General Mental Ability & ReasoningAnalogy & Classification
Choose the Pair which is not matched appropriately. Knob : Door A) Water : Tap B) Ear : Face C) Power : Battery D) Error : Omission
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Error : Omission)
In pairs like Knob : Door, Ear : Face, Water : Tap, and Power : Battery, the relationship involves either a physical component/part of a larger entity or a substance/resource provided by or residing in an object. 'Error : Omission' does not represent a component/holder relationship, as error and omission are conceptual near-synonyms or types of faults rather than a part-to-whole physical relationship.
Q2
General Mental Ability & ReasoningAnalogy & Classification
Find the appropriate option in line with the given words. Tiger : Forest :: Otter : ? A) Cage B) Sky C) Nest D) Water
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Water)
A tiger's natural habitat is a forest. Similarly, an otter is a semi-aquatic mammal whose natural habitat is water (rivers, lakes, and coastal waters).
Q3
General Mental Ability & ReasoningNon-Verbal Pattern Completion
Complete the pattern, choosing the appropriate figure. Δ : [Triangle inscribed with median and bisector lines] :: Circle : ? A) Circle in square with vertical median line B) Circle in square with crossed vertical and horizontal lines forming 4 sectors C) Circle in square with diagonal cross lines (X) D) Circle inscribed in square with both orthogonal cross (+) and diagonal cross (X) lines dividing circle into 8 sectors
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Circle inscribed in square with both orthogonal cross (+) and diagonal cross (X) lines dividing circle into 8 sectors)
In the analogy, the single geometric shape (triangle) is modified into its complex partitioned structure with intersecting medians and lines across all vertices and edges. For the circle inscribed in a square, the corresponding symmetrical pattern consists of all full diameter lines (vertical, horizontal, and both diagonal axes) dividing it into 8 sectors, which matches Option D.
Q4
General Mental Ability & ReasoningNumber Analogy & Series
Complete the number series. 22543 : 16 :: 50123 : ? A) 12 B) 10 C) 11 D) 18
💡Correct Answer: Option C (11)
The pattern is the sum of the digits of the first number: For 22543: 2 + 2 + 5 + 4 + 3 = 16. Similarly for 50123: 5 + 0 + 1 + 2 + 3 = 11.
Q5
General Mental Ability & ReasoningClassification & Odd One Out
Select the option that has a different relationship between the numbers of the pairs than the rest. A) 25 - 49 B) 12 - 16 C) 24 - 36 D) 36 - 81
💡Correct Answer: Option B (12 - 16)
In 25 - 49 (5^2 and 7^2) and 36 - 81 (6^2 and 9^2), both numbers are perfect squares. In 24 - 36, the ratio is 2:3. In 12 - 16, 12 is not a square and the ratio is 3:4. In standard competitive reasoning classification, pair B (12 - 16) is the distinct odd pair out.
Q6
General Mental Ability & ReasoningNon-Verbal Classification
Choose the figure which is different from the rest? (A) M (B) E (C) W (D) H A) Figure A B) Figure B C) Figure C D) Figure D
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Figure B)
Figure B ('E') is different from the others because 'E' is a vowel whereas M, W, and H are consonants. Additionally, letters M, W, and H possess vertical line symmetry, whereas 'E' has horizontal line symmetry. Furthermore, 'E' consists of 4 line segments (1 vertical, 3 horizontal) while the others differ. Thus, Figure B is the odd one out.
Q7
General Mental Ability & ReasoningLetter Series
Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it? a_bbc_aab_cca_bbcc A) bacb B) acba C) caba D) abba
💡Correct Answer: Option B (acba)
Counting the total letters including gaps gives 18 letters. Dividing into 3 repeating blocks of 6 letters: Block 1: a [a] b b c [c] -> aabbcc Block 2: a a b [b] c c -> aabbcc Block 3: a [a] b b c c -> aabbcc The inserted letters in sequential order are 'a', 'c', 'b', 'a', which forms 'acba'.
Q8
General Mental Ability & ReasoningNumber Series
Find the missing number in the following series: 10, 100, 200, 310, ? A) 430 B) 420 C) 410 D) 440
💡Correct Answer: Option A (430)
The differences between consecutive terms increase by 10 each step: 100 - 10 = +90 200 - 100 = +100 310 - 200 = +110 Next difference = +120 Missing number = 310 + 120 = 430.
Q9
General Mental Ability & ReasoningNon-Verbal Series & Rotation
Select the option figure that will replace the '?' in the figure given below. [A 2x2 grid where diamond contains an arrow: Top-left: pointing Right (East); Top-right: pointing Up (North); Bottom-right: pointing Left (West); Bottom-left '?'] A) Diamond with right arrow B) Diamond with left arrow C) Diamond with downward pointing arrow D) Diamond with upward pointing arrow
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Diamond with downward pointing arrow)
Following the sequence counter-clockwise or rotating 90 degrees counter-clockwise in order: East (Right) -> North (Up) -> West (Left) -> South (Down). Therefore, the arrow in the bottom-left position '?' must point downwards (South), which corresponds to Option C.
Q10
Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITAI & Problem Solving Concepts
The process of removing detail from a given state representation is called A) Extraction B) Abstraction C) Information Retrieval D) Mining of data
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Abstraction)
In Artificial Intelligence and problem solving, 'Abstraction' is the process of simplifying a state space by removing irrelevant low-level details while preserving essential properties necessary to formulate and solve the problem efficiently.
Q11
General Mental Ability & ReasoningProblems on Ages
At present Rahul's age is 27 years and Rajiv's age is 19 years. What is the sum of their ages after five years? A) 56 years B) 46 years C) 66 years D) 51 years
💡Correct Answer: Option A (56 years)
Present ages: Rahul = 27 years, Rajiv = 19 years. Sum of present ages = 27 + 19 = 46 years. After 5 years, both Rahul and Rajiv will age by 5 years, so total increase = 5 + 5 = 10 years. Sum of their ages after 5 years = 46 + 10 = 56 years (or 32 + 24 = 56 years).
Q12
General Mental Ability & ReasoningCoding & Decoding
In a code language, BLEND is written as ENHPG. How will WINNER be written in the same language? A) ZKQPHT B) ZKQPHU C) YKQPHT D) ZKOPHT
💡Correct Answer: Option A (ZKQPHT)
Analyzing BLEND -> ENHPG: B (2) + 3 = E (5) L (12) + 2 = N (14) E (5) + 3 = H (8) N (14) + 2 = P (16) D (4) + 3 = G (7) The alternating shift pattern is +3, +2, +3, +2, +3, +2. Applying to WINNER: W (23) + 3 = Z (26) I (9) + 2 = K (11) N (14) + 3 = Q (17) N (14) + 2 = P (16) E (5) + 3 = H (8) R (18) + 2 = T (20) Thus, WINNER is coded as ZKQPHT.
