Question 1

Which of the following is called "Locard's Principle of Exchange"?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Every contact leaves a trace. Locard's Exchange Principle states that 'every contact leaves a trace', which forms the fundamental basis of trace evidence and crime scene investigation.

Question 2

Examination of soil is carried out in which of the following forensic science laboratory divisions?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Physics. Forensic examination of soil, glass, paint, and fibers is typically handled by the Physics (or Trace Evidence) division of the Forensic Science Laboratory.

Question 3

Which of the following is categorised as a short bone?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Carpal. Carpal bones in the wrist and tarsal bones in the ankle are classified as short bones.

Question 4

Which of the following populations has a short dolichocephalic skull?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Negroid. Forensic anthropology classifies ancestral skulls into broad groups; Negroid skulls are typically dolichocephalic (long and narrow).

Question 5

During dental comparison, it was found that in the antemortem findings, tooth number 16 was intact, whereas in the postmortem examination, the same tooth was missing. This is reported as

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Explainable inconsistency. A tooth present antemortem but missing postmortem is an explainable inconsistency because teeth can be lost postmortem due to decay, extraction, or trauma during or after death.

Question 6

What part of the tooth is an excellent source of both nuclear and mitochondrial DNA?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Pulp. The dental pulp, located in the center of the tooth, is highly protected by the enamel and dentin and serves as an excellent source of both nuclear and mitochondrial DNA.

Question 7

Which statement pertaining to defensive bitemarks is TRUE?

i. Show a well-defined pattern
ii. Are usually singular
iii. Show tearing of skin
iv. Are most often seen in postmortem bitemarks

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: only iii. Defensive bite marks occur during a violent struggle, meaning they are antemortem (not postmortem) and often ill-defined/distorted, showing tearing of skin due to movement. Only statement iii is correct.

Question 8

What is the outer covering of the tooth root called?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Cementum. Cementum is the specialized calcified substance covering the outer surface of the root of a tooth.

Question 9

Which is the oldest permanent tooth in oral cavity of human adults?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: First molar. The permanent first molar (often called the 6-year molar) is the first permanent tooth to erupt, making it the oldest permanent tooth in an adult mouth.

Question 10

Which of the following is a NOT successional tooth?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Second molar. Successional (or succedaneous) teeth are permanent teeth that replace primary teeth. Permanent molars (first, second, third) erupt behind primary teeth and do not replace any, making them non-successional.

Question 11

What is the raised portion of a strand in a twisted cordage called?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Crown. In technical cordage terms, the crown is the raised ridge formed by a strand on the surface of a twisted rope.

Question 12

What is the excitation range of the Alternate Light Sources used for direct visualisation of seminal stains?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: 450-495 nm. Seminal stains fluoresce brightly under blue light in the range of 450–495 nm, visualized using orange barrier filters/goggles.

Question 13

Which of the following is a type of physical evidence?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Glass. Glass is a tangible object (physical evidence), while alibis and testimonies represent oral or testimonial evidence.

Question 14

Urobilinoids can be converted to urobilin zinc salt that fluoresces under ALS of 450 nm. This method can be used to spot -

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Fecal stains. The Edelman test converts urobilinoids present in feces to a green fluorescent zinc-urobilin complex, serving as a test for fecal stains.

Question 15

Which of the following can distinguish between human salivary amylase and human pancreatic amylase?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Use of antihuman salivary amylase antibody. Antihuman salivary amylase antibodies (used in lateral flow tests like RSID-Saliva) specifically target salivary amylase and do not cross-react with pancreatic amylase.

Question 16

In the ABO system, what does the B-transferase gene transfer to the O antigen, thereby forming the B antigen?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Galactose. The B gene encodes a transferase enzyme that adds D-galactose to the H antigen (O antigen precursor), creating the B blood group antigen.

Question 17

Match the column:

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: i-q, ii-s, iii-r, iv-p. The correct immunoglobulin match is: IgA is a dimer in secretions (i-q); IgE is involved in allergies (ii-s); IgG crosses the placenta (iii-r); IgM is the primary response antibody (iv-p).

Question 18

Consider the following statements:

i. The sugar molecule in RNA is ribose
ii. The purine bases in RNA are cytosine and uracil
iii. RNA molecule is a single-stranded molecule.

Which of the statements are true?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: i and iii only. Statements i (ribose sugar) and iii (single-stranded) are true. Statement ii is false because cytosine and uracil are pyrimidine bases, not purines (which are adenine and guanine).

Question 19

What solution is used for the temporary mounting of hair sample?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Glycerin. Glycerin (or a glycerin-water mixture) is the standard medium used for the temporary mounting and microscopic examination of hair.

