112
General Knowledge & Current AffairsGeography of Jammu & Kashmir (Mountain Passes)
If a group of tourists moves from Jammu to Srinagar by road, then most likely they will cross which mountain pass? A) Fotu La B) Bara Lacha La C) Rohtang Pass D) Banihal Pass
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Banihal Pass)
The Jammu-Srinagar National Highway (NH 44) traverses the Pir Panjal Range via the Banihal Pass (traversed via the Jawahar Tunnel and the newer Banihal-Qazigund Road Tunnel/Navyug Tunnel), connecting the Jammu plains to the Kashmir Valley. (Fotu La connects Kargil to Leh; Bara Lacha La connects Himachal to Ladakh; Rohtang Pass connects Kullu to Lahaul).
Q113
General Knowledge & Current AffairsGeography of Jammu & Kashmir
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? I. Bagh-e-Bahu - Tawi River II. Nagin Lake - Jhelum River III. Sasher Kangri - Nubra River Choose the correct match: A) I only B) I and III only C) I and II only D) I, II and III
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I and II only)
- Pair I: Bagh-e-Bahu is laid around the historic Bahu Fort, located right on the banks of the Tawi River in Jammu (Correct). - Pair II: Nagin Lake is hydro-geographically situated in Srinagar within the drainage basin of the Jhelum River system, connected via water channels (Tsunt Kol/Amir Khan Nallah) that feed into the Jhelum (Matched in local geography syllabi). - Pair III: Saser Kangri is situated in the Saser Muztagh of the Karakoram Range, overlooking the Shyok River basin. Hence, Pairs I and II are accepted as correctly matched.
Q114
General ScienceFibre to Fabric (Wool Processing)
Arrange the following wool processing operations in correct sequential order: I. Scouring II. Sorting III. Shearing IV. Rolling V. Cleaning Choose the correct option: A) I - III - II - IV - V B) I - III - II - V - IV C) III - I - II - V - IV D) III - I - II - IV - V
💡Correct Answer: Option C (III - I - II - V - IV)
The standard sequence of wool processing from sheep fleece to yarn (as per NCERT Science Class 7, Chapter 'Fibre to Fabric'): 1. Step III: Shearing (fleece is shaved from sheep body). 2. Step I: Scouring (sheared hair washed thoroughly in tanks to remove grease, dust, and dirt). 3. Step II: Sorting (hairy skin sent to factory where hair of different textures is separated). 4. Step V: Cleaning of burrs (small fluffy fibres called burrs are picked out). 5. Step IV: Rolling / Dyeing & Spinning (fibres are straightened, combed, dyed, and rolled into yarn). Hence, the correct sequence is III - I - II - V - IV.
Q115
General ScienceRespiration in Organisms
What are the by-products of anaerobic respiration? I. Alcohol II. Carbon dioxide III. Water IV. Energy V. Lactic Acid Choose the correct option: A) All of the above B) I, III, IV and V only C) I, II and V only D) I, II, IV and V only
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II, IV and V only)
Anaerobic respiration occurs in the absence of oxygen: 1. In yeast (alcoholic fermentation): Glucose -> Alcohol (Ethanol) + Carbon dioxide (CO₂) + Energy (ATP). 2. In human muscle cells during heavy exercise: Glucose -> Lactic Acid + Energy. Notice that Water (H₂O) is produced ONLY during AEROBIC respiration (Glucose + O₂ -> CO₂ + H₂O + Energy). Water is never a by-product of anaerobic respiration. Therefore, the by-products are I, II, IV, and V only.
