JKSSB Clinical Psychologist 2025 Solved Question Paper

Question 1

The study of how diseases and disorders are distributed and what factors determine their presence or absence in a population is called as

Accepted Answer

Option C: Epidemiology. Epidemiology is the study of the distribution, patterns, and determinants of health, diseases, and psychological conditions in specified human populations.

Question 2

For psychological disorders, etiology refers to

Accepted Answer

Option A: causes. In clinical psychology and psychopathology, etiology denotes the underlying causes and contributing causal factors that lead to the development of a disorder.

Question 3

Which systems introduced multiaxial diagnostic assessment system in DSM?

Accepted Answer

Option B: DSM III. The multiaxial diagnostic system (Axis I through Axis V) was first introduced in DSM-III (1980) by the American Psychiatric Association.

Question 4

When was the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, Text Revision published?

Accepted Answer

Option C: 2022. DSM-5-TR (Text Revision) was officially released by the American Psychiatric Association in March 2022.

Question 5

How do we analysis data when we have one independent variable having three levels and one dependent variable and participants are randomly assigned to conditions?

Accepted Answer

Option A: One-way Independent groups ANOVA. A One-way Independent Groups ANOVA is the appropriate statistical test when there is one categorical IV with 3 or more between-subjects levels and one continuous DV.

Question 6

What are the attributes of Sample Statistics?
1. Known;
2. Estimated;
3. Calculated;
4. Unknown

Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option C: 2 and 3 Only. Sample statistics are computed/calculated directly from observed sample data (3) and used to estimate unknown population parameters (2).

Question 7

What is 1 - beta in hypothesis testing?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Power. In statistical inference, beta (β) is the probability of a Type II error. Therefore, 1 - β represents the Statistical Power of the hypothesis test.

Question 8

Type I error in statistical inference refer to

Accepted Answer

Option A: Rejecting true null hypothesis. A Type I error (alpha error) is the incorrect rejection of a null hypothesis that is actually true.

Question 9

Which of the following are non-parametric tests?
1. Mann-Whitney U test
2. Kruskal-Wallis test
3. Kolmogorov-Smirnov test
4. Pearson correlation

Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option D: 1, 2, and 3. Mann-Whitney U, Kruskal-Wallis, and Kolmogorov-Smirnov are distribution-free non-parametric tests. Pearson correlation is a parametric test.

Question 10

Match the following tests:
i. Kolmogorov-Smirnov test — 3. Test of normality
ii. Chi-square test — 2. Goodness of fit test
iii. Wilcoxon signed rank test — 4. Alternative to dependent Samples t-test
iv. Spearman's rho — 1. Correlation for Rank data

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Option D: i-3, ii-2, iii-4, iv-1. Matching code: i-3 (Normality test), ii-2 (Goodness of fit), iii-4 (Paired t-test alternative), iv-1 (Rank correlation).

Question 11

Match the Parametric test with its Non-Parametric Alternative:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-5. i) Independent t-test -> Median Test (2); ii) One-way ANOVA -> Kruskal-Wallis (4); iii) Paired t-test -> Sign Test / Wilcoxon (1); iv) Pearson -> Kendall's Tau (5).

Question 12

Match the following tests:
i. Kolmogorov-Smirnov test — 3. Test of normality
ii. Chi-square test — 2. Goodness of fit test
iii. Wilcoxon signed rank test — 4. Alternative to dependent Samples t-test
iv. Spearman's rho — 1. Correlation for Rank data

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Option D: i-3, ii-2, iii-4, iv-1. Matching: i-3 (Normality test), ii-2 (Goodness of fit), iii-4 (Paired t-test alternative), iv-1 (Rank correlation).

Question 13

Match the Experimental Design with its Control:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Option C: i-5, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1. Matching: i-5 (Post-test only provides weak control), ii-4 (Covariate gives statistical control), iii-2 (Repeated measures controls individual differences), iv-1 (Factorial design adds a second IV).

Question 14

Match the Sampling method with its Characteristics:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Option B: i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-5. Matching: i-2 (Requires complete sampling frame), ii-1 (Probability sampling of natural groups), iii-4 (Non-probability group sampling), iv-5 (Chain-referral sampling).