Question 20

Which of the following is a chemiluminescent assay of blood detection?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Luminol. Luminol produces a bright blue chemiluminescence when it reacts with the iron in hemoglobin in the presence of an oxidizer.

Question 21

What cells detected during microscopic examination would indicate the presence of saliva?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Buccal squamous epithelial cells. The presence of buccal squamous epithelial cells (shed from the inner lining of the cheek) during microscopic exam points to saliva.

Question 22

Which of the following statements aptly define the difference between Human hair and animal hair?

i. The colour in human is relatively uniform throughout the shaft as opposed to that in animal hair
ii. The medulla is less than 1/3rd width of the shaft in human hair and greater than 1/3rd width in animal hair
iii. Scaling pattern of human hair is imbricate while that of animal hair is varied

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: i, ii and iii. All three statements correctly differentiate human from animal hair: human hair has uniform pigmentation (i), a narrow medulla (index < 0.33) (ii), and consistently imbricate scales (iii).

Question 23

What technique is most preferably used for the detection of blood in dried stains?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Absorption elution. The absorption-elution method is the most sensitive and preferred technique for detecting ABO blood group antigens in dried bloodstains.

Question 24

The following steps are involved in the crime scene processing:

i. Packaging of evidence
ii. Collection of evidence
iii. Securing the crime scene
iv. Sketching and videography of the crime scene

Which of the following sequence/order is correct beginning from the first step?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: iii, iv, ii, i. The standard sequence of crime scene processing is: first securing the scene (iii), documenting via sketching and photography (iv), collecting evidence (ii), and then packaging it (i).

Question 25

Which of the following DNA markers shows maternal inheritance?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Mitochondrial DNA. Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is inherited exclusively from the mother because mitochondria are supplied by the egg cell, not the sperm.

Question 26

After a culprit murders a person in a house and then burns the body in a forest miles away from the house. What is the crime scene where the body is burnt called?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Secondary crime scene. The house where the murder occurred is the primary crime scene, and the forest where the body was burned is the secondary crime scene.

Question 27

The following steps are involved in crime scene reconstruction:

i. Conjecture
ii. Testing and theory formation
iii. Data collection
iv. Hypothesis testing

Which of the following sequence/order is correct beginning from the first step?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: iii, i, iv, ii. Crime scene reconstruction involves: Data collection (iii) -> Conjecture/observation (i) -> Hypothesis testing (iv) -> Testing and theory formation (ii).

Question 28

Which of the following search methods on the crime scene is a very thorough method for searching for evidence?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Grid method. The grid search method is a double-line search that is highly thorough and ensures no area is missed.

Question 29

Consider the following pairs:

i. Fingerprint-AFIS
ii. DNA-IBIS
iii. Fired bullets - CODIS
iv. Paint-PDQ

Which of the components are matched correctly with their databases?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: i and iv only. AFIS is for fingerprints (i) and PDQ is for paint chemistry (iv). CODIS is the DNA database, and IBIS is for ballistics/fired bullets.

Question 30

What does "perjury" imply while giving a testimony?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Lying under oath. Perjury is the criminal offense of willfully telling an untruth or making a misrepresentation in a court after having taken an oath.

Question 31

Which of the following is a type of macroscopic crime scene?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: House of crime. A macroscopic crime scene refers to large-scale scenes (like a house, building, or field), whereas microscopic scenes refer to trace evidence (GSR, hair, pollen).

Question 32

Which of the following is a measurement technique used to sketch a crime scene?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Polar coordinates. Polar coordinates is a mapping method using distance and angles from a single reference point to locate evidence.

Question 33

Under which of the following branches of forensic science are age estimations from skeletal remains (bones) carried out?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Anthropology. Forensic Anthropology is the application of the anatomical science of anthropology and its various subfields in a legal setting, including estimating age, sex, stature, and ancestry from skeletal remains.

Question 34

Which of the following is the prime duty of a forensic scientist?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: To provide honest scientific reports of their analysis. The primary duty of a forensic scientist is to conduct unbiased scientific analysis and provide objective, honest reports to the court.

Question 35

How must the charred or burnt debris that may have absorbed accelerants from the crime scene be packaged?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Airtight containers. Charred debris from suspected arson must be packaged in airtight containers (like metal cans) to prevent volatile accelerant vapors from evaporating.

Question 36

Which of the following is a type of paper packaging method used for evidence?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Druggist's fold. A druggist's fold (or pharmacist's fold) is a folding pattern used to secure small amounts of trace evidence (like hair, powder, fibers) in paper without leakage.

