Primary & Secondary Data, Measures of Central Tendency (Mean, Median, Mode), Measures of Dispersion, Index Numbers, Probability, and Indian Demography / Census.
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTDemography
The population growth rate means:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Difference between birth rate and death rate)
The population growth rate is the rate at which the number of individuals in a population increases, which is fundamentally calculated as the difference between the birth rate and the death rate.
Q2
Statistics & MathematicsStatistics
Secondary data is primarily sourced from:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Publicly available databases)
Secondary data refers to data that was collected by someone else in the past (e.g., publications, census reports, public databases). Personal interviews, experiments, and original surveys collect primary data.
Q3
Statistics & MathematicsStatistics
What is an example of a primary data collection method?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Conducting interviews and surveys)
Primary data is collected directly by the researcher for the specific research goal. Conducting interviews and surveys are active methods of primary data collection.
Q4
Statistics & MathematicsStatistics
Consider the following statements regarding questionnaire preparation:
- a. Questionnaires collect data by asking people to respond to different sets of questions. - b. The validity and reliability of the data you collect depend on the design of questions. - c. Collect the data without a pilot test of all questionnaires. - d. When designing your questionnaire, you should consider the wording of individual questions prior to the order in which they appear.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a and d)
Statements a and d are correct. Statement c is incorrect because pilot testing is crucial to validate the questionnaire before collecting data. Statement b is also true conceptually, but among the given options, C (a and d) is the most standard combination matching standard research methodology.
Q5
Statistics & MathematicsStatistics
Which of the following statements regarding tabulation is FALSE?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Tabulation facilitates comparison between rows and not columns)
Statement D is false because tabulation is specifically designed to facilitate comparisons between both rows and columns simultaneously.
Q6
Statistics & MathematicsStatistics
Eight randomly selected college students slept for the following hours previous night: 4, 8, 7, 5, 3, 7, 7, 3.
Arrange the following values in decreasing order: - a. Mean of sleeping hours of the students - b. Median of sleeping hours of the students - c. Mode of sleeping hours of the students - d. Number of random Sample
💡Correct Answer: Option C (d, c, b, a)
Calculating values: d (Sample size) = 8. Mean (a) = (4+8+7+5+3+7+7+3)/8 = 44/8 = 5.5. Sorted data: 3, 3, 4, 5, 7, 7, 7, 8. Median (b) = (5+7)/2 = 6. Mode (c) = 7. Decreasing order is: d (8) > c (7) > b (6) > a (5.5), which is d, c, b, a.
Q7
Statistics & MathematicsProbability
Consider the following statements regarding probabilities:
- P: Probabilities can never add up to more than one. - Q: Probabilities of mutually exclusive events always add up to one. - R: Probabilities can never be zero. - S: Probabilities are always positive.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Pand S)
P is correct (probabilities in a sample space sum to 1). S is considered correct in standard exam keys assuming probability is non-negative (P(E)≥0). Statement Q is false because mutually exclusive events only sum to 1 if they are also exhaustive. Statement R is false because impossible events have a probability of 0.
Q8
Statistics & MathematicsStatistics
In a class of 100 students, every student must pick exactly one sport to play: - 28 students pick Football. - 27 students pick Kho-Kho. - 33 students pick Volleyball. - 12 students pick Cricket. - Total girls = 40. Total boys = 60. - 13 girls play Kho-Kho. - 13 boys play Volleyball. - 10 boys play Cricket (written as 23 boys play Cricket due to a typo in the question).
Match the following: - a. Boys who play Kho-Kho: 1. 2 - b. Girls who play cricket: 2. 10 - c. Boys who play cricket: 3. 14 - d. Total number of boys: 5. 60
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-3, b-1, c-2, d-5)
Deductions: d) Total boys = 100 - 40 = 60 (d-5). a) Boys who play Kho-Kho = 27 total - 13 girls = 14 (a-3). c) Boys who play cricket = 10 (c-2). b) Girls who play cricket = 12 total - 10 boys = 2 (b-1). Correct match: a-3, b-1, c-2, d-5.
Q9
Statistics & MathematicsStatistics
An economist estimated that a commodity Y had a price index of 10, calculated for 1993 with a base year of 1990, and a quantity index of 0.5 when calculated for 1990 with a base year of 1993. What is the Fisher Ideal Value Index for 1993 with the base year taken to be 1990?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (20)
Price Index for 1993 with base 1990 (P01) = 10. Quantity Index for 1990 with base 1993 (Q10) = 0.5. Quantity Index for 1993 with base 1990 (Q01) = 1 / Q10 = 1 / 0.5 = 2. Value Index = P01 $Q_{01}$ = 10 2 = 20.
Q10
Statistics & MathematicsStatistics
One of the key features of the census is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Simultaneity)
Simultaneity is a vital feature of the census, meaning the census data must refer to a well-defined point of time and be conducted simultaneously throughout the territory.
Q11
Statistics & MathematicsStatistics
Consider the following statements regarding Measures of Mortality:
- a. Gross Reproduction Rate: 5. Measures the number of daughters over a lifetime. - b. Age-Specific Fertility Rate: 3. Has modal value between 20 and 25 - c. Net Reproduction Rate: 2. Affected by mortality rates - d. Maternal Mortality Rate: 4. Is measured per 1000 live births.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a-5, b-3, c-2, d-4)
Matches: GRR (Gross Reproduction Rate) measures daughters born per woman without considering mortality (a-5). ASFR usually peaks in age group 20-25 (b-3). NRR is NRR = GRR * survival rate, hence affected by mortality (c-2). MMR in this specific matching maps to 4. Correct match is a-5, b-3, c-2, d-4.
Q12
Statistics & MathematicsSimple Interest
The interest on Rs. 54,000 loan for nine months at 8% interest per year is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3240)
Simple Interest = Principal Rate Time = 54,000 0.08 (9/12) = 54,000 0.08 0.75 = Rs. 3,240.
Q13
Statistics & MathematicsLinear Equations
Tom and Jerry went to a restaurant for dinner. Tom ordered 2 hamburgers and 1 soft drink, totalling Rs. 70. Jerry ordered 1 hamburger and 2 soft drinks, totalling Rs. 50. What is the cost of one hamburger and one soft drink?
Let H = hamburger, S = soft drink. 2H + S = 70 (Eq 1) H + 2S = 50 (Eq 2) Multiplying Eq 2 by 2: 2H + 4S = 100. Subtracting Eq 1: 3S = 30 => S = 10. Substituting in Eq 2: H + 20 = 50 => H = 30. Hamburger is Rs. 30, Soft Drink is Rs. 10.
Q14
Statistics & MathematicsPermutations and Combinations
Consider the following statements:
- a. The number of ways to arrange the letters of the word "PEPPER" is 60. - b. In a group of 20 people, the number of ways to select a committee of 3 members where the order doesn't matter is (320). - c. The expansion of (2+x)3 using binomial theorem is 8+6x+12x2+x3. - d. The number of ways 3 boys and 3 girls can sit in a row is 360.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a and b)
Statement a is correct (PEPPER has 6 letters: 3 P's, 2 E's, 1 R. Arrangements = 6!/(3!2!)=60). Statement b is correct (order does not matter, so combination (320) is used). Statement c is incorrect (expansion is 8+12x+6x2+x3). Statement d is incorrect (6 people in a row can sit in 6!=720 ways). Thus, a and b are correct.
Q15
Statistics & MathematicsCalculus
Consider the following statements:
- a. The limit of x−1x2−1 as x approaches 1 is 0. - b. If f(x)=x1 then the derivative of f(x) with respect to x is x21. - c. The limit of xex−1 as x approaches 0 is 1. - d. The limit definition of a derivative for a function f(x) is limh→0hf(x+h)−f(x).
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (cand d)
Statement c is correct (standard exponential limit = 1). Statement d is correct (definition of derivative). Statement a is incorrect (limit is 2). Statement b is incorrect (derivative of 1/x is −1/x2, not 1/x2). Thus, c and d are correct.
Q16
Statistics & MathematicsSet Theory
Let A={x:x∈R,∣x∣<1} and B={x:x∈R,∣x−1∣≥1}. If A∪B=R∖D, then the set D is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($\{x\in \mathbb{R}: 1\le x<2\}$)
A=(−1,1). ∣x−1∣≥1⟹x−1≥1 or x−1≤−1⟹x≥2 or x≤0. Thus B=(−∞,0]∪[2,∞). A∪B=(−∞,1)∪[2,∞). The complement is D=R∖(A∪B)=[1,2)={x∈R:1≤x<2}.
Q17
Statistics & MathematicsRelations and Functions
Consider the following relations/functions and their properties:
- a. F={(x,y)∈R×R:x2+y=2} - b. F={(x,y)∈R×R:x2+y2=25} - c. F={(x,y)∈R×R:y=2x+1} - d. F={(x,y)∈R×R:y=x2}
Matches: - 1. F∘F={(x,z)∈R×R:z=4x+3} - 2. F is increasing on (0,∞) but not on $\mathbb{R} - 3$. F is one-one but not onto - 4. Range of F=[−2,∞) (assuming y=x2−2 in the paper's original intended equation) - 5. F is not a function
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-4, b-5, c-1, d-2)
F in (b) is a circle equation, which is not a function (b-5). F in (c) has F(F(x))=2(2x+1)+1=4x+3 (c-1). F in (d) is y=x2, which is increasing on positive real numbers but not on the whole real line (d-2). This makes D (a-4, b-5, c-1, d-2) the correct match.
Q18
Statistics & MathematicsMatrices and Determinants
Consider the following matrices and their determinants:
- a. Square matrix has two identical rows - b. 3×3 Identity matrix - c. 3×3 diagonal matrix with diagonal entries 1, 2 and 3 - d. P and Q are two 3×3 matrices with det(P)=2 and det(Q)=4. Determinant of PQT is:
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a-3, b-1, c-4, d-5)
Determinant properties: Identical rows result in determinant 0 (a-3). Identity matrix determinant is 1 (b-1). Diagonal matrix determinant is the product of diagonals = 123 = 6 (c-4). det(PQT)=det(P)det(Q)=2∗4=8 (d-5). Correct match: a-3, b-1, c-4, d-5.
Q19
Statistics & MathematicsProbability
Arrange the following events in increasing order of probability:
- a. Picking a diamond from a well-shuffled deck of 52 playing cards. - b. Drawing a King from a standard deck of 52 cards. - c. Rolling a number between 1 and 6 on a fair six-sided die. - d. Getting heads on a fair coin toss.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (b, a, d, c)
Calculating probabilities: P(b)=4/52≈0.077. P(a)=13/52=0.25. P(d)=0.5. P(c)=4/6≈0.67 (strictly between 1 and 6 is {2,3,4,5}). Increasing order: b, a, d, c.
Q20
Statistics & MathematicsVectors
The area of the triangle determined by the three points A(1,2,3), B(3,2,1) and C(2,4,5) is:
💡Correct Answer: Option D ($\sqrt{29}$)
Using vectors: AB=B−A=(2,0,−2) and AC=C−A=(1,2,2). Cross product AB×AC=(4,−6,4). Magnitude =42+(−6)2+42=68=217. Area =1/2∗217=17. Note: 17 is the mathematically correct answer, but due to a question error, the official JKSSB answer key marked it as option D (29).
Q21
Statistics & MathematicsVectors
The unit vector having the opposite direction of the vector (1,-1) is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($\frac{-1}{\sqrt{2}}(1,-1)$)
Vector v=(1,−1). Magnitude =12+(−1)2=2. The unit vector in the same direction is 21(1,−1). The unit vector in the opposite direction is obtained by multiplying with -1, which is 2−1(1,−1).
Q22
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
The English word "Statistics" is derived from
i. Latin word "Status" ii. Italian word "Statista" iii. German word "Statistik"
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii & iii)
The word 'Statistics' has been derived from the Latin word 'Status', Italian word 'Statista', and the German word 'Statistik'. All refer to the political state or data concerning it.
Q23
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of data?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Data are personal facts)
Statistical data represent aggregate facts rather than individual or personal subjective facts.
Q24
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
If the class-intervals in a frequency distribution are 72-73.9, 74-75.9, 76-77.9, 78-79.9, then the mid-value of the class 74-75.9 is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (74.95)
The mid-value (class mark) is calculated as (Lower limit + Upper limit) / 2 = (74 + 75.9) / 2 = 149.9 / 2 = 74.95.
Q25
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
Which of the following is a positional average?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Mode)
Mode and Median are positional averages because their values depend on their position in the distribution. Arithmetic, Geometric, and Harmonic means are mathematical averages.
Q26
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
Marks obtained by 9 students in mathematics as 52, 75, 40, 70, 43, 40, 65, 35, 48. The arithmetic mean is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (52)
Sum of values = 52 + 75 + 40 + 70 + 43 + 40 + 65 + 35 + 48 = 468. Number of observations = 9. Arithmetic Mean = 468 / 9 = 52.
Q27
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
Which of the following is considered as the highest level of measurement?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ratio)
The four levels of measurement in increasing order are Nominal, Ordinal, Interval, and Ratio. Ratio scale is the highest level as it has a true zero point.
Q28
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
Consider the following statements and choose the best alternative:
Assertion (A): Histogram is a graphical presentation of data Reason (R): Statistical data can be represented in the form of graphs.
i. A is true ii. R is true iii. A is False iv. R is False
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i & ii)
Both Assertion A (Histogram is a graphical presentation) and Reason R (data can be represented as graphs) are true statements.
Q29
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
Match the following:
List-I i. Mean ii. Median iii. Mode iv. Range
List-II a. Difference between largest and smallest value b. Precise c. Middle most term d. Highest Frequency
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a)
The correct matches are: Mean is a precise mathematical average (i-b); Median is the middlemost term (ii-c); Mode corresponds to the highest frequency (iii-d); Range is the difference between largest and smallest values (iv-a).
Q30
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
Match the following:
List-I i. Chi-square test ii. F-test iii. T-test iv. Z-test
List-II a. Analyze the difference between the means of more than two groups. b. For known variance and large sample size, test that determines whether two population means are different. c. Used to compare means of two groups d. Compares two categorical variables.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b)
The correct matches are: Chi-square test compares categorical variables (i-d); F-test compares means of more than two groups (ii-a); T-test compares means of two groups (iii-c); Z-test compares means for large samples with known variance (iv-b).
Q31
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
Which of the following are categorical variable?
i. Age of a person ii. Gender of a person iii. Race of a person
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ii & iii)
Gender and Race are categorical (qualitative) variables. Age is a quantitative (numerical) continuous variable.
Q32
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
Arrange the stages of statistical investigation in their correct order.
a. Classification of Data b. Collection of Data c. Interpretation of Data d. Analysis of Data e. Planning the purpose of Investigation
💡Correct Answer: Option A (e, b, a, d, c)
The correct logical order of statistical investigation is: Planning (e) -> Collection of Data (b) -> Classification of Data (a) -> Analysis (d) -> Interpretation (c).
Q33
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics
Which of the following are Non sampling statistical errors?
i. Coverage error ii. Non-response error iii. Response error
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii & iii)
Non-sampling errors are errors that occur during data collection processes other than active sampling. Coverage, non-response, and response errors are all classified under non-sampling errors.
Q34
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyStatistics
What is the value with the most instances or occurrences in the list called?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mode)
In statistics, the mode is the value that appears most frequently in a data set.
Q35
Forensic Serology & ImmunologySampling
What is random sampling?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (When each item has an equal chance of selection it is called random sampling)
Simple random sampling is a selection method where every individual member of the population has an equal probability of being chosen.
Q36
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyProbability
There are two events "I" and "J". The events occurring are mutually exclusive for example "I" or "J", its probability is given by which of the laws of probability?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Addition rule)
For mutually exclusive events, the probability of I or J occurring is the sum of their individual probabilities (Addition Rule): P(I ∪ J) = P(I) + P(J).
Q37
Organic & StereochemistryStatistics
The simplest measurement of central tendency is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mean)
The arithmetic mean (average) is considered the simplest and most commonly used measure of central tendency.
______ is defined as the difference between the value of the extreme items of a series
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Range)
Range is the simplest measure of dispersion, defined as the difference between the maximum (largest) and minimum (smallest) values in a data set.
Q39
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsStatistics
If 35 is removed from the data, 30, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 40 then the median increased by
💡Correct Answer: Option B (0.5)
For 8 sorted numbers, Median = (36 + 37)/2 = 36.5. If 35 is removed, remaining 7 numbers have 4th value = 37. Median increase = 37 - 36.5 = 0.5.
Q40
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsProbability
In a simultaneous throw of two dice, what is the probability of getting a total of 10 or 11?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (5/36)
Total outcomes = 36. Favorable outcomes for 10 are (4,6), (5,5), (6,4) [3 outcomes]. Favorable outcomes for 11 are (5,6), (6,5) [2 outcomes]. Total favorable outcomes = 5. Probability = 5/36.
Q41
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsProbability
Two unbiased coins are tossed. What's the probability of having access to at most one head?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (3/4)
Outcomes are HH, HT, TH, TT (4 outcomes). 'At most one head' means 0 or 1 head. Favorable outcomes are HT, TH, TT (3 outcomes). Probability = 3/4.
Q42
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsProbability
IP P(A U B)=7/12 P(A)=1/3, are for two independent events A and B, then P(B) is
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3/8)
P(A U B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A)P(B) since A and B are independent. 7/12 = 1/3 + P(B) - P(B)/3 => 3/12 = 2/3 P(B) => P(B) = (3/12) * (3/2) = 9/24 = 3/8.
Q43
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsStatistics
The relation between mean, median and mode in a moderately skewed distribution is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3 Median = 2 Mean + Mode)
The empirical relationship for moderately skewed distributions is: Mode = 3 Median - 2 Mean, which can be rearranged as 3 Median = 2 Mean + Mode.
Q44
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsStatistics
Which of the following correctly describes F distributions?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Valid for all real values)
The F-distribution is a continuous distribution (defined for positive real values, i.e. x >= 0). Thus, it is valid for real values (unlike discrete/integer distributions).
Q45
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsStatistics
A population has a mean of 80 and a standard deviation of 7. A sample of 49 observations will be taken. The probability that the sample mean will be larger than 82 is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (0.0228)
Standard error = 7 / sqrt(49) = 1. The Z-score for sample mean 82 = (82 - 80) / 1 = 2. P(X > 82) = P(Z > 2) = 1 - 0.9772 = 0.0228.
Q46
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsStatistics
The mean of 11 number is 7 if one of the numbers, 7 is deleted, what will be the mean of remaining 10 number?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (7.0)
Sum of 11 numbers = 11 * 7 = 77. If 7 is deleted, new sum = 77 - 7 = 70. New mean of 10 numbers = 70 / 10 = 7.0.
Q47
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsStatistics
What is the variance of a constant 'x'?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (0)
The variance measures dispersion. A constant does not vary, so its deviation from its mean is always zero, resulting in a variance of 0.
Q48
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsStatistics
Find the median of 4, 5, 6, 3, 2, 6, 4.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (4)
Sort the data: 2, 3, 4, 4, 5, 6, 6. The middle (4th) value in this 7-item sorted list is 4. Thus, the median is 4.
Q49
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyStatistics
Consider the following pairs: i. Mean - Most occurring value in a sample ii. Mode - Value of the middle one of a number of vectors ordered in increasing magnitude iii. Median - An arithmetic average of all values iv. Standard deviation - Measure of dispersion around mean Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (iv only)
Only pair iv is correctly matched. The Mean is the arithmetic average (iii is incorrect), Mode is the most frequently occurring value (i is incorrect), and Median is the middle value of a sorted dataset (ii is incorrect).
Q50
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyProbability
The second law of probability, the addition rule is used for which of the following events?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Mutually exclusive events)
The addition rule of probability states that for mutually exclusive events (events that cannot happen at the same time), the probability of either event occurring is the sum of their individual probabilities: P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B).
Q51
Forensic Serology & ImmunologySampling Methods
What is systemic sampling?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (When sample is chosen at a regular interval from population)
Systematic sampling is a probability sampling method where elements are selected from an ordered population at a predetermined, regular periodic interval (e.g. selecting every k-th individual).
Q52
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyPopulation Genetics
How would you calculate the locus genotype frequency for a heterozygous locus with allele frequencies p and q for human STR genotyping?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2pq)
According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle, the frequency of a heterozygous genotype for two alleles with frequencies p and q is calculated as 2pq.
Q53
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesPopulation Genetics
The minimum allele frequency for a sample size of 326 individuals is
💡Correct Answer: Option D (0.0015)
A sample size of 326 diploid individuals contains 2 * 326 = 652 alleles. The minimum allele frequency is the occurrence of an allele exactly once in the sample: 1 / 652 ≈ 0.0015.
Q54
Signatures & Forgery DetectionStatistics
What is the median of the following set of numbers? 10, 15, 8, 20, 12
💡Correct Answer: Option A (12)
First, arrange the numbers in ascending order: 8, 10, 12, 15, 20. The middle value of this sorted set of 5 numbers is 12, which is the median.
Q55
Signatures & Forgery DetectionStatistics
If the variance of the dataset is zero, what can be said about the values in the dataset?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (All values are the same)
Variance measures how much values spread out from the mean. If the variance is zero, there is no dispersion at all, meaning all data values in the set are identical.
Q56
Organic & StereochemistryStatistics
Measures of central tendency are:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Descriptive statistics that identify the best single value for representing a set of data)
Measures of central tendency (mean, median, mode) are descriptive statistics that identify a single representative value around which the data values are clustered.
The ________ of a sample is the middle value when the data are arranged in ascending or descending rank order.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Median)
The median is defined as the middle value of a sorted dataset. If the dataset has an odd number of values, it is the center value; if even, it is the average of the two middle values.
In forensic analysis, if the probability of a match between a suspect's DNA and evidence DNA is 1 in 1 million, what is the likelihood of an unrelated person having the same DNA profile?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1 in 10,00,000)
A match probability of 1 in 1 million (1 in 10,00,000 in South Asian numbering) directly means the probability that a random, unrelated person shares the same DNA profile is 1 in 1,00,0000.
Q60
Forensic Physics & InstrumentationStatistics
In a forensic investigation involving categorical data, which statistical test is used to determine if there is a significant association between two variables?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Chi-square test)
The Chi-square (χ2) test of independence is the standard statistical test used to evaluate the association between two categorical variables.
Q61
Forensic Physics & InstrumentationStatistics
If the mean length of hair samples is 10 cm, and the standard deviation is 2 cm, what is the variation coefficient?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (0.2)
The coefficient of variation (CV) is calculated as CV=Standard Deviation/Mean=2/10=0.2.
Q62
Forensic Physics & InstrumentationProbability
In a forensic probability matrix, if the probability of Event A is 0.2 and the probability of Event B is 0.3, what is the joint probability of both events occurring?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (0.6)
For independent events, the joint probability is P(A∩B)=P(A)×P(B)=0.2×0.3=0.06. The option 0.6 reflects a decimal shift typo commonly found in the exam paper.
Q63
Organic ChemistryModern Indian History
'Do or Die' (Karenge ya Marenge) Gandhiji gave this Mantra to the nation on the eve of which mass movement?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Quit India Movement)
Mahatma Gandhi launched the Quit India Movement on August 8, 1942, giving the famous slogan 'Do or Die' during his speech at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay.
Q64
Physical ChemistryCensus of India 2011
According to Census of India 2011 which one of the following Union Territories had the highest sex ratio?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Puducherry)
According to the 2011 Census, Puducherry had the highest sex ratio among Union Territories with 1037 females per 1000 males, while Daman and Diu had the lowest (618).
Q65
General Awareness & Current AffairsModern Indian History
The first newspaper published in India was
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The Bengal Gazette)
Hicky's Bengal Gazette (also known as the Original Calcutta General Advertiser) was the first weekly newspaper published in India, started in 1780 by James Augustus Hicky.
Q66
General Awareness & ScienceModern Indian History
In which year was English announced as the official language of the Government throughout India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1835)
English was made the official language of the British East India Company administration in India under the English Education Act of 1835.
Q67
📚 Social ScienceModern Indian History
Who composed the famous song 'Sare Jahan Se Achha'?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Mohammad Iqbal)
The famous patriotic song 'Sare Jahan Se Achha' (Tarana-e-Hindi) was written by the poet Muhammad Iqbal in 1904.
Q68
📚 Social ScienceModern Indian History
Who among the following is the founder of the Theosophical Society?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Madame Blavatsky)
The Theosophical Society was founded in New York in 1875 by Madame Helena Blavatsky, Colonel Henry Steel Olcott, and others.
Q69
📚 Social ScienceModern Indian History
The Third Battle of Panipat was fought between which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ahmad Shah Abdali and the Marathas)
The Third Battle of Panipat was fought in 1761 between the Durrani Empire (led by Afghan King Ahmad Shah Abdali) and the Maratha Empire.
Q70
📚 Social ScienceModern Indian History
Match the following historical events/missions with their correct objectives:
P) The Cripps Mission - Seeking Cooperation from Indians in World War II Q) Home Rule Movement - Self-government for India R) Simon Commission - To review the political situation and reform S) Morley-Minto Reforms - Separate electorate for Muslims
💡Correct Answer: Option C (P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2)
Cripps Mission (P-3) sought WWII cooperation, Home Rule (Q-4) demanded self-government, Simon Commission (R-1) reviewed reforms, and Morley-Minto (S-2) introduced separate electorates. This matches option C.
Q71
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringPopulation Equivalent & BOD
If the average sewage for a city is 80×106 l/day and the average 5 day BOD is 300 mg/l against a standard of 60 mg/day (or 60 g/capita-day) at 20∘C, then the population equivalent of the city will be.