Question 15

Match the Scale of measurement with its Characteristics:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Option D: i-4, ii-1, iii-3, iv-2. Matching: i-4 (Ratio has absolute zero), ii-1 (Nominal uses numbers as category labels), iii-3 (Interval scale has arbitrary zero), iv-2 (Ordinal has ranked unequal intervals).

Question 16

Match the Technical Issue in regression with its Characteristics:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-3, ii-1, iii-2. Matching: Multicollinearity is correlation among independent predictors (3), and Heteroscedasticity is non-constant error variance (1).

Question 17

To estimate sample size before data collection for t-test, we need to know:
1. Expected value of 1-type II error
2. Level of significance
3. Expected effect-size
4. Mean X variance

Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option C: 1, 2, and 3 only. A priori sample size determination for a t-test requires: Desired power ($1-\beta$), Significance level ($\alpha$), and Expected effect size (Cohen's $d$).

Question 18

Increase in sample size leads to
1. Reduced standard error
2. Inflation of standard error
3. Increase in df
4. Decrease in df

Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Only 1 and 3. Since $SE = \sigma/\sqrt{N}$ and $df = N - 1$, increasing sample size reduces standard error and increases degrees of freedom.

Question 19

Arrange the steps of Braun and Clarke thematic analysis in the correct order:
1. Generating initial codes
2. Searching
3. Familiarising
4. Defining and naming
5. Reviewing

Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option C: 3 -> 1 -> 2 -> 5 -> 4. Sequence: Familiarising with data (3) -> Generating initial codes (1) -> Searching for themes (2) -> Reviewing themes (5) -> Defining and naming themes (4).

Question 20

Which of the following are qualitative methods?
1. Content analysis
2. Text mining
3. N-gram analysis
4. Grounded theory

Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Only 1 and 4. Content analysis and Grounded Theory are classic qualitative research inquiry methods.

Question 21

Which of the following is open software for analysis?
1. R
2. SPSS
3. AMOS
4. SAS
5. Jamovi

Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option D: Only 1 and 5. R and Jamovi are free and open-source statistical software tools. SPSS, AMOS, and SAS are commercial products.

Question 22

What are the characteristics of R software?
1. Open-source
2. Proprietary
3. Coding Needed
4. Multiple GUIs

Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option D: Only 1, 3 and 4. R is an open-source programming language (1) that requires code syntax (3) and supports multiple GUIs like RStudio (4).

Question 23

Match the Term in sign and symptoms with its Example:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1. Matching: Form is the modality (Auditory - 3); Content is the message (Voice statement - 4); Primary is intrinsic (Schizophrenia - 2); Secondary is organic/toxic (Substance - 1).

Question 24

Match the Type of Delusion with its Example:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Option C: i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1. Matching: Persecutory (being followed - 3), Grandeur (PM takes advice - 4), Jealousy (unfaithful spouse - 2), Erotomania (celebrity in love - 1).

Question 25

Psychotic symptoms like hallucinations delusions, disorganized speech and grossly disorganized or catatonic behaviors in Schizophrenia are known as

Accepted Answer

Option C: Positive symptoms. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia represent an excess or distortion of normal psychological functioning, including hallucinations and delusions.

Question 26

Delusional belief of the patient that 'an article in a newspaper or a remark on television is directed specifically to him, either as a message to him or to inform others about him' is called as

Accepted Answer

Option A: Delusions of reference. Delusions of reference involve the conviction that public media, events, or remarks carry a specific, hidden personal message aimed at the individual.

Question 27

Match the Classification of Hallucination with its Dimension:
i. Olfactory — 4. According to sensory modality
ii. Third-person — 5. According to special features
iii. Autoscopic hallucinations — 2. Special perceptual forms
iv. Elementary — 1. According to Complexity

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Option B: i-4, ii-5, iii-2, iv-1. Matching: Olfactory is sensory modality (4), Elementary is complexity level (1), and Autoscopic is a special feature hallucination.