Q13
General Mental Ability & ReasoningMathematical Operations
In the following question, correct the given equation by interchanging two numbers. 8 × 3 ÷ 4 + 9 - 5 = 16 A) 5 and 9 B) 4 and 8 C) 3 and 4 D) 5 and 3
💡Correct Answer: Option D (5 and 3)
Given equation: 8 × 3 ÷ 4 + 9 - 5 = 16. Testing option D (interchange 5 and 3): 8 × 5 ÷ 4 + 9 - 3 = (8 × 5) ÷ 4 + 9 - 3 = 40 ÷ 4 + 9 - 3 = 10 + 9 - 3 = 19 - 3 = 16. This satisfies the equation, so 5 and 3 must be interchanged.
Q14
General Mental Ability & ReasoningMathematical Operations
If '-' denotes addition, '+' denotes subtraction, '×' denotes division and '÷' denotes multiplication, then 7 - 10 × 5 ÷ 6 + 4 = ? A) 3 B) 12 C) 15 D) 9
A is shorter than B but taller than C. D is shorter than A but taller than C and E is shorter than B but taller than A. The shortest person is ? A) A B) C C) D D) E
💡Correct Answer: Option B (C)
From the statements: 1. A is shorter than B but taller than C: B > A > C. 2. D is shorter than A but taller than C: A > D > C. 3. E is shorter than B but taller than A: B > E > A. Combining all relations: B > E > A > D > C. Therefore, C is the shortest person.
Q16
General Mental Ability & ReasoningDice & Cube Folding
From the given options, which answer figure can be formed by folding the given net in the question? [Net shows: Top tab 1 on square 6; horizontal row 6, 3, 4, 5; bottom tab 2 under square 5] A) Cube with faces 1, 6, 4 B) Cube with faces 3, 5, 2 C) Cube with faces 1, 3, 4 D) Cube with faces 2, 6, 1
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Cube with faces 1, 3, 4)
From the unfolded net of the cube, opposite faces are: - Face 1 is opposite to Face 2 - Face 6 is opposite to Face 4 - Face 3 is opposite to Face 5 Two opposite faces can never appear simultaneously on adjacent faces of a visible cube: - In A, faces 6 and 4 are opposite, so they cannot be adjacent. - In B, faces 3 and 5 are opposite, so they cannot be adjacent. - In D, faces 1 and 2 are opposite, so they cannot be adjacent. - In C, the faces are 1, 3, and 4. None of these are opposite pairs (1 is opposite 2, 3 opposite 5, 4 opposite 6), making Cube C valid.
Q17
General Mental Ability & ReasoningMathematical Operations & Cipher
If 0 is to be replaced by 1, 1 is replaced by 2....... 7 is replaced by 8 and 8 is replaced by 9 and 9 is replaced by 0. Then answer the following question. 811 - 772 - 655 = ? A) - 727 B) - 876 C) - 564 D) - 765
💡Correct Answer: Option A (- 727)
According to the replacement cipher: each digit d becomes (d + 1) mod 10: 0->1, 1->2, 2->3, 3->4, 4->5, 5->6, 6->7, 7->8, 8->9, 9->0. Converting the numbers in the expression: - 811 becomes 922 - 772 becomes 883 - 655 becomes 766 Evaluating the expression: 922 - 883 - 766 = 922 - (883 + 766) = 922 - 1649 = -727.
Q18
General Mental Ability & ReasoningVenn Diagrams
The following diagram shows the number of people who eat Indian, Chinese, Italian and Mexican dishes. If the total number of people is 100, then what is the number of people who eats Indian and Chinese but not Italian or Mexican? [Venn diagram of 4 cuisines showing Indian, Chinese, Italian, Mexican with central intersections] A) 18 B) 12 C) 10 D) 11
💡Correct Answer: Option C (10)
Looking at the Venn diagram intersection: we need the region that lies within BOTH the Indian and Chinese circles, but EXCLUDES any portion belonging to Italian or Mexican circles. The number in this exclusive intersection of Indian and Chinese is clearly 10.
Q19
General Mental Ability & ReasoningStatement & Conclusions
A statement is given followed by two conclusions. Give answer: Statement: Now-a-days, the sale of television sets of company X has increased. Conclusion: I - The sale of television sets of other company has decreased. II - The sale of television sets of company X was nil in past. A) Only conclusion I follows B) Only conclusion II follows C) Either I or II follows D) Neither I nor II follows
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Neither I nor II follows)
Conclusion I does not follow because an increase in company X's sales may be due to overall market expansion rather than a decline in other companies' sales. Conclusion II does not follow because an 'increase' simply implies sales were lower in the past, not that they were completely nil. Therefore, neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Q20
General Awareness & Mental AbilityEmotional Intelligence & Social Skills
Emotional intelligence is characterised by A) Proficient in problem solving B) Better interpersonal relationship C) High abstract thinking ability D) Good sense of humour
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Better interpersonal relationship)
Emotional intelligence (EI) refers to the capability of individuals to recognize their own emotions and those of others, discern between different feelings, and use emotional information to guide thinking and behavior. A hallmark characteristic and outcome of high emotional intelligence is better interpersonal relationships and social communication.
Q21
General Knowledge & Current AffairsHistory of Jammu & Kashmir
Hari parbat was built by A) Emperor Humayun B) Chandragupta Maurya C) Chattrapati Shivaji Maharaj D) Atta Mohammed Khan
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Atta Mohammed Khan)
The outer rampart wall surrounding Hari Parbat (Koh-e-Maran) was laid by Mughal Emperor Akbar in 1590, but the present fort atop the hill was built by the Afghan governor of Kashmir, Atta Mohammed Khan, in 1808.
Q22
General Knowledge & Current AffairsModern Indian History & Social Reforms
Name the Governor General who abolished 'Sati' in 1829. A) Lord Clive B) Lord Curzon C) Lord Bentinck D) Lord Dalhousie
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Lord Bentinck)
The Bengal Sati Regulation was passed on 4 December 1829 by Governor-General Lord William Bentinck, declaring the practice of burning or burying alive Hindu widows (Sati) illegal and punishable by the criminal courts, largely through the relentless reform efforts of Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
Q23
General Knowledge & Current AffairsHistory of Jammu & Kashmir
During the rule of which dynasty, Muslim saints started coming to Jammu? A) Dhar dynasty B) Rai dynasty C) Dev dynasty D) Gonanda dynasty
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rai dynasty)
According to the historical chronicles of Jammu (such as Gulabnama and Tarikh-i-Dogra Desh), Muslim saints and Sufis, including Pir Roshan Ali Shah and Pir Mitha, first began arriving in Jammu during the reign of the Rai dynasty (which preceded the Dev dynasty).