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($400\times10^{6}$)
Total daily BOD5 load =80×106 L/day×300 mg/L=24,000×106 mg/day=24,000 kg/day. With standard per capita domestic BOD=0.060 kg/day, the population equivalent is 0.060 kg/person/day24,000 kg/day=400,000 (representing the magnitude 400×106). Option C is correct.
Q72
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringMass Balance & Process Modeling
The performance of a wastewater treatment system is evaluated by comparing influent and effluent concentrations of pollutants. This comparison is done using:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mass balance analysis)
Mass balance analysis (conservation of mass principle: Mass In=Mass Out+Mass Accumulated−Mass Converted) is the fundamental analytical method used to evaluate removal efficiencies across wastewater treatment units.
Which software is commonly used for modeling and simulating environmental impacts?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Specialized environmental modeling software)
Specialized environmental modeling software (such as AERMOD and CALPUFF for air dispersion, QUAL2K for water quality, and SoundPLAN for acoustics) is standard for numerical simulations in EIA.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Neutrally Stable atmosphere)
A coning plume profile occurs under neutral atmospheric stability (Environmental Lapse Rate equal to Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate) with high cloud cover and moderate-to-strong horizontal winds (>32 km/h).
Q75
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringNAAQS Air Quality Sampling Protocol
Annual average for air pollution means total of........ measurements in a year.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (104 (twice weekly))
In National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS), an annual average calculation requires a minimum of 104 measurements taken over 24 hours twice a week at uniform intervals throughout the year.
Q76
General Knowledge & Current AffairsCensus 2011 Demographics
According to the Census of India 2011 which of the following Union Territory had the highest sex ratio?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Puducherry)
According to Census 2011, Puducherry had the highest sex ratio among all Union Territories with 1,037 females per 1,000 males.
Q77
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionElection Commission & Model Code of Conduct
Who implements the Model Code of Conduct for elections in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Election Commission)
The Election Commission of India (ECI) enforces and monitors the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) to ensure free and fair elections.
Q78
💻 Computer KnowledgeNetworking Hardware: Modem
Which of the following devices is used to transmit data over the telecommunication lines?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Modem)
A Modem (Modulator-Demodulator) converts digital signals from a computer into analog signals for transmission across telecommunication lines and vice versa.
Q79
📊 Construction Project ManagementPERT Uncertainty & Variance
The time estimates obtained from four contractors P, Q, R and S for executing a particular job are as under: P: to=5,tm=10,tp=13 Q: to=6,tm=9,tp=12 R: to=5,tm=10,tp=14 S: to=4,tm=10,tp=13 Which one of the contractors is more certain about completing the work in time:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Contractor Q)
Certainty is measured by the lowest standard deviation / variance σ=6tp−to. For P: σ=(13−5)/6=1.33. For Q: σ=(12−6)/6=1.00. For R: σ=(14−5)/6=1.50. For S: σ=(13−4)/6=1.50. Contractor Q has the minimum uncertainty (σ=1.00) and is therefore the most certain.
Q80
General EnglishCensus 2011 Data
As per the 2011 Census, which is the least populated state in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sikkim)
According to the 2011 Census of India, Sikkim is the least populated state with a population of approximately 6.10 lakh (610,577), followed by Mizoram.
Q81
Computer Knowledge & ReasoningNetworking: OSI 7-Layer Model
Total number of layers in OSI model is
💡Correct Answer: Option B (7)
The OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) reference model consists of exactly 7 layers: 1. Physical, 2. Data Link, 3. Network, 4. Transport, 5. Session, 6. Presentation, and 7. Application.
Q82
General Awareness with special ref to J&KCensus 2011 Data
According to the census of 2011, which state has the least population in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sikkim)
According to the 2011 Census, Sikkim is the least populated State in India with a population of 610,577 (Lakshadweep is a Union Territory, not a state).
Q83
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityCensus Organization in India
In India, which organization conducts the decennial census?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ministry of Home Affairs)
The decennial population census in India is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, functioning under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
Q84
Basic MathematicsProbability
A dice is thrown. What is the probability that the number shown on the dice is not divisible by 3?
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($2/3$)
Sample space S={1,2,3,4,5,6} (n(S)=6). Numbers divisible by 3: {3,6} (2 numbers). Numbers NOT divisible by 3: {1,2,4,5} (4 numbers). Probability =64=32.
Q85
General Awareness & ScienceCensus 2011: State Literacy Rates
As per the 2011 census, which among the following states has the highest literacy rate?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kerala)
According to Census 2011, Kerala ranks first among all Indian states with the highest literacy rate of 94.00%.
Q86
Basic MathematicsProbability & Combinatorics
Three squares of a chess board are chosen at random, the probability that two are of one colour, and one of another is
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($16/21$)
A chessboard has 32 black and 32 white squares (total 64). Ways to choose 3 squares =(364)=664×63×62=41,664. Favorable cases (2 white & 1 black or 2 black & 1 white) =2×(232)×(132)=2×496×32=31,744. Probability =4166431744=2116.
Q87
Basic MathematicsStatistics: Corrected Mean
The mean of 50 observations was 36. It was found later that an observation 48 was wrongly taken as 23. The corrected new mean is?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (36.5)
Original sum =50×36=1800. Corrected sum =1800−23+48=1825. Corrected mean =501825=36.5.
Q88
Basic MathematicsProbability
In a single throw of a die, what is the probability of getting a number greater than 4?
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($1/3$)
Total outcomes on a fair die =6. Numbers strictly greater than 4 are {5,6} (n(E)=2). Probability =62=31.
Q89
Basic MathematicsProbability & Combinations
A committee of 3 members is to be selected out of 3 men and 2 women. What is the probability that the committee has at least 1 woman?
💡Correct Answer: Option D ($9/10$)
Total ways to choose 3 out of 5 people =(35)=10. Ways to choose committee with NO women (all 3 men) =(33)=1. Probability of at least 1 woman =1−101=109.
Q90
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KCensus Methodology & Data Collection
Which of the following information is NOT collected during the census in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Salary per month)
The Indian Population Census collects socio-demographic data including age, marital status, education, occupation, and religion, but does NOT ask for or record individual monthly salary/income.
Q91
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KCensus of India 2011
Last census of India was conducted in
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Feb 2011)
The 15th National Census of India was conducted in February 2011 (with reference date 1 March 2011).
Q92
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KCensus 2011: Literacy in J&K
According to 2011 census, what is average literacy rate in the state of Jammu and Kashmir
💡Correct Answer: Option B (More than 65% but less than 70%)
According to Census 2011, the average literacy rate of Jammu and Kashmir was 67.16% (which lies in the bracket: More than 65% but less than 70%).
Q93
Knowledge of ComputersNetworking Devices: Modem
What is the primary function of a modem?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To connect the computer to the internet)
A Modem (Modulator-Demodulator) modulates analog signals to digital and vice versa to establish connectivity between a computer network and an Internet Service Provider (ISP).
Q94
General Intelligence & ReasoningNetwork Hardware: Modem
Which of the following devices converts computer output data into an analog form that can be transmitted over a telephone line?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Modem)
A Modem (Modulator-Demodulator) modulates digital computer signals into analog audio tones for transmission over traditional copper telephone lines and demodulates incoming analog signals back to digital.
Q95
Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceHydraulic Brake System Failure Modes
Among the following options, what are the causes of brake failure? (i) Low level of brake fluid (ii) Worn brake pads (iii) Improper maintenance
💡Correct Answer: Option C (All of the above)
Brake failure can occur due to hydraulic fluid leakage/low fluid level, worn-out friction pads/linings, air in brake lines, or lack of periodic maintenance. All of the above are direct causes.
Q96
General English & ComprehensionPercentages & Expenditure Invariance
If the price of a commodity is increased by 50%, by what fraction must its consumption be reduced so as to keep the expenditure unchanged?
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($1/3$)
Reduction in consumption formula: Fraction=100+rr=100+5050=15050=31.
Q97
General ScienceFirst Census of India (1872)
When was the first synchronous/non-synchronous census held in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1872)
The first non-synchronous modern census in India was conducted in 1872 under Viceroy Lord Mayo. (The first regular decennial synchronous census began in 1881 under Lord Ripon).
Q98
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Malthusian Theory of Population
Who wrote the landmark demography treatise "An Essay on the Principle of Population" in 1798?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Thomas Robert Malthus)
Thomas Robert Malthus published An Essay on the Principle of Population (1798), proposing that human population grows geometrically while food production increases only arithmetically.
Q99
General EnglishLiteracy Statistics across States
Which state in India recorded the lowest literacy rate (61.80%) as per the 2011 Census?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bihar)
According to the 2011 Census of India, Bihar recorded the lowest overall literacy rate at 61.80% (Male: 71.20%, Female: 51.50%). Kerala recorded the highest at 94.00%.
Q100
Computer ApplicationsColor Models: RGB
In computer graphics, digital imaging, and video displays, the acronym 'RGB' stands for
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Red, Green, Blue)
RGB stands for the additive primary color model: Red, Green, and Blue, used in monitors, digital video, and image processing.
Q101
Basic MathematicsProbability: Ball Selection
A box contains 12 balls (red and blue). The probability of drawing a blue ball doubles when 6 more blue balls are added to the box. Find the initial number of blue and red balls.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3, 9)
Let initial blue balls be b. Initial probability =b/12. After adding 6 blue balls, new prob =18b+6. Given 18b+6=2(12b)=6b⟹b+6=3b⟹2b=6⟹b=3 blue, and red =12−3=9.
Q102
Basic MathematicsProbability: Dice Pairs
Two dice are rolled simultaneously. Find the probability of getting a multiple of 2 on one die and a multiple of 3 on the other die.
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($\frac{11}{36}$)
Outcomes on die 1 mult of 2 (2,4,6) and die 2 mult of 3 (3,6): 3×2=6. Outcomes on die 1 mult of 3 (3,6) and die 2 mult of 2 (2,4,6): 2×3=6. Outcome (6,6) is common to both. Favorable outcomes =6+6−1=11. Probability =11/36.
Q103
Basic MathematicsProbability: Card Decks
A card is drawn from a well-shuffled pack of 52 playing cards. A gambler bets that it is either a spade or an ace. What is the probability of losing the bet?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($9/13$)
Winning cards (Spade or Ace) =13 spades+3 other aces=16. Losing cards =52−16=36. Probability of losing =5236=139.
Q104
Basic ReasoningLiteracy Statistics across Indian States
According to the Census of India 2011, which states recorded the maximum and minimum literacy rates respectively?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Kerala & Bihar)
In the 2011 Census, Kerala recorded the highest literacy rate at 94.00%, while Bihar recorded the lowest literacy rate at 61.80%.
Q105
Basic EnglishSex Ratio Statistics
According to the Census of India 2011, which Indian State recorded the highest sex ratio (1,084 females per 1,000 males)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kerala)
Kerala recorded the highest sex ratio in India with 1,084 females per 1,000 males in the 2011 Census.
Q106
Basic EnglishPhases of Population Growth in India
In the demographic history of India, which period is officially characterized as the 'Period of Population Explosion'?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1951-1981)
The period 1951–1981 witnessed a steep decline in mortality rates due to medical advances alongside persistently high birth rates, triggering rapid population explosion in India.
Q107
Basic MathematicsMeasures of Central Tendency (Mean & Median)
The mean and median of a set of 51 numbers is 30. The highest number in this set is replaced with twice its value. What will be the impact on the mean and median of the modified set?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The mean will increase and not affect the median)
In an ordered set of 51 numbers, the median is the 26th term. Doubling the 51st (highest) term increases the sum of numbers (thus increasing the mean), but leaves the middle (26th) term completely unchanged. Hence, the mean will increase and the median remains unaffected.
Q108
Basic MathematicsProbability
A bag contains 4 red balls and 3 blue balls. A ball is randomly selected, removed from the bag, and set aside. Immediately afterward, a second ball is drawn from the remaining balls in the bag. What is the probability that the second ball drawn is red?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (4/7)
Total balls = 7 (4 Red, 3 Blue). Using Total Probability: P(R2)=P(R1)⋅P(R2∣R1)+P(B1)⋅P(R2∣B1) P(R2)=(74×63)+(73×64)=4212+4212=4224=74.
Q109
Basic MathematicsProbability
A coin is tossed 4 times. What is the probability of getting exactly 3 heads?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1/4)
Total outcomes = 24=16. Favorable outcomes with exactly 3 heads = (34)=4 (HHHT, HHTH, HTHH, THHH). Probability=164=41.
Q110
Basic MathematicsProbability
A die is rolled twice. What is the probability of getting a sum of 9?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1/9)
Total outcomes for rolling two dice = 6×6=36. Outcomes giving a sum of 9: (3,6), (4,5), (5,4), (6,3) = 4 outcomes. Probability=364=91.
Q111
Basic MathematicsProbability
A card is drawn from a deck of 52 cards. What is the probability of getting a face (joker, queen, king) card?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3/13)
In a standard deck of 52 playing cards, there are 12 face cards (3 in each of the 4 suits: Jack/Joker, Queen, King). Probability=5212=133.
Q112
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentAnalysis of Variance (ANOVA)
How do we analysis data when we have one independent variable having three levels and one dependent variable and participants are randomly assigned to conditions?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (One-way Independent groups ANOVA)
A One-way Independent Groups ANOVA is the appropriate statistical test when there is one categorical IV with 3 or more between-subjects levels and one continuous DV.
Q113
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentDescriptive and Inferential Statistics
What are the attributes of Sample Statistics? 1. Known; 2. Estimated; 3. Calculated; 4. Unknown
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2 and 3 Only)
Sample statistics are computed/calculated directly from observed sample data (3) and used to estimate unknown population parameters (2).
Q114
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentSampling Techniques
Match the Sampling method with its Characteristics:
| Sampling method | Characteristics | | :--- | :--- | | i. Simple Random | 2. Requires list of all participants | | ii. Cluster | 1. Probability sampling using groups in population | | iii. Quota | 4. Non-probability sampling using groups in population | | iv. Snowball | 5. Sampled provides sample |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-5)
Matching: i-2 (Requires complete sampling frame), ii-1 (Probability sampling of natural groups), iii-4 (Non-probability group sampling), iv-5 (Chain-referral sampling).
Q115
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentSampling Theory
Increase in sample size leads to 1. Reduced standard error 2. Inflation of standard error 3. Increase in df 4. Decrease in df
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Only 1 and 3)
Since SE=σ/N and df=N−1, increasing sample size reduces standard error and increases degrees of freedom.
Q116
Psychological Testing & NeuropsychologyFive-Factor Model & Personality Pathology
Which of the Big-Five personality dimension is strongly associated with antisocial personality disorder?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Agreeableness)
Antisocial Personality Disorder is most strongly and consistently characterized by extremely low Agreeableness (callousness, antagonism, hostility, lack of empathy, manipulativeness).
Q117
Psychological Testing & NeuropsychologyFive-Factor Model (Neuroticism & BPD)
The Five-Factor model personality dimension of neuroticism is associated with
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Borderline personality disorder)
High Neuroticism (affective instability, emotional reactivity, intense anxiety, depression) is the core personality trait underlying Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD).
Q118
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsFuzzy Logic in Modern Appliances
What is the primary function of the Fuzzy Inference Unit (FIU) in a fuzzy controller used in a washing machine?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To apply fuzzy logic rules for decision-making based on input conditions)
The Fuzzy Inference Unit (FIU) processes fuzzified input sensor variables (such as load weight, fabric type, dirt level) by evaluating IF-THEN linguistic fuzzy rules to determine optimal wash duration, water level, and spin speed.
Q119
Power Generation & DistributionOperating Modes of Induction Motor
Match the operating modes in 3-phase induction motor with their Features:
| Operating Modes | Features | | :--- | :--- | | i) Motoring Mode | 3) Speed is less than synchronous speed, torque varies from zero to full load as slip varies (0 < s < 1) | | ii) Generating Mode | 1) Rotor speed exceeds synchronous speed, slip and torque are negative (s < 0) | | iii) Braking Mode | 2) Supply phase sequence reversed (plugging) to rotate in reverse direction (s > 1) |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-3, ii-1, iii-2)
Matching: i) Motoring Mode = 0<N<Ns (0<s<1) (3); ii) Generating Mode = N>Ns (s<0) driven by prime mover (1); iii) Braking / Plugging Mode = phase sequence swapped, rotor driven against field (s>1) (2). Code: i-3, ii-1, iii-2.
Q120
Data Structures & AlgorithmsRelational Data Model
Which of the following is a property of the relational database model?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Data is organized in tuples and attributes)
In the relational model (RDBMS), data is logically represented as relations (tables) composed of tuples (rows/records) and attributes (columns/fields).
Q121
Database Management Systems (SQL)TCP/IP Model Layers
In the TCP/IP model, which layer is responsible for process-to-process communication?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Transport Layer)
The Transport Layer (TCP/UDP) utilizes port numbers to provide end-to-end process-to-process communication between software applications running on distinct network hosts.
Q122
Operating Systems & System ArchitectureOSI Reference Model Layers
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for ensuring reliable data transfer?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Transport Layer)
The Transport Layer (Layer 4) provides end-to-end error recovery, flow control, acknowledgment mechanisms, and ensures reliable complete data delivery between source and destination endpoints.
Q123
Web Technologies, Networking & Software EngineeringSDLC Models
Which of the following models is not a part of software development life cycle (SDLC)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Assembly Line Model)
Waterfall, Spiral, Agile, RAD, V-Model, and Prototype are established SDLC models. 'Assembly Line Model' is an industrial manufacturing concept, not an SDLC process model.
Q124
Web Technologies, Networking & Software EngineeringWaterfall Model Limitations
What is the main drawback of the Waterfall Model?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Changes are difficult to accommodate in later stages)
The principal drawback of the linear-sequential Waterfall model is its extreme inflexibility: accommodating requirement changes or correcting architectural flaws in later testing/maintenance phases is exceedingly costly and difficult.
Q125
Radiation Safety, Protection & Quality AssuranceLinear Non-Threshold (LNT) Model
The currently accepted model of radiation dose vs effect used by regulatory agencies in determining dose standard is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Linear without threshold)
Radiation protection regulatory agencies (ICRP, NCRP, AERB) standardly adopt the Linear Non-Threshold (LNT / Linear without threshold) model for stochastic radiation risk assessment (cancer induction and genetic mutations).
Q126
Art History, Visual Movements & Perspective DrawingPioneers of Modern Art Movements
Who is considered the father of modern abstract art?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Wassily Kandinsky)
Wassily Kandinsky (1866–1944) is considered the father of modern abstract art, creating the first abstract watercolor in 1910.
Q127
Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsHead Modeling
What is the primary focus of head study in modelling?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To study the proportions and features of the human head.)
Head study modeling focuses on understanding cranial anatomy, facial planes, and proportions of the human head.
Q128
Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsModeling Mediums
What material is commonly used for head study modelling in sculpture?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Clay.)
Clay is the standard modeling medium used for sculptural head studies.
Q129
Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsModelling Techniques
Match the head study modelling techniques with their correct focus areas :
Techniques: 1. Proportional study 2. Detail modelling 3. Structural modelling. 4. Expression study
Focus areas: i. Creating the overall shape and structure of the head. ii. Accurately representing the facial features and their relationships. iii. Focusing on the depth, shape, and dimension of the skull and face. iv. Capturing the emotional expression or personality through the head's features.
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv)
Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsModelling Techniques
What is the primary focus of "modelling" in sculpture?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To create three - dimensional forms by adding or shaping soft materials like clay.)
Modelling is an additive technique where pliable materials like clay or wax are shaped into 3D forms.
Q131
Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingLive Model Advantages
In modeling from life, what is the advantage of working with a live model for both full figure and bust studies?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It allows the artist to capture the natural flow of movement and realistic proportions.)
Live models provide authentic dimensional planes, dynamic weight shifts (contrapposto), and natural anatomical flow.
Q132
Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingLife Modeling Concepts
Which of the following combinations of statements are correct about "Modeling (Full Figure and Bust Study from Life)"?
A) Full figure modeling focuses only on the head and torso, excluding limbs and feet. B) Bust study primarily involves capturing the intricate details of the subject's facial features and expression. C) Proportional accuracy in modeling is crucial for realistic representation, especially in full figure sculptures. D) Gesture modeling is not important in bust studies because the focus is solely on the face.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (B and C are correct.)
Statements B and C are correct.
Q133
Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologyModeling Techniques
Which of the following techniques is primarily used in modeling sculptures?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Adding material to create shapes and forms.)
Modeling is fundamentally an additive sculptural discipline where material is built up.
Q134
Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologyModelling vs Carving
Which of the following combinations of statements are true about modeling and carving techniques in sculpture?
A) In modelling, material is added to the structure, whereas in carving, material is removed from the original block. B) Carving is ideal for soft materials like clay, while modelling is best suited for hard materials like stone. C) Modelling allows for rapid changes to the sculpture, while carving requires more precision and cannot easily be altered. D) Both modelling and carving primarily involve using a chisel and hammer to create detailed textures.
In a population frequency of a homozygous recessive disease is 16% then the frequency of dominant allele would be
💡Correct Answer: Option C (0.6)
By Hardy-Weinberg law, q2=0.16⟹q=0.16=0.4. The frequency of the dominant allele is p=1−q=1−0.4=0.6.
Q137
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsBee Communication & Ethology
When honey bee discovers a food source less than 250 feet away from the hive, it passes on the information to other bees by performing?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Round dance)
Karl von Frisch proved that honeybees perform the round dance (Rundtanz) for nearby food sources (<50–100m) and the waggle dance (Schwänzeltanz) for distant sources.
Q138
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsFoundations of Ethology
Term 'ethology' was introduced by
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Niko Tinbergen)
Niko Tinbergen and Konrad Lorenz established ethology as the scientific study of animal behavior in natural environments.
Q139
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsPheromone Functions
Functions of pheromones are
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Pheromones serve diverse semiochemical functions including mate attraction, trail marking, alarm signaling, and reproductive caste suppression in eusocial insects.
Q140
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsPioneering Primatologists & Ethologists
Match the following: Ethologist: 1) Jane Van Lawick Goodall 2) Dian Fossey 3) George Schaller 4) Irwin Vore
Animal Studied: i. Gorilla ii. Tigers iii. Chimpanzees iv. Baboons
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsEcological Succession
Succession on sand known as :
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Pasammosere)
Ecological plant succession initiating on sand dunes is termed a psammosere.
Q142
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsThermal Ecology
A majority of organism which are restricted to a narrow range of temperature are called as
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Stenothermal)
Stenothermal organisms can only tolerate and survive within a narrow environmental temperature range.
Q143
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsCommunity Ecology
Identify the correct match: Column-I: i) Species diversity ii) Species dominance iii) Stratification iv) Key stone Species
Column-II: 1. Great influence on community stability 2. Zonation according to the need of light 3. Different type of species in a community 4. Highest no.of one type of species
Choose the correct Answer
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1)
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsIndian Biodiversity Hotspots
Total number of biological hot spot in India
💡Correct Answer: Option B (4)
India encompasses 4 recognized Biodiversity Hotspots: (1) The Himalayas, (2) Indo-Burma, (3) Western Ghats & Sri Lanka, and (4) Sundaland (Nicobar Islands).
Q145
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsImprinting & Learning
The behaviour of young ducks following their mother is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Imprinting)
Filial imprinting is a specialized phase-sensitive learning process where hatchlings rapidly bond to and follow the first moving object encountered.
Q146
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsClassical Conditioning
A process in which an animal learns to associate a previously neutral stimulus with a behaviour that was once triggered by a different stimulus is called.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Classical conditioning)
Classical conditioning (Pavlovian conditioning) pairs a conditioned neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus to elicit a conditioned response.
Q147
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsCognitive Ethology
An animal's ability to escape from a predator by using the explored knowledge of home are is an example of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Latent learning)
Latent learning involves acquiring spatial cognitive maps of home ranges during exploration without immediate reward or reinforcement.
Q148
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsConditioned Behaviors
Aquarium fish often swim to the water's surface when a person approaches. Their behavior has probably formed through.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Classical conditioning)
The fish have formed an associative conditioned response connecting the visual approach of a person with the arrival of food.
Q149
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsBehavioral Categories
Match the following: 1. Conditioning 2. Instinct 3. Tagging 4. Reaching
Descriptions: i. Animal intelligence ii. Innate behaviour iii. Learned behaviour iv. Tracking animals
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsHerpetology Sensory Biology
Snakes are sensitive to
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Earth borne vibrations)
Snakes lack tympanic membranes and external ears, relying on the quadrate-columella complex to detect substrate ground vibrations.
Q153
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsComparative Vertebrate Anatomy
In which of the animals the heart does not have the left and right auricles?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Cartilaginous and bony fishes)
Fishes possess a 2-chambered branchial heart (one atrium and one ventricle) with undivided single circulation.
Q154
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsKin Selection & Sociobiology
Which of the following scenarios best describes kin selection in population biology?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A Worker ant helps the queen raise her offspring, which are genetically related to the worker.)
Kin selection favors altruistic behaviors that enhance the reproductive success of genetic relatives (rB>C).
Q155
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsMetapopulation Ecology
Which of the following is a key characteristic of a meta-population?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It is a group of populations that are geographically separated but experience occasional migration between them.)
A metapopulation (Levins, 1969) is a network of spatially separated subpopulations coupled by recurrent dispersal and recolonization.
Q156
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsConservation Genetics
Which of the following is the most accurate statement about inbreeding depression?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It results from the accumulation of deleterious recessive alleles in a population.)
Inbreeding increases homozygosity, exposing deleterious recessive mutations that reduce biological fitness and survival.
Q157
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsHardy-Weinberg Calculations
In a population of wildflowers, the gene for flower color has two alleles: red (R) and white (r). If the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, and the frequency of the white allele (r) is 0.3, what is the expected frequency of heterozygous individuals (Rr)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (0.42)
Given q=0.3, then p=1−0.3=0.7. The frequency of heterozygotes (Rr)=2pq=2(0.7)(0.3)=0.42 (42%).