Question 28

If the IQ ranges are ordered as per the following order of Intellectual disability, then what is the correct order?
Borderline -> Profound -> Moderate -> Mild -> Severe

Accepted Answer

Option C: 70 to 79 -> below 20 -> 36 to 49 -> 50 to 69 -> 20 to 35. Ranges: Borderline (70-79) -> Profound (<20) -> Moderate (36-49) -> Mild (50-69) -> Severe (20-35).

Question 29

Match the Intellectual Disability Severity with its DSM-5 Criteria:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Option D: i-4, ii-3, iii-5, iv-1. Matching: Severe requires daily support (4), Profound requires 24h care (3), Mild needs minimal support (5), Moderate achieves independent living with moderate support (1).

Question 30

Which of the following is NOT an aspect in DSM-5 Manic Episode Criteria of mood as 'a distinct period of abnormally and persistently ______'?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Goal-directed. In DSM-5 Criterion A for Manic Episode, mood is described as 'elevated, expansive, or irritable', while 'goal-directed' describes increased activity or energy.

Question 31

Arrange the following Pearson's correlation coefficients according to strength of association in descending order:
I. -.87
II. -.67
III. +.85
IV. +.27
V. +.68

Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option C: I -> III -> V -> II -> IV. Correlation strength is determined by absolute magnitude $|r|$: .87 (I) > .85 (III) > .68 (V) > .67 (II) > .27 (IV). Sequence: I -> III -> V -> II -> IV.

Question 32

For a one sample-t-test at df=50 if the obtained t-values are arranged according to p-values (two-tailed) in ascending order, then which is correct order?
I. +2.58
II. +.51
III. -6.7
IV. +1.96
V. -4.2

Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option A: III -> V -> I -> IV -> II. Higher absolute t-statistic $|t|$ yields smaller $p$-value: $|-6.7|$ (III) > $|-4.2|$ (V) > $|+2.58|$ (I) > $|+1.96|$ (IV) > $|+.51|$ (II). Ascending $p$-values: III -> V -> I -> IV -> II.

Question 33

Which of the following is a new diagnostic entity in DSM 5 TR?
1. Prolonged Grief Disorder
2. Dysthymia
3. Social Anxiety Disorder
4. Gender Dysphoria

Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Only 1. Prolonged Grief Disorder is a newly added standalone diagnostic category in DSM-5-TR (2022).

Question 34

According to DSM 5 TR, Preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness without somatic symptoms or only mild in intensity, and high level of anxiety about health, and the individual is easily alarmed about personal health status. The individual performs excessive health-related behaviors and the preoccupation has been present for at least 6 months is called as

Accepted Answer

Option B: Illness Anxiety Disorder. Illness Anxiety Disorder is defined by intense health anxiety with minimal or absent somatic symptoms lasting at least 6 months.

Question 35

In DSM-5, the diagnosis of hypochondriasis was replaced by
1. Somatic symptom disorder
2. Illness anxiety disorder
3. Hypochondriasis anxiety disorder
4. Functional neurological symptom disorder

Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Only 1 and 2. In DSM-5, hypochondriasis was replaced by Somatic Symptom Disorder and Illness Anxiety Disorder.

Question 36

Which of the following is not part of cluster A Personality disorder as per DSM 5 TR

Accepted Answer

Option D: Dependent Personality Disorder. Dependent Personality Disorder belongs to Cluster C (anxious/fearful cluster), while Cluster A consists of Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal.

Question 37

Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic criterion of delirium?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Gradual progression of impairment in cognitive domains. Delirium has an acute onset and fluctuating course; gradual, insidious progression is typical of Dementia (Major Neurocognitive Disorder).

Question 38

Severe recurrent temper outbursts manifested verbally/ behaviorally that are grossly out of proportion in intensity or duration to the situation is sign of

Accepted Answer

Option A: Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder. Severe recurrent temper outbursts disproportionate to provocation in children/adolescents defines Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD).

Question 39

Match the Type of personality Disorder with its DSM-5 Criteria:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1. Matching: Schizoid (detachment - 2), Schizotypal (odd beliefs - 3), Antisocial (impulsivity - 4), Paranoid (distrust - 1).