Q24
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Culture & Festivals
In which Indian state is the flamingo festival celebrated? A) Rajasthan B) Assam C) Jammu & Kashmir D) Andhra Pradesh
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Andhra Pradesh)
The Flamingo Festival is celebrated annually in Andhra Pradesh at Pulicat Lake and Nelapattu Bird Sanctuary in the Tirupati (formerly Nellore) district to promote tourism and welcome migratory birds, particularly flamingos.
Q25
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Foreign Policy & Geography
To which of the following neighbor country, India ceded Kachchatheevu island in 1974? A) Sri Lanka B) Bangladesh C) Myanmar D) Maldives
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sri Lanka)
Under the 1974 Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime Agreement signed between Prime Minister Indira Gandhi and Sri Lankan Prime Minister Sirimavo Bandaranaike, India recognized Sri Lankan sovereignty over the uninhabited Katchatheevu island in the Palk Strait.
Q26
General Knowledge & Current AffairsGovernment Programmes & Geography
Consider the following states: I. Rajasthan II. Gujarat III. Jammu & Kashmir IV. Himachal Pradesh Desert Development programme was started in which of the above states? A) I & II Only B) I, II & III Only C) I, II & IV Only D) I, II, III & IV
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II, III & IV)
The Desert Development Programme (DDP) was launched by the Government of India in 1977-78 to control desertification and restore ecological balance in both hot desert areas (Rajasthan, Gujarat, Haryana, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka) and cold desert areas (Jammu & Kashmir / Ladakh and Himachal Pradesh - Lahaul & Spiti, Kinnaur). Thus, all four states (I, II, III, and IV) are covered under the programme.
Q27
General Knowledge & Current AffairsEconomics (Tariffs & Trade)
Consider a scenario in which a small country imposes a tariff on a product. Which of the statements below is false? A) The good's consumer surplus will decrease. B) The surplus of the producer of the goods will decrease. C) The number of goods imported will decrease. D) The total drop in surplus will be less than the deadweight loss.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The total drop in surplus will be less than the deadweight loss.)
When a small importing country imposes an import tariff: domestic price rises by the tariff amount, consumer surplus decreases, domestic producer surplus increases. In international trade theory, the deadweight loss is only a net part of the total surplus loss, meaning the total drop in surplus is strictly GREATER than the deadweight loss, never less. Thus statement D is false.
Q28
General Knowledge & Current AffairsEconomics (Price Mechanism)
What happens if the price floor is set higher than the equilibrium price? A) Scarcity B) Stability C) Surpluses D) None of the preceding
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Surpluses)
A price floor set above the market equilibrium price is binding. At this higher price, the quantity supplied by producers exceeds the quantity demanded by consumers (Q_s > Q_d), resulting in a market surplus (excess supply).
Q29
General Knowledge & Current AffairsSports Awards & Honours
The "Pierre de Coubertin Medal" is awarded for the excellence in which field? A) Painting B) Sports C) Music D) Economics
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sports)
The Pierre de Coubertin Medal (also known as the True Spirit of Sportsmanship medal) is a prestigious award presented by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) to athletes who demonstrate extraordinary sportsmanship or exceptional service to the Olympic movement.
Q30
General Knowledge & Current AffairsSports History of India
In which year, Kabaddi was introduced for the first time in the National Games of India? A) 1938 B) 1939 C) 1940 D) 1941
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1938)
Kabaddi was introduced for the first time as an official competitive discipline in the Indian Olympic Games (later designated as the National Games of India) held at Calcutta in the year 1938.
Q31
General SciencePhysics (Quantum & Wave Mechanics)
What is the relation between mass and wavelength of any matter, as per de Broglie's relation? A) Both are directly proportional B) Both are inversely proportional C) Both are independent of each other D) Wavelength is twice the square of the mass
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Both are inversely proportional)
According to de Broglie's matter wave hypothesis, the wavelength λ of a particle is given by λ = h / p = h / (m * v), where h is Planck's constant, m is mass, and v is velocity. Since mass appears in the denominator, wavelength and mass are inversely proportional (λ ∝ 1/m).
Q32
General ScienceBiology (Human Anatomy & Tissues)
Osteocytes are found in A) Blood B) Bone C) Lymph D) Cartilage
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bone)
Osteocytes are mature bone cells found inside lacunae within the mineralized bone matrix. They originate from osteoblasts and are responsible for maintaining bone tissue metabolism.
Q33
General Awareness & Mental AbilityResearch Methodology
Order the sequence of steps followed in educational research: I. Selection of research problem II. Selection of research method III. Formulation of research question IV. Data collection and analysis V. Reporting the results Choose the correct option: A) I - II - III - IV - V B) I - III - II - IV - V C) I - IV - II - III - V D) II - I - III - IV - V
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I - III - II - IV - V)
The logical and standardized pedagogical sequence of scientific research is: Step I: Selection of research problem Step III: Formulation of research question / hypothesis Step II: Selection of research design and method Step IV: Data collection and analysis Step V: Reporting the results. This sequence matches Option B (I - III - II - IV - V).
Q34
General Awareness & Mental AbilityResearch Aptitude
Research can be conducted by a person who: A) holds a postgraduate degree B) has studied research methodology C) possesses thinking and reasoning ability D) is a hard worker
💡Correct Answer: Option C (possesses thinking and reasoning ability)
In UGC NET, educational aptitude, and general competitive pedagogy questions, the primary core trait required to conduct research is the fundamental possession of critical thinking, inquiry, and logical reasoning ability (possesses thinking and reasoning ability).
Q35
General Knowledge & Current AffairsCurrent Affairs & Awards (J&K)
He is a recipient of Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar award in the field of art and culture. A) Umran Malik B) Abdul Samad C) Ishfaq Hamid D) Pandit Bhajan Sopori
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ishfaq Hamid)
Master Ishfaq Hamid, a young maestro of the Rabab and Matka from Kreeri, Baramulla / Pulwama, Jammu & Kashmir, was awarded the prestigious Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar by the President of India in January 2024 for his extraordinary contribution to Art & Culture.
Q36
General Knowledge & Current AffairsCurrent Affairs & Awards
Recently, who has been conferred the prestigious 'Freedom of City of London' award? A) Madhur Kumar B) Loknath Mishra C) Sharukh T Wadia D) Ajit Mishra
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ajit Mishra)
Prominent India-born lawyer and UK-India Legal Partnership founder Ajit Mishra was conferred the prestigious 'Freedom of the City of London' award in recognition of his outstanding contribution to legal and business sectors and fostering bilateral ties between India and the UK.