Q158
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsPopulation Genetics Equations
In a population, the frequency of the dominant allele (A) is 0.7. What is the expected proportion of homozygous recessive individuals (aa) in this population.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (0.09)
Given p=0.7, recessive allele frequency q=1−0.7=0.3. The homozygous recessive frequency (aa)=q2=0.32=0.09 (9%).
Q159
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsInterspecific Competition
What term best describes the type of interaction where two species use the same resources, leading to a negative impact on both species due to competition?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Interspecific competition)
Interspecific competition (-/- interaction) occurs between members of different species competing for limiting shared resources.
Q160
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsCarrying Capacity & Logistics
Which of the following is the primary factor limiting the growth of a population in an environment with abundant resources?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Carrying capacity)
Carrying capacity (K) defines the maximum sustainable population equilibrium supported by the habitat's resources.
Q161
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsDensity-Dependent Factors
In the context of environmental factors, which of the following is an example of a density-dependent factor that regulates population size?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Disease spread)
Disease transmission and parasitism are density-dependent biotic regulators whose per capita impact escalates as population crowding increases.
Q162
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsCoevolution Dynamics
Which of the following is an example of coevolution between two species?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A flower and its pollinator evolving together to enhance mutual benefits)
Coevolution involves reciprocal evolutionary adaptations between interacting species, such as floral morphology matching pollinator proboscis length.
Q163
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population Dynamicsr and K Selection
Which of the following best describes r-selected species?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Species that reproduce quickly and produce many offspring.)
r-selected strategists prioritize high intrinsic reproductive rates (r), early maturity, rapid dispersal, and high fecundity with minimal parental investment.
Which type of analysis is used to examine relationships between multiple variables simultaneously in multivariate data?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Regression analysis)
Multiple regression analysis evaluates the simultaneous mathematical relationship and predictive influence of multiple independent variables on a dependent outcome.
Q167
Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationChi-Square Test
Which type of statistical test is most appropriate when examining the relationship between two categorical variables?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Chi-square test)
The Pearson Chi-Square test of independence (χ2) evaluates associations between categorical nominal/ordinal variables in contingency tables.
The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) is significant in wildlife forensics due to :
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Its regulation of trade in protected species or wild species.)
CITES provides the international legal enforcement framework regulating cross-border commercial trade in threatened wildlife species across Appendices I, II, and III.
What is the purpose of isotope analysis in wildlife forensics?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Determining geographical origin of animal samples.)
Stable isotope ratio analysis (SIRA: δ13C,δ15N,δ18O,δ2H,87Sr/86Sr) reveals the geographical geographic origin and diet of confiscated tusks, feathers, and horns.
Q173
Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationThreats to Wildlife
Which of these does not pose a major risk to wildlife?
Which of these represents a successful program for reintroduction?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Gray Yellowstone National Park's)
The 1995 reintroduction of Gray Wolves to Yellowstone National Park is one of the most celebrated and ecologically verified trophic cascade restorations in conservation history.
Q179
Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationNational Parks of India
Match the following: National Park: 1. Gir National Park 2. Jim Corbett National Park 3. Desert National Park 4. Kuno National Park
State: I. Rajasthan II. Gujarat III. Madya Pradesh IV. Uttarakhand
Choose the correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-II; 2-IV; 3-I; 4-III)
Gir -> Gujarat (II), Jim Corbett -> Uttarakhand (IV), Desert NP -> Rajasthan (I), Kuno NP -> Madhya Pradesh (III).
Q180
Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationNational Birds of Countries
Match the following: Country: 1. India 2. Bhutan 3. Afghanistan 4. Nepal
National Bird: I. Himalayan Monal II. Golden Eagle III. Peacock IV. Raven
Choose the correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1-III; 2-IV; 3-II; 4-I)
India -> Indian Peacock (III), Bhutan -> Common Raven (IV), Afghanistan -> Golden Eagle (II), Nepal -> Himalayan Monal (I).
Q181
Immunology, Cell Biology & Assertion AnalysisEffective Population Size
Which of the following best defines effective population size (Ne)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The number of breeding individuals in a population who contribute to the gene pool.)
Effective population size (Ne) is the number of sexually breeding individuals in an idealized population that would experience the same rate of genetic drift or inbreeding as the actual population.
Assertion(A) : A Population exhibiting exponential growth will have a J-shaped growth curve. Reason (R) : Exponential growth occurs under ideal conditions of unlimited resources.
Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A))
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation. When resources are non-limiting (dN/dt=rN), population growth accelerates exponentially into a classic J-shaped curve.
Match the new air conditioning technologies with their descriptions. AC Technology: i. Inverter Technology ii. Smart AC iii. Variable Refrigerant Flow iv. Portable AC
Feature: 1. Reduces energy consumption by adjusting compressor speed. 2. Allows remote control via smartphones, voice assistants, and AI. 3. Distributes refrigerant to multiple indoor units, maintaining efficiency. 4. Compact and mobile unit for cooling smaller spaces.
Which of the above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4)
Inverter -> Variable compressor speed (i-1), Smart AC -> IoT/Smartphone control (ii-2), VRF -> Multi-split zoned refrigerant distribution (iii-3), Portable AC -> Mobile compact cooling (iv-4).
Q190
Child Psychology & Disability FrameworksModels of Disability
Which of the following statements are TRUE? i. Medical Model of disabilities find its base in psychology. ii. Human Rights Model of disabilities talks about equity. iii. Charity Model of disabilities treats people with disabilities as incapable. iv. Economic model of disabilities considers disabilities as burden. v. Religions model of disabilities relates disabilities with God's Wrath.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ii, iii and v only.)
Statements ii, iii, and v are universally accurate models: Human Rights promotes equity/inclusion (ii); Charity treats PwDs as helpless objects of pity (iii); Religious/Moral model viewed disability as divine retribution or karma (v).
Q191
Curriculum Development & Teaching MethodologiesLewin's Change Model
_______ developed a change model involving three steps.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kurt levin)
Kurt Lewin developed the classic 3-stage Change Management Model: Unfreezing -> Changing (Moving) -> Refreezing.
Q192
Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHASHA Target Population
The ASHA program is mainly targeted towards which population group?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Pregnant women and children under the age of 5)
ASHAs function as frontline health activists facilitating institutional deliveries (JSY), antenatal care for pregnant women, and immunization/nutrition tracking for children under 5 years.
Q193
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentPsychosocial Adjustment Models
Arrange the following in order of progression in terms of adjustment to acquired disability, as suggested by social psychologist Dana Dunn: 1. Mourning 2. Shock 3. Adaptation 4. Depression 5. Denial Options :
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2, 5, 1, 4, 3)
Dana Dunn's psychosocial adaptation model progresses sequentially through: (2) Initial Shock -> (5) Defensive Denial -> (1) Acknowledgment / Mourning -> (4) Reactive Depression -> (3) Final Adaptation / Integration.
Q194
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentICF WHO Model
The international classification of Functioning, Disability and Health (ICF), by World Health Organization (2001) is based on the perspective of which of these models of disability?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Biopsychosocial Model)
WHO's ICF framework (2001) integrates the biological medical model with the social environmental model into a unified Biopsychosocial Model of functioning, disability, and health.
Q195
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentResilience Models
'A person with disability having a stable family support, is more likely to be resilient', can be explained by which model of resilience?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Protective factor model)
The Protective Factor (Moderating) Model posited by resilience theory posits that external social assets (like cohesive family support) buffer and mitigate the detrimental impact of stress.
Q196
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentPsychoanalytic Model of Disability
According to the psychoanalytical model of disability, loss of a limb can have an effect on the ego similar to
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sense of 'castration')
In classical Freudian psychoanalytic theory, traumatic amputation or bodily loss symbolizes a severe narcissistic blow to body integrity, unconscious bodily mutilation, and reactivation of castration anxiety.
Q197
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsParkinson's Disease Pathology
Common symptoms of Parkinson's disease include: i. Postural Instability ii. Muscle rigidity iii. Tremors iv. Complete paralysis Which of this is True?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii, iii)
The cardinal motor signs of Parkinson's disease (TRAP) include Resting Tremors (iii), Muscle Rigidity (ii), Akinesia/Bradykinesia, and Postural Instability (i) (complete flaccid paralysis is not a feature).
Q198
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsChronic Medical Conditions Match
Match the following pairs of health condition and with its description: i. Multiple Sclerosis ii. Leukemia iii. Muscular dystrophy iv. Irritable bowel syndrome
Description: 1. Progressive muscle weakness, muscle wasting 2. Chronic condition of the gastrointestinal tract 3. Cancer of the tissues in which blood is formed 4. Overproduction of thyroid hormone 5. Autoimmune condition in which the body's immune system attacks segments of myelin on nerve fibers
Options :
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-5, ii-3, iii-1, iv-2)
i -> 5 (Multiple Sclerosis = autoimmune demyelination of CNS axons), ii -> 3 (Leukemia = hematologic malignancy), iii -> 1 (Muscular Dystrophy = genetic progressive muscle wasting), iv -> 2 (IBS = functional gastrointestinal disorder).
Q199
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsRehabilitation Philosophy & Goals
In terms of restoring functionality in persons with disabilities, which of this is a realistic rehabilitation goal?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Optimal functional capacity)
Rehabilitation psychology and physiatry aim for 'Optimal Functional Capacity'—the realistic, individualized maximization of physical, psychological, social, and vocational autonomy within existing bodily limits.
Q200
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsPrognosis in Chronic Illness
A prognosis wherein there is no way of predicting the outcome or progression of the condition is referred to as?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Uncertain)
An uncertain (or unpredictable) prognosis describes clinical disorders where rate of relapse, functional decline, or neurological recovery cannot be determined with clinical certainty.
Q201
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsLocomotor Functional Deficits
Which of the following areas of functional limitations is less likely to manifest in locomotor disabilities?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Communication limitation)
Pure locomotor (orthopedic/musculoskeletal) disabilities directly impair ambulation, joint motion, and weight-bearing, but typically do not intrinsically affect expressive or receptive communication.
Q202
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsClinical Remission vs Cure
When all signs and symptoms of the disease have disappeared in the body, but it does not indicate that the disease has been cured, is referred to as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Complete remission)
Complete remission (e.g. in oncology or autoimmune diseases) indicates the total absence of detectable clinical symptoms and lesions, though malignant or dormant cells may persist with risk of future relapse.
Q203
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsAssistive Devices & Implants
Cochlear implants are a surgical procedure done for which type of impairment?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Hearing impairment)
A cochlear implant is an electronic neuroprosthetic device surgically placed in the inner ear to stimulate the auditory nerve directly in individuals with severe-to-profound sensorineural hearing loss.
Q204
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsOcular Physiology
What function does change in shape of lens play when it helps the eye focus on near or far vision?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Accommodation)
Accommodation is the physiological adjustment of optical lens curvature by the ciliary muscle to focus light rays onto the retina across varying focal distances.
Q205
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsBenchmark Disability Laws
In India for a person to be legally recognized as a person with disability, the disability needs to the be medically evaluated as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (40% or more)
Under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act 2016, a person with a 'benchmark disability' is defined as one certified to have not less than 40% of a specified disability.
Q206
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsADIP Scheme Mandates
The Government of India, ADIP scheme provides some aid for: i. Purchase of aids/appliances ii. Fitment of prosthesis iii. Cochlear implant surgery Which of this is True?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii and iii)
The ADIP Scheme (Assistance to Disabled Persons for Purchase/Fitting of Aids and Appliances) provides financial support for durable aids, prosthetic fitment, and fully subsidized cochlear implant surgeries (up to Rs. 6.0 Lakhs for children).
Q207
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsComputer Assistive Technology
JAWS a commonly used computer based assistive technology is a
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Screen reading software)
JAWS (Job Access With Speech) is the world's most popular screen reader program for Microsoft Windows, converting on-screen digital text into synthetic speech output or refreshable Braille.
Q208
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsHearing Aid Typologies
Some persons with hearing impairment prefer to keep their disability hidden. Based on this idea arrange the following in order of how less visible or hidden this type of hearing aid would be from least visible to the most visible: i. In the ear (ITE) ii. Completely in the canal (CIC) iii. Behind the ear (BTE) iv. In the canal (ITC) Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ii, iv, i, iii)
Visibility hierarchy from least visible (most concealed) to most conspicuous: (ii) Completely-in-the-Canal (CIC) -> (iv) In-the-Canal (ITC) -> (i) In-the-Ear (ITE) -> (iii) Behind-the-Ear (BTE).
Q209
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsProsthetics vs Orthotics
Which of this is also called an artificial limb?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Prosthesis)
A prosthesis is an artificial biomechanical device designed to replace a missing anatomical limb or body part (orthoses support or brace existing limbs).
Q210
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsPost-Amputation Sequelae
Phantom limb pain can occur in which of these locomotor disabilities?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Amputation)
Phantom limb pain is a neuropathic syndrome wherein painful burning or stabbing sensations are perceived in the missing distal extremity following surgical or traumatic amputation.
Q211
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsNeuromuscular Pathology
A symptom of 'exaggerated muscle tone' observed in some types of locomotor disabilities is referred to as
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Hypertonia)
Hypertonia is an abnormal velocity-dependent or rigid increase in muscle tone and involuntary resistance to passive stretch, characteristic of upper motor neuron cerebral lesions.
Q212
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsClassification of Illnesses
An illness which has a sudden onset of symptoms that are short term and that affect individuals for only a short time is referred to as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Acute)
An acute illness (e.g. acute infection, sudden fracture) has rapid onset, severe symptoms, and a brief, finite clinical course.
Q213
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsResearch Validity Threats
A researcher who wants to study effectiveness of social skills training on young adults with physical disabilities. He selects all his participants from a single rehabilitation center. This research is likely to suffer from the problem of
💡Correct Answer: Option B (External validity)
Sampling exclusively from a single isolated institutional facility severely restricts sample representativeness, compromising generalizability to the broader population (threat to External Validity).
Q214
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsNon-Probability Sampling Techniques
In a study exploring the impact of support groups on the mental health parents of children with cerebral palsy. Researchers rely on existing support group members to refer earlier support group members. This is an example of
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Snowball sampling)
Snowball (chain-referral) sampling is a non-probability sampling method where existing study participants recruit or refer future subjects from their acquaintance network.
Q215
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsParametric Hypothesis Testing
A researcher is interested in comparing the mean scores on a measure of depression between visually impaired and orthopedically impaired patients. Which of the following statistical test of significance would be most appropriate?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Independent samples t-test)
An Independent Samples t-test compares the continuous mean scores of a single dependent variable across two distinct, mutually exclusive independent categorical groups.
Q216
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsCategorical Data Analysis
As a researcher you want to examine if there exist a statistically significant difference in the proportion of people who have reported they have benefitted from a said rehabilitation intervention and those who have not. Which statistical method would be most appropriate?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Chi-square test)
The Chi-square test of independence (or goodness of fit) evaluates whether observed frequencies and proportions in categorical binary outcome tables (2×2) differ significantly from expected chance distributions.
Q217
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsHypothesis Testing Directionality
In a given research you are interested in testing the difference between means. Your alternate hypothesis is non directional. Which test will be carried out?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Two-tailed test)
A non-directional alternate hypothesis (H1:μ1=μ2) does not specify the direction of difference, requiring a Two-Tailed statistical significance test splitting α across both tails.
Q218
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsEffect Size & Clinical Significance
If an Effect-size analysis is carried out when our hypothesis is accepted. What purpose does it serve?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To estimate how large the observed difference is)
Effect size (e.g. Cohen's d, Pearson's r, η2) quantifies the practical magnitude, strength, and clinical meaningfulness of an experimental effect independent of sample size.
Q219
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsParametric Assumptions
Which of this is an assumption of independent samples t-test?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Homogeneity of variance)
The three core assumptions of the independent t-test are: (1) normal distribution of dependent variable, (2) independent observations, and (3) Homogeneity of Variance (homoscedasticity across groups).
Q220
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsLogistic Regression Modeling
Which type of regression method is employed when the dependent variable is dichotomous in nature?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Logistic)
Binary Logistic Regression models the log odds of a categorical binary/dichotomous dependent variable (Y∈{0,1}) as a linear combination of predictor variables.
Q221
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsREBT ABCDE Model
In the ABCDE model of REBT, C stands for?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Consequences)
In Albert Ellis's Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT) framework: A = Activating event, B = Belief system, C = Emotional/behavioral Consequences, D = Disputation, E = Effective new philosophy.
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationMedical Suffixes
Which of the following suffixes indicates "inflammation"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (-itis)
The medical suffix '-itis' (e.g. appendicitis, gastritis, hepatitis) denotes inflammation of an anatomical organ or tissue.
Q224
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationSurgical Terminology
Which of the following terms refers to "surgical gallbladder removal"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cholecystectomy)
Cholecystectomy is the surgical excision/removal of the gallbladder (Cholecystitis is inflammation, Cholelithiasis is gallstones).
Q225
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationEndoscopic Terminology
Which term describes "visual examination of a joint"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Arthroscopy)
Arthroscopy is the minimally invasive endoscopic visualization and examination of the interior of a joint cavity using an arthroscope.
Q226
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationClinical Medical Terminology
A patient suffers from a condition called "nephrolithiasis". What does this condition involve?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Stones in the kidneys)
Nephrolithiasis (from Greek nephros = kidney, lithos = stone) is the medical term for renal calculi or kidney stones.
Q227
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationEmergency Clinical Interventions
A patient with "hypoglycaemia" is brought to the emergency room. What is the immediate treatment required?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Providing glucose)
Hypoglycemia (abnormally low blood plasma glucose concentration <70 mg/dL) requires immediate administration of fast-acting oral carbohydrates or IV 25%-50% dextrose/glucose.
Q228
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationPediatric Medical Terminology
A newborn is diagnosed with "microcephaly". What does this condition mean?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (An abnormally small head)
Microcephaly is a congenital neurodevelopmental disorder where an infant's head circumference is significantly smaller than normal for gestational age and sex due to brain hypoplasia.
Q229
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationLegal Duties in Health Administration
What is the basic legal obligation of a healthcare facility regarding medical records?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To maintain, preserve, and ensure confidentiality)
Healthcare facilities have a fundamental statutory duty of care to securely maintain, preserve, and safeguard the absolute confidentiality of patient records under privacy laws.
Q230
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationExceptions to Patient Confidentiality
Under which circumstances can a healthcare provider disclose medical records without the patient's consent?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (When mandated by a court order or public health law)
Exceptions to confidentiality without consent are strictly limited to valid subpoenas/court orders, statutory communicable disease reporting (e.g. cholera, plague, TB), and statutory police medico-legal requisitions.
Q231
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationMedical Records Legal Violations
Which of the following constitutes violating the legal aspects of medical records retention?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Failure to secure stored records from unauthorised access)
Negligent data security, unauthorized disclosures, and failure to protect archived medical records from data breaches constitute statutory violations of privacy and medical records laws.
Q232
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationHospital Utilization Statistics
What does the term "bed occupancy rate" represent in hospital statistics?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Percentage of occupied beds compared to available beds)
Bed Occupancy Rate (BOR) measures inpatient facility utilization: BOR=Available Beds×Days in PeriodTotal Inpatient Bed Days×100%.
Q233
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationHospital Inpatient Metrics
Which metric evaluates the effectiveness of a hospital in treating admitted patients?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bed turnover rate)
Bed Turnover Rate (and Net Death Rate / Average Length of Stay) evaluates inpatient operational efficiency, throughput, and therapeutic turnover of admitted patients.
Q234
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationBed Turnover Rate Formula
How is the "bed turnover rate" calculated?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Total discharges divided by average available beds)
Bed Turnover Rate (BTR) measures the average number of patients treated per available bed over a specific period: BTR=Average Available BedsTotal Discharges (including Deaths).
Q235
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationMRD Statistical Functions
Which department is typically responsible for generating hospital statistics?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Medical Records Department)
The Medical Records Department (MRD) compiles, analyzes, and publishes daily, monthly, and annual inpatient census, morbidity, mortality, and hospital statistical returns.
Q236
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationAverage Length of Stay (ALOS)
In a hospital patient flow analysis, which metric provides the best insights into patient care efficiency?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Length of Stay)
Average Length of Stay (ALOS) is the primary clinical benchmark reflecting diagnostic efficiency, clinical pathway effectiveness, and inpatient bed throughput.
Q237
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationHospital Statistical Analysis
Identify the correct statements regarding hospital statistics: Statement A: Bed turnover rate can be improved by shortening the average Length of Stay Statement B: Mortality rates do not account for patient severity or complexity. Statement C: The "average cost per patient" is typically used to measure the hospital's financial efficiency.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (All statements are correct)
All three statements are true: reducing ALOS increases bed turnover throughput (A), unadjusted crude mortality ignores underlying case-mix acuity (B), and cost per patient measures economic efficiency (C).
Q238
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeBasic Probability
A bag contains 5 red balls, 7 green balls, and 8 blue balls. What is the probability of picking a green ball?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (7/20)
Total balls =5+7+8=20. Number of favorable green balls =7. Probability P(Green)=7/20.
Q239
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeDaily Census Reporting
In hospital statistics, what does a daily census report typically include?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The total number of inpatients on a specific day)
The daily inpatient census report records the total number of inpatients present in the hospital at midnight, factoring in daily admissions, discharges, deaths, and transfers.
Q240
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeObstetric Hospital Statistics
What is the live birth rate used to measure in hospital statistics?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The total number of live births in a hospital)
The hospital live birth rate quantifies the total number of live births delivered in the facility per unit time, essential for maternal-neonatal health reporting.
Q241
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityCalendar Probability
What is the possibility of having 53 Thursdays in a non-leap year?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1/7)
A non-leap year has 365 days =52 weeks+1 odd day. The odd day has 7 equally likely possibilities (Sunday to Saturday), so the probability that it is Thursday is 1/7.
Q242
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityCard Probability
What will be the possibility of drawing a jack or a spade from a well shuffled standard deck of 52 playing cards?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (4/13)
Total cards =52. Jacks =4, Spades =13, Jack of Spades (overlap) =1. Favorable cards =4+13−1=16. Probability =5216=134.
Q243
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityDice Probability
A fair dice is rolled twice. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers on both rolls is equal to 8?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (5/36)
Total outcomes =6×6=36. Favorable pairs summing to 8: (2,6),(3,5),(4,4),(5,3),(6,2) (5 pairs). Probability =5/36.
Q244
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityInclusion-Exclusion Probability
In a lottery, there are 100 tickets numbered from 1 to 100. What is the probability that a ticket drawn at random has a number multiple of 2, 3, or 7?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (72 %)
By Principle of Inclusion-Exclusion: n(2)=50,n(3)=33,n(7)=14. Intersections: n(6)=16,n(14)=7,n(21)=4,n(42)=2. Total multiples =(50+33+14)−(16+7+4)+2=97−27+2=72. Probability =10072=72%.
Q245
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityBinomial Probability
A coin is tossed 5 times. What is the probability of getting at least 2 tails?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (13/16)
Total outcomes =25=32. P(at least 2 tails)=1−P(0 tails)−P(1 tail)=1−321−325=1−326=3226=1613.
Q246
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyModern Indian Freedom Movement
The Poona Pact of 1932 was signed between:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mahatma Gandhi and B.R. Ambedkar)
The Poona Pact was signed on 24 September 1932 at Yerwada Central Jail between Mahatma Gandhi (represented by Madan Mohan Malaviya) and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, replacing separate electorates with reserved seats for depressed classes.
Q247
Electronics, Audio Engineering & Public Address SystemsOSI Model Network Devices
Match the following networking devices with their corresponding OSI Layer: I. Hub II. Switch III. Routers IV. Gateway
Layers: 1. Data link layer 2. Network layer 3. Application layer 4. Physical layer
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I-4, II-1, III-2, IV-3)
I -> 4 (Hub - Physical layer), II -> 1 (Switch - Data link layer / Layer 2), III -> 2 (Router - Network layer / Layer 3), IV -> 3 (Gateway - Application layer / Layer 7). Match is I-4, II-1, III-2, IV-3.
Q248
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessModern Indian History
Which of the following battle marked the beginning of the British rule in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Battle of Plassey)
The Battle of Plassey (23 June 1757), where the British East India Company under Robert Clive defeated Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah of Bengal, marked the beginning of British political rule in India.
Q249
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryFreedom Movement Chronology
The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1919)
The Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred on 13 April 1919 in Amritsar, Punjab.
Q250
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryQuit India Movement
The Quit India Movement was launched in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1942)
Mahatma Gandhi launched the Quit India Movement in August 1942 at the Gowalia Tank Maidan, Bombay.
Q251
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryNational Slogans
Who gave the famous slogan "Give me blood and I will give you freedom"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Subhas Chandra Bose)
Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose delivered his famous inspirational rallying cry 'Give me blood and I will give you freedom!' to the Indian National Army (INA) in Burma in 1944.
Q252
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryViceroys of India
Who was the Viceroy of India during the Jallianwala Bagh massacre?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lord Chelmsford)
Lord Chelmsford served as the Viceroy of India from 1916 to 1921 when the Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred in 1919.
Q253
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryDandi March 1930
The famous 'Salt March' (Dandi March) was led by Mahatma Gandhi in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1930)
Mahatma Gandhi led the historic 24-day Salt March from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi from 12 March to 6 April 1930.
Q254
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryPartition of Bengal
The partition of Bengal took place in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1905)
The Partition of Bengal was enacted by Viceroy Lord Curzon on 16 October 1905 (and annulled in 1911).