Question 40

Which of the following are correct for the aetiology of mood disorders?
1. Risk of mood disorders is higher in first-degree relatives of bipolar than unipolar probands
2. Excess of adverse life events in the months before the onset of depressive disorder
3. 5-HT and catecholamines show abnormality in a monoamine neurotransmitter system
4. Relatives of bipolar probands have lower risks of unipolar depression

Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Only 1, 2, and 3. Statements 1, 2, and 3 are scientifically well-established in mood disorder etiology; statement 4 is false because relatives of bipolar patients have elevated risk of unipolar depression.

Question 41

For following steps in EMDR, specify the correct order?
1. Preparation
2. Body scan
3. Assessment
4. Installation
5. Desensitization
6. Closure

Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option B: 1 -> 3 -> 5 -> 4 -> 2 -> 6. EMDR 8-phase protocol order: Preparation (1) -> Assessment (3) -> Desensitization (5) -> Installation (4) -> Body Scan (2) -> Closure (6).

Question 42

In EMDR, R stands for

Accepted Answer

Option B: Reprocessing. EMDR stands for Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing.

Question 43

According to Carl Rogers, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Fully Functioning Person?

Accepted Answer

Option D: Comfort with solitude. Comfort with solitude was highlighted by Maslow for self-actualizers, not one of Carl Rogers' primary 5 characteristics of a fully functioning person.

Question 44

Which of the following is NOT a Characteristic of self-actualizers according to Maslow?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Many friends at all levels of relationships. Maslow noted that self-actualizers cultivate deep, selective friendships with few people rather than numerous superficial relationships.

Question 45

Which therapeutic technique is commonly used in psychodynamic psychotherapy?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Free association. Free association is the central psychodynamic technique where clients report thoughts without censorship.

Question 46

What is a primary goal of psychodynamic psychotherapy?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Gaining insight into unconscious conflicts and their impact on present behavior. Psychodynamic therapy aims to facilitate insight into unconscious conflicts and past dynamics affecting current functioning.

Question 47

Read following Assertion and Reason and Choose correct option:
**Assertion (A):** In CBT, Cognitive restructuring helps clients identify and modify maladaptive thoughts.
**Reason (R):** Maladaptive thoughts are believed to contribute significantly to emotional distress and behavioral problems.

Accepted Answer

Option A: Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.. Cognitive restructuring is used because dysfunctional cognitions directly drive negative emotional states and maladaptive behaviors. Both statements are true, and R explains A.

Question 48

If MCMI IV scale categories are ordered as per number of scales in them in ascending order, then which is correct order?
1. Personality Pattern Scales
2. Clinical Syndrome Scales
3. Modifying Indices
4. Random Response Indicators
5. Grossman Facet Scales

Accepted Answer

Option D: 4 -> 3 -> 2 -> 1 -> 5. Scale counts: Random Response (2) -> Modifying Indices (3) -> Clinical Syndromes (7) -> Personality Patterns (12) -> Grossman Facet Scales (45). Ascending order: 4 -> 3 -> 2 -> 1 -> 5.

Question 49

The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) includes which of the following subscales?
1. Verbal Comprehension Index
2. Working Memory Index
3. Auditory Processing Index
4. Processing Speed Index

Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option D: Only 1, 2, and 4. WAIS-IV indexes include VCI (1), WMI (2), and PSI (4) alongside PRI. Auditory processing index is not a WAIS index. Thus, 1, 2, and 4 are correct.

Question 50

Which of the following is not an index in the Wechsler Memory Scale (WMS-IV)?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Episodic Memory. WMS-IV features AMI, VMI, VWMI, IMI, and DMI. Episodic Memory is not a distinct index in the test.

Question 51

In the WAIS-IV, what does the Full-Scale IQ (FSIQ) represent?

Accepted Answer

Option B: An overall estimate of intellectual ability. The Full-Scale IQ (FSIQ) derived from all 10 core subtests of WAIS-IV represents a composite global estimate of general intellectual functioning (Spearman's 'g').