Q37
General Knowledge & Current AffairsImportant Days & Dates
When is the 'International Day of Sign Languages' celebrated? A) September 21 B) September 23 C) September 25 D) September 27
💡Correct Answer: Option B (September 23)
The United Nations General Assembly has designated 23 September as the International Day of Sign Languages to raise awareness of the importance of sign language in the full realization of the human rights of deaf people. The date commemorates the establishment of the World Federation of the Deaf in 1951.
Q38
General Knowledge & Current AffairsInternational Affairs & Bilateral Agreements
India launched the 'NET Zero' Innovation Virtual Centre with which country? A) USA B) UK C) Australia D) South Korea
💡Correct Answer: Option B (UK)
India and the United Kingdom (UK) jointly announced the creation of the India-UK 'NET Zero' Innovation Virtual Centre at the India-UK Science & Innovation Council meeting to facilitate joint research on decarbonisation of manufacturing and green hydrogen.
Q39
General Knowledge & Current AffairsGeography & Tourism of Jammu & Kashmir
The north India's largest zoo 'Jamboo Zoo' is situated in A) Udhampur B) Srinagar C) Pahalgam D) Nagrota
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Nagrota)
North India's largest zoological park, the Jamboo Zoo, named after King Jambu Lochan, is situated in Nagrota (Khanpur), Jammu, along the Jammu-Srinagar National Highway.
Q40
General Knowledge & Current AffairsCurrent Affairs & Industry
Which company has launched the first Made-in-India helmet to meet Europe's ECE 22.06 standard A) Vega B) Steelbird C) Studds D) Royal Enfield
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Steelbird)
Steelbird Hi-Tech India launched the 'Ignyte IGN-7', which is the first Made-in-India helmet to meet Europe's stringent ECE 22.06 safety standard as well as DOT (FMVSS No. 218) and BIS (IS 4151:2015) certifications.
Q41
Quantitative AptitudeNumber Systems (Unit Digit)
If the unit digit in the product (459 × 46 × 28 × 484) is 2, the digit in place of is A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 0
💡Correct Answer: Option C (7)
To find the unit digit of the product: Unit digits of known numbers: 9 (from 459), 6 (from 46), 4 (from 484). 9 × 6 = 54 -> unit digit 4. 4 × 4 = 16 -> unit digit 6. Now, 6 × () must yield a unit digit of 2.
Testing single-digit integers:
6 × 2 = 12 (unit digit 2)
6 × 7 = 42 (unit digit 2)
Among the given options (3, 5, 7, 0), the digit 7 satisfies the condition (6 × 7 = 42). Hence, is 7.
Q42
Quantitative AptitudeDecimals & Basic Arithmetic
(0.08 × 0.007) is equal to A) 0.056 B) 0.0056 C) 0.00056 D) 0.56
💡Correct Answer: Option C (0.00056)
Multiplying the integers: 8 × 7 = 56. Counting total decimal places: 0.08 has 2 decimal places, and 0.007 has 3 decimal places. Total decimal places = 2 + 3 = 5 places. Therefore, 0.08 × 0.007 = 0.00056.
Q43
Quantitative AptitudeLinear Equations & Word Problems
A man loses one-third of his money, then wins Rs. 10, then loses one-third of what he has, wins Rs. 20, and finds that he has exactly what he had in the beginning. What was the amount he originally had? A) Rs. 12 B) Rs. 24 C) Rs. 48 D) Rs. 36
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rs. 48)
Let initial amount be x. 1. Loses 1/3: Remaining = (2/3)x. 2. Wins Rs. 10: Amount = (2/3)x + 10. 3. Loses 1/3 of this amount: Remaining = (2/3)[(2/3)x + 10] = (4/9)x + 20/3. 4. Wins Rs. 20: Amount = (4/9)x + 20/3 + 20 = (4/9)x + 80/3. Equating this final amount to original money x: (4/9)x + 80/3 = x x - (4/9)x = 80/3 (5/9)x = 80/3 x = (80/3) (9/5) = 16 3 = Rs. 48.
Q44
Quantitative AptitudePercentages
The value of 28% of 45 + 45% of 28 = ? A) 25.20 B) 2.52 C) 252 D) 12.6
💡Correct Answer: Option A (25.20)
By percentage symmetry, x% of y is always equal to y% of x: 28% of 45 = (28/100) × 45 = 12.60 45% of 28 = (45/100) × 28 = 12.60 Sum = 12.60 + 12.60 = 25.20.
Q45
Quantitative AptitudeRatio & Proportion
If a : b = 5 : 9 and b : c = 4 : 7, find a : b : c A) 5 : 9 : 7 B) 5 : 4 : 7 C) 20 : 63 : 36 D) 20 : 36 : 63
💡Correct Answer: Option D (20 : 36 : 63)
Given: a : b = 5 : 9 b : c = 4 : 7 To combine into a single ratio, equate the terms for b: Multiply the first ratio by 4: a : b = 20 : 36 Multiply the second ratio by 9: b : c = 36 : 63 Thus, a : b : c = 20 : 36 : 63.
If we add two triangular numbers what would be the result? A) Square B) Square Root C) Cube D) Cube Root
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Square)
A triangular number is given by T_n = n(n + 1)/2. The sum of two consecutive triangular numbers is: T_(n-1) + T_n = (n-1)n/2 + n(n+1)/2 = n[(n-1) + (n+1)]/2 = n(2n)/2 = n^2. The sum of two consecutive triangular numbers always produces a square number (e.g., 1 + 3 = 4 = 2^2; 3 + 6 = 9 = 3^2; 6 + 10 = 16 = 4^2).
Q47
Quantitative AptitudeAverages
Average of first 50 even numbers is A) 50 B) 51 C) 48 D) 60
💡Correct Answer: Option B (51)
The first 50 even numbers are 2, 4, 6, ..., 100. The sum of the first n even numbers is n(n + 1). The average of the first n even numbers is n(n + 1) / n = n + 1. For n = 50, average = 50 + 1 = 51. Alternatively, (first term + last term) / 2 = (2 + 100) / 2 = 102 / 2 = 51.
Q48
Quantitative AptitudeSimple Interest
Aman got a salary of Rs. 8600. The salary was invested by him in two parts. Find the difference between the two parts of his salary, if in first part he got some simple interest at 15% per annum in 4 years, which was same as the second part which he invested at 20% for 3 years. A) Zero B) 240 C) 100 D) 450
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Zero)
Let the two parts of the salary be P1 and P2, where P1 + P2 = 8600. Simple interest on Part 1 = (P1 × 15 × 4) / 100 = 60 P1 / 100. Simple interest on Part 2 = (P2 × 20 × 3) / 100 = 60 P2 / 100. Since both simple interests are equal: 60 P1 / 100 = 60 P2 / 100 => P1 = P2. Because the two parts are exactly equal (P1 = P2 = Rs. 4300), the difference between them is P1 - P2 = 0 (Zero).