Question 37

Which of the following is a type of impression evidence?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Tire marks. Tire marks are impressions left by a tire on a soft surface, which can be cast or photographed.

Question 38

Blood evidence is packaged in which of the following containers to avoid microbial contamination?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Paper bags. Wet or dry bloodstains should be packaged in paper bags because paper allows remaining moisture to evaporate, preventing mold/microbial growth which degrades DNA.

Question 39

In arson cases, what does "pyromania" mean?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Obsessive and impulsive desire to set things on fire. Pyromania is an obsessive, impulsive disorder characterized by the deliberate and repetitive setting of fires.

Question 40

While investigating an arson crime scene, what can indicate the possible area of origin of the fire?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Area with maximum damage. The area of origin in a fire scene typically exhibits the longest exposure to fire, resulting in the maximum amount of charring and structural damage.

Question 41

What is a specimen for example a hair sample whose origin is known with certainty and is used for comparison called?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Standard sample. A sample whose origin is known with certainty (like hair taken directly from a suspect's head) is called a standard or known sample.

Question 42

Who can order a body for exhumation in India?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Magistrate. In India, under Section 176 of the CrPC, only an Executive Magistrate has the authority to order the exhumation of a buried body for forensic investigation.

Question 43

Which of the following is a type of individual characteristic of physical evidence, a shoe?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Wear and tear Of the sole of the shoe. Individual characteristics are unique features (like random cuts, wear, and tears on the sole) that can uniquely identify a specific shoe, as opposed to class characteristics like size or brand.

Question 44

The concept of anthropometry was given by which of the following scientists?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Alphonse Bertillon. Alphonse Bertillon developed anthropometry (also known as Bertillonage), which was a system of physical measurements of body parts used by police to identify criminals.

Question 45

What is one of the most effective ways of documenting the location of evidence on a bomb blast explosion scene?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Polar coordinates. Polar coordinates are highly effective for mapping expansive, outdoor explosion scenes where there may be a single center of explosion but few rectangular walls.

Question 46

Sampling of residue deposited on an item in an explosive scene can be collected by vigorously swabbing the surface with several swabs moistened with which of the following?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Distilled water. Forensic protocols specify using swabs moistened with distilled water (for inorganic residues/salts) or specific solvents like methanol/ethanol for organic explosive residues. In general, distilled water is the standard safe choice.

Question 47

The trace evidence sometimes fluoresces under UV light used at the crime scene. What is its range?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: 100-400 nm. The ultraviolet (UV) electromagnetic spectrum ranges from 100 nm to 400 nm.

Question 48

Which of the following is an example of trace evidence found on a crime scene?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Fiber. Trace evidence refers to microscopic physical evidence transferred during a crime, such as fibers, hair, soil, or glass fragments.

Question 49

After processing the crime scene, the Personal Protection Equipment (PPE) has to be removed in a sequence. Consider the following sequence.

i. Outer gloves, if double-gloved
ii. Booties if separate from overgarments
iii. Surgical mask
iv. Eye protection

Which of the following sequences is correct starting from the first to be removed the last?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: i, ii, iv, iii. The proper sequence to remove PPE to avoid contamination is: outer gloves (i), booties (ii), eye protection (iv), and surgical mask last (iii) to prevent inhalation of airborne contaminants.

Question 50

Consider the following statements pertaining importance of physical evidence.

i. Physical evidence can be tested by an independent forensic expert
ii. Physical evidence is subjected to memory loss
iii. Physical evidence can provide a link between the crime scene and the suspect
iv. Physical evidence changes according to the statements of the defendant

Which of the above statements is true/correct?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: i only. Statement i is true as physical evidence can be independently tested. Statement iii is also true, but among the options provided, only 'i only' is available as a single correct choice.

Question 51

Consider the following pairs:

i. Toxicology evidence - Friction ridge
ii. Questioned document evidence - Handwriting
iii. Biological evidence - Semen
iv. Fingerprint evidence - Poison

Which of the above evidences are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: ii and iii only. Handwriting relates to questioned documents (ii) and semen relates to biological evidence (iii). Friction ridges relate to fingerprints, and poisons relate to toxicology.

Question 52

Consider the following pairs:

i. Fingerprints - Striations in marks
ii. Toolmarks - Minutiae patterns
iii. Footwear - Wear damage to sole
iv. Handwriting- Hiatus

Which of the physical evidence is correctly matched with their individual characteristics?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: iii and iv only. Footwear sole wear/damage (iii) and a hiatus in handwriting (iv) are individual characteristics. Minutiae are for fingerprints, and striations are for toolmarks/bullets.