Q116
General ScienceAcids, Bases and Salts / Metals & Non-metals
Consider the following statements: I. Generally, metal oxides are acidic in nature. II. Generally, non-metal oxides are basic in nature. Which of the above statements are INCORRECT? A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I Nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both I and II)
- Statement I is INCORRECT: Metallic oxides (e.g., Na₂O, CaO, MgO) are BASIC in nature because they react with water to form bases/alkalis and neutralize acids. - Statement II is INCORRECT: Non-metallic oxides (e.g., SO₂, CO₂, NO₂) are ACIDIC in nature because they dissolve in water to form acids (such as H₂SO₃, H₂CO₃) and neutralize bases. Since BOTH statements have their properties swapped and are incorrect, the answer is 'Both I and II'.
Q117
General ScienceImprovement in Food Resources (Fisheries)
Match the following types of fish in Composite Fish Culture with their examples: Fish Culture Feeding Zone: i. Surface Feeders ii. Column Feeders iii. Bottom Feeders
Example Species: a. Silver Carp b. Grass Carp c. Common Carp
Choose the correct match: A) i-b, ii-c, iii-a B) i-a, ii-c, iii-b C) i-a, ii-b, iii-c D) i-b, ii-a, iii-c
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-a, ii-b, iii-c)
In composite fish culture (NCERT Science Class 9): - Surface feeders: Catla and Silver Carp (i -> a). - Middle column / aquatic weed feeders: Rohu and Grass Carp (ii -> b). - Bottom feeders: Mrigal and Common Carp (iii -> c). Matching: i-a, ii-b, iii-c.
Q118
General ScienceLight - Reflection and Refraction
In the context of a concave mirror, if an object is placed at the focus, then: I. The image will be formed at infinity. II. The size of the image formed will be highly enlarged. III. The nature of the image will be virtual and erect. Which of the above statements stands true? A) I only B) I and II only C) II and III only D) I, II and III
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I and II only)
When an object is placed at the principal focus (F) of a concave mirror: - Statement I is true: The reflected rays become parallel to each other and converge at infinity, forming an image at infinity. - Statement II is true: The image formed at infinity is highly magnified (infinitely enlarged). - Statement III is false: The image formed is REAL and INVERTED (not virtual and erect; a virtual and erect image is formed only when the object is placed between the pole P and focus F). Hence, statements I and II only stand true.
Q119
General Knowledge & Current AffairsNational Parks of Jammu & Kashmir
Which of the following National Parks encompasses the catchment area of Kiber, Nanth, and Kiyar Nallas, all of which drain south-west into the Marwah river, locally called Mariv Sudir? A) Dachigam National Park B) Kishtwar National Park C) Kazinag National Park D) Salim Ali National Park
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kishtwar National Park)
Kishtwar National Park, located in the Kishtwar district of Jammu and Kashmir, encompasses the high-altitude catchments of Kiyar, Nanth, and Kibber Nallas. All three major streams drain south-west into the Marwah River (locally known as the Mariv Sudir), a principal tributary of the Chenab River.
Q120
General Knowledge & Current AffairsRivers and Drainage System of J&K
Which tributary of the river Jhelum originates from Lolab Valley in north south direction and joins the waters of the outfall channel of river Jhelum about 6.5 Km. downstream of Sopore town? A) Doodhganga B) Pohru C) Lidder D) Rambiara
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pohru)
The Pohru River originates from the high mountains surrounding the Lolab Valley in Kupwara district. It flows generally north-to-south through Kupwara and Handwara, receiving the Kahmil, Mawer, and Lolab streams, and discharges into the Jhelum outfall channel near Doabgah, approximately 6.5 km downstream of Sopore town.
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About JKSSB Social Forestry Worker 2026 Previous Year Paper
This page provides the full solved question paper for the JKSSB Social Forestry Worker examination conducted in 2026 by the Forest, Ecology & Environment Department. Every MCQ is presented with verified answer keys and detailed bilingual explanations to support concept building.
Key subjects covered in this paper include Basic Mathematics, Basic Reasoning, Mental Ability & Reasoning, General English, General Knowledge & Current Affairs, General Science. Practicing authentic previous year questions is the proven way to master question patterns and improve accuracy for upcoming exams across Jammu & Kashmir.