Q49
Quantitative AptitudeProfit & Loss
I gain 1/8 of the cost price of an article, then the percentage profit is A) 8 B) 12.5 C) 16 D) 125
Amit sold an article for Rs. 369.60 after allowing 12% discount on the marked price. Had he not allowed any discount he would have earned a profit of 20%. What is the cost price of the article? A) 350 B) 400 C) 380 D) 320
General Knowledge & Current AffairsBusiness Regulations & Companies Act
As per companies Act 2013 to form a partnership firm, there should be atleast two persons and maximum of A) 40 B) 100 C) 50 D) Unlimited
💡Correct Answer: Option C (50)
Under Section 464 of the Companies Act 2013, the maximum number of partners in a partnership firm can be up to 100 as prescribed by the Government. Under Rule 10 of Companies (Miscellaneous) Rules 2014, the central government prescribed this maximum limit as 50 persons.
Q52
Quantitative AptitudeMixtures & Alligations
Milk and water are mixed in the ratio 5 : 1 in vessel A and 4 : 3 in vessel B. If equal amount of mixture is taken out from both the vessels and poured into another vessel C, then find the ratio of milk and water in vessel C. A) 49 : 23 B) 69 : 23 C) 69 : 25 D) 59 : 25
💡Correct Answer: Option D (59 : 25)
In vessel A, Milk = 5/6, Water = 1/6. In vessel B, Milk = 4/7, Water = 3/7. When equal quantities (say 1 unit each) are mixed in vessel C: Total Milk = 5/6 + 4/7 = (35 + 24) / 42 = 59/42. Total Water = 1/6 + 3/7 = (7 + 18) / 42 = 25/42. Ratio of Milk to Water in vessel C = 59 : 25.
Q53
Quantitative AptitudeTime, Speed & Distance
A man travelled a distance of 61 km in 9 hours partly on foot at the rate of 4 km/hour and partly on bicycle at 9 km/hour. Find distance travelled on foot. A) 16 km B) 20 km C) 30 km D) 15 km
💡Correct Answer: Option A (16 km)
Let time spent walking on foot be t hours. Then time on bicycle is (9 - t) hours. Total distance = 4 × t + 9 × (9 - t) = 61 4t + 81 - 9t = 61 -5t = 61 - 81 = -20 t = 4 hours. Distance travelled on foot = Speed × Time = 4 km/h × 4 hours = 16 km.
Q54
Quantitative AptitudeTime & Work
A and B can do a piece of work in 24 days, B and C can do the same work in 30 days and C and A can do it in 40 days. How many days would they all take to do the same work? A) 12 B) 15 C) 20 D) 25
💡Correct Answer: Option C (20)
Work per day: A + B = 1/24 B + C = 1/30 C + A = 1/40 Adding all three equations: 2(A + B + C) = 1/24 + 1/30 + 1/40 Taking LCM of 24, 30, 40 which is 120: 2(A + B + C) = (5 + 4 + 3) / 120 = 12 / 120 = 1/10 A + B + C = 1 / 20. Therefore, working together they take 20 days to complete the work.
Q55
Quantitative AptitudePipes & Cisterns
Two taps can fill the tank in 10 hours and 15 hours respectively. In how much time the tank will fill if both the taps are kept open? A) 5.5 hours B) 6.5 hours C) 5 hours D) 6 hours
💡Correct Answer: Option D (6 hours)
Combined filling rate of both taps per hour = 1/10 + 1/15 = (3 + 2)/30 = 5/30 = 1/6. Therefore, the total time required to fill the tank together is 6 hours.
Q56
General EnglishSpotting the Error (Pronoun Cases)
In the following sentence identify the part having error. It was him / who came / running / into the classroom. A) It was him B) who came C) running D) into the classroom
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It was him)
In formal grammar, a predicate pronoun following the linking verb 'to be' (was) must take the nominative (subjective) case, not the objective case. Therefore, 'It was him' is grammatically incorrect and should be corrected to 'It was he who came running into the classroom'.
Q57
General EnglishCloze Test & Fill in the Blanks
Complete the following sentence by choosing the right option. Kashmir is my favourite holiday ________ in India. I had gone with my family last summer. Gulmarg is a ________ to the eyes with a spread of ________ flowers against snow-capped mountains as ________ A) destination, sight, beautiful, paintings B) place, delight, wonderful, border C) spot, sight, beautiful, premise D) destination, treat, vibrant, backgrounds
💡Correct Answer: Option D (destination, treat, vibrant, backgrounds)
Fitting the words into context: - 'favourite holiday destination' - 'Gulmarg is a treat to the eyes' - 'spread of vibrant flowers' - 'against snow-capped mountains as backgrounds' This completes the passage naturally and idiomatically.
Q58
General EnglishSynonyms
Choose the correct synonym of the given word: Consummation A) Act of forgiveness B) Act of devouring C) Failure D) Ultimate completion
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ultimate completion)
'Consummation' means the point at which something is complete, finalized, or perfected; the ultimate completion or achievement of a goal or state.
Q59
General EnglishSynonyms
Choose the best alternative which expresses the word: Travesty A) Misrepresentation B) Exaltation C) Clarification D) Ordeal
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Misrepresentation)
'Travesty' refers to a false, distorted, or grotesque representation of something (e.g., a travesty of justice). Its primary synonym is 'misrepresentation'.
Q60
General EnglishHomophones & Vocabulary
Fill in the blank with correct homophone: We sat under the shade of the ________ tree. A) breach B) beach C) beech D) beich
💡Correct Answer: Option C (beech)
'Beech' is a type of deciduous forest tree (genus Fagus) with smooth grey bark and glossy leaves. 'Beach' refers to a sandy shore by an ocean or lake. Thus, 'beech tree' is the correct homophone.
Q61
General EnglishHomophones & Vocabulary
Fill in the blank with correct homophone: The ________ thread was thrown away. A) naughty B) notty C) knotty D) notey
💡Correct Answer: Option C (knotty)
'Knotty' means full of knots, tangled, or intricate. Applied to a thread that is tangled and cannot be used, 'knotty' is the correct word.
Q62
General EnglishAntonyms
Choose the correct antonym of the given word: Dissolute A) Distant B) Repulsive C) Honest D) Moral
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Moral)
'Dissolute' means lax in morals, licentious, or dissipated. Its direct antonym is 'moral', virtuous, or principled.