Question 52

Which is correct according to dopamine hypothesis for schizophrenia?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Receptor activation for D1 causes negative and D2 causes positive symptoms. The revised dopamine hypothesis posits that positive symptoms result from hyperactive D2 receptor transmission in the mesolimbic pathway, whereas negative/cognitive symptoms result from hypodopaminergic D1 receptor transmission in the prefrontal cortex.

Question 53

Which of the Big-Five personality dimension is strongly associated with antisocial personality disorder?

Accepted Answer

Option A: Agreeableness. Antisocial Personality Disorder is most strongly and consistently characterized by extremely low Agreeableness (callousness, antagonism, hostility, lack of empathy, manipulativeness).

Question 54

The Five-Factor model personality dimension of neuroticism is associated with

Accepted Answer

Option A: Borderline personality disorder. High Neuroticism (affective instability, emotional reactivity, intense anxiety, depression) is the core personality trait underlying Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD).

Question 55

Which of the following can be used with children?

Accepted Answer

Option A: CAT. The Children's Apperception Test (CAT), developed by Leopold Bellak, is a projective personality assessment specifically designed for children aged 3 to 10 years using animal/human figures.

Question 56

The Extended Fluid Index in WISC V is sum of which of the following?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Matrix Reasoning, Figure Weights, Picture concept, Arithmetic. In WISC-V, the Extended Fluid Reasoning Index (EFI) is derived from four subtests: Matrix Reasoning, Figure Weights, Picture Concepts, and Arithmetic.

Question 57

How many clinical scales are included in the standard Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery?

Accepted Answer

Option B: 11. The standard Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery (LNNB) comprises 11 clinical scales (Motor, Rhythm, Tactile, Visual, Receptive Speech, Expressive Speech, Writing, Reading, Arithmetic, Memory, and Intellectual Processes).

Question 58

What is one significant advantage of the Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery compared to other neuropsychological assessments?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Provides a faster and more structured assessment of brain damage.. A major advantage of the LNNB over lengthy batteries like Halstead-Reitan is that it offers a comprehensive, highly standardized, and substantially faster administration time (~1.5 to 2.5 hours) for diagnosing brain impairment.

Question 59

What is the primary objective of the AIIMS Neuropsychological Battery?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Evaluate cognitive functions specific to the Indian population. The AIIMS Comprehensive Neuropsychological Battery (developed by Surya et al.) was designed specifically to assess cognitive and neuropsychological dysfunctions adapted and standardized for Indian cultural and demographic contexts.

Question 60

What is the primary focus of consultation-liaison psychiatry?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Integration of psychiatric care into medical and surgical settings. Consultation-liaison psychiatry (psychosomatic medicine) focuses on the clinical intersection of psychiatry with general medicine and surgery, treating psychiatric comorbidity in medically ill hospital patients.

Question 61

Select the correct order of the meninges as seen from outside to inside of the brain.

Accepted Answer

Option A: Dura mater, arachnoid membrane, pia mater. From skull (outermost) to brain surface (innermost), the cranial meninges are: (1) Dura mater (tough outer layer), (2) Arachnoid mater (spider-web-like middle layer), and (3) Pia mater (delicate innermost layer adhering to cortex).

Question 62

Match the Anatomical Directional Term with its Meaning:

Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option D: i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3. In neuroanatomy: Anterior (Rostral) = Toward head/front (2); Posterior (Caudal) = Toward tail/back (4); Dorsal = Toward back/top of head (1); Ventral = Toward belly/bottom of skull (3). Code: i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3.

Question 63

Match the Glial Cells with their primary Functions:

Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4. i) Astrocytes: Metabolic/phagocytic support (3); ii) Oligodendrocytes: Form myelin sheath in Central Nervous System (2); iii) Microglia: Resident immune cells mediating inflammatory response (1); iv) Schwann cells: Form myelin sheath in Peripheral Nervous System (4).

Question 64

Which of the following conducts anterograde axoplasmic transport?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Kinesin. Kinesin is the motor protein responsible for anterograde axoplasmic transport (moving vesicles and organelles from the soma toward axon terminals). Dynein conducts retrograde transport (terminals to soma).