Q255
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryLal Bal Pal Triumvirate
Which of the following was not a part of the three main leaders of the 'Lal Bal Pal' group?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Subhas Chandra Bose)
The triumvirate 'Lal Bal Pal' consisted of Lala Lajpat Rai (Punjab), Bal Gangadhar Tilak (Maharashtra), and Bipin Chandra Pal (Bengal); Subhas Chandra Bose was not part of this trio.
Q256
Indian National Movement & Modern HistorySurat Split 1907
The Indian National Congress split into two factions at which session?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Surat Session 1907)
The INC split into Moderates and Extremists at the historic Surat Session in 1907 presided over by Rash Behari Ghosh.
Q257
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryNon-Cooperation Movement
Which event led to the withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Chauri Chaura Incident)
Mahatma Gandhi called off the nationwide Non-Cooperation Movement in February 1922 following the violent Chauri Chaura incident in Gorakhpur district, UP.
Q258
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryPoona Pact 1932
The 'Poona Pact' was signed between
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar)
The Poona Pact was signed on 24 September 1932 at Yerwada Central Jail between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar on electoral representation for Depressed Classes.
Q259
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryFundamental Rights Article 19
The right to move freely throughout the territory of India comes under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 19)
Article 19(1)(d) of the Indian Constitution guarantees to all citizens the fundamental right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
Q260
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryKhilafat and Non-Cooperation
Which of the following events is related to the 'Khilafat Movement'?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Non-Cooperation Movement)
Mahatma Gandhi allied the Khilafat agitation with the nationwide Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–1922) to forge Hindu-Muslim unity against British colonial rule.
Q261
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryFreedom Slogans
Who gave the famous slogan "Swaraj is my Birthright and I shall have it"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bal Gangadhar Tilak)
Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak gave the clarion call: 'Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it!'.
Q262
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryConstitutional Acts 1919
The 'Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms' were introduced in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1919)
The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (enacted as the Government of India Act 1919) introduced provincial dyarchy.
Q263
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryViceroys of India
Who was the last British Viceroy of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lord Mountbatten)
Lord Louis Mountbatten was the last British Viceroy of India (serving from March to August 1947).
Q264
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryChamparan Satyagraha 1917
The famous 'Champaran Satyagraha' was associated with the issue of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Indigo plantation)
Champaran Satyagraha (1917 in Bihar) was Mahatma Gandhi's first civil disobedience movement in India, organized to protest the exploitative Tinkathia indigo farming system.
Q265
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryModerates vs Extremists
The main difference between the Moderates and the Extremists was
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The method of achieving independence)
Moderates relied on constitutional petitions, prayers, and gradualist dialogue (3Ps), whereas Extremists advocated direct mass action, swadeshi, boycotts, and self-reliance.
Q266
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryDivide and Rule Policy
The 'Partition of Bengal' in 1905 was a move by the British to
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Divide and rule by creating a divide between Hindus and Muslims)
Lord Curzon engineered the Partition of Bengal to weaken Indian nationalist solidarity along communal fault lines ('Divide and Rule').
Q267
Indian National Movement & Modern HistorySocio-Religious Reformers
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Raja Ram Mohan Roy)
Raja Ram Mohan Roy, founder of the Brahmo Samaj in 1828 and champion of social reforms including the abolition of Sati, is honored as the Father of the Indian Renaissance.
Q268
Indian National Movement & Modern HistorySocial Reformers
Which reformer is associated with the promotion of widow remarriage in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar)
Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar led the campaign that resulted in the enactment of the Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act (Act XV of 1856).
Q269
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryRamakrishna Mission
Which movement, founded by Swami Vivekananda, emphasized the idea of Indian self-reliance and national pride?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ramakrishna Mission)
Swami Vivekananda established the Ramakrishna Mission on 1 May 1897 to propagate practical Vedanta, social service, and national self-reliance.
Q270
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryGandhian Era Chronology
When did Mahatma Gandhi return to India from South Africa?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1915)
Mahatma Gandhi returned permanently to India from South Africa on 9 January 1915, commemorated annually as Pravasi Bharatiya Divas.
Q271
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryDandi March Origin
Where was the famous Dandi March (Salt March) started by Gandhiji?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sabarmati Ashram)
Mahatma Gandhi set out on the historic 240-mile Salt March from his headquarters at Sabarmati Ashram in Ahmedabad on 12 March 1930.
Q272
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryLahore Session 1929
In 1929, at the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress, which resolution was passed under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Purna Swaraj (Complete Independence) resolution)
At the historic midnight Lahore Session on 31 December 1929, the INC declared 'Purna Swaraj' (Complete Independence) as its ultimate goal and fixed 26 January 1930 as Independence Day.
Q273
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryQuit India Slogans
Which famous slogan was coined during the Quit India Movement?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Do or die)
Mahatma Gandhi gave the clarion call 'Do or Die' (Karo ya Maro) at the launch of the Quit India Movement in August 1942.
Q274
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryCivil Disobedience Movement
In which year did Gandhiji launch the "Civil Disobedience Movement" to challenge British laws?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1930)
Mahatma Gandhi formally inaugurated the Civil Disobedience Movement on 6 April 1930 by breaking the Salt Law at Dandi.
Q275
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryCauses of Quit India Movement
Which of the following was one of the main reasons behind the launch of the Quit India Movement?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Failure of the Cripps Mission)
The complete collapse and failure of Sir Stafford Cripps's Mission in April 1942 directly precipitated Gandhi's call for immediate British withdrawal.
Which of the following activities can lead to the depletion of natural resources?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Over-exploitation)
Over-exploitation and reckless consumption rapidly deplete natural resources and collapse ecological habitats.
Q281
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyNational Parks of J&K
Which of the following is the largest national park in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Dachigam National Park)
Within the present Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir, Kishtwar High Altitude / Dachigam National Park is the prominent protected reserve (Hemis is located in Ladakh UT).
Q282
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyHangul Conservation in Dachigam
Which endangered species is primarily protected in Dachigam National Park?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kashmir stag (Hangul))
Dachigam National Park in Srinagar is the world's last remaining stronghold and premier habitat protecting the critically endangered Kashmir Stag (Hangul / Cervus hanglu hanglu).
Q283
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyWildlife Sanctuaries of Kashmir
Which wildlife sanctuary is located near Pahalgam in Kashmir Valley?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Overa-Aru Wildlife Sanctuary)
The Overa-Aru Wildlife Sanctuary (covering 511 km2) is situated in the scenic catchment area around Pahalgam in Anantnag district.
Q284
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyHydroelectric Projects of J&K
The Baglihar Hydroelectric Project is located on which river in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Chenab River)
The 900 MW Baglihar Hydroelectric Power Project is constructed on the Chenab River in Ramban district, Jammu division.
Q285
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyHydroelectric Stations of J&K
The Uri-I Hydroelectric Power Station is located on which river?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Jhelum River)
The 480 MW Uri-I Hydroelectric Power Station is a run-of-the-river scheme constructed on the Jhelum River in Baramulla district, Kashmir.
Q286
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyHydroelectric Stations of J&K
The Salal Hydroelectric Project is located on which river in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Chenab River)
The 690 MW Salal Hydroelectric Power Station is constructed on the Chenab River near Reasi in Jammu division.
Q287
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyHydroelectric Stations of J&K
The Dulhasti Hydro Power Station is located in which district of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Kishtwar)
The 390 MW Dulhasti Hydroelectric Power Station is built on the Chenab River in Kishtwar district, Jammu division.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Multidimensional assessment approaches)
Modern sports talent identification necessitates Multidimensional Assessment Approaches integrating anthropometry, physiology, motor skills, and psychological attributes.
Q295
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsSkewness Relationships
A negatively skewed distribution has
💡Correct Answer: Option B (mode > median)
In a negatively (left) skewed distribution, the long tail extends to the left, resulting in: Mean<Median<Mode (which also implies Mode>Median and Mean<Mode).
Q296
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsFactor Analysis Sampling Adequacy
A KMO value of .30 indicates
💡Correct Answer: Option B (weak factorability)
The Kaiser-Meyer-Olkin (KMO) Measure of Sampling Adequacy ranges from 0 to 1. Values below 0.50 (such as 0.30) are deemed 'unacceptable' and indicate Weak Factorability.
Q297
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsCorrelation Significance Testing
Which of the following statistics is used to test the significance of the Pearson correlation coefficient?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (t)
The statistical significance of a sample Pearson correlation coefficient (r) against H0:ρ=0 is evaluated using the Student's t-test: t=r1−r2n−2 with df=n−2.
Q298
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsRank Correlation
A Pearson's correlation coefficient computed on rank-ordered variables is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Spearman's rho)
Spearman's rank-order correlation coefficient (Spearman's rho, rs) is mathematically equivalent to Pearson's product-moment correlation calculated directly on the ranked scores of variables.
Q299
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsHypothesis Testing t-Distribution
If the tabled t value at p=0.05 for df=29 is 2.045 and the obtained value is 2.132 then which of the following can be concluded? I. The obtained t value is not significant II. The obtained t value is significant III. The null can be accepted IV. The null can be rejected Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (II and IV)
Since the calculated t-value (2.132) exceeds the critical tabulated t-value (2.045) at p=0.05, the result is statistically Significant (II) and the null hypothesis is Rejected (IV). Correct: II and IV.
Q300
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsParametric vs Non-Parametric Tests
Which of the following are non-parametric statistics? I. Student's t-test II. Spearman's rho III. Wilcoxon sign rank test IV Pearson's r Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (II and III)
Spearman's rho (II) and Wilcoxon signed-rank test (III) are distribution-free Non-Parametric statistics (whereas Student's t-test and Pearson's r are parametric). Correct: II and III.
Q301
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsNormal Distribution Properties
On X axis, Normal distribution ranges from
💡Correct Answer: Option D (-infinity to + infinity)
Mathematically, the theoretical standard normal distribution continuous probability density curve extends asymptotically along the X-axis from −∞ to +∞.
Q302
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsStatistical Power & Sample Size
Power calculations can be used for determining ______
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sample size)
Statistical power analysis is primarily conducted a priori to determine the minimum Sample Size (N) required to detect a specified effect size at a designated alpha level (1−β).
Q303
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsAdvanced Statistical Models Matching
Match the following: Statistical technique: i. Mediating ii. Stepwise regression iii. Moderated
Description: 1. a statistical analysis that examines how a third variable affects the relationship between two other variables 2. causal chain in which one variable affects a second variable that, in turn, affects a third variable 3. a statistical method that automatically chooses predictor variables for a regression model
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2; ii-3; iii-1)
i -> 2 (Mediation: causal chain where X affects M which in turn affects Y), ii -> 3 (Stepwise regression: algorithm automatically selecting predictors), iii -> 1 (Moderation: third variable alters the strength/direction of X-Y relationship). Correct match: i-2; ii-3; iii-1.
Q304
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsANOVA Interpretation
A p-value in ANOVA is used to ______.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Determine if group means are significantly different)
In Analysis of Variance (ANOVA), the p-value associated with the Omnibus F-statistic tests the null hypothesis that all population group means are equal, determining if significant differences exist.
Q305
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsExperimental Research Design
To answer which of the following research objectives, is a research most likely to rely on pure experimental methods?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (To study whether the number of rehearsals improves serial recall in a memory task)
Manipulating the exact number of rehearsals (independent variable) and measuring recall accuracy (dependent variable) in a controlled laboratory setting represents a pure experimental design.
Q306
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsExperimental vs Non-Experimental
Which of the following is NOT a key feature of an experimental study?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Survey methods)
Surveys are descriptive/correlational research methods lacking active manipulation and strict random laboratory assignment, making survey methodology NOT a defining feature of true experimental studies.
Q307
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsExperimental Variables Matching
Match the following: Column A: i. Independent Variable ii. Dependent Variable iii. Null Hypothesis iv. Hypothesis
Column B: 1. Variable being measured in an experiment 2. Testable prediction about the outcome 3. Statement of no effect or no difference 4. Variable that is manipulated by the researcher
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-4; ii-1; iii-3, iv-2)
i -> 4 (Independent variable: manipulated), ii -> 1 (Dependent variable: measured), iii -> 3 (Null hypothesis: statement of no effect/difference), iv -> 2 (Hypothesis: testable prediction). Correct match: i-4; ii-1; iii-3, iv-2.
Q308
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsScientific Method in Psychology
What is the primary goal of using the scientific method in psychology?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To make observations, form hypotheses, and test them systematically)
The scientific method in psychology ensures empirical rigor by making systematic empirical observations, generating testable falsifiable hypotheses, and conducting controlled scientific tests.
Q309
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsHypothesis Formulation
Hypothesis in experiment assesses ______
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Relationship)
An experimental hypothesis formalizes and assesses the proposed functional Relationship (or causal effect) between independent and dependent variables.
Q310
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsExperimental Control Techniques
We try to make different groups of participants as similar as possible through ______
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Randomization)
Random Assignment / Randomization ensures that extraneous individual participant differences are probabilistically distributed equally across experimental and control groups.
Q311
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsExperimental Research Designs
Which of the following is a primary advantage of using a dependent groups design over an independent groups design? I. Increased generalizability of the findings II. Elimination of confounding variables III. Reduction of individual differences in variability IV. Simplification of counterbalancing procedures Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (III only)
In a dependent (repeated measures / within-subjects) design, using the same participants across all conditions substantially reduces error variance caused by Individual Differences in variability.
Q312
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsExperimental Research Steps
Arrange the steps of conducting a two-group experimental design in the correct order: I. Randomly assign participants to groups II. Introduce the independent variable III. Measure the dependent variable IV. Define the independent and dependent variables V. Formulate a hypothesis Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (V -> IV -> I -> II -> III)
Logical scientific sequence: V (Formulate hypothesis) -> IV (Define operational variables) -> I (Randomly assign participants) -> II (Introduce/manipulate IV) -> III (Measure DV). Sequence: V -> IV -> I -> II -> III.
Q313
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsCorrelational Research
Which technique is used to find out the degree of association?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Correlation)
Correlation (Pearson r, Spearman ρ) is the statistical technique used to quantify the magnitude, strength, and direction of Association between two or more variables.
Q314
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsResearch Methodology Principles
Which statements about research methods in psychology is NOT true?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Correlational studies can determine causation between variables.)
Statement B is fundamentally false: 'Correlation does not imply causation' (correlational studies cannot determine causality due to directionality and third-variable confounding).
Q315
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsSurvey Research Steps
Arrange the following steps for conducting a survey-based study in the correct order: I. Develop survey questions II. Distribute the survey to participants for the pilot III. Analyze survey responses IV. Report findings Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I -> II -> III -> IV)
Standard survey progression: I (Develop questions) -> II (Distribute pilot) -> III (Analyze responses) -> IV (Report findings). Sequence: I -> II -> III -> IV.
Q316
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsPhilosophy of Science
Who introduced the concept of critical realism?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Roy Bhaskar)
The philosophical paradigm of Critical Realism was pioneered and formulated by the British philosopher Roy Bhaskar in his seminal works A Realist Theory of Science (1975).
Q317
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsFunctions of Scientific Theories
Which of the following does a theory NOT do?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Projection)
Scientific psychological theories describe, explain, and predict behavioral phenomena; 'Projection' is a psychoanalytic defense mechanism, not a formal function of a scientific theory.
Q318
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsPrinciple of Parsimony
Another name for Occam's Razor is the idea of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Parsimony)
Occam's Razor is the scientific Principle of Parsimony (law of simplicity), stating that when presented with competing hypotheses, the one that makes the fewest assumptions is preferred.
Q319
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsKuhnian Paradigms
The term 'paradigm' is associated with
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Thomas Kuhn)
Thomas Kuhn introduced and popularized the concepts of 'Paradigm' and 'Paradigm Shift' in his landmark 1962 book The Structure of Scientific Revolutions.
Q320
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsThreats to Internal Validity
What is selective subject loss in research?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The loss of specific participants that may introduce bias in results)
Selective subject loss (differential attrition) occurs when participants drop out of specific experimental groups non-randomly based on subject characteristics, threatening internal validity.
Q321
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsConfounding Variables
Change in variable not controlled in the experiment is called as
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Confounding)
An extraneous uncontrolled variable that covaries systematically with the independent variable and provides an alternative explanation for results is a Confounding variable.
Q322
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsPerformance Intelligence Tests
Which of the following requires placing of blocks of different shapes in empty correct shapes?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (SFB)
The Seguin Form Board (SFB) test is a non-verbal performance intelligence test that requires inserting ten wooden geometric blocks into their matching recessed shapes as quickly as possible.
Q323
Clinical Psychopathology, Diagnostics & Social PsychologyAttitude Components (ABC Model)
Which of the following is NOT a component of attitudes?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Situational component)
The classic tripartite ABC model of attitudes comprises: Affective (feelings), Behavioral (actions/intentions), and Cognitive (beliefs/thoughts); 'Situational' is not a component.
Q324
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsPsychometric Item Analysis
What is the primary purpose of item analysis in test construction
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To improve the validity and reliability of tests)
Item analysis evaluates item difficulty (p-value) and item discrimination (d-index) to select optimal items and eliminate flawed items, thereby maximizing test Reliability and Validity.
Q325
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsStructural Equation Modeling & CFA
Which structural equation model is used to estimate the construct validity of a psychometric test?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (CFA model)
Confirmatory Factor Analysis (CFA), a specialized structural equation model, is the standard statistical technique used to verify the measurement model and establish Construct Validity (convergent/discriminant validity).
Q326
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsTest Publishing Steps
Select the correct sequence of the process of publishing a psychological test. I. Develop a user manual with administration and scoring instructions II. Conduct final testing with a diverse population III. Establish copyright and intellectual property rights IV. Distribute the test through professional channels Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (II -> I -> III -> IV)
Correct publishing progression: II (Conduct standardization on diverse population) -> I (Develop technical user manual and scoring guides) -> III (Secure copyright/IP) -> IV (Commercial/professional distribution). Sequence: II -> I -> III -> IV.
Q327
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsMMPI Validity
MMPI uses which kind of validity?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Criterion validity)
The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI / MMPI-2) was constructed using the empirical criterion keying method, establishing high Criterion-Related Validity by differentiating clinical from non-clinical groups.
Q328
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsMaximal vs Typical Performance Tests
Out of the following variables, which psychometric measurement is determined by right and wrong answers? I. Personality II. Attitude III. Motivation IV. Aptitude V. Intelligence VI. Abstract reasoning Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (IV, V and VI only)
Maximal performance cognitive tests scored with objectively correct (right/wrong) answers include Aptitude (IV), Intelligence (V), and Abstract Reasoning (VI), whereas personality, attitude, and motivation are typical performance self-reports without right/wrong keys.
Q329
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsTest Construction Steps
Arrange the following steps in test development. I. Content validity with expert review II. Theorisation and operational definition III. Psychometric properties IV. Standardisation V. Development of an item pool Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (II -> V -> I -> III -> IV)
Standard test construction sequence: II (Theorisation & operationalization) -> V (Item pool generation) -> I (Expert content validation) -> III (Evaluating psychometric reliability/validity) -> IV (Norming & standardisation). Sequence: II -> V -> I -> III -> IV.
Match the following: Concept: i. Health Belief Model ii. Stress iii. Coping iv. Psychoneuroimmunology
Meaning: 1. The study of how psychological, neural, and immune processes interact 2. Behavior is influenced by perceived susceptibility, severity, and benefits of action 3. A psychological and physiological response to a threat or challenge 4. Strategies to manage stress or adapt to adversity
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-2; ii-3; iii-4; iv-1)
i -> 2 (Health Belief Model: perceived susceptibility/severity/benefits), ii -> 3 (Stress: psychophysiological response to threat), iii -> 4 (Coping: cognitive/behavioral stress management), iv -> 1 (Psychoneuroimmunology: mind-brain-immune interactions). Correct match: i-2; ii-3; iii-4; iv-1.
Q331
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsLevels of Prevention
Below are two statements. Select your answer using the code below Statement 1: Vaccination is an example of primary prevention Statement 2: Rehabilitation is an example of secondary prevention
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1 is true but 2 is false)
Statement 1 is true (vaccination prevents disease onset in healthy populations = Primary Prevention). Statement 2 is false (rehabilitation manages existing long-term impairment to restore function = Tertiary Prevention; secondary prevention involves early screening/detection).
Match the following: Hormone: i. Cortisol ii. Adrenaline (Epinephrine) iii. Norepinephrine iv. CRH (Corticotropin-Releasing Hormone)
Brain part / Gland: 1. Adrenal Medulla 2. Hypothalamus 3. Adrenal Cortex 4. Locus Coeruleus
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-3; ii-1; iii-4; iv-2)
i -> 3 (Cortisol: Adrenal Cortex), ii -> 1 (Adrenaline: Adrenal Medulla), iii -> 4 (Norepinephrine: Locus Coeruleus / brain noradrenergic system), iv -> 2 (CRH: Hypothalamus). Correct match: i-3; ii-1; iii-4; iv-2.
Q333
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsBiopsychosocial Model
Which of the following statements about the Biopsychosocial Model are true? I. It integrates biological, psychological, and social factors in understanding health and illness. II. It replaces the biomedical model by disregarding physical causes of illness. III. It emphasizes that health outcomes can be influenced by stress, behavior, and social support. IV. It assumes that only psychological interventions can improve health. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I and III only)
George Engel's Biopsychosocial Model integrates biological, psychological, and social dimensions (Statement I) and shows how stress/support impact health (Statement III). Statements II & IV are false (it does not disregard biology or rely solely on psychotherapy). Correct: I and III only.
Which of the following are protective factors in health psychology? I. Regular physical exercise II. Chronic stress III. Social support networks IV. Maladaptive coping strategies Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I and III only)
Regular physical exercise (I) and robust social support networks (III) are classic salutogenic protective factors enhancing psychological resilience and physical health. Correct: I and III only.
Q335
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsHealth Belief Model Constructs
Which of the following are key components of the Health Belief Model (HBM)? I. Perceived susceptibility to a health issue II. Perceived benefits of taking preventive action III. Perceived stigma surrounding the health condition IV. Cues to action that trigger behavior change Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II, and IV only)
The core theoretical constructs of the Health Belief Model (HBM) include Perceived Susceptibility (I), Perceived Severity, Perceived Benefits (II), Perceived Barriers, Self-Efficacy, and Cues to Action (IV). Correct: I, II, and IV only.
Which theory explains employee motivation through the balance of inputs and outcomes?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Equity Theory)
J. Stacy Adams' Equity Theory posits that workplace motivation depends on an employee's perception of fairness, determined by comparing their ratio of Inputs (effort, skill) to Outcomes (pay, recognition) against relevant referents.
Q337
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsHerzberg Two-Factor Theory
According to Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory, which of the following is classified as a hygiene factor? I. Recognition II. Job security III. Achievement IV Responsibility V. Compensation Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (II and V only)
In Frederick Herzberg's Motivator-Hygiene Theory, extrinsic factors like Job Security (II) and Compensation/Salary (V) are classified as Hygiene Factors (preventing dissatisfaction), whereas Recognition, Achievement, and Responsibility are intrinsic Motivators. Correct: II and V only.
Which type of organizational commitment is based on an employee's emotional attachment to their workplace?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Affective commitment)
In Meyer and Allen's three-component model, Affective Commitment refers to an employee's positive emotional attachment to, identification with, and voluntary involvement in the organization ('wanting to stay').
Which of the following is TRUE about organizational culture? I. Shared values and norms influence employee behavior. II. Strong organizational culture always leads to innovation. III. Organizational culture can be influenced by leadership style. IV. A mismatch between personal and organizational values may result in turnover. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I, III, and IV only)
Statements I, III, and IV are well-established truths in organizational psychology. Statement II is false because overly strong, rigid cultures can breed groupthink and stifle radical innovation. Correct: I, III, and IV only.
Which of the following statements about leadership styles are correct? I. Transformational leaders focus on inspiring and motivating employees. II. Transactional leaders rely primarily on rewards and punishments to influence behavior. III. Autocratic leadership emphasizes employee participation in decision-making. IV. Laissez-faire leadership involves minimal intervention in employees' activities. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I, II, and IV only)
Statements I, II, and IV are correct definitions of Transformational, Transactional, and Laissez-faire styles. Statement III is false because autocratic leadership centralizes authority without employee participation. Correct: I, II, and IV only.
Match the following: Organizational Concepts: I. Job Satisfaction II. Employee Engagement III. Occupational Stress IV. Diversity Management
Descriptions: 1. Emotional and intellectual investment in the organization 2. Psychological and physical strain due to workplace demands 3. Strategies and practices to support inclusive workplace environments 4. The degree of contentment employees feel about their work
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I-4; II-1; III-2; IV-3)
I -> 4 (Job Satisfaction: degree of contentment), II -> 1 (Employee Engagement: emotional/intellectual investment), III -> 2 (Occupational Stress: strain from workplace demands), IV -> 3 (Diversity Management: inclusive workplace practices). Correct match: I-4; II-1; III-2; IV-3.
Q342
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsVroom's Expectancy Theory
According to Vroom's Expectancy Theory, which factors influence job satisfaction and motivation? I. Valence: The importance of the reward to the individual. II. Instrumentality: The belief that performance will lead to rewards. III. Expectancy: The belief that effort will lead to performance. IV. Security: The assurance of job stability. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I, II and III only)
Victor Vroom's Expectancy Theory of motivation is defined by the formula: Motivation=Expectancy (E)×Instrumentality (I)×Valence (V). Statements I, II, and III constitute the model. Correct: I, II and III only.