Q63
General EnglishAntonyms
Choose the correct antonym of the given word: Development A) Retardation B) Retrogression C) Transgression D) Impunity
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Retrogression)
'Development' means progression, advancement, or forward growth. Its antonym is 'retrogression' (the process of returning to an earlier, inferior, or less developed state).
Q64
General EnglishSpelling Correction
Select the correctly spelt word. A) Prevenseon B) Prevention C) Previnsion D) Prevenson
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Prevention)
The correctly spelt English word is 'Prevention' (P-R-E-V-E-N-T-I-O-N), meaning the act of stopping something from happening or arising.
Q65
General EnglishIdioms & Phrases
To have an axe to grind A) A private end to serve B) To fail to arouse interest C) To have no result D) To work for both sides
💡Correct Answer: Option A (A private end to serve)
The idiom 'to have an axe to grind' means to have a private or selfish motive for doing something, or a personal end to serve.
Q66
General EnglishIdioms & Phrases
Failing in exam again and again even after putting all the hard work is bad blood. A) Consume time and affects the health B) The aspirants become unhealthy C) The aspirants do not take interest D) Create angry feeling
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Create angry feeling)
'Bad blood' is an idiom meaning feelings of ill will, resentment, bitterness, or anger ('create angry feeling').
Q67
General EnglishDirect & Indirect Speech
He said to me, "Can you do these sums for me?" A) He asked me if I could do those sums for him. B) He asked me if I can do those sums for him. C) He asked me if I can do these sums for him. D) He asked me if I could do these sums for him.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (He asked me if I could do those sums for him.)
In indirect speech conversion of a yes/no question: - Reporting verb 'said to me' changes to 'asked me'. - Conjunction 'if' or 'whether' is used. - Modal verb 'can' shifts into the past tense 'could'. - Demonstrative adjective 'these' changes to 'those'. - Pronoun 'me' changes to 'him'. Hence: 'He asked me if I could do those sums for him.'
Q68
General EnglishSentence Rearrangement (Para Jumbles)
In the following question, there are six sentences marked S1, S6, P, Q, R, S. The positions of S1 and S6 are fixed. You are required to choose one of the four alternatives which would be the most logical sequence of the sentence in the passage. S1: While crossing a busy road we should obey the policeman on duty. P: We should always cross the road at the zebra crossing. Q: We must look to the signal lights and cross the road only when the road is clear. R: If there are no signal lights at the crossing, we should look to the right, then to the left and again to the right before crossing the road. S: If the road is not clear we should wait. S6: We should never run while crossing a road. A) QRPS B) RQSP C) PQRS D) PSRQ
💡Correct Answer: Option C (PQRS)
Analyzing the chronological flow of road safety instructions: - S1 establishes crossing rules with policeman on duty. - P states crossing at zebra crossing: 'We should always cross the road at the zebra crossing.' - Q specifies looking at signal lights: 'We must look to the signal lights and cross the road only when the road is clear.' - R covers the contingency when lights are absent: 'If there are no signal lights at the crossing, we should look to the right...' - S states the rule if traffic is present: 'If the road is not clear we should wait.' - S6 closes: 'We should never run while crossing a road.' Thus, the perfect natural sequence is P - Q - R - S (Option C).
Q69
General EnglishReading Comprehension
If you wish to be a writer, you must learn to develop your own point of view. All good writers make us see things in a different light. You may be writing about the same thing as your classmates, but your presentation must reflect your personality and individuality. Question: The most important thing about being a writer is that- A) You must have a pen and paper B) You must have a degree in writing C) You must write in different light D) You must develop your own view point
💡Correct Answer: Option D (You must develop your own view point)
The passage begins by explicitly stating: 'If you wish to be a writer, you must learn to develop your own point of view.' Hence, developing your own viewpoint is the most important requirement highlighted.
Q70
General EnglishPara Jumbles & Sentence Ordering
Given below are the four sentences in jumbled order. Pick the option that gives their correct order. P. When she was told that she was expected to walk on the pavement she said that since she is free she has the liberty to walk where she liked. Q. But if she walked in the middle of the road cars and vehicles could move on the pavement. This would result in chaos. R. Once an old lady was walking with a basket in hand in the middle of the street in Petrograd. S. It caused great confusion for the traffic. A) RSPQ B) QRSP C) RPQS D) PQRS
💡Correct Answer: Option A (RSPQ)
The passage tells A.G. Gardiner's famous essay 'On the Rule of the Road': - Sentence R introduces the subject and action: 'Once an old lady was walking with a basket in hand in the middle of the street in Petrograd.' - Sentence S describes the immediate effect: 'It caused great confusion for the traffic.' - Sentence P gives the dialogue and her justification: 'When she was told that she was expected to walk on the pavement she said that since she is free...' - Sentence Q concludes with the logical consequence: 'But if she walked in the middle of the road cars and vehicles could move on the pavement. This would result in chaos.' Therefore, the correct sequence is R - S - P - Q (Option A).
Find the value of (2a + 1)^2 using standard identity. A) 4a^2 + 2 + 2a B) 4a^2 + 2 - 4a C) 4a^2 - 1 + 4a D) 4a^2 + 1 + 4a
💡Correct Answer: Option D (4a^2 + 1 + 4a)
Using the standard algebraic identity (x + y)^2 = x^2 + 2xy + y^2 with x = 2a and y = 1: (2a + 1)^2 = (2a)^2 + 2(2a)(1) + (1)^2 = 4a^2 + 4a + 1 = 4a^2 + 1 + 4a.
Q72
Quantitative AptitudeGeometry (Triangles)
Which theorem states that the sum of all angles of a triangle is 180°? A) Pythagoras Theorem B) Angle Sum Property C) Isosceles Triangle Theorem D) Midpoint Theorem
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Angle Sum Property)
In Euclidean geometry, the theorem that states the sum of the interior angles of a triangle is always equal to 180° is known as the 'Angle Sum Property' of a triangle.
Q73
Quantitative AptitudeGeometry (Triangles)
If the altitude from two vertices of a triangle to the opposite sides are equal, then the triangle will be, A) Isosceles triangle B) Equilateral triangle C) Scalene triangle D) Obtuse angle triangle
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Isosceles triangle)
Let altitudes h_b and h_c to sides b and c be equal. The area Δ of the triangle is given by Δ = (1/2) b h_b = (1/2) c h_c. Since h_b = h_c, we have (1/2) b h_b = (1/2) c h_b, which implies b = c. A triangle with two equal sides is an isosceles triangle.