Question 53

Which of the following criteria is related to the admissibility of evidence?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Daubert criteria. The Daubert standard/criteria is used in US federal courts to determine whether expert witness testimony and scientific evidence is admissible.

Question 54

Which of the following evidences have the power of individualization?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: DNA profile. Only a DNA profile has the power to uniquely identify (individualize) a specific person to the exclusion of all others. Blood groups and clothing brands are class characteristics.

Question 55

What is a writ compelling a person to testify in court under penalty called?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Subpoena. A subpoena is a formal writ issued by a court ordering a person to appear as a witness to testify or produce evidence under penalty for failure to comply.

Question 56

Section 60 of IPC relates to which of the following?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Oral evidence must be direct. The question refers to Section 60 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which states that 'Oral evidence must, in all cases whatever, be direct'.

Question 57

Which act deals with the protection and conservation of various species of birds and animals in India?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Wildlife Conservation Act 1972. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 in India deals with the protection of wild animals, birds, and plants.

Question 58

What is the part of the microscope under the stage which focuses light on the specimen called?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Condenser. The condenser is situated beneath the stage and functions to collect and focus light from the light source onto the specimen.

Question 59

The ability of an objective lens to resolve details into separate images instead of one blurred image is directly proportional to?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Numerical Aperture. Resolution (R) is directly proportional to the Numerical Aperture (NA) of the objective lens: R = λ / (2 * NA).

Question 60

Which of the following microscopes gives a three-dimensional view of evidence?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Stereomicroscope. A stereomicroscope (dissecting microscope) uses separate optical paths for each eye to provide a 3D view of the specimen.

Question 61

Which of the following microscopes are used to observe birefringent evidence like fibers?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Polarizing light microscope. A polarizing light microscope utilizes polarized light to study the birefringent (optical refraction) properties of materials like fibers and minerals.

Question 62

Consider the following statements related to the microscope.

i. Two main types of illumination used in microscopy are Kohler and critical
ii. The lens closest to the specimen is called an ocular lens
iii. The lens closest to the eyes is called an objective lens
iv. The lens closest to the specimen is called an objective lens

Which of the statements are true/correct?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: i and iv only. Kohler and critical are indeed types of illumination (i). The lens closest to the specimen is the objective lens (iv), whereas the ocular lens (eyepiece) is closest to the eyes.

Question 63

Which of the following microscopes does a forensic scientist use to observe two different samples of evidence at the same time?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Comparison microscope. A comparison microscope consists of two independent microscopes joined by an optical bridge, allowing side-by-side comparison of two specimens (e.g. bullets, hair).

Question 64

Which of the following microscopes gives the forensic scientist power to observe as well as plot the infrared absorption spectrum of the material?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: Microspectrophotometer. A microspectrophotometer combines a microscope with a spectrophotometer, allowing the analysis of light absorption (like UV-Vis or IR spectra) of microscopic samples.

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Which of the following is called "Locard's Principle of Exchange"?

Examination of soil is carried out in which of the following forensic science laboratory divisions?

Which of the following is categorised as a short bone?

Which of the following populations has a short dolichocephalic skull?

During dental comparison, it was found that in the antemortem findings, tooth number 16 was intact, whereas in the postmortem examination, the same tooth was missing. This is reported as

What part of the tooth is an excellent source of both nuclear and mitochondrial DNA?

Which statement pertaining to defensive bitemarks is TRUE? i. Show a well-defined pattern ii. Are usually singular iii. Show tearing of skin iv. Are most often seen in postmortem bitemarks

What is the outer covering of the tooth root called?

Which is the oldest permanent tooth in oral cavity of human adults?

Which of the following is a NOT successional tooth?

What is the raised portion of a strand in a twisted cordage called?

What is the excitation range of the Alternate Light Sources used for direct visualisation of seminal stains?

Which of the following is a type of physical evidence?

Urobilinoids can be converted to urobilin zinc salt that fluoresces under ALS of 450 nm. This method can be used to spot -

Which of the following can distinguish between human salivary amylase and human pancreatic amylase?

In the ABO system, what does the B-transferase gene transfer to the O antigen, thereby forming the B antigen?

Match the column:

Consider the following statements: i. The sugar molecule in RNA is ribose ii. The purine bases in RNA are cytosine and uracil iii. RNA molecule is a single-stranded molecule. Which of the statements are true?

What solution is used for the temporary mounting of hair sample?

Which of the following is a chemiluminescent assay of blood detection?

What cells detected during microscopic examination would indicate the presence of saliva?

What technique is most preferably used for the detection of blood in dried stains?