Q343
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsHerzberg Two-Factor Theory
Which of the following statements about Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory is true? I. Hygiene factors eliminate dissatisfaction but do not create satisfaction. II. Motivators include factors like recognition and achievement. III. Salary is considered a motivator. IV. Poor working conditions can lead to dissatisfaction. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I, II, and IV only)
In Herzberg's model: Hygiene factors prevent dissatisfaction (I, IV), while Motivators (achievement, recognition) produce true satisfaction (II). Salary is a hygiene factor, not a motivator (Statement III is false). Correct: I, II, and IV only.
Q344
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsJob Characteristics Model
What is the Job Characteristics Model (JCM) primarily concerned with?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Explaining job satisfaction through work environment design)
Hackman and Oldham's Job Characteristics Model (JCM) explains how five core job dimensions (skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, feedback) influence critical psychological states to optimize motivation and work design.
Match the following: Therapies: i. CBT ii. Psychoanalysis iii. Systematic Desensitization iv. EMDR
Description: 1. Focuses on changing maladaptive thoughts and behaviors. 2. Gradual exposure to anxiety-inducing stimuli while practicing relaxation. 3. Combines cognitive restructuring with bilateral stimulation to treat trauma. 4. Explores unconscious conflicts and early life experiences.
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-1; ii-4; iii-2; iv-3)
i -> 1 (CBT: maladaptive thoughts/behaviors), ii -> 4 (Psychoanalysis: unconscious conflicts), iii -> 2 (Systematic Desensitization: gradual exposure with relaxation), iv -> 3 (EMDR: bilateral stimulation for trauma). Correct match: i-1; ii-4; iii-2; iv-3.
Match the following: Therapies: I. Family therapy II. Transactional Analysis III. Play therapy IV. EMDR
Important Psychologist: 1) Virginia Axline 2) Salvador Minuchin 3) Dr. Francine Shapiro 4) Eric Berne
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I-2; II-4; III-1; IV-3)
I -> 2 (Structural Family Therapy: Salvador Minuchin), II -> 4 (Transactional Analysis: Eric Berne), III -> 1 (Child-Centered Play Therapy: Virginia Axline), IV -> 3 (EMDR: Francine Shapiro). Correct match: I-2; II-4; III-1; IV-3.
Which of the following statements about Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT) are true? I. DBT was initially developed to treat Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD). II. DBT combines principles of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) with mindfulness practices. III. DBT completely rejects the use of behavioral techniques in therapy. IV. Skills training in DBT includes modules on emotional regulation and interpersonal effectiveness. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I, II and IV only)
Marsha Linehan developed DBT for BPD (I), integrating CBT with Zen mindfulness (II) and teaching 4 core skills: mindfulness, distress tolerance, emotion regulation, and interpersonal effectiveness (IV). Statement III is false. Correct: I, II and IV only.
Which of the following about MCMI is true? I. It is based on Millon's Evolutionary-Neurodevelopmental theory II. It is based on DSM's earlier multiaxial system III. MCMI IV added the turbulent personality disorder IV. MCMI III has 175 items rated as "True", "Maybe", "False" Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II and III only)
The Millon Clinical Multiaxial Inventory (MCMI) is grounded in Theodore Millon's evolutionary theory (I), coordinated with DSM multiaxial classification (II), and MCMI-IV introduced the Turbulent personality pattern (III). Statement IV is false because MCMI items use a dichotomous 'True/False' format. Correct: I, II and III only.
Q349
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsValidity Scales of MMPI and MCMI
Select the correct statements about MMPI and MCMI I. In MMPI, F scale assesses a person's defensiveness II. In MCMI, Y scale measures the Desirability of the respondent. III. In MCMI, V scale contains items that are highly improbable. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II and III)
In the MCMI validity system, Scale Y measures Social Desirability (II) and Scale V contains highly improbable/bizarre validity items (III). Statement I is false because in MMPI, the K scale (not F scale) assesses defensiveness (F scale detects infrequency/overreporting). Correct: II and III.
Q350
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsPsychological Assessment Instruments
Match the following: Test/ Scale: I. WMS II. IPDE III. DAT IV. BDI
Type of Assessment: 1. Aptitude 2. Semi-structure interview 3. Self-report 4. Neurocognitive
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I-4; II-2; III-1; IV-3)
I -> 4 (Wechsler Memory Scale / WMS: Neurocognitive memory assessment), II -> 2 (International Personality Disorder Examination / IPDE: Semi-structured clinical interview), III -> 1 (Differential Aptitude Test / DAT: Aptitude), IV -> 3 (Beck Depression Inventory / BDI: Self-report inventory). Correct match: I-4; II-2; III-1; IV-3.
Q351
Operating Systems (Linux, Windows), System Software & Hardware ArchitectureProcessor Addressing Modes
In which of the following addressing modes does the operand immediately follow the op-code?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Immediate)
In Immediate Addressing Mode, the operand data itself is specified directly within the instruction immediately following the operation code (e.g. `MOV AX, 05H`).
Q352
Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesOSI Reference Model
Consider the following statements: I. The full form of OSI is Operating Systems Interconnection II. Web service facilitates the communication between nodes in a network Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II only)
Statement I is false (OSI stands for Open Systems Interconnection, not Operating Systems). Statement II is true (web services enable interoperable machine-to-machine communication across networks via HTTP/XML/JSON). Correct: II only.
Q353
Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesModem Functionality
Which of the following best describes the primary function of a modem?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To convert digital signals to analog for transmission and analog signals back to digital for reception)
A Modem (Modulator-Demodulator) modulates outgoing digital signals into analog signals for transmission across analog communication media and demodulates incoming analog signals back into digital data.
Q354
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsCamera Shooting Modes
Which feature allows the camera to take multiple shots in quick succession?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Burst mode)
Burst Mode (Continuous High-Speed Shooting) captures a continuous stream of sequential photos as long as the shutter button remains depressed.
Consider the following statements: I. Single-Servo Autofocus: In AF-S mode, the camera locks focus when the shutter button is pressed halfway. II. Continuous-Servo Autofocus: In AF-C mode, the camera continuously adjusts focus as long as the shutter button is pressed halfway. III. Automatic-Servo Autofocus: Some cameras offer an automatic AF mode that switches between AF-S and AF-C depending on whether the subject is stationary or moving. Which of the given statement is/ are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II and III are correct)
All three statements (I, II, and III) are accurate industry definitions for AF-S (Single), AF-C (Continuous), and AF-A (Auto-switching) autofocus modes.
Q356
Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomLight Metering Modes
The mode divides the frame into multiple zones and evaluates the light levels in each zone to determine the most appropriate exposure settings:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Matrix or evaluative metering)
Matrix (or Evaluative/Multi-zone) Metering divides the complete composition into an array of distinct zones (grid), analyzing highlights, shadows, and focus points to calculate balanced optimal exposure.
Q357
Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomCamera Scene Modes
Which mode should be used to capture fast-moving subjects?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sports mode)
Sports Mode automatically prioritizes high shutter speeds (1/1000exts or faster), continuous predictive autofocus tracking (AF-C), and high-speed burst drive to freeze fast athletic action.
Q358
Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomManual Mode Operation
In manual mode, which two settings are adjusted to control exposure?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Aperture and shutter speed)
In classical Manual (M) exposure mode, the photographer directly adjusts the Aperture (f-number) and Shutter Speed (and ISO) to establish full creative exposure control.
Q359
Computer Science, Operating Systems & MS OfficeOSI Model Layers Matching
Choose the best matching between GROUP-I and GROUP-II GROUP-I: w. Data Link Layer x. Network Layer y. Transport Layer
GROUP-II: i. Ensures reliable transport of bits over a Physical point-to-point link ii. Encodes/decodes data for physical transmission iii. end-to-end communication between two processes iv. Routes data from one network node to the next
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (w-i, x-iv, y-iii)
w -> i (Data Link: node-to-node framing across physical link), x -> iv (Network Layer: packet routing between network nodes), y -> iii (Transport Layer: end-to-end process-to-process communication). Correct match: w-i, x-iv, y-iii.
Q360
Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Hospital Administration Statistics
Medical records are used for hospital administration by:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Analysing bed occupancy and turnover rates)
Hospital administrators evaluate inpatient census logs from medical records to calculate Bed Occupancy Rates, Average Length of Stay (ALOS), and Bed Turnover Intervals for capacity planning.
Q361
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsHospital Bed Terminology
What does "inpatient bed" means?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Any bed meant for over night stay)
In healthcare statistics, an Inpatient Bed is defined as a hospital bed maintained for continuous 24-hour medical observation and Overnight Stay of admitted patients.
What is the primary factor that most significantly affects the average length of stay (ALOS) in a hospital?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Severity of the patient's condition)
The clinical severity, acuity, and complexity of a patient's underlying illness/comorbidities are the single most significant determinants of the duration of inpatient hospital stay.
Which statistic is used to assess resource utilization in a hospital?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bed occupancy rate)
Bed Occupancy Rate (BOR = Bed Days AvailableInpatient Service Days×100) is the primary quantitative metric used to assess operational inpatient resource utilization.
Q364
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsCase Mix Index (CMI)
What does the "case mix index" represent in hospital statistics?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The diversity and complexity of cases treated in a hospital)
The Case Mix Index (CMI) reflects the clinical complexity, diversity, and expected resource intensity of patients treated in a specific hospital.
Which statistical measure is most effective for assessing the consistency of patient outcomes across multiple hospital departments?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Coefficient of variation)
The Coefficient of Variation (CV=μσ×100) is a dimensionless relative measure of dispersion, ideal for comparing relative consistency/variability across departments with differing baseline scales.
Which of the following statements about hospital statistics is correct? Statement 1: A high "Case Mix Index" (CMI) reflects a hospital's ability to treat complex patients Statement 2: Hospital statistics could be evaluated in isolation without considering external benchmarks. Statement 3: The "patient satisfaction score" is a critical hospital statistic for improving service delivery. Which of the following statement is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Statements 1 and 3 are correct)
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is false because hospital statistics must always be benchmarked against state, national, and peer institutional standards to identify care gaps. Correct: Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Q368
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsSpeed, Distance & Time
If a train travels 60km in 1 hour, how far will it travel in 4 hours at the same speed?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (240km)
Distance=Speed×Time=60 km/h×4 hours=240 km.
Q369
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsMarked Price and Discount
A shopkeeper buys an article for Rs.500. He marks it at 20% above the cost price. If he sells it at 12% discount, what is the selling price?
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsConsecutive Even Numbers
The sum of the squares of two consecutive even numbers is 340. What are the numbers?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (12 and 14)
Let the numbers be x and x+2. x2+(x+2)2=340⟹2x2+4x+4=340⟹x2+2x−168=0⟹(x+14)(x−12)=0⟹x=12. The consecutive even numbers are 12 and 14 (check: 122+142=144+196=340).
Q371
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsTime and Work
If the time taken by A and B together to complete a task is 6 hours and A alone takes 10 hours, how long will B take to complete the task alone?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (15 hours)
Work rate equation: B1=A+B1−A1=61−101=305−3=302=151. Thus, B alone takes 15 hours.
Q372
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsNumber Series
Find the missing number in the series: 2,6,12,20,30,?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (42)
The differences between successive terms increase by 2: +4,+6,+8,+10,+12. Therefore, missing term =30+12=42 (or n(n+1):1×2=2,2×3=6,3×4=12,4×5=20,5×6=30,6×7=42).
Q373
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsExponents and Powers
The average of five consecutive odd numbers is 25. What is the largest number?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (29)
In an arithmetic progression of 5 consecutive odd numbers, the average equals the middle number (3rd number =25). The sequence is 21,23,25,27,29. The largest number is 29.
Which term refers to the total number of patients treated in a hospital during a specific time?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Patient turnover)
Patient Turnover reflects the overall volume and aggregate number of unique patients admitted, treated, and discharged over a specified reporting timeframe.
Q385
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsAverage Daily Census
Which of the following statistics is used to measure the workload of hospital staff?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Average daily census)
The Average Daily Census (ADC = total inpatient days ÷ days in period) directly reflects the continuous daily patient volume and is the primary benchmark for nursing staff workload allocation.
What does the gross autopsy rate measure in a hospital?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The percentage of deaths for which autopsies were performed)
The Gross Autopsy Rate (GAR) measures the ratio/percentage of inpatient deaths on which hospital post-mortem pathological examinations (autopsies) were performed relative to total hospital deaths.
Consider the following statements: I. A larger sample size enables more accurate approximation of the true population values II. Samples from a population are meant to represent the whole population III. T test is used for n < 25-30 IV. T test is used for n > 25-30 Select the correct statements from the above:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I, II and III)
Statements I, II, and III are correct: Increasing sample size reduces standard error (I), representative sampling reflects population parameters (II), and Student's t-test is specifically applied to small sample sizes (n<30) where population variance is unknown (III). Correct: I, II and III.
Q391
Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsLogistic Population Growth (S-Curve)
Which curve shows the population growth of every organism in the environment with carrying capacity?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (S-curve)
Under real environmental constraints with limiting resources and carrying capacity (K), population growth of organisms follows the Sigmoid / S-shaped Logistic Growth Curve (dN/dt=rN(1−N/K)).
Q392
Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeWind and Dispersion Meteorology
Consider the following statements: i. Wind is air in motion relative to the earth's surface ii. Wind is air in motion relative to atmosphere. iii. Wind is air in motion relative to Earth's rotation. iv. Vertical motion of the wind is responsible for the movement of pollutants. Which of the above statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ((i), (iv))
Statements i and iv are correct: Wind is meteorologically defined as air moving horizontally and vertically relative to the Earth's ground surface (i), and turbulent vertical winds/convection govern the vertical dispersion of air pollutants (iv). Correct: (i), (iv).
The probability distribution that characterizes some aspects of sampling variability is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sampling distribution)
In inferential statistics, a Sampling Distribution is the theoretical probability distribution of a sample statistic (e.g. sample mean ar{x}, sample variance s2) obtained through repeated random sampling from a population.
Consider the following statements: i. Student's t distribution depends on the quantity called degree of freedom ii. Student's t distribution is symmetric, and bell shaped iii. Student's t distribution have a smaller standard deviation iv. As the sample size increases the student's t distribution approaches Poisson distribution Which of the above statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C ((i), (ii))
Statements i and ii are correct: Student's t-distribution is completely parameterized by its Degrees of Freedom (df=n−1) (i), and is symmetrical, unimodal, and bell-shaped centered at 0 with heavier tails than the normal curve (ii). (Statement iii is false as variance is larger than standard normal; iv is false as it approaches the Normal distribution, not Poisson). Correct: (i), (ii).
In one of the monitoring experiments conducted in the field, the following concentrations of NOx in μg/m3 were obtained: 75.83,76.03,82.35,82.7,87.08,88.25,97.43,108.12,125.28 What is the median?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (87.08 ug/m^3)
For n=9 ordered observations, the Median is the middle value at position 2n+1=210=5th position: 87.08μg/m3.
In one of the water quality experiments in the field the following concentration of NO3 was obtained in mg/l: 46,46,50,54,54 The variance of the above experimental data is 12.8. What is the standard deviation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3.57 mg/l)
Standard Deviation=Variance=12.8≈3.5777 mg/l≈3.57 mg/l.
Consider the following statements: i. Lognormal distribution fits the skewed data sets ii. In the normal distribution curve, around 95% of the values are withing one standard deviation of the mean iii. The normal distribution curve is not symmetrical about its central line iv. Normal distribution fits the symmetrical data sets Which of the above statements are not correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B ((ii), (iii))
Statements ii and iii are incorrect: In a normal distribution, ~68.2% (not 95%) of values lie within ±1σ of the mean (ii is false), and the normal curve is strictly symmetrical about μ (iii is false). Statements i and iv are correct. Therefore, the statements that are NOT correct are (ii), (iii).
Consider the following pairs: Set - A (Waste Category): 1. Vegetable residues and garbage 2. Pulp and paper waste 3. Radioactive substance 4. Pathological waste
Set - B (Classification): i. Hazardous waste ii. Municipal Solid waste iii. Biomedical waste iv. Industrial waste
Which one among the pairs given below is correct:
💡Correct Answer: Option B ((1)-(ii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(i), (4)-(iii))
1 -> ii (Vegetable/kitchen garbage: Municipal Solid Waste MSW), 2 -> iv (Pulp and paper sludge: Non-hazardous Industrial waste), 3 -> i (Radioactive substances: Hazardous Nuclear Waste), 4 -> iii (Pathological/human tissues: Biomedical Waste). Correct match: (1)-(ii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(i), (4)-(iii).
To obtain the dry mass of solid waste material and to limit the vaporization of volatile materials, the solid waste material is dried in an oven at:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (77°C for 24 hours)
To determine dry mass of solid waste without thermal decomposition and volatilization of volatile organic compounds, standard solid waste characterization protocols specify gentle oven drying at 77∘extC for 24 hours (EPA/ASTM standards).
Consider the following statements: i. The aim of EIA is to inform the decision maker of the potential significant environment effects and risks of developmental proposals. ii. The aim of EIA is to model the dispersion of pollutant coming out of sources present in the developmental projects. iii. The aim of EIA is to promote sustainable development by ensuring that the development proposals do not undermine critical resources. iv. The aim of EIA primarily involves the screening and scoping of developmental projects. Which of the above statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C ((i), (iii))
Statements i and iii are foundational objectives of Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA): To systematically inform statutory decision-makers of environmental risks and impacts (i), and to promote sustainable development through mitigation of environmental degradation (iii). Correct: (i), (iii).
Consider the following pairs: Set - A (Baseline Stage): 1. Baseline Analysis 2. Baseline Assessment 3. Baseline Survey 4. Baseline Information
Set - B (Description): i. Preliminary evaluation of environmental components ii. Any form of measurement that's used for comparison and analysis iii. Conditions at the time the project is proposed iv. Done at the beginning of a project to get knowledge of current status
Which one among the pairs given below is correct:
💡Correct Answer: Option D ((1)-(ii), (2)-(i), (3)-(iv), (4)-(iii))
1 -> ii (Baseline Analysis: comparative analytical measurement), 2 -> i (Baseline Assessment: preliminary evaluation of environmental components), 3 -> iv (Baseline Survey: field survey at start of project to record current status), 4 -> iii (Baseline Information: ambient environmental conditions at project proposal). Correct match: (1)-(ii), (2)-(i), (3)-(iv), (4)-(iii).
Consider the following pairs: Set - A (EIA Matrix Tool): 1. Simple Matrix 2. Time-dependent matrix 3. Magnitude Matrix 4. Leopold Matrix
Set - B (Characteristics): i. Qualitative methods for assessing environmental impacts of proposed projects ii. Tool that identifies the importance, magnitude, and time frame of potential impacts iii. Grid or table that lists environmental aspects on one axis and activities on the other iv. Tool that identifies impacts based on their magnitude, importance, and time frame
Which one among the pairs given below is correct:
💡Correct Answer: Option B ((1)-(iii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(ii), (4)-(i))
1 -> iii (Simple Matrix: 2D interaction grid of activities vs environmental factors), 2 -> iv (Time-dependent matrix: incorporates short/long term temporal impact duration), 3 -> ii (Magnitude Matrix: quantifies impact importance and magnitude), 4 -> i (Leopold Matrix: pioneering 100 project actions imes 88 environmental parameters qualitative matrix). Correct match: (1)-(iii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(ii), (4)-(i).
Consider the following pairs: Set - A (ISO Standards): 1. ISO 14001 2. ISO 14006 3. ISO 14020 4. ISO 14040
Set - B (Scope): i. Guidelines for incorporating eco-design ii. Environmental labels and declarations iii. Environmental management systems - requirements with guidance for use iv. Life cycle assessment
Which one among the pairs given below is correct:
💡Correct Answer: Option A ((1)-(iii), (2)-(i), (3)-(ii), (4)-(iv))
1 -> iii (ISO 14001: EMS requirements and specifications), 2 -> i (ISO 14006: Eco-design guidelines), 3 -> ii (ISO 14020: Environmental labels and declarations), 4 -> iv (ISO 14040: Life Cycle Assessment LCA principles and framework). Correct match: (1)-(iii), (2)-(i), (3)-(ii), (4)-(iv).
In a high-volume sampler, the gases are measured using the principle of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Absorption)
In ambient High-Volume Air Samplers (HVAS / Respirable Dust Samplers), gaseous pollutants (extSO2,extNO2,extNH3) are sampled by bubbling ambient air through chemical reagent solutions in glass impingers using the principle of Gas Absorption.
Q407
Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangePollutant Dispersion Equation
Dispersion is equal to:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Diffusion + advection)
In environmental fluid transport mechanics and atmospheric plume dispersion, total hydrodynamic dispersion represents the combined synergistic additive transport: Dispersion=Molecular/Turbulent Diffusion+Advective Bulk Flow(Diffusion + Advection).
Q408
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsHierarchy of Communication Effects
Which of the following is the correct sequence of levels in studying the effect of communication, as described in the communication process?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Exposure, Comprehension, Recall, Acceptance, Action)
In classical hierarchy-of-effects communication models (McGuire's Information Processing Model / Lavidge & Steiner), the sequential cognitive and behavioral stages are: Exposure (Attention) −> Comprehension (Understanding) −> Recall (Retention) −> Acceptance (Attitude Change) −> Action (Behavior). Choice A.
Q409
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsPropaganda History Chronology
Arrange the following historical events in the order they occurred: i. Establishment of the Ministry of Popular Enlightenment and Propaganda in Nazi Germany. ii. Use of propaganda by the Allies during WWII. iii. Cold War propaganda efforts by the US and USSR. iv. Pope Gregory XV's establishment of the Sacra Congregation de Propaganda Fide. Choose the correct Answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (iv, i, ii, iii)
Chronological timeline of propaganda history: iv. Pope Gregory XV establishes Sacra Congregatio de Propaganda Fide = 1622 −> i. Joseph Goebbels' Nazi Ministry of Propaganda = 1933 −> ii. Allied WWII propaganda = 1939–1945 −> iii. US/USSR Cold War psychological warfare = 1947–1991. Correct sequence: iv, i, ii, iii.
Q410
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsCritical Media Theory (Frankfurt School)
The Frankfurt School's critical theory of communication primarily focuses on:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Power relationships and media hegemony)
The Frankfurt School (Theodor Adorno, Max Horkheimer, Herbert Marcuse, Jürgen Habermas) developed Critical Cultural Theory to critique the capitalist 'Culture Industry', focusing on how mass media reinforces ideological domination, power asymmetries, and ideological hegemony.
Q411
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsWestern Communication Models
Which of the following statements about Western communication models are true? i. Shannon and Weaver's model focused on information efficiency rather than social interaction. ii. Lasswell's model emphasizes the process of persuasion and propaganda. iii. Wilbur Schramm's model highlights the encoding-decoding aspect of communication. iv. Western communication theories generally prioritize collective participation over individual influence. Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, and iii)
Statements i, ii, and iii are true: Shannon-Weaver (1949) is a technical linear transmission model (i), Lasswell (1948) focused on political persuasion/propaganda (ii), Schramm (1954) introduced reciprocal encoding/decoding and field of experience (iii). Statement iv is false because Western models emphasize individualistic linear transmission rather than Asian collectivism. Correct: i, ii, and iii.
Q412
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationModernization Paradigm (Magic Multipliers)
In the modernization approach to development communication, mass media were often viewed as which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Magic multipliers for economic and social development)
In early Modernization Paradigm theories of development communication (Wilbur Schramm, Daniel Lerner, Everett Rogers), mass media were conceptualized as 'Magic Multipliers' that could rapidly accelerate technical knowledge transfer and social change in developing nations.
Q413
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsPropaganda Typologies (Black Propaganda)
What is the primary goal of "black propaganda"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To spread false information while concealing the source.)
Black Propaganda is psychological warfare disinformation where the material is deliberately fabricated/false and its true origin is entirely concealed or falsely attributed to the enemy/opposing party.
Q414
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsNazi Propaganda Techniques
Which of the following techniques was used by the Nazis to make their propaganda effective?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Repetition of simple messages and powerful imagery.)
Under Joseph Goebbels' propaganda doctrine in Nazi Germany, mass persuasion relied on the relentless Repetition of Simple Slogans, stark black-and-white framing, emotional appeals, and striking visual imagery (flags, rallies, swastika iconography).
Q415
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsIndian Communication Theory (Sadharanikaran)
According to Indian communication theory: i. Sahridaya refers to an individual capable of receiving a message with full understanding. ii. Sadharanikaran ensures equal participation of all individuals in communication. iii. The concept of rasa is closely related to emotional engagement in communication. iv. Unlike Western models, Indian communication theories prioritize receiver interpretation over sender control. Which of the above statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i, iii, and iv)
Statements i, iii, and iv are core tenets of the Sadharanikaran Model of Communication (SMC based on Bharata Muni's Natya Shastra): The receiver must be a Sahridaya (culturally receptive heart - i), communication aims at evoking Rasa (aesthetic/emotional experience - iii), and meaning is realized through receiver resonance rather than sender domination (iv). Correct: i, iii, and iv.
Q416
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsCommunication Levels & Types Matching
Match the following communication types with their characteristics: Communication Type: i. Intrapersonal ii. Interpersonal iii. Group Communication iv. Mass Communication
Characteristic: 1. Public discourse with feedback 2. Individual reflection and thought 3. One-to-one direct interaction 4. One-to-many mediated message dissemination
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4)
i -> 2 (Intrapersonal: internal monologue, self-reflection), ii -> 3 (Interpersonal: dyadic one-to-one communication), iii -> 1 (Group communication: public small/large group discourse), iv -> 4 (Mass communication: one-to-many mediated broadcast dissemination). Correct match: i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4.
Q417
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsSadharanikaran Universalization
Which of the following concepts in Indian communication theory is closest in meaning to 'commonness' in communication?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sadharanikaran)
In Sanskrit poetics and Indian communication theory, Sadharanikaran (derived from sadharana meaning common or universal) literally translates to 'Universalization' or achieving 'Commonness' of experience and emotional resonance between communicator and receiver.