Clinical Psychologist2025

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JKSSB — Clinical Psychologist (2025)

The study of how diseases and disorders are distributed and what factors determine their presence or absence in a population is called as

For psychological disorders, etiology refers to

Which systems introduced multiaxial diagnostic assessment system in DSM?

When was the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, Text Revision published?

How do we analysis data when we have one independent variable having three levels and one dependent variable and participants are randomly assigned to conditions?

What are the attributes of Sample Statistics?1. Known;2. Estimated;3. Calculated;4. UnknownChoose the correct option:

What is 1 - beta in hypothesis testing?

Type I error in statistical inference refer to

Which of the following are non-parametric tests?1. Mann-Whitney U test2. Kruskal-Wallis test3. Kolmogorov-Smirnov test4. Pearson correlationChoose the correct option:

To estimate sample size before data collection for t-test, we need to know:1. Expected value of 1-type II error2. Level of significance3. Expected effect-size4. Mean X varianceChoose the correct option:

Increase in sample size leads to1. Reduced standard error2. Inflation of standard error3. Increase in df4. Decrease in dfChoose the correct option:

Arrange the steps of Braun and Clarke thematic analysis in the correct order:1. Generating initial codes2. Searching3. Familiarising4. Defining and naming5. ReviewingChoose the correct option:

Which of the following are qualitative methods?1. Content analysis2. Text mining3. N-gram analysis4. Grounded theoryChoose the correct option:

Which of the following is open software for analysis?1. R2. SPSS3. AMOS4. SAS5. JamoviChoose the correct option:

What are the characteristics of R software?1. Open-source2. Proprietary3. Coding Needed4. Multiple GUIsChoose the correct option:

Psychotic symptoms like hallucinations delusions, disorganized speech and grossly disorganized or catatonic behaviors in Schizophrenia are known as

Delusional belief of the patient that 'an article in a newspaper or a remark on television is directed specifically to him, either as a message to him or to inform others about him' is called as

If the IQ ranges are ordered as per the following order of Intellectual disability, then what is the correct order?Borderline -> Profound -> Moderate -> Mild -> Severe

Which of the following is NOT an aspect in DSM-5 Manic Episode Criteria of mood as 'a distinct period of abnormally and persistently ______'?

Arrange the following Pearson's correlation coefficients according to strength of association in descending order:I. -.87II. -.67III. +.85IV. +.27V. +.68Choose the correct option:

For a one sample-t-test at df=50 if the obtained t-values are arranged according to p-values (two-tailed) in ascending order, then which is correct order?I. +2.58II. +.51III. -6.7IV. +1.96V. -4.2Choose the correct option:

Which of the following is a new diagnostic entity in DSM 5 TR?1. Prolonged Grief Disorder2. Dysthymia3. Social Anxiety Disorder4. Gender DysphoriaChoose the correct option:

In DSM-5, the diagnosis of hypochondriasis was replaced by1. Somatic symptom disorder2. Illness anxiety disorder3. Hypochondriasis anxiety disorder4. Functional neurological symptom disorderChoose the correct option:

Which of the following is not part of cluster A Personality disorder as per DSM 5 TR

Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic criterion of delirium?

Severe recurrent temper outbursts manifested verbally/ behaviorally that are grossly out of proportion in intensity or duration to the situation is sign of

For following steps in EMDR, specify the correct order?1. Preparation2. Body scan3. Assessment4. Installation5. Desensitization6. ClosureChoose the correct option:

In EMDR, R stands for

According to Carl Rogers, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Fully Functioning Person?

Which of the following is NOT a Characteristic of self-actualizers according to Maslow?

Which therapeutic technique is commonly used in psychodynamic psychotherapy?

What is a primary goal of psychodynamic psychotherapy?

Read following Assertion and Reason and Choose correct option:Assertion (A): In CBT, Cognitive restructuring helps clients identify and modify maladaptive thoughts.Reason (R): Maladaptive thoughts are believed to contribute significantly to emotional distress and behavioral problems.