The following steps are involved in the crime scene processing: i. Packaging of evidence ii. Collection of evidence iii. Securing the crime scene iv. Sketching and videography of the crime scene Which of the following sequence/order is correct beginning from the first step?

Which of the following DNA markers shows maternal inheritance?

After a culprit murders a person in a house and then burns the body in a forest miles away from the house. What is the crime scene where the body is burnt called?

The following steps are involved in crime scene reconstruction: i. Conjecture ii. Testing and theory formation iii. Data collection iv. Hypothesis testing Which of the following sequence/order is correct beginning from the first step?

Which of the following search methods on the crime scene is a very thorough method for searching for evidence?

Consider the following pairs: i. Fingerprint-AFIS ii. DNA-IBIS iii. Fired bullets - CODIS iv. Paint-PDQ Which of the components are matched correctly with their databases?

What does "perjury" imply while giving a testimony?

Which of the following is a type of macroscopic crime scene?

Which of the following is a measurement technique used to sketch a crime scene?

Under which of the following branches of forensic science are age estimations from skeletal remains (bones) carried out?

Which of the following is the prime duty of a forensic scientist?

How must the charred or burnt debris that may have absorbed accelerants from the crime scene be packaged?

Which of the following is a type of paper packaging method used for evidence?

Which of the following is a type of impression evidence?

Blood evidence is packaged in which of the following containers to avoid microbial contamination?

In arson cases, what does "pyromania" mean?

While investigating an arson crime scene, what can indicate the possible area of origin of the fire?

What is a specimen for example a hair sample whose origin is known with certainty and is used for comparison called?

Who can order a body for exhumation in India?

Which of the following is a type of individual characteristic of physical evidence, a shoe?

The concept of anthropometry was given by which of the following scientists?

What is one of the most effective ways of documenting the location of evidence on a bomb blast explosion scene?

Sampling of residue deposited on an item in an explosive scene can be collected by vigorously swabbing the surface with several swabs moistened with which of the following?

The trace evidence sometimes fluoresces under UV light used at the crime scene. What is its range?

Which of the following is an example of trace evidence found on a crime scene?

Consider the following pairs: i. Toxicology evidence - Friction ridge ii. Questioned document evidence - Handwriting iii. Biological evidence - Semen iv. Fingerprint evidence - Poison Which of the above evidences are correctly matched?

Consider the following pairs: i. Fingerprints - Striations in marks ii. Toolmarks - Minutiae patterns iii. Footwear - Wear damage to sole iv. Handwriting- Hiatus Which of the physical evidence is correctly matched with their individual characteristics?

Which of the following criteria is related to the admissibility of evidence?

Which of the following evidences have the power of individualization?

What is a writ compelling a person to testify in court under penalty called?

Section 60 of IPC relates to which of the following?

Which act deals with the protection and conservation of various species of birds and animals in India?

What is the part of the microscope under the stage which focuses light on the specimen called?

The ability of an objective lens to resolve details into separate images instead of one blurred image is directly proportional to?

Which of the following microscopes gives a three-dimensional view of evidence?

Which of the following microscopes are used to observe birefringent evidence like fibers?

Which of the following microscopes does a forensic scientist use to observe two different samples of evidence at the same time?

Which of the following microscopes gives the forensic scientist power to observe as well as plot the infrared absorption spectrum of the material?

In hypothesis testing, what is a type II error?

The Central Forensic Science Laboratory, Hyderabad was established in which of the following year?

What is the value with the most instances or occurrences in the list called?

What is random sampling?

What is the formula for Chi square test?

There are two events "I" and "J". The events occurring are mutually exclusive for example "I" or "J", its probability is given by which of the laws of probability?

Which of the following tests is used to check the equality of variances between two populations?

If the F statistic is larger than the critical F value.

Which of the following is the major protein present in seminal fluid at concentrations of 0.5-2.0 mg/mL?

What compound acts as the substrate in the Fast Blue B test for semen detection?

DMAC assay is a presumptive assay for body fluid detection. What does it detect?

Epithelial cell detection is often indicative of the presence of various body fluids. What stain can be used to distinguish between skin, oral and vaginal epithelial cells?

Which of the following is the most recent Central Forensic Science Laboratory established in 2011?

Match the column of the part of spermatozoa to the colour stained in Christmas tree staining.

Which gland produces majority of saliva in humans?

What are the predominant bacteria in the vagina of women of reproductive age?

Which among the following terms would be aptly defined as a foreign substance that is capable of eliciting antibody formation in a host cell and combining with the antibody?

Which of the following statements pertaining to the Lewis antigen system is INCORRECT?