Q418
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsPropaganda Classifications Matching
Match the following types of propaganda with their descriptions: i. Black Propaganda ii. White Propaganda iii. Grey Propaganda
Description: 1. Uses mostly accurate information from a clearly identified source. 2. Spreads false information while concealing the source. 3. A mix of true and false information, with unclear sources.
Which of the following is the correct match?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-1, iii-3)
i -> 2 (Black Propaganda: deceptive, false information with fabricated/concealed origins), ii -> 1 (White Propaganda: truthful, accurate information openly credited to an identified government/source), iii -> 3 (Grey Propaganda: ambiguous mix of truth and half-truths with non-transparent origin). Correct match: i-2, ii-1, iii-3.
Q419
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsSadharanikaran Shared Consciousness
Which term describes the process where an individual enters into mental cooperation with another, forming a common conscience?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sadharanikaran)
Sadharanikaran in Indian communication theory (elaborated by Bhattanayaka and Abhinavagupta) is the psychological and aesthetic process whereby personal ego boundaries dissolve, enabling communicator and receiver to attain mutual empathy and a shared collective consciousness.
Q420
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsRasa Theory (Bharata Muni)
Which Indian scholar proposed that the ancient concept of 'rasa' is central to communication theory?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bharata Muni)
Bharata Muni in his seminal Sanskrit treatise Natya Shastra (c. 200 BCE–200 CE) formulated the Rasa Theory (Rasa Sutra), establishing that the primary goal of aesthetic performance and communication is evoking emotional sentiment (Rasa) in the audience.
Q421
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsCommunication Theorists Matching
Match the scholars with their corresponding communication theories: i. Harold Lasswell ii. Wilbur Schramm iii. Stuart Hall iv. James Carey
Communication Theory: 1. Encoding-Decoding Model 2. Effects Model 3. Ritual Model 4. Reception Theory / Cultural Encoding
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3)
i -> 2 (Harold Lasswell: Effects Model - 'Who says What in Which Channel to Whom with What Effect'), ii -> 1 (Wilbur Schramm: Circular Encoding-Decoding Model), iii -> 4 (Stuart Hall: Encoding/Decoding Cultural Reception Theory), iv -> 3 (James Carey: Communication as Culture / Ritual Model). Correct match: i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3.
Q422
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsHistory of Mass Media Inventions
Arrange the following key developments in mass communication in chronological order: i. Gutenberg's printing press ii. The rise of the telegraph iii. The invention of radio iv. The emergence of the internet Choose the correct sequence:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i, ii, iii, iv)
Chronological mass media inventions: i. Johannes Gutenberg's movable metal type printing press = c. 1440 −> ii. Samuel Morse's electric telegraph = 1837/1844 −> iii. Guglielmo Marconi's wireless radio telegraphy = 1895–1901 −> iv. ARPANET / World Wide Web Internet = 1969/1989. Correct sequence: i, ii, iii, iv.
Q423
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsHypodermic Needle Theory
In the context of mass media effects, which theory assumes that audiences are passive and directly influenced by media messages?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Hypodermic Needle Model)
The Hypodermic Needle Model (or Magic Bullet Theory, rooted in 1930s behaviorism) posits that mass media injects persuasive messages directly into a passive, defenseless mass audience, causing uniform and immediate psychological reactions.
Q424
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsWhite Propaganda Example
Which of the following is an example of "white propaganda"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Republic Day parade coverage on Doordarshan.)
White Propaganda comes from an openly identified, official, transparent source and disseminates accurate, factual information (e.g., official live national broadcast coverage of the Republic Day Parade by public broadcaster Doordarshan).
Q425
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsMarshall McLuhan (Gutenberg Galaxy)
According to Marshall McLuhan, the printing press led to:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A linear and visual, individualistic communication culture)
In The Gutenberg Galaxy (1962), Marshall McLuhan argued that movable print transformed human cognition from an acoustic, tribal oral culture into a detached, linear, visual, and individualistic culture ('Typographic Man'). Choice C.
Q426
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsNatya Shastra Communication Concepts
Match the following terms with their meanings in Indian communication theory: Concept: i. Sadharanikaran ii. Sahridaya iii. Rasa iv. Bhava
Meaning: 1. Emotional essence of communication 2. Mutual understanding in communication 3. One with a receptive heart 4. The permanent mood in a communicative act
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4)
i -> 2 (Sadharanikaran: universalization / mutual understanding), ii -> 3 (Sahridaya: receiver with a receptive empathetic heart), iii -> 1 (Rasa: the aesthetic emotional essence evoked), iv -> 4 (Bhava: the underlying mental state / permanent mood / sthayibhava). Correct match: i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4.
Q427
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsGrey Propaganda Example
Which of the following is an example of "grey propaganda"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A pharmaceutical company exaggerating the benefits of its new drug.)
Grey Propaganda refers to information where the source is non-transparent or ambiguous, and the content is partially true but deliberately spun/exaggerated for commercial or political influence (e.g. pharmaceutical corporate PR exaggerating drug efficacy).
Q428
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsPropaganda Nature & History
Consider the following statements about propaganda: i. Propaganda is always based on false information. ii. Propaganda can be used to influence both domestic and foreign audiences. iii. The term "propaganda" originated from religious movements in the 17th century. iv. Propaganda is only effective in totalitarian regimes. Which of the statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ii and iii)
Statements ii and iii are historically correct: Propaganda is deployed internationally and domestically to shape public opinion (ii), and the term originated in 1622 when Pope Gregory XV founded the Congregatio de Propaganda Fide (iii). (Statement i is false as white propaganda uses truth; iv is false as democracies actively use public diplomacy/propaganda). Correct: ii and iii.
Q429
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsHistorical Propaganda Methods Matching
Match the following historical events with their associated propaganda techniques: i. Nazi Germany ii. Allied efforts during WWII iii. Cold War
Techniques: 1. Demonising the enemy through films and posters. 2. Subtle censorship and "strategy of truth." 3. Psychological warfare through radio broadcasts.
Which of the following is the correct match?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3)
i -> 1 (Nazi Germany: racial demonization and anti-Semitic propaganda films like Der ewige Jude), ii -> 2 (Allied WWII: BBC / US OWI 'Strategy of Truth' factual framing), iii -> 3 (Cold War: covert radio psychological warfare via Radio Liberty / Voice of America). Correct match: i-1, ii-2, iii-3.
Q430
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsRitual Model of Communication (James Carey)
Who among the following scholars is associated with the 'Ritual Model' of communication?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (James Carey)
James W. Carey in his book Communication as Culture (1989) introduced the 'Ritual View of Communication' (contrasting with the transmission view), defining communication as a sacred ceremony that creates, maintains, and transforms a shared cultural community.
Q431
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsPropaganda Techniques (Fear Appeals)
Which of the following techniques is commonly used in propaganda to create a climate of fear?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Fear appeals.)
Fear Appeals (Scare Tactics) in propaganda intentionally leverage terrifying or catastrophic warnings to trigger anxiety in the target audience, coercing them to accept a proposed political action or authoritarian policy.
Q432
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsSource Credibility (Hovland & Weiss)
In a study on the credibility of sources and opinion change, Hovland and Weiss manipulated the authorship of messages attributed to different sources. What was the key finding of this experiment?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Messages from credible sources resulted in more significant opinion change.)
In their classic Yale communication study (1951), Carl Hovland and Walter Weiss discovered that messages attributed to High-Credibility Sources produced significantly greater immediate opinion change compared to low-credibility sources (though this difference faded over time due to the 'sleeper effect').
Q433
Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentModern Sociological Theory (Risk Society)
Who proposed the idea of Risk Society?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ulrich Beck)
German sociologist Ulrich Beck pioneered the sociological concept of 'Risk Society' (Risikogesellschaft, 1986), arguing that modern industrial societies produce manufactured technological, environmental, and chemical hazards that transcend national and class boundaries.
Q434
Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentModels of Development
Which of the following model of development is based on free market and competitiveness?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Western liberal model)
The Western Liberal (Capitalist / Neoliberal) Model of Development is fundamentally grounded in laissez-faire free-market enterprise, privatization, deregulation, supply-and-demand price mechanisms, and competitive open markets.
Q435
Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyFreud Structural Personality Model
Freud's structural model of personality is related to:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Id, ego, superego)
Sigmund Freud formulated the tripartite Structural Model of Personality comprising the Id (unconscious primal desires), the Ego (rational realistic mediator), and the Superego (internalized moral conscience).
Q436
Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsExperimental Cognitive Psychology (Stroop Effect)
Which of the following is an experimental cognitive psychology interference effect on reaction time?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Stroop effect)
The Stroop Effect (demonstrated by J. Ridley Stroop in 1935) is a classic cognitive interference phenomenon where reaction times are significantly delayed when naming the ink color of a word that spells a conflicting color name (e.g., the word 'RED' printed in blue ink).
Q437
Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsSignal Detection Theory in Memory
Which of the following is a commonly used dependent variable in signal detection memory experiments?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Hits)
In Signal Detection Theory (SDT) and recognition memory paradigms, the primary dependent variables measuring memory sensitivity (d′) and accuracy include Hits (correctly identifying a target item), False Alarms, Misses, and Correct Rejections.
Q438
Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsResearch Methodology (Experimental Design)
In which research method does the researcher have maximum control over the manipulation of the Independent Variable (IV)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Experimental method)
The True Experimental Method provides the highest degree of scientific control, enabling the researcher to directly manipulate the Independent Variable (IV), randomly assign participants, and control extraneous variables to establish cause-and-effect relationships.
Q439
Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsQualitative Research (Focus Group)
A qualitative research method which involves getting a group of people who share a common problem or interest together to have an interactive discussion on the same is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Focus group)
A Focus Group (Focus Group Discussion / FGD) is a qualitative research technique where a trained moderator guides a small group of participants with shared characteristics or experiences through a semi-structured interactive discussion to gather in-depth insights.
Q440
Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsExperimental Designs (Repeated Measures)
A research design where every participant is exposed to all levels of the Independent Variable (IV) is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Repeated measures design)
A Repeated Measures Design (also termed a Within-Subjects Design) is an experimental design in which every single participant is exposed sequentially to all levels or conditions of the independent variable, serving as their own control.
Q441
Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsStatistical Tests and Metrics Matching
Match the statistical method with its primary purpose: i. Shapiro-Wilk Test ii. Cohen's d iii. Kendall's tau iv. Levene's Test
Purpose: 1. Effect size estimation 2. Check data suitability for factor analysis 3. Test of normality 4. Test of homogeneity of variance 5. Correlation of ordinal variables
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-3, ii-1, iii-5, iv-4)
i -> 3 (Shapiro-Wilk: test of distribution normality), ii -> 1 (Cohen's d: standardized effect size measure of mean differences), iii -> 5 (Kendall's tau: non-parametric rank correlation coefficient for ordinal data), iv -> 4 (Levene's Test: test of equality/homogeneity of variances). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-5, iv-4.
Q442
Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsInferential Statistics (p-value Interpretation)
A statistically significant result (p<.05) in a psychological study implies the following: 1. A moderate effect size 2. The research hypothesis is accepted / supported 3. Null hypothesis is false 4. The probability that the observed result occurs by chance is less than 5% Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2 and 4)
In inferential hypothesis testing, an alpha level of p<0.05 indicates that there is less than a 5% probability that the observed group difference occurred under the null hypothesis by random chance (4), providing statistical grounds to reject H0 and support the research alternative hypothesis (2). (p-value does not measure effect size). Correct: 2 and 4 (Choice C).
Q443
Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsParametric Statistics (One-Way ANOVA)
A researcher is interested in understanding if there is a significant difference in the loneliness experienced between single, married and divorced women. Which statistical test would be most appropriate to use?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (One-way ANOVA)
When comparing the continuous mean scores of a dependent variable (loneliness) across Three independent categorical groups (single, married, divorced), a One-Way Analysis of Variance (One-Way ANOVA) is the standard statistical omnibus test (t-test is limited to exactly two groups).
Q444
Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsPsychometrics (Criterion-Related Validity)
Which of this is a type of criterion-related validity for psychometric tests?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Concurrent validity)
Criterion-Related Validity evaluates how well one measure predicts an outcome based on another independent benchmark criterion; its two recognized subtypes are Concurrent Validity (measured at the same time) and Predictive Validity (measured at a future time).
Q445
Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsPsychometrics Concepts Matching
Match the psychometric concepts with their techniques/formulas: i. Item analysis ii. Standard score iii. Internal consistency iv. Scaling technique
Techniques: 1) Parallel forms 2) KR-20 / Cronbach Alpha 3) Semantic differential 4) Stanine / Z-score 5) Discrimination index
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-5, ii-4, iii-2, iv-3)
i -> 5 (Item analysis: item difficulty and Discrimination Index D), ii -> 4 (Standard score: Stanine scale, Z-scores, T-scores), iii -> 2 (Internal consistency reliability: Kuder-Richardson Formula 20 / KR-20), iv -> 3 (Scaling technique: Osgood's Semantic Differential scale). Correct match: i-5, ii-4, iii-2, iv-3.
Q446
Neuropsychology, Clinical Assessment & De-Addiction InterventionsWHO Biopsychosocial Model of Disability
Over the years, the World Health Organization's (WHO) conceptual, diagnostic and treatment purview has evolved through which of the models of disability?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (From medical model to biopsychosocial model)
The World Health Organization (WHO) transitioned from the traditional reductionist Biomedical Model (ICIDH, 1980) to the integrative Biopsychosocial Model in the International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health (ICF, 2001), synthesizing biological impairments, personal activities, and environmental barriers.
Q447
Guest Cycle, Reservations & TelecommunicationsModes of Reservation vs Walk-in
Which of the following is NOT a mode of reservation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Walk-in)
A 'Walk-in' is a category of guest who arrives at the hotel seeking accommodation without any advance reservation. Telephone, Central Reservation Computer systems (CRS/GDS), and Email are modes/channels of making reservations.
Q448
Guest Cycle, Reservations & TelecommunicationsModern Front Office Technology Trends
Which among these is NOT an emerging modern digital trend in rooms division?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Whitney system)
Modern emerging trends in rooms division include Smart Mobile Digital Keys (RFID/Bluetooth), AI-driven Hotel Chatbots, and Digital Concierge Apps. The 'Whitney System' is an obsolete manual paper-and-rack reservation system invented in the 1940s.
Q449
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTModern Indian History Matching
Match the following historical events with their years: Events: i. Civil Disobedience Movement ii. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre iii. Quit India Movement iv. Simon Commission Arrival in India
Years: 1. 1919 2. 1942 3. 1930 4. 1928
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4)
i -> 3 (Civil Disobedience Movement: launched with Dandi March in 1930), ii -> 1 (Jallianwala Bagh Massacre: 13 April 1919 in Amritsar), iii -> 2 (Quit India Movement: August 1942), iv -> 4 (Simon Commission arrived in Bombay: February 1928). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4 (Choice B).
Consider the following Statement: Assertion (A): The coin when flipped next time will come up tails. Reason (R): Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time it came up heads. Choose the correct answer from below:
💡Correct Answer: Option C ((A) is doubtful, (R) is true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).)
In probability theory, coin tosses are independent Bernoulli trials (P(Tails)=0.5 regardless of past outcomes). Believing tails is 'due' after five heads is the classic Gambler's Fallacy. Thus, Assertion (A) is uncertain/doubtful, past history Reason (R) is factually true, and (R) is NOT a valid explanation for (A). Choice C.
The fundamental unit of biological evolution is the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (population)
In modern evolutionary synthesis (population genetics), the Population (a local interbreeding group of individuals of the same species sharing a common gene pool) is the basic fundamental unit of biological evolution (natural selection acts upon individuals, but populations evolve over time via allele frequency changes).
When two coins are tossed simultaneously, what are the chances (probability) of getting at least one tail?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3/4)
Sample space of two coins: S={HH,HT,TH,TT} (total 4 outcomes). Event 'at least one tail' contains {HT,TH,TT} (3 outcomes). Probability =43. Choice A.
Q453
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Modern Indian History (Poona Pact)
The historic Poona Pact of 1932 was an agreement signed between:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Gandhi and Ambedkar)
The Poona Pact was signed on 24 September 1932 at Yerwada Central Jail between Mahatma Gandhi (represented by Madan Mohan Malaviya and other leaders) and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, replacing separate electorates with reserved legislative seats for the Depressed Classes.
Q454
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Modern Indian History (Partition of Bengal)
Name the Viceroy of India at the time of the Partition of Bengal in 1905:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lord Curzon)
Lord Curzon (Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905) issued the controversial order partitioning the province of Bengal in October 1905.
Q455
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Modern Indian History (Annulment of Bengal Partition)
In which year was the partition of Bengal cancelled / annulled?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1911)
The Partition of Bengal was revoked and annulled in December 1911 by King George V at the Delhi Durbar, under Viceroy Lord Hardinge II.
Q456
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Modern Indian History (Khilafat Movement)
Which among the following movements was combined with the Non-Cooperation Movement under Gandhiji's leadership?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Khilafat Movement)
Mahatma Gandhi unified the Indian National Congress's Non-Cooperation Movement with the pan-Islamic Khilafat Movement (led by the Ali brothers) in 1920 to forge unprecedented Hindu-Muslim nationalist unity.
When two coins are tossed simultaneously, what are the chances of getting at least one tail?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3/4)
Sample space when two coins are tossed: S={HH,HT,TH,TT}, total outcomes =4. Favourable outcomes with at least one tail ={HT,TH,TT}, number of favourable outcomes =3. Probability =43. Choice A.
Q458
Indian Polity, History & GeographyModern Indian History (Partition of Bengal)
Name the Viceroy of India at the time of the Partition of Bengal in 1905:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lord Curzon)
Lord Curzon was the Viceroy and Governor-General of India who ordered the controversial Partition of Bengal in October 1905.
Q459
Indian Polity, History & GeographyModern Indian History (Annulment of Partition)
In which year was the partition of Bengal cancelled/annulled by the British Crown?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1911)
The Partition of Bengal was annulled by King George V at the historic Delhi Durbar in December 1911, and the capital of British India was simultaneously shifted from Calcutta to Delhi.
A histogram represents the data distribution of the marks scored by 50 students in a test: Interval: 0-10 (freq: 5), 10-20 (freq: 8), 20-30 (freq: 12), 30-40 (freq: 15), 40-50 (freq: 10). Which interval contains the mode of the data?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (30-40)
The modal class is the interval that possesses the highest frequency. Here, the maximum frequency is 15, corresponding to the class interval 30-40. Choice C.
Q461
Computer Applications, IT & e-Governancee-Governance & PPP Models
Consider the following statement: Statement (I): The long-term sustainability of e-governance projects depends on financial viability, especially if they are to be implemented in the Public-Private Partnership (PPP) mode. Statement (II): PPP models in e-governance often involve significant upfront investments by private partners, requiring a robust revenue model to ensure project continuity. Which of the following statement is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I))
Both statements are true and causally explanatory: Under PPP arrangements in e-governance (like passport seva or CSCs), private concessionaires invest heavy initial capital, so the project's long-term commercial sustainability is strictly dependent upon generating steady transaction fees and financial viability. Choice A.
Q462
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceModern Indian History
The historic Battle of Plassey took place in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1757 AD)
The Battle of Plassey was fought on 23 June 1757 between the British East India Company under Robert Clive and Siraj-ud-Daulah, Nawab of Bengal.
In telecommunication classifications, a modem is historically classified as a 'low-speed modem' if the data transmission rate handled is up to:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (600 bps)
Under early ITU-T standards, modems operating at transmission speeds up to 600 bps (such as Bell 103/V.21 at 300 bps and Bell 202 at 600 bps) were categorized as low-speed modems. Choice D.
Q464
Biostatistics, Hypothesis Testing & Research MethodologyStatistics (Normal Distribution)
In a perfectly symmetrical, bell-shaped normal distribution curve (Gaussian distribution), the Mean, Median, and Mode are all:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Equal)
By mathematical definition of a Gaussian normal distribution, the unimodal curve is perfectly symmetric around its central peak; hence, the Mean, Median, and Mode coincide and are exactly Equal (μ=Median=Mode). Choice A.
Q465
Biostatistics, Hypothesis Testing & Research MethodologyInferential Statistics (p-value Interpretation)
In inferential statistics, a calculated test result with a p-value of 0.03 (p=0.03<0.05) indicates that:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (There is strong evidence against the null hypothesis (reject null hypothesis at alpha = 0.05).)
A p-value of 0.03 is less than the standard significance threshold α=0.05, providing statistically significant evidence to reject the null hypothesis (H0) in favor of the alternative hypothesis. Choice D (and choice A reflects probability of null observation).
Q466
Biostatistics, Hypothesis Testing & Research MethodologyHypothesis Testing Principles
Which of the following statements about statistical hypothesis testing are true? I. The null hypothesis (H0) states that there is no significant difference or relationship between groups or variables. II. In hypothesis testing, a smaller p-value suggests stronger empirical evidence against the null hypothesis. III. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it should be rejected. IV. A p-value greater than 0.05 usually indicates strong evidence for rejecting the null hypothesis. Choose the correct statements:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I, II)
Statements I and II are correct: The null hypothesis posits zero difference or no effect (I), and a smaller p-value represents greater discrepancy with H0, indicating stronger evidence to reject it (II). Statement III is false (Type I error is rejecting a true null hypothesis; accepting a false null is Type II error). Statement IV is false (p>0.05 means failing to reject the null). Choice A (I, II).
Q467
Biostatistics, Hypothesis Testing & Research MethodologyStatistical Tests Matching
Match the following inferential statistical tests in Column -A with their appropriate research applications in Column -B: Column - A: 1. One-Way ANOVA 2. Chi-square Test of Independence 3. Pearson's Correlation Coefficient (r) 4. Independent Samples t-test
Column - B: i. Comparing the means of more than two independent experimental groups ii. Testing the statistical association between categorical contingency variables iii. Assessing the linear relationship between two continuous variables iv. Comparing the difference between the means of two independent groups
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv)
1 -> i (ANOVA tests differences among three or more group means), 2 -> ii (Chi-square test of independence analyzes frequencies in categorical contingency tables), 3 -> iii (Pearson's r evaluates the strength and direction of linear correlation between continuous variables), 4 -> iv (Independent t-test compares two group means). Correct match: 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv (Choice A).
Complete the decay equation: ^90_38 Sr -> ^90_39 Y + ________
💡Correct Answer: Option A (^0_-1 beta + anti-neutrino)
Strontium-90 undergoes negative beta decay (β− decay) into Yttrium-90: 3890Sr⟶3990Y+β−+νˉe, releasing an electron (−10β) and an electron antineutrino to conserve lepton number and charge.
Q469
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityProbability
A box contains 5 black marbles and 7 white marbles. Two marbles are drawn at random without replacement. What is the probability that both are black?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (10/66)
Total marbles =5+7=12. Probability of first black =125. Probability of second black =114. Probability that both are black =125×114=13220=6610.
Q470
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityProbability
A coin is tossed three times. What is the probability of getting at least two heads?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1/2)
Total possible outcomes =23=8. Favorable outcomes with at least two heads (2 heads or 3 heads) are: {HHT, HTH, THH, HHH} (4 outcomes). Probability =84=21.
Q471
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityProbability
A box contains 6 blue and 8 red marbles. One marble is drawn at random from the box. What is the probability that the marble drawn is red?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (4/7)
Total marbles =6+8=14. Favorable red marbles =8. Probability =148=74.
Q472
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceModern Indian History
2nd Anglo-Mysore war ended with the _______?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Treaty of Mangalore)
The Second Anglo-Mysore War (1780–1784) concluded with the signing of the Treaty of Mangalore in March 1784 between Tipu Sultan and Lord Macartney on behalf of the British East India Company, under the principle of status quo ante bellum.
Q473
Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleAutofocus Modes & AI
What is face detection used for in digital cameras?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To automatically focus on the subject's face)
Face Detection technology uses pattern recognition algorithms to locate human faces within the frame and automatically assign autofocus (AF) points and autoexposure priority to ensure that the subject's face is sharply focused and naturally exposed.
Q474
Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleCamera Modes
What does the "P" mode on a camera stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Program mode)
On modern camera mode dials, 'P' stands for Program Auto (Program mode). In this semi-automatic mode, the camera's computer automatically determines both the shutter speed and aperture based on metering, while leaving ISO, autofocus point, white balance, and exposure compensation under user control.
Q475
Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleCamera Modes
On most cameras what does AV stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Aperture Priority mode)
On camera mode dials (particularly Canon and Pentax), Av stands for 'Aperture Value' or Aperture Priority mode. In this mode, the photographer sets the desired aperture (f-number) while the camera's metering system automatically selects the corresponding shutter speed.
Q476
Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleCamera Modes
In which mode does the camera choose the aperture, while the user selects the shutter speed?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Shutter priority mode)
In Shutter Priority mode (labeled as 'Tv' on Canon/Pentax or 'S' on Nikon/Sony), the photographer manually selects the shutter speed (e.g. to freeze action or create motion blur), and the camera automatically calculates and adjusts the appropriate aperture.
Q477
Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleCamera Modes
On most cameras what does the setting TV stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Time Value)
On camera exposure dials (notably Canon and Pentax systems), Tv stands for 'Time Value', which denotes Shutter Priority exposure mode.
Q478
Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleSampling Theorem & Aliasing
What is the name of the phenomenon that corrupts the sampled image, and how does it happen?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Aliasing, if the band-limited functions are under sampled)
According to the Nyquist-Shannon Sampling Theorem, a band-limited continuous image must be sampled at a rate greater than twice its highest spatial frequency (fs>2fmax). If an image is under-sampled (fs<2fmax), high spatial frequency details fold into lower frequencies, causing distortion known as 'Aliasing, if the band-limited functions are under sampled' (producing moiré patterns and jagged edges).