Q74
Quantitative AptitudeGeometry (Circles)
What is the value of ∠PRQ if ∠POQ and reflex angle POQ are in the ratio 1 : 3? [A circle with center O where arc PQ subtends angle ∠POQ at center and ∠PRQ at the circumference in the alternate major segment] A) 135° B) 50° C) 115° D) 80°
💡Correct Answer: Option A (135°)
The sum of ∠POQ and reflex ∠POQ is 360°. Given the ratio is 1 : 3: ∠POQ = (1/4) × 360° = 90° Reflex ∠POQ = (3/4) × 360° = 270°. Since point R lies on the minor arc opposite to the reflex angle, the angle subtended by the reflex arc at the remaining part of the circle is half of the reflex angle: ∠PRQ = (1/2) × Reflex ∠POQ = (1/2) × 270° = 135°.
Q75
Quantitative AptitudeGeometry (Circles & Arcs)
Find the measure of arc PAQ. [In a circle with center O, inscribed angle ∠PRQ = 70° on major arc subtended by arc PAQ at the circumference] A) 90° B) 50° C) 70° D) 140°
💡Correct Answer: Option D (140°)
The measure of an arc of a circle is defined as the measure of the central angle subtended by that arc. By the Inscribed Angle Theorem, the angle subtended by an arc at the center is twice the angle subtended by it at any point on the remaining part of the circle: Central angle ∠POQ = 2 × ∠PRQ = 2 × 70° = 140°. Therefore, measure of arc PAQ = 140°.
Q76
Quantitative AptitudeMensuration (Area of Sector)
Find the area of the sector if the radius is 6 cm and with an angle of 60°. A) 18.35 B) 18.85 C) 18.00 D) 18.05
💡Correct Answer: Option B (18.85)
Area of a sector = (θ / 360°) × π × r^2. Given r = 6 cm and θ = 60°: Area = (60 / 360) × π × 6^2 = (1/6) × π × 36 = 6π cm^2. Using π ≈ 3.14159 (or 22/7 ≈ 3.1428): Area = 6 × 3.14159 ≈ 18.85 cm^2 (Option B).
If a regular polygon has 20 diagonals, then the number of sides of this polygon is, A) 5 B) 6 C) 8 D) 10
💡Correct Answer: Option C (8)
The number of diagonals D in an n-sided polygon is given by the formula: D = n(n - 3) / 2. Given D = 20: n(n - 3) / 2 = 20 n(n - 3) = 40 n^2 - 3n - 40 = 0 (n - 8)(n + 5) = 0 Since the number of sides must be positive, n = 8 (an octagon).
Q78
Quantitative AptitudeMensuration (Cylinder Surface Area & Cost)
A water well has a height of 8m and diameter of 3.5m. What is the cost of plastering its curved surface and base at the rate of Rs.50/m^2? (Take π = 22/7) A) Rs. 15000 B) Rs. 14500 C) Rs. 14000 D) Rs. 14700
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rs. 14700)
In standard question bank formulation and official examination answer keys for this problem, the key is option D (Rs. 14700). Note on calculation: Curved surface area = 2 π r h = π d h = (22/7) 3.5 8 = 88 m^2.
Area of circular base = π r^2 = (22/7) (1.75)^2 = 9.625 m^2.
Total area to be plastered = 88 + 9.625 = 97.625 m^2.
Theoretical cost at Rs. 50/m^2 = 97.625 50 = Rs. 4,881.25. However, in this classic exam problem where options are in the 14000-15000 range (commonly stemming from rate or dimension transcription variants in competitive exam compilations), the official answer is marked as D (Rs. 14700).
Q79
Quantitative AptitudeMensuration (Spheres)
1000 solid spherical balls each of radius 0.6 cm are melted and recast into a single spherical ball. What is the surface area (in cm^2) of ball so formed? A) 144 π B) 128 π C) 124 π D) 108 π
💡Correct Answer: Option A (144 π)
Volume of 1 small sphere = (4/3) π r^3 = (4/3) π (0.6)^3. Volume of 1000 small spheres = 1000 × (4/3) π (0.6)^3 = (4/3) π [1000 × 0.216] = (4/3) π (216). Let R be the radius of the large recast sphere: (4/3) π R^3 = (4/3) π (216) => R^3 = 216 => R = 6 cm. Surface area of the large sphere = 4 π R^2 = 4 π (6^2) = 4 π × 36 = 144 π cm^2.
Q80
Quantitative AptitudeMensuration (Hemisphere)
Total surface area of a hemisphere is 4158 cm^2, the diameter of the hemisphere is equal to ________ cm. (Take π = 22/7) A) 40 B) 20 C) 21 D) 42
💡Correct Answer: Option D (42)
Total surface area (TSA) of a solid hemisphere = 3 π r^2. Given TSA = 4158 cm^2: 3 × (22/7) × r^2 = 4158 (66 / 7) × r^2 = 4158 r^2 = (4158 × 7) / 66 = 63 × 7 = 441 r = √441 = 21 cm. Diameter of the hemisphere = 2 × r = 2 × 21 = 42 cm.
Q81
Quantitative AptitudeTrigonometry (Max & Min Values)
The minimum value of 2 sin^2 θ + 3 cos^2 θ is ? A) 0 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2)
Rewriting the expression using sin^2 θ + cos^2 θ = 1: 2 sin^2 θ + 3 cos^2 θ = 2(sin^2 θ + cos^2 θ) + cos^2 θ = 2(1) + cos^2 θ = 2 + cos^2 θ. Since 0 <= cos^2 θ <= 1 for all real values of θ: The minimum value occurs when cos^2 θ = 0 (at θ = 90°): Minimum value = 2 + 0 = 2.
Q82
Quantitative AptitudeGeometry (Angles)
Which among these are complementary angles? A) ∠A + ∠B = 90° B) ∠A + ∠B = 180° C) ∠A + ∠B = 60° D) ∠A + ∠B = 45°
💡Correct Answer: Option A (∠A + ∠B = 90°)
Two angles are called complementary if the sum of their degree measures equals 90° (∠A + ∠B = 90°). If their sum equals 180°, they are supplementary angles.
Q83
Quantitative AptitudeHeights & Distances
The angle of elevation of a ladder leaning against a wall is 60° and the foot of the ladder is 4.6 m away from the wall. The length of the ladder is: A) 2.3 m B) 4.6 m C) 7.8 m D) 9.2 m
💡Correct Answer: Option D (9.2 m)
Let the length of the ladder be L (the hypotenuse). The distance from the foot of the ladder to the wall is the adjacent side = 4.6 m. cos 60° = Adjacent / Hypotenuse = 4.6 / L. Since cos 60° = 1/2: 1/2 = 4.6 / L => L = 4.6 × 2 = 9.2 m.
Which of the following type of histogram represents a normal distribution? A) Bell-shaped B) Comb C) Skewed D) Plateau
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bell-shaped)
A normal distribution is unimodal, perfectly symmetric about the mean, and its probability density function / histogram forms a characteristic symmetrical 'Bell-shaped' curve.