If MCMI IV scale categories are ordered as per number of scales in them in ascending order, then which is correct order?1. Personality Pattern Scales2. Clinical Syndrome Scales3. Modifying Indices4. Random Response Indicators5. Grossman Facet Scales

The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) includes which of the following subscales?1. Verbal Comprehension Index2. Working Memory Index3. Auditory Processing Index4. Processing Speed IndexChoose the correct option:

Which of the following is not an index in the Wechsler Memory Scale (WMS-IV)?

In the WAIS-IV, what does the Full-Scale IQ (FSIQ) represent?

Which is correct according to dopamine hypothesis for schizophrenia?

Which of the Big-Five personality dimension is strongly associated with antisocial personality disorder?

The Five-Factor model personality dimension of neuroticism is associated with

Which of the following can be used with children?

The Extended Fluid Index in WISC V is sum of which of the following?

How many clinical scales are included in the standard Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery?

What is one significant advantage of the Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery compared to other neuropsychological assessments?

What is the primary objective of the AIIMS Neuropsychological Battery?

What is the primary focus of consultation-liaison psychiatry?

Select the correct order of the meninges as seen from outside to inside of the brain.

Which of the following conducts anterograde axoplasmic transport?

Cell bodies of neurons that secret orexin are located in the:

Which of the following relays information from the retina to the striate cortex?

Select the statements that are true about sensorimotor functioning using the codes below:1. The sensorimotor system is hierarchically organized.2. Motor output is guided only by the visual system.3. Actions become integrated after sufficient practice.Choose the correct option:

How will a person who has just woken up from REM sleep look like?

Which theory postulates that activity in thalamus causes emotional feelings and bodily arousal simultaneously?

Loss of blood volume causes:

Acetylcholine is predominantly found in which part of the brain?

Choose the monoamine neurotransmitters from the list given below:1. Dopamine2. Acetylcholine3. GABA4. SerotoninChoose the correct option:

Which of the following is caused by bilateral damage in the amygdala?

Balint's syndrome is a triad of which of the following impairments?

The monoamine theory explains which of the following clinical disorders?

The dopamine theory explains which of the following clinical disorders?

Urbach-Wiethe disease leads to:

Which of the following statements about fMRI is/are correct?1. It measures neuronal activity directly through electrical signals.2. It relies on the Blood Oxygen Level-Dependent (BOLD) signal.3. fMRI provides high spatial resolution compared to EEGChoose the correct statements:

Which of the following is a core subtest in WAIS-IV?

What is the role of active listening in therapy?

What is the primary goal of a therapeutic relationship?

Cultural competence in therapy involves:

What are infractions (infarctions)?

What is a large accumulation of blood within tissue called?

What are metastatic tumors?

How does chronic pain often impact a person's psychological well-being?

What is "pain catastrophizing"?

In cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) for pain management, which of the following is a primary goal?

Which of the following best describes transcranial Direct Current Stimulation?

Choose the correct full form of the Four P's of pain management.

Which of the following therapies is most focused on emotion identification and emotional regulation?

Applied Behavioural Analysis is based on which of the following theories of learning?

EMDR is used most commonly to treat which of the following?

What are the attributes of Sample Statistics?
1. Known;
2. Estimated;
3. Calculated;
4. Unknown

Choose the correct option:

Which of the following are non-parametric tests?
1. Mann-Whitney U test
2. Kruskal-Wallis test
3. Kolmogorov-Smirnov test
4. Pearson correlation

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To estimate sample size before data collection for t-test, we need to know:
1. Expected value of 1-type II error
2. Level of significance
3. Expected effect-size
4. Mean X variance

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Increase in sample size leads to
1. Reduced standard error
2. Inflation of standard error
3. Increase in df
4. Decrease in df

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Arrange the steps of Braun and Clarke thematic analysis in the correct order:
1. Generating initial codes
2. Searching
3. Familiarising
4. Defining and naming
5. Reviewing

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Which of the following are qualitative methods?
1. Content analysis
2. Text mining
3. N-gram analysis
4. Grounded theory

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Which of the following is open software for analysis?
1. R
2. SPSS
3. AMOS
4. SAS
5. Jamovi