Q479
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationSampling & Aliasing
A signal x(t)=cos(100\pi t)+2cos(150\pi t) is sampled at a rate of 80 Hz. What are the frequency components present in the sampled signal?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (5 Hz and 30 Hz)
Signal frequencies: f1=2π100π=50 Hz, f2=2π150π=75 Hz. Sampling frequency fs=80 Hz, Nyquist folding frequency fN=40 Hz. Because both frequencies exceed 40 Hz, aliasing occurs: f1,alias=∣80−50∣=30 Hz, and f2,alias=∣80−75∣=5 Hz. Thus, components present in the baseband sampled spectrum are 5 Hz and 30 Hz.
Q480
Digital Electronics, Microprocessors & Microcontrollers8085 Addressing Modes
Match the two lists and choose the correct answer from the code given below: List -I (addressing mode in 8085 Microprocessor): (w) Immediate addressing (x) Implied addressing (y) Register addressing (z) Direct addressing
List-II (Instruction): (i) MOV A, B (ii) LDA 305C (iii) LXI H, 2025t (iv) RRC
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A ((w)- (iii), (x)-(iv), (y)-(i), (z)-(ii))
Matching 8085 addressing modes: - (w) Immediate: data is part of the instruction (`LXI H, 2025H`) −> (iii). - (x) Implied/Implicit: operand is implicit in the opcode (`RRC` rotates accumulator) −> (iv). - (y) Register: operands are processor registers (`MOV A, B`) −> (i). - (z) Direct: 16-bit memory address is specified in instruction (`LDA 305C`) −> (ii). Matches: (w)-(iii), (x)-(iv), (y)-(i), (z)-(ii) (Option A).
Q481
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsCensus of India 2011
Consider the following statements based on the 2011 Census of India: I. The literacy rate in India increased to over 74% II. Uttar Pradesh has the highest population among Indian states III. Kerala recorded the highest literacy rate among all states IV. The sex ratio in India (females per 1000 males) improved to above 1000 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I, II, and III only)
According to Census 2011: - The literacy rate in India increased to 74.04% (over 74%) - Statement I is correct. - Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest population (19.98 crores) - Statement II is correct. - Kerala recorded the highest literacy rate among all states at 94.00% - Statement III is correct. - The sex ratio of India improved from 933 in 2001 to 943 females per 1000 males in 2011, which is well below 1000 - Statement IV is incorrect.
Q482
History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyFather of Modern Calligraphy
جدید خطاطی کے "بابائے خطاطی" کس سے کہا جاتا ہے؟ (Who is globally acclaimed as the "Father of Modern Calligraphy"?)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (ایڈورڈ جانسٹن (Edward Johnston))
Edward Johnston (1872-1944) is celebrated worldwide as the 'Father of Modern Calligraphy'. He revived the broad-edged pen craft in the 20th century and authored the foundational textbook 'Writing & Illuminating, & Lettering'.
Q483
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsClassical Communication Models
Which of the following statements about communication models are correct? i. The Shannon-Weaver Model introduced the concept of noise. ii. Berlo's SMCR Model emphasizes the role of the sender, message, channel, and receiver. iii. Schramm's Model highlights the importance of shared meaning in communication. iv. Lasswell's Model focuses primarily on media effects. Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii, iii, and iv)
All four statements are correct in communication theory: - Shannon and Weaver (1949) introduced the mathematical engineering concept of channel noise. - David Berlo (1960) formulated the SMCR (Source, Message, Channel, Receiver) model. - Wilbur Schramm (1954) established the field of experience and circular shared meaning. - Harold Lasswell (1948) framed the linear model ('Who says What in Which channel to Whom with What Effect') focusing on media effects.
Q484
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsMass Communication Theories
Consider the following statements about mass communication theories: i. Hypodermic Needle Theory assumes a passive audience. ii. Cultivation Theory suggests long-term media exposure shapes perceptions. iii. Spiral of Silence Theory explains why individuals conform to dominant opinions. iv. Uses and Gratifications Theory highlights media's manipulation of audiences. Which of the following statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, ii, and iii)
Statements i, ii, and iii are correct. Statement iv is incorrect because Uses and Gratifications Theory (Blumler & Katz) posits an ACTIVE audience that actively selects media to fulfill psychological needs, rather than a passive audience being manipulated by media.
Q485
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsVerbal vs Non-Verbal Communication
Non-verbal communication includes all of the following EXCEPT: A) Gestures B) Facial expressions C) Written letters D) Body posture
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Written letters)
Written letters constitute verbal communication (using language and words in written form). Non-verbal communication involves kinesics, gestures, facial expressions, proxemics, and body posture without the use of spoken or written words.
Q486
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsSynchronous vs Asynchronous Media
Which medium is considered asynchronous in communication? A) Face-to-face conversation B) Telephone call C) Email D) Video conferencing
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Email)
Asynchronous communication occurs when participants do not need to be present simultaneously (e.g., Email, forums, blogs). Face-to-face talks, phone calls, and video conferences require real-time simultaneous interaction (synchronous).
Q487
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsSemiotics & Signs (Peirce)
Match the following types of signs in semiotics with their examples: 1. Icon 2. Index 3. Symbol Examples: i. Smoke as an index of fire. ii. A picture of a pen resembling a real pen. iii. The word "Mango" representing a fruit. Choose the correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii)
In Charles Sanders Peirce's semiotic triadic framework: - Icon: Signifier physically resembles the signified (picture of a pen). - Index: Direct existential or causal link (smoke indicates fire). - Symbol: Arbitrary, learned conventional relationship (the linguistic word 'Mango').
Q488
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsParticipatory Communication Typologies
Match the following types of participation with their descriptions: Types of Participation: i. Non-participation ii. Controlled participation iii. Co-management iv. Self-management Descriptions: 1. Power is shared between funders and local groups. 2. Authority imposes decisions without consultation. 3. Elites permit discussion but retain control over outcomes. 4. Participants collectively decide and execute decisions. Choose the correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4)
In participatory development communication (Arnstein's ladder / White's participation typology): - Non-participation: Decisions imposed from above without consultation (i-2). - Controlled participation: Consultations held as a token gesture while elites retain ultimate power (ii-3). - Co-management: Shared partnership and joint decision-making (iii-1). - Self-management: Autonomous collective empowerment where community leads and decides (iv-4).
Q489
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsEvolution of Media Formats
Arrange the following media formats in the order of their historical emergence: i. Print Media ii. Broadcast Media iii. New Media iv. Social Media Choose the correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, iii, iv)
Historical emergence of mass media formats: 1. Print Media (Gutenberg press in 1440s; first Indian newspaper Bengal Gazette in 1780). 2. Broadcast Media (Radio broadcasting in 1920s; Television in 1930s-1950s). 3. New Media (Internet and World Wide Web in the 1990s). 4. Social Media (Web 2.0 interactive platforms like MySpace, Facebook in 2000s).
Q490
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsPaulo Freire Critical Pedagogy
What is the primary goal of participation according to Paulo Freire? A) To transfer knowledge from experts to marginalized communities. B) To facilitate conscientisation and collective action against oppressive elements. C) To create a climate of acceptance for exogenous ideas. D) To ensure controlled participation by elites.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To facilitate conscientisation and collective action against oppressive elements.)
In his foundational work 'Pedagogy of the Oppressed', Brazilian educator Paulo Freire asserted that genuine participation achieves 'conscientisation' (critical consciousness), empowering oppressed people to critically perceive social reality and undertake collective action to transform it.
Q491
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsBarriers to Communication
Match the communication barriers with examples: i. Physical Barrier ii. Psychological Barrier iii. Semantic Barrier iv. Organizational Barrier Examples: 1. Language differences 2. Noise in the environment 3. Emotional stress 4. Poor hierarchical structure Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4)
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsCommunication for Development (C4D)
Match the following C4D communication approaches with their primary focus: i. Participatory Communication ii. Advocacy Communication iii. Development Communication iv. Behaviour Change Communication Primary Focus: 1. Information dissemination 2. Empowerment and engagement 3. Social and policy change 4. Change in individual behaviors Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1)
Communication for Development (C4D) modalities: - Participatory Communication: Community empowerment, voice, and collective engagement (i-2). - Advocacy Communication: Influencing decision-makers for policy and legislative change (ii-3). - Behaviour Change Communication (BCC): Fostering shifts in specific individual health/hygiene practices (iv-4). - Development Communication: Information dissemination for modernization and socio-economic progress (iii-1).
Q493
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsSemiotics of Brand Logos
A designer is creating a logo for a brand. Which type of sign in semiotics would be most appropriate for the logo? A) Icon B) Index C) Symbol D) Signifier
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Symbol)
Brand logos are conventionally categorized as 'Symbols' because the connection between the graphic mark (e.g., Apple's apple, Nike's swoosh) and the company is learned, arbitrary, and culturally established rather than naturally occurring.
Q494
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsStages of Communication Process
Arrange the following stages of the communication process in the correct sequence: i. Encoding ii. Feedback iii. Message transmission iv. Decoding Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, iii, iv, ii)
The canonical sequence of the communication process is: 1. Sender encodes thoughts into a message (Encoding - i) 2. Message is sent via a channel (Message transmission - iii) 3. Receiver interprets the message (Decoding - iv) 4. Receiver sends a reaction back to the sender (Feedback - ii).
Q495
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsSchramm Interactive Communication Model
Which of the following models of communication emphasizes feedback and two-way interaction? A) Shannon-Weaver Model B) Lasswell's Model C) Schramm's Model D) Magic Bullet Theory
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Schramm's Model)
Wilbur Schramm (along with C.E. Osgood) pioneered the circular, two-way interactive model of communication where participants alternate between being encoder, interpreter, and decoder through continuous feedback.
Q496
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsGatekeeping Theory in Journalism
In mass communication, 'gatekeeping' refers to: A) The audience's control over content B) The process of filtering information C) The transmission of messages D) Feedback from receivers
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The process of filtering information)
Coined by Kurt Lewin and applied to journalism by David Manning White, 'Gatekeeping' refers to the filtering process through which information is selected, shaped, edited, or rejected by media gatekeepers before dissemination to the public.
Q497
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsRole of Feedback in Communication
In the context of communication, 'feedback' is important because it: A) Completes the communication loop B) Starts the communication process C) Acts as the main message D) Replaces the sender's role
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Completes the communication loop)
Feedback is the receiver's response that returns to the source, confirming whether the message was accurately decoded as intended and completing the circular communication loop.
Q498
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsCommunication Barriers Categorization
Match the following communication barriers with their types: i. Jargon ii. Network Failure iii. Lack of Attention iv. Cultural Differences Types: 1. Semantic Barrier 2. Technical Barrier 3. Psychological Barrier 4. Sociological Barrier Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4)
Matching: - Jargon: Specialized vocabulary causing meaning confusion -> Semantic Barrier (i-1) - Network Failure: Hardware/transmission breakdown -> Technical Barrier (ii-2) - Lack of Attention: Internal distraction/preoccupation -> Psychological Barrier (iii-3) - Cultural Differences: Divergence in social norms and traditions -> Sociological Barrier (iv-4).
Q499
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsNon-Verbal Gestures
In a noisy classroom, a teacher uses hand gestures to explain a concept. This is an example of: A) Verbal communication B) Feedback mechanism C) Non-verbal communication D) Psychological noise
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Non-verbal communication)
Hand gestures, body language, and physical signs communicate meaning without vocalized or written words, exemplifying Non-verbal communication.
Q500
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsCommunication Concepts Verification
Consider the following statements: i. Communication is a one-way process. ii. Verbal communication includes written and spoken words. iii. Noise can be both physical and psychological. iv. Non-verbal cues are irrelevant in professional settings. Which of the above statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ii and iii)
Statements ii and iii are correct. Verbal communication involves words in both oral and written modes. Noise encompasses environmental physical disturbances and internal cognitive/emotional psychological distractions. Statement i is false (communication is interactive two-way); Statement iv is false (non-verbal body language is vital in professional settings).
Q501
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsSelective Exposure Theory
The concept of "Selective Exposure" in media consumption suggests that: A) Audiences consume all types of media without bias B) People tend to expose themselves to messages that align with their beliefs C) Advertisers control audience behaviour through exposure frequency D) Governments regulate the types of media content available
💡Correct Answer: Option B (People tend to expose themselves to messages that align with their beliefs)
Selective Exposure Theory (Festinger / Klapper) posits that individuals deliberately seek out media messages, news outlets, and viewpoints that confirm their existing attitudes and values while actively avoiding dissonant information.
Q502
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsSignifier vs Signified (Saussure)
In semiotics, what is the term for the physical form of a sign? A) Signified B) Signifier C) Icon D) Index
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Signifier)
In Ferdinand de Saussure's semiology, a sign consists of two parts: the 'Signifier' (signifiant, the perceptible physical form, sound, or written mark) and the 'Signified' (signifié, the mental concept it evokes).
Q503
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsParticipatory Communication Typology
Match the following types of participation with their descriptions: Types of Participation: i. Non-participation ii. Controlled participation iii. Co-management iv. Self-management Descriptions: 1. Power is shared between funders and local groups. 2. Authority imposes decisions without consultation. 3. Elites permit discussion but retain control over outcomes. 4. Participants collectively decide and execute decisions. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4)
In development participation typology: - Non-participation: Unilateral top-down imposition (i-2) - Controlled participation: Consultative façade where authorities retain control (ii-3) - Co-management: Power-sharing between outside agency and community (iii-1) - Self-management: Autonomous collective decision-making and execution (iv-4).
Q504
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsC4D Planning Cycle
Arrange the following stages of Communication for Development (C4D) planning in the correct order: i. Situation analysis ii. Identification of target audience iii. Development of communication strategy iv. Monitoring and evaluation v. Message creation and delivery Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, iii, v, iv)
The standard C4D strategic project planning cycle (UNICEF/UNESCO framework): 1. Situation Analysis & Needs Assessment (i) 2. Identification & Segmentation of Target Audience (ii) 3. Development of Communication Strategy & Channels (iii) 4. Message Creation, Pre-testing & Implementation/Delivery (v) 5. Monitoring & Evaluation (M&E) (iv).
Q505
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsDevelopment Communication Concepts (Melkote)
Which of the following is NOT an essential concept of development communication as outlined by Srinivas R. Melkote and H. Leslie Steeves? A) Development B) Empowerment C) Third World D) Capitalism
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Capitalism)
In 'Communication for Development in the Third World: Theory and Practice for Empowerment' by Srinivas Melkote and H. Leslie Steeves, the foundational paradigms revolve around Development, Empowerment, Participation, and the Third World. Capitalism is an economic system, not an essential normative concept of emancipatory development communication.
Q506
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsParticipatory Communication Paradigm
Which of the following best describes the participatory paradigm in development communication? A) It focuses on transferring information from experts to communities. B) It emphasizes horizontal knowledge sharing and collective decision-making. C) It relies on centralized decision-making by external authorities. D) It prioritizes the use of mass media for disseminating development messages.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It emphasizes horizontal knowledge sharing and collective decision-making.)
The participatory paradigm in development communication fundamentally rejects top-down, vertical modernization models and instead champions horizontal, dialogue-driven, grassroots knowledge sharing and collective community empowerment.
Q507
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsParticipatory Paradigm Attributes
Consider the following statements about the participatory paradigm: i. It recognizes cultural differences and rejects a universal development model. ii. It prioritizes the use of big media like television and newspapers. iii. It encourages self-management and collective decision-making. iv. It is primarily concerned with creating a climate of acceptance for exogenous ideas. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i and iii)
Statements i and iii are correct. The participatory model respects indigenous knowledge and cultural pluralism, rejecting one-size-fits-all Western models, and fosters community self-reliance. Statements ii and iv pertain to the classical modernization/dominant paradigm (big media and acceptance of exogenous foreign models).
Q508
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsKey Principle of C4D
Which of the following is a key principle of Communication for Development (C4D)? A) Broadcasting information to a mass audience B) Encouraging one-way communication from the government to the people C) Participatory communication that involves communities in decision-making D) Focusing solely on marketing and advertising for development goals
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Participatory communication that involves communities in decision-making)
The core ethos of Communication for Development (C4D) is facilitating participatory, dialogue-based communication that empowers marginalized communities to articulate their own needs and actively shape development initiatives.
Q509
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsEvolution of Development Communication Paradigms
Arrange the following concepts in the order they emerged in development communication: i. Dominant Paradigm ii. Participatory Paradigm iii. Communication for Development (CFD) iv. Development Support Communication (DSC) Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, iv, ii, iii)
Evolution of development communication frameworks: 1. Dominant Paradigm (1950s-1960s modernization model: Lerner, Rogers, Schramm) (i) 2. Development Support Communication (DSC, coined by Erskine Childers in 1966/1970s for UNDP/UNICEF projects) (iv) 3. Participatory Paradigm (1980s Paulo Freire, Robert Chambers) (ii) 4. Communication for Development (CFD/C4D - contemporary multi-dimensional synthesis) (iii).
Q510
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsMedia Types Matching
Match the following types of media with their characteristics: Types of Media: i. Print Media ii. New Media iii. Broadcast Media iv. Social Media Characteristics: 1. Uses digital technology for content distribution. 2. Relies on static representation of information. 3. Combines audio and visual elements for storytelling. 4. Enables user-generated content and real-time interaction. Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4)
Matching: - Print Media: Physical, static text/image paper layout (i-2). - New Media: Digital internet distribution networks (ii-1). - Broadcast Media: Audio/visual electronic transmission via airwaves (iii-3). - Social Media: Web 2.0 user-generated content (UGC) and networked peer interaction (iv-4).
Q511
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsMedia Systems Characteristics
Match the following types of media with their characteristics: Types of Media: i. Print Media ii. New Media iii. Broadcast Media iv. Social Media Characteristics: 1. Uses digital technology for content distribution. 2. Relies on static representation of information. 3. Combines audio and visual elements for storytelling. 4. Enables user-generated content and real-time interaction. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4)
Media characteristics matching: - Print Media: Static layout on paper (i-2) - New Media: Digital computer networks (ii-1) - Broadcast Media: Audio-visual broadcast airwaves (iii-3) - Social Media: Web 2.0 user-generated content (iv-4).
Leading country in export and import of floricultural products:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Netherlands)
The Netherlands is the undisputed global hub and leading country in the international floriculture trade, accounting for over 45% of total worldwide exports and imports of cut flowers and potted plants, anchored by the Royal FloraHolland auction.
Q514
Database Management Systems & SQLEntity-Relationship Modeling
An attribute in an E-R model is represented by:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Oval)
In Chen's classic Entity-Relationship (E-R) diagram notation, entities are represented by Rectangles, relationships by Diamonds, and attributes by Ovals (or Ellipses).
Q515
Software Engineering, Testing & Quality AssuranceSDLC Models & History
Arrange the following models in order of their historical development: I. Waterfall Model II. Spiral Model III. Agile Model IV. Prototyping Model Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I -> IV -> II -> III)
Chronological timeline of SDLC models: 1. Waterfall Model (Winston Royce, 1970) (I) 2. Prototyping Model (Late 1970s - early 1980s) (IV) 3. Spiral Model (Barry Boehm, 1986/1988) (II) 4. Agile Model (Agile Manifesto, 2001) (III). Correct sequence: I -> IV -> II -> III.
Q516
Software Engineering, Testing & Quality AssuranceCapability Maturity Model (CMM)
The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is primarily used for:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Process improvement and quality assurance)
The Capability Maturity Model (CMM), formulated by the Software Engineering Institute (SEI) at Carnegie Mellon University, is a process improvement methodology used to evaluate and refine an organization's software development processes across five maturity levels.
Q517
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionDigital Media & Computer Graphics
Which application is used to create or contribute to images in art printed media, video games, films, television programs commercial, videos and simulations.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Computer graphics)
Computer graphics encompasses the digital visual arts, software applications, rendering engines, and techniques used to synthesize, manipulate, and generate images for printed media, video games, motion picture visual effects (VFX), television broadcasting, and computer simulations.
Q518
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionComputer Fundamentals for Imaging
What is the primary function of an operating system?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (To manage hardware and software resources)
An operating system (OS) is the fundamental system software that manages a computer's hardware resources (CPU, memory, disk, peripheral devices) and provides common services and execution environments for application software.
Q519
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionHistogram & Dynamic Range Analysis
In the context of digital image processing, what does "clipping" refer to?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Losing detail in highlights or shadows due to excessive exposure adjustments)
In digital photography and image editing, 'clipping' occurs when brightness values fall outside the sensor's or color space's dynamic range. Highlight clipping turns areas pure white (RGB 255,255,255 blown highlights) and shadow clipping turns areas pure black (RGB 0,0,0 crushed shadows), permanently discarding textural details.
Q520
Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyAutofocus Modes & Subject Tracking
Which feature is used in modern cameras to automatically adjust the focus based on subject movement?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Continuous Autofocus (AF-C))
Continuous Autofocus (known as AF-C on Nikon/Sony or AI Servo on Canon) continuously recalculates and tracks focus on a moving subject as long as the shutter button is kept depressed halfway or the back-button AF is engaged.
Q521
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionDigital Imaging Color Science
What does the term "bit depth" refer to in digital imaging?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The amount of data used to represent the color of a single pixel)
Bit depth (or color depth) defines the number of bits allocated per color channel to describe a single pixel. An 8-bit image stores 28=256 tonal levels per channel (16.7 million colors), while 14-bit or 16-bit capture stores 16,384 to 65,536 tonal levels per channel for ultra-smooth gradations.
Q522
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionDigital Imaging Formats & Dynamic Range
What does the acronym HDR mean?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (High Dynamic Range)
HDR stands for High Dynamic Range, an imaging technique that captures or combines multiple bracketed exposures to preserve details in both deep dark shadows and luminous bright highlights.
Q523
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionComputer Fundamentals for Imaging
What is the primary function of an operating system?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (To manage hardware and software resources)
The core role of any computer operating system (such as Windows, macOS, or Linux) is managing hardware devices (CPU, RAM, storage, input/output peripherals) and supervising program execution and software resources.
Q524
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionDigital Media & Storage Systems
Which of the following storage devices is known for its speed and durability?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Solid State Drive (SSD))
Solid State Drives (SSDs) utilize NAND flash memory with no moving mechanical parts, providing blazing read/write data transfer speeds, minimal latency, and exceptional physical shock durability against drops and vibrations.
Q525
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionPhoto Editing Tools & Retouching
Which feature in photo editing software helps in restoring a part of an image that has been altered or removed?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (History Brush Tool)
The History Brush Tool in Adobe Photoshop allows the editor to paint back and restore pixels from a previously saved state or snapshot recorded in the History panel, reverting selective localized portions of an image to an earlier state.
Q526
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionHistogram & Exposure Evaluation
What is the primary function of the histogram in digital photography?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To provide a graphical representation of the tonal range)
The histogram is a mathematical bar chart that plots the pixel count across every tonal value from pure black (0 on the far left) to midtones and pure white (255 on the far right), providing an objective graphical diagnosis of exposure accuracy, contrast, and clipping.
Q527
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionColor Spaces & Color Grading
What does the term "HSL" stand for in photo editing software?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hue, Saturation, Lightness)
In color theory and digital imaging software (like Lightroom and Photoshop), HSL stands for Hue (the pure color pigment), Saturation (the purity or vividness of the color), and Lightness (the relative brightness from black to white).
Q528
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionImage Editing Software & Tools
Which of the following software is primarily known for its advanced photo editing capabilities?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Adobe Photoshop)
Adobe Photoshop is the globally renowned industry-standard raster graphics editor and image manipulation software widely used by photographers, digital artists, and retouchers for professional photo editing.
Q529
Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyHistoric Camera Models & Innovations
Which camera (from around 1984) used solar energy to assist the batteries?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ricoh XR-S)
The Ricoh XR-S (introduced in the early 1980s, c. 1981-1984) was a pioneering 35mm SLR equipped with solar cells built into both sides of its pentaprism housing, trickle-charging an internal secondary storage battery to maintain electronic exposure operation for years.
Q530
Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyAutofocus Modes & Systems
Consider the following statements: I. Single-Servo Autofocus: In AF-S mode, the camera locks focus when the shutter button is pressed halfway. II. Continuous-Servo Autofocus: In AF-C mode, the camera continuously adjusts focus as long as the shutter button is pressed halfway. III. Automatic-Servo Autofocus: Some cameras offer an automatic AF mode that switches between AF-S and AF-C modes depending on whether the subject is stationary or moving. Which of the given statement is/ are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II and III all are correct)
All three definitions are textbook photographic autofocus modes: - I. Single-Servo AF (AF-S / One-Shot AF) locks focus on stationary subjects when the shutter button is half-pressed. - II. Continuous-Servo AF (AF-C / AI Servo) continuously tracks moving subjects. - III. Automatic-Servo AF (AF-A / AI Focus) automatically switches between single and continuous focus upon detecting subject motion. Hence, I, II and III all are correct. Choice D.
Q531
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionNon-Destructive Editing & Layers
In photo editing, what is a 'layer'?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A separate image element that can be edited independently)
In non-destructive digital image editing (e.g., Photoshop, GIMP), a layer is an independent plane stacked within an image canvas that contains pixel artwork, adjustment values, or text, allowing individual elements to be modified without affecting other layers below.
Which metering mode would be most effective for photographing a backlit subject?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Spot metering)
Spot metering evaluates light from only a tiny concentrated zone (1% to 3% of the viewfinder area) directly over the subject's face or body, ignoring the overwhelming brightness of the backlight and preventing the subject from becoming an underexposed dark silhouette.
Q533
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionImage Cropping & Composition Editing
What is the purpose of the 'crop' tool in photo editing software?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To adjust the size and composition of an image)
The crop tool allows photographers to trim outer borders of an image, alter its framing and aspect ratio, eliminate distracting peripheral objects, and realign or strengthen the compositional structure.
Q534
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionImage File Formats (RAW vs JPEG)
In a digital camera, what does the term "RAW" refer to?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (An unprocessed image file that retains all data from the sensor)
A RAW image file is a minimally processed digital photographic file that contains all the uncompressed, unrendered raw sensor data collected by the camera's photosites, preserving maximum dynamic range and color bit depth for lossless post-processing.
Q535
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionWhite Balance & Color Calibration
What does the term "white balance shift" refer to in digital photography?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The alteration of color temperature to achieve accurate colors)
White balance shift (or fine-tuning) is the camera setting or post-processing control that alters the color temperature and tint along the Amber-Blue and Green-Magenta chromatic axes to achieve neutral, lifelike color rendition under any ambient lighting.
Q536
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionImage Management & RAW Processing
Which photo editing software is specifically designed for professional photographers to manage and edit large volumes of images?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Adobe Lightroom)
Adobe Lightroom is designed specifically for photographers' batch workflows, offering non-destructive RAW photo development combined with cataloging, metadata tagging, and mass-editing tools tailored for handling thousands of images from a shoot efficiently.
Q537
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionPhoto Editing Tools & Gradients
What is a common use for the 'Gradient Tool' in photo editing?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To create a smooth transition between two or more colors)
The Gradient Tool blends multiple colors together along a linear, radial, or angled path, producing a smooth, progressive color transition across selected areas or masks in an image.
Q538
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionAdvanced Digital Manipulation
What does the 'Puppet Warp' feature allow you to do in photo editing software?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Distort an image while maintaining certain areas)
The Puppet Warp tool in Adobe Photoshop overlays a visual mesh over an object and allows the editor to place pins to anchor specific regions while freely bending, pivoting, and warping other parts of the subject naturally.
Q539
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionColor Models & Print Production
Which color model is primarily used for print media?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (CMYK)
The CMYK color model (Cyan, Magenta, Yellow, and Key/Black) is a subtractive color model used standardly in commercial four-color printing presses and digital printers. (RGB is additive, used for digital monitors).
Q540
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionDigital Filtering & Noise Reduction
Which of the following is a common method for removing noise from an image?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Gaussian Blur)
Gaussian blur is a mathematical low-pass spatial filter that calculates weighted averages of surrounding pixels using a bell-shaped Gaussian function. Applying slight Gaussian blur or bilateral filtering smooths out high-frequency luminance and chrominance digital noise.
Q541
History of Photography & Classical Chemical ProcessesPhoto-Secession & Modern Photography
What was the primary significance of the "Photo-Secession" movement, founded by Alfred Stieglitz in 1902?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It sought to establish photography as an art form distinct from painting)
The Photo-Secession movement, founded in New York in 1902 by Alfred Stieglitz and Edward Steichen, seceded from mainstream photographic societies to champion fine art photography and establish photography as a legitimate, autonomous medium of artistic expression distinct from painting.
Q542
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionImage Compression & File Formats
Which of the following file formats is considered a "lossy" compression format?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (JPEG)
JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group) utilizes lossy discrete cosine transform (DCT) compression, permanently discarding high-frequency color and textural data imperceptible to the human eye to achieve small file sizes. (TIFF and PNG use lossless compression; RAW is uncompressed or losslessly compressed).
Q543
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionDigital Imaging Color Science
In the context of digital cameras, what does the term "bit depth" refer to?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The number of bits used to represent the color of a single pixel)
Bit depth specifies the binary precision (number of bits per channel/pixel) allocated to store the tonal intensity and color values of an individual pixel, determining the total available color palette (e.g., 8-bit = 256 shades per channel; 16-bit = 65,536 shades).
Q544
Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyAutofocus Modes & Action Photography
Which autofocus mode would be most suitable for capturing fast-moving subjects in sports photography?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Continuous AF (AF-C))
Continuous Autofocus (AF-C or AI Servo) is essential for sports and action photography: the camera's autofocus computer uses predictive tracking algorithms to continuously adjust focus distance in real time as the athlete or vehicle speeds across the frame.
Q545
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityProbability
A card is removed from a well shuffled pack of 52 cards. A card is now drawn at random from the pack. What is the probability that the drawn card is a king?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1/13)
Removing an unseen, unknown card from a standard deck does not alter the probability distribution of any given rank. By the law of total probability, the probability of drawing a King from the remaining 51 cards remains 4/52 = 1/13.
Q546
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityProbability
A die is rolled twice. What is the probability of getting a sum equal to 9?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1/9)
Total possible outcomes when rolling a standard fair die twice = 6 * 6 = 36. Outcomes yielding a sum of 9 are: (3, 6), (4, 5), (5, 4), and (6, 3) = 4 favorable outcomes. Probability = 4 / 36 = 1/9.
If 8 coins are tossed, what is the chance that one and only one will turn up Head?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1/32)
Total outcomes when tossing 8 coins = 2^8 = 256. Number of ways to get exactly one head = 8C1 = 8. Probability = 8 / 256 = 1/32.
Q548
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KModern Indian History
Mahatma Gandhi's remark, "A post-dated cheque on a crumbling bank" is regarding the proposals of:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cripps Mission)
Mahatma Gandhi described the proposals of the 1942 Cripps Mission (led by Sir Stafford Cripps) as 'a post-dated cheque on a crashing/crumbling bank' because it offered distant dominion status from a war-embattled British government.
Which of the following file formats is not compatible with saving duotone images for proper printing?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (TIFF)
Photoshop Duotone color mode relies on custom spot ink transfer curves. While EPS, PSD, and PDF natively preserve spot channel duotone curves and embedded tone reproduction curves for PostScript RIP processing, standard baseline TIFF does not support native Photoshop Duotone mode (saving as TIFF forces conversion to multi-channel or CMYK).
Q550
Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingDOS Hardware Device Configuration: MODE
What is the primary function of the MODE command in DOS?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To configure system devices such as ports and display settings)
In MS-DOS, the external system utility 'MODE' is used to configure and set operational parameters for system hardware devices, including COM serial ports (baud rate, parity), LPT parallel printer ports, console screen display modes (columns and lines), and keyboard typematic repeat rates.
What is the purpose of the Hidden Markov Model (HMM) in bioinformatics?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Gene prediction)
Hidden Markov Models (HMMs) are statistical probabilistic models widely employed in bioinformatics primarily for ab initio gene prediction (such as in algorithms like GENSCAN and Augustus) to accurately model transitions between coding exons, non-coding introns, donor/acceptor splice sites, and intergenic promoters.
Q552
EconomicsIndian Demography & Census
When was the last Census of India conducted? A) 2011 B) 2021 C) 2024 D) 2025
💡Correct Answer: Option A (2011)
The last official decennial Census of India was conducted in the year 2011 (the 15th National Census of India). The 2021 Census was postponed due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
Q553
StatisticsCollection of Data
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the use of enumerators in collecting data through questionnaires? A) Less time consuming B) Less costly C) Less reliable D) Less chance of bias
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Less chance of bias)
In statistical data collection, trained enumerators directly guide respondents, clarify questions in person, and prevent misunderstandings, which yields standardized answers with less non-response error and lower non-sampling interpretation bias compared to unguided mail surveys.
Q554
StatisticsIndex Numbers & Purchasing Power
If the price index for the year 2024 is 105.5, and the purchasing power of money (in Rs.) of 2014 compared to 2024 is 1.11, then what is the price index for the year 2014? A) 0.01 B) 95.04 C) 117.11 D) 98.40
💡Correct Answer: Option B (95.04)
Purchasing power of money is inversely proportional to the price index: Purchasing Power = P_(2024) / P_(2014). Here 1.11 = 105.5 / P_(2014) => P_(2014) = 105.5 / 1.11 = 95.045 ≈ 95.04.
Q555
StatisticsMeasures of Skewness
For a certain frequency distribution, we calculated the following values: Mean = 62, Co-efficient of skewness = -0.6, Standard Deviation = 30 The median is equal to: A) 60 B) 66 C) 68 D) 70
💡Correct Answer: Option C (68)
Karl Pearson's coefficient of skewness based on median is Sk = 3(Mean - Median) / σ. Substituting given values: -0.6 = 3(62 - Median) / 30 => -0.6 = (62 - Median) / 10 => -6 = 62 - Median => Median = 62 + 6 = 68.
Q556
StatisticsProbability Theory
Let A, B and C be three events such that P(A ∩ B) = 1/4, P(A ∩ C) = 1/5, P(B ∩ C) = 1/5, and P(A ∩ B ∩ C) = 1/6. The probability that at least two events occur is equal to: A) 13/60 B) 19/60 C) 29/60 D) 31/60
💡Correct Answer: Option C (29/60)
The probability that at least two of the three events occur is given by: P(A ∩ B) + P(A ∩ C) + P(B ∩ C) - P(A ∩ B ∩ C) = 1/4 + 1/5 + 1/5 - 1/6 = (15 + 12 + 12 - 10)/60 = 29/60. Thus, Option C is correct.
Q557
StatisticsMeasures of Central Tendency
Given the following numbers: 1, 7, 8, 2, 4, 10, 14, 11, 37, 16, 17. The value of mean - median is: A) 11.5 B) 1.55 C) 10 D) 21.5
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1.55)
Total numbers n = 11. Sum = 1 + 7 + 8 + 2 + 4 + 10 + 14 + 11 + 37 + 16 + 17 = 127. Mean = 127 / 11 = 11.545 ≈ 11.55. Arranging in ascending order: 1, 2, 4, 7, 8, 10, 11, 14, 16, 17, 37. The median (6th element) is 10. Therefore, Mean - Median = 11.545 - 10 = 1.545 ≈ 1.55.
Q558
StatisticsLinear Functions & Demography
The life expectancy, E, of females is a linear function of time (in years). In 1995, the life expectancy was 72 years, and in 2015, it was 78 years. What would be the predicted life expectancy in the year 2025? A) 80 B) 82 C) 79 D) 81
💡Correct Answer: Option D (81)
Rate of increase = (78 - 72) / (2015 - 1995) = 6 years / 20 years = 0.3 years per calendar year. From 2015 to 2025 is 10 years. Predicted life expectancy in 2025 = 78 + (10 * 0.3) = 78 + 3 = 81 years.
Q559
StatisticsBayes' Theorem & Conditional Probability
A box contains a certain number of balls out of which 15% are red, 80% are yellow and 5% are green. All the balls of the same color are indistinguishable. Further, it is known that among all the yellow balls, x% are defective, among all the red, 6% are marked defective and among all the green balls, 9% are marked defective. A ball is chosen at random. If the conditional probability that the chosen ball is yellow, given that it is defective is 0.4, the value of x is: A) 1.12 B) 0.01 C) 0.05 D) 1.05
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1.12)
Using Bayes' Theorem: P(Yellow | Defective) = P(Yellow ∩ Defective) / P(Defective) = 0.4. P(Red ∩ Defective) = 0.15 0.06 = 0.009. P(Green ∩ Defective) = 0.05 0.09 = 0.0045. Non-yellow defective probability = 0.009 + 0.0045 = 0.0135. Let p = P(Yellow ∩ Defective) = 0.80 (x/100). Then p / (p + 0.0135) = 0.4 => p = 0.4p + 0.0054 => 0.6p = 0.0054 => p = 0.009. Since 0.80 (x/100) = 0.009 => x/100 = 0.009 / 0.80 = 0.01125 => x = 1.125% ≈ 1.12.
Q560
StatisticsTheory of Attributes
For two attributes A and B, we have the following information: N = 100; (A) = 50, (B) = 60, (AB) = 5. Which of the following is true about consistence of the data? A) Data are inconsistent B) Data are consistent C) Cannot be determined D) Both (A) and (B)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Data are inconsistent)
For consistency of attributes, no class frequency can be negative. Consider (αβ): (αβ) = N - (A) - (B) + (AB) = 100 - 50 - 60 + 5 = -5. Since a frequency cannot be negative ((αβ) = -5 < 0), the given data is mathematically inconsistent.
Q561
StatisticsSet Theory & Probability
In a college, 75% of students passed Mathematics, and 80% of students passed English. What is the minimum percentage of students who must have passed both subjects? A) 25% B) 55% C) 20% D) 5%
💡Correct Answer: Option B (55%)
Since total percentage cannot exceed 100%: P(M ∪ E) ≤ 100%. By the inclusion-exclusion principle: P(M ∪ E) = P(M) + P(E) - P(M ∩ E) => P(M ∩ E) = P(M) + P(E) - P(M ∪ E) ≥ 75% + 80% - 100% = 155% - 100% = 55%. Thus, the minimum percentage who passed both subjects is 55%.
Q562
StatisticsCorrelation and Regression
If the line of regression of y on x is 5x - 8y + 14 = 0 then the correlation between y and x is: A) Positive B) Negative C) Zero D) Cannot be determined
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Positive)
Rewriting the regression line of y on x in slope form: 8y = 5x + 14 => y = (5/8)x + 14/8. The regression coefficient b_yx is +5/8 > 0. Since the correlation coefficient r has the exact same algebraic sign as the regression coefficients, b_yx > 0 directly implies r is Positive.
Q563
StatisticsCorrelation and Regression
If the two regression lines—one obtained by regressing y on x, and the other by regressing x on y—are 5x - 8y + 14 = 0 and 2x - 5y + 11 = 0, then x̄ + ȳ is: A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 0
💡Correct Answer: Option C (5)
The two regression lines always intersect at the point of their means (x̄, ȳ). Solving the simultaneous equations: 1) 5x̄ - 8ȳ = -14, and 2) 2x̄ - 5ȳ = -11. Multiplying (1) by 2 and (2) by 5: 10x̄ - 16ȳ = -28 and 10x̄ - 25ȳ = -55. Subtracting gives 9ȳ = 27 => ȳ = 3. Substituting into (2): 2x̄ - 5(3) = -11 => 2x̄ - 15 = -11 => 2x̄ = 4 => x̄ = 2. Thus, x̄ + ȳ = 2 + 3 = 5.
Q564
StatisticsPermutations & Probability
In a random arrangement of the letters of the word 'STATISTICS', the probability that all the vowels come together is: A) 1/15 B) 3/28 C) 2/15 D) 5/28
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1/15)
Word STATISTICS has 10 letters: S(3), T(3), A(1), I(2), C(1). Total permutations = 10! / (3! 3! 2!) = 50,400. Vowels are A, I, I (3 vowels: one A, two I's). Treating the 3 vowels as 1 single block, we have 7 consonants + 1 block = 8 units. Consonants have S(3), T(3), C(1). Number of arrangements of the 8 units = 8! / (3! 3!) = 1,120. Inside the vowel block, the vowels can be arranged in 3! / 2! = 3 ways. Favorable permutations = 1,120 3 = 3,360. Probability = 3,360 / 50,400 = 1/15.
Q565
StatisticsCollection of Data
Interview is an example of which data? A) Primary B) Secondary C) Both (A) and (B) D) None of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Primary)
Primary data is information collected firsthand directly from the original source for a specific research purpose. Conducting personal or structured interviews gathers original, firsthand responses, making it an example of Primary data.
Q566
StatisticsTabulation of Data
Zero should be used only to indicate the A) Quality of variable B) Non availability of data C) Quantity of variable D) All of these
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Quantity of variable)
In standard statistical tabulation rules, zero ('0') must strictly represent a null magnitude or nil quantity of a variable (i.e. zero frequency or count). Non-availability of data or missing observations should be denoted by dashes ('-') or 'N.A.', never by zero.
Q567
StatisticsQuestionnaire Design & Survey Sampling
'Do you own a vehicle? ______ Yes ______ No' is an example of what type of question? A) Loaded B) Leading C) Simple-dichotomy D) Open-ended response
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Simple-dichotomy)
A question that provides only two mutually exclusive and exhaustive response choices (such as Yes/No, True/False, Male/Female) is known in survey research methodology as a simple-dichotomy (or dichotomous) question.
Q568
StatisticsVital Statistics & Demography
Which of the following is a measure of mortality? A) Crude death rate B) Immunization rate C) Literacy rate D) Birth weight
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Crude death rate)
In vital statistics and demography, mortality refers to the incidence of death in a population. The Crude Death Rate (CDR), Infant Mortality Rate (IMR), and Age-Specific Death Rate (ASDR) are core measures of mortality.
Which is a demographic indicator of health? A) Oxygen level B) Life expectancy C) Literacy rate D) Blood group
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Life expectancy)
Life expectancy at birth (e_0) is the universally recognized demographic indicator of overall population health and socio-economic wellbeing, measuring the average number of years a newborn is expected to live under prevailing mortality rates.
Q570
StatisticsInterpolation & Numerical Methods
If x_0 = 5, x_1 = 6, x_2 = 9 and x_3 = 11, and f(x_0) = 12, f(x_1) = 13, f(x_2) = 14 and f(x_3) = 16 then the approximate value of f(10) using Lagrange's interpolation formula is: A) 15 B) 14.67 C) 16 D) 15.47
💡Correct Answer: Option B (14.67)
Applying Lagrange's interpolation formula at x = 10 with points (5,12), (6,13), (9,14), (11,16): L0(10)12 + L1(10)13 + L2(10)14 + L3(10)16 evaluates accurately to 14.67. Thus, Option B is correct.
Q571
StatisticsCombined Mean
The average height of male employees in a company is 68 inches and that of female employees is 63 inches. The average height of all the employees is 65 inches. The percentage of male employees in the company is: A) 40% B) 60% C) 50% D) 55%
💡Correct Answer: Option A (40%)
Let m be the proportion of male employees and f = (1 - m) be female employees. Combined mean: 68m + 63(1 - m) = 65 => 68m + 63 - 63m = 65 => 5m = 2 => m = 2/5 = 0.40 or 40%.
Q572
StatisticsIndex Numbers
If Laspeyres' price index is 100, Fisher's index number is 120, then Bowley's index number is: A) 122 B) 144 C) 110 D) 100
💡Correct Answer: Option A (122)
Fisher's ideal index is the geometric mean of Laspeyres and Paasche: F = √(L P) => 120 = √(100 P) => 14400 = 100 * P => Paasche's index P = 144. Bowley's index number is the arithmetic mean of Laspeyres and Paasche: B = (L + P) / 2 = (100 + 144) / 2 = 244 / 2 = 122.
Q573
StatisticsVital Statistics & Reproduction Rates
The population of a city is 12000. If the population size after 3 generations is 768000, then the net reproductive rate is: A) 3 B) 2 C) 8 D) 4
💡Correct Answer: Option D (4)
Population growth across generations is modeled by N_t = N_0 * (R_0)^t, where R_0 is the net reproductive rate and t is the number of generations. Here N_3 = 768,000, N_0 = 12,000, and t = 3. Thus: (R_0)^3 = 768,000 / 12,000 = 64 => R_0 = (64)^(1/3) = 4. Hence, the net reproductive rate is 4.
Q574
StatisticsDemography & Fertility Rates
If the gross reproductive rate is 1.08 per woman and the proportion of male births is 60%, then total fertility rate per woman is (assuming no mortality): A) 2.5 B) 2.7 C) 1.8 D) 2.2
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2.7)
GRR (Gross Reproduction Rate) counts only female births per woman: GRR = TFR (proportion of female births). If male births are 60%, female births are 100% - 60% = 40% = 0.40. Therefore, 1.08 = TFR 0.40 => TFR = 1.08 / 0.40 = 2.7 per woman.
Q575
StatisticsTests of Index Numbers
Fisher's Ideal Index Number does not satisfy: A) Unit Test B) Time Reversal Test C) Circular Test D) Factor Reversal Test
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Circular Test)
Fisher's Ideal Index Number satisfies the Time Reversal Test, the Factor Reversal Test, and the Unit Test. However, it does NOT satisfy the Circular Test (which is satisfied by simple geometric mean of price relatives and Kelly's fixed weight index).
Q576
StatisticsProperties of Correlation Coefficient
The class instructor calculated the correlation coefficient between the marks obtained by students in English and Hindi, and found it to be -0.5. Later, she realized that she had forgotten to include 1 grace mark for every student in the English scores. What will be the new correlation coefficient between the updated English marks and the Hindi marks? A) 0.5 B) -0.5 C) 0 D) 1
💡Correct Answer: Option B (-0.5)
The Pearson correlation coefficient is completely invariant to changes of origin and positive changes of scale. Adding a constant (+1 grace mark) to all scores of a variable shifts the origin equally without altering the covariance or standard deviation. Hence, the correlation coefficient remains unchanged at -0.5.
Q577
StatisticsMedian of Grouped Frequency Distribution
What is the value of x if the median wage is Rs. 4675 for the following salary distribution? Salary (in Rs.): 2000-3000 | 3000-4000 | 4000-5000 | 5000-6000 | 6000-7000 Number of Employees: 3 | 5 | x | 10 | 5 A) 8 B) 20 C) 12 D) 9
💡Correct Answer: Option C (12)
Median = 4675 lies in class 4000-5000. Lower limit L = 4000, class width h = 1000, frequency f = x. Cumulative frequency before median class c.f. = 3 + 5 = 8. Total N = 3 + 5 + x + 10 + 5 = 23 + x. Median formula: Median = L + [ (N/2 - c.f.) / f ] h. Substituting: 4675 = 4000 + [ ((23 + x)/2 - 8) / x ] 1000 => 675 = [ (7 + x) / (2x) ] 1000 => 675 = [ (7 + x) / (2x) ] 1000 => 1350x = 7000 + 1000x => 350x = 7000 => x = 7000 / 350 = 20. Exactly 20! Thus, Option B is correct.
Q578
General Knowledge & Current AffairsModern Indian History & Social Reforms
Name the Governor General who abolished 'Sati' in 1829. A) Lord Clive B) Lord Curzon C) Lord Bentinck D) Lord Dalhousie
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Lord Bentinck)
The Bengal Sati Regulation was passed on 4 December 1829 by Governor-General Lord William Bentinck, declaring the practice of burning or burying alive Hindu widows (Sati) illegal and punishable by the criminal courts, largely through the relentless reform efforts of Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
Which of the following type of histogram represents a normal distribution? A) Bell-shaped B) Comb C) Skewed D) Plateau
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bell-shaped)
A normal distribution is unimodal, perfectly symmetric about the mean, and its probability density function / histogram forms a characteristic symmetrical 'Bell-shaped' curve.
Q580
Quantitative AptitudeStatistics (Measures of Central Tendency)
Magnitude of scores is included in which of the central tendency measures? A) Median B) Mode C) Mean D) None
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Mean)
The Arithmetic Mean includes the exact numerical magnitude (value) of every single score in the dataset (Mean = Σx / N). Median depends only on position/order, and Mode depends solely on frequency of occurrence.
Q581
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityProbability
In a single throw of 2 dice, what is the probability of getting a sum of 7 ? A) 1/6 B) 1/2 C) 1/12 D) 2/5
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1/6)
Total possible outcomes when 2 dice are thrown = 6 * 6 = 36. Favourable outcomes giving a sum of 7 are (1,6), (2,5), (3,4), (4,3), (5,2), (6,1), which is 6 outcomes. Probability = 6 / 36 = 1 / 6.
Q582
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityProbability
A bag contains 3 red balls and 2 green balls. One ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that it is red? A) 2/5 B) 3/5 C) 1/2 D) 1/3
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3/5)
Total balls = 3 (red) + 2 (green) = 5. Number of red balls = 3. Probability of drawing a red ball = 3 / 5.
Q583
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityProbability
Two coins are tossed together. What is the probability of getting at least one head? A) 1/4 B) 1/2 C) 3/4 D) 1
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3/4)
Sample space when two coins are tossed = {HH, HT, TH, TT}, total = 4 outcomes. The outcomes with at least one head are {HH, HT, TH}, which is 3 outcomes. Probability = 3 / 4.
Q584
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityProbability
What is the probability of drawing an ace or a king from a deck of 52 cards? A) 2/13 B) 1/13 C) 1/26 D) 4/13
💡Correct Answer: Option A (2/13)
Total cards in a deck = 52. Number of aces = 4. Number of kings = 4. Total favourable cards = 4 + 4 = 8. Probability = 8 / 52 = 2 / 13.
Q585
General Awareness & ScienceModern Indian History & Constitutional Acts
The Indian Councils Act of 1909 is also known as A) Morley-Minto Reforms B) Government of India Act C) Rowlatt Act D) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Morley-Minto Reforms)
The Indian Councils Act 1909 is widely known as the Morley-Minto Reforms after John Morley (Secretary of State for India) and Lord Minto (Viceroy of India). It introduced separate electorates for Muslims.
Q586
Civil EngineeringConstruction Management - PERT Expected Time & Variance
If the optimistic time (t_o), most likely or probable time (t_m), and pessimistic time (t_p), for activity (A) are 2, 5 and 14 days respectively, then expected duration and variance of the activity are A) 2 and 5 days B) 6 and 4 days C) 14 and 7 days D) 16 and 5 days
Electrical EngineeringElectronics - Diode Small-Signal Model
Which of the following statements is correct? Under small signal operation of a diode _______? A) Its bulk resistance increases B) It behaves as a clipper C) It acts like a closed switch D) Its junction resistance predominates
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Its junction resistance predominates)
In small-signal AC operation of a semiconductor diode, the diode is modeled as an incremental dynamic junction resistance (rj=IDQηVT) in series with the semiconductor ohmic bulk resistance (rb). At typical small-signal operational bias currents, the incremental non-linear barrier/junction resistance rj is significantly larger than the minute ohmic bulk resistance (rb≈1 to 2Ω), so the junction resistance predominates.
In a three-phase VSI, with 120° conduction mode, how many switches conduct at a time? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 6
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2)
In a three-phase bridge inverter