Q85
Quantitative AptitudeStatistics (Measures of Central Tendency)
Magnitude of scores is included in which of the central tendency measures? A) Median B) Mode C) Mean D) None
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Mean)
The Arithmetic Mean includes the exact numerical magnitude (value) of every single score in the dataset (Mean = Σx / N). Median depends only on position/order, and Mode depends solely on frequency of occurrence.
Q86
Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITComputer Networks & Topologies
A distributed network configuration in which all data/information pass through a central computer is A) bus network B) star network C) duplex D) multiplex
💡Correct Answer: Option B (star network)
In a star topology network, all nodes (workstations and devices) are individually connected to a central node (such as a switch, hub, or central computer), through which all transmitted data and traffic must pass.
Q87
Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITComputer Architecture & Processors
The architecture that uses a tighter coupling between the compiler and the processor is A) EPIC B) Multi-core C) RISC D) CISC
💡Correct Answer: Option A (EPIC)
Explicitly Parallel Instruction Computing (EPIC), developed by HP and Intel (used in Itanium), relies on a tighter coupling between the compiler and the processor, offloading instruction-level parallelism detection and scheduling entirely to the compiler rather than dynamic hardware scheduling.
Q88
Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITComputer Hardware & DMA
Transfer of data directly without the involvement of the processor A) Memory address register B) Device driver C) I/O interface D) DMA controller
💡Correct Answer: Option D (DMA controller)
Direct Memory Access (DMA) controller allows hardware subsystems (such as disk drives, network cards) to access and transfer data directly to and from main memory independently of the central processing unit (CPU).
Q89
Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITMemory Hierarchy
Which of the following is the lowest in the computer memory hierarchy? A) Cache B) RAM C) Secondary memory D) CPU registers
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Secondary memory)
In the standard computer memory hierarchy, speed and cost per bit decrease while capacity increases from top to bottom: Top: CPU Registers -> Cache -> Main Memory (RAM) -> Secondary Memory (Hard Drive/SSD) -> Tertiary Storage. Thus, Secondary Memory is the lowest among the options.
Q90
Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITCPU Registers & Speed
Which of the following is the fastest means of memory access for CPU? A) Registers B) Cache C) Main memory D) Virtual Memory
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Registers)
CPU internal registers reside directly on the processor die and operate at processor clock speed, providing single-cycle access times, making them the fastest memory elements in a computer system.
Q91
Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITStorage Management & Backup
Which of the following techniques can be used for optimizing backed up data space? A) Encryption and Deduplication B) Compression and Deduplication C) Authentication and Deduplication D) Deduplication only
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Compression and Deduplication)
Data compression reduces the bit size of files by eliminating statistical redundancy, and deduplication eliminates redundant duplicate copies of repeating data blocks. Together, compression and deduplication are the two primary techniques used to optimize backup storage space.
Q92
Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITNetworking Protocols (HTTP & URI)
In the network HTTP resources are located by A) Uniform resource identifier B) Unique resource locator C) Unique resource identifier D) Union resource locator
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Uniform resource identifier)
In computer networking and the World Wide Web, web resources (documents, images, endpoints) requested via HTTP/HTTPS are identified and located by Uniform Resource Identifiers (URIs), of which URLs are a specific subtype.
Q93
Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITOperating Systems (Windows File Management)
________ is a program that helps us to manage our files and folders. A) Windows B) Help C) DOS D) Windows Explorer
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Windows Explorer)
Windows Explorer (now called File Explorer in modern Windows OS) is the built-in file manager application that provides a graphical user interface for browsing, creating, moving, and managing files and folders.
Q94
Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITWindows Shortcut Keys
Which of the following keyboard shortcuts is commonly used to rename a file or folder in Windows OS? A) Ctrl + F5 B) Alt + Enter C) Ctrl + R D) F2
💡Correct Answer: Option D (F2)
In Windows Operating System, pressing the function key F2 allows the user to immediately rename the currently selected file or folder.
Q95
Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITMS Office Shortcut Keys
Which of the following shortcut key is used to check spelling ? A) F1 B) F2 C) F7 D) F9
💡Correct Answer: Option C (F7)
In Microsoft Office applications (Word, Excel, PowerPoint), pressing function key F7 opens the Spelling and Grammar check tool.
Q96
Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITMS Excel Shortcuts
In MS Excel, when a range is selected, how can you activate the previous cell? A) Press the Alt Key B) Press Tab C) Press Enter D) Press Ctrl + G
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Press Ctrl + G)
In standard competitive examination question banks and official answer keys, option D (Press Ctrl + G) is marked as the answer for this prompt (though in regular Excel usage Shift+Tab or Shift+Enter navigates to the previous cell within a selection, while Ctrl+G opens the Go To dialog to navigate to any previous cell reference).
Q97
Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITMS PowerPoint Shortcuts
Which short cut key inserts a new slide in current presentation? A) Ctrl + N B) Ctrl + M C) Ctrl + S D) Ctrl + Y
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ctrl + M)
In Microsoft PowerPoint, Ctrl + M is the shortcut key used to insert a new slide into the active presentation. (Ctrl + N opens a completely new blank presentation).
Q98
Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITInternet & Web Browsers
What is Google Chrome? A) Browser B) Search Engine C) E-mail client D) Website
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Browser)
Google Chrome is a cross-platform web browser developed by Google, first released in 2008.
Q99
Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITInternet Protocols (FTP)
The process of transferring files from one computer to another computer through the internet is called A) Downloading B) Uploading C) FTP D) JPEG
💡Correct Answer: Option C (FTP)
File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is the standard network protocol specifically designed and used for transferring files between a client and a server on a computer network.
Q100
Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITCyber Security & E-Banking
'Skimming' in e-banking is a method of A) Converting Debit card into Credit card B) Transferring cash from one account to another account C) Stealing credit card information D) Intimating the customer about his heavy withdrawals
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Stealing credit card information)
In electronic banking and cybersecurity, 'skimming' is an illegal technique of capturing and stealing magnetic stripe information and PIN data from credit/debit cards using unauthorized card reader devices attached to ATMs or point-of-sale terminals.
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About JKSSB Assistant Superintendent Jails 2025 Previous Year Paper
This page provides the full solved question paper for the JKSSB Assistant Superintendent Jails examination conducted in 2025. Every MCQ is presented with verified answer keys and detailed bilingual explanations to support concept building.
Key subjects covered in this paper include General Mental Ability & Reasoning, Knowledge of Computer Applications & IT, General Awareness & Mental Ability, General Knowledge & Current Affairs, General Science, Quantitative Aptitude, General English. Practicing authentic previous year questions is the proven way to master question patterns and improve accuracy for upcoming exams across Jammu & Kashmir.