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What are the characteristics of R software?
1. Open-source
2. Proprietary
3. Coding Needed
4. Multiple GUIs

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If the IQ ranges are ordered as per the following order of Intellectual disability, then what is the correct order?
Borderline -> Profound -> Moderate -> Mild -> Severe

Arrange the following Pearson's correlation coefficients according to strength of association in descending order:
I. -.87
II. -.67
III. +.85
IV. +.27
V. +.68

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For a one sample-t-test at df=50 if the obtained t-values are arranged according to p-values (two-tailed) in ascending order, then which is correct order?
I. +2.58
II. +.51
III. -6.7
IV. +1.96
V. -4.2

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Which of the following is a new diagnostic entity in DSM 5 TR?
1. Prolonged Grief Disorder
2. Dysthymia
3. Social Anxiety Disorder
4. Gender Dysphoria

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In DSM-5, the diagnosis of hypochondriasis was replaced by
1. Somatic symptom disorder
2. Illness anxiety disorder
3. Hypochondriasis anxiety disorder
4. Functional neurological symptom disorder

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For following steps in EMDR, specify the correct order?
1. Preparation
2. Body scan
3. Assessment
4. Installation
5. Desensitization
6. Closure

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Read following Assertion and Reason and Choose correct option:
Assertion (A): In CBT, Cognitive restructuring helps clients identify and modify maladaptive thoughts.
Reason (R): Maladaptive thoughts are believed to contribute significantly to emotional distress and behavioral problems.

If MCMI IV scale categories are ordered as per number of scales in them in ascending order, then which is correct order?
1. Personality Pattern Scales
2. Clinical Syndrome Scales
3. Modifying Indices
4. Random Response Indicators
5. Grossman Facet Scales

The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) includes which of the following subscales?
1. Verbal Comprehension Index
2. Working Memory Index
3. Auditory Processing Index
4. Processing Speed Index

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Select the statements that are true about sensorimotor functioning using the codes below:
1. The sensorimotor system is hierarchically organized.
2. Motor output is guided only by the visual system.
3. Actions become integrated after sufficient practice.

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Choose the monoamine neurotransmitters from the list given below:
1. Dopamine
2. Acetylcholine
3. GABA
4. Serotonin

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Which of the following statements about fMRI is/are correct?
1. It measures neuronal activity directly through electrical signals.
2. It relies on the Blood Oxygen Level-Dependent (BOLD) signal.
3. fMRI provides high spatial resolution compared to EEG

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Arrange the following steps of behaviour modification in the correct order:
1. Starting a new internal dialogue
2. Self-observation
3. Learning new skills

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Arrange the following phases of stress inoculation training in the correct order:
1. Application and follow-through
2. Conceptual-educational
3. Skills acquisition and consolidation

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Which of the following are key techniques in solution-focused brief therapy?
1. Miracle questioning
2. Role reversal
3. Exaggeration
4. Exception questions
5. Formula first session task

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Which of the following are well-known to have practiced or developed family therapy?
1. Alfred Adler
2. Erik Erickson
3. Rudolf Dreikurs
4. Murray Bowen

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Which of the following therapies uses some form of dream work in the counselling process?
1. Psychoanalysis
2. Cognitive
3. Behavioural
4. Gestalt

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Arrange the phases of psychodynamic therapy in the correct order:
1. Exploration of unconscious conflicts
2. Establishing a therapeutic alliance
3. Interpretation of transference
4. Resolution and integration

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Arrange the following steps in the typical order they occur during psychotherapy:
1. Setting therapeutic goals
2. Termination of therapy
3. Assessment and diagnosis
4. Intervention and treatment

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Arrange the following phases of progressive muscle relaxation in the correct order:
1. Holding
2. Relaxation
3. Tensing
4. Repeating

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Which of the following medical conditions can simulate an anxiety disorder?
1. Asthma
2. Ischemic heart disease
3. Seizure disorder
4. Obesity

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Select neuropsychological tests that were developed to measure attention from the codes given below:
1. WISC
2. WMS
3. d2 Test
4. SDMT
5. COWA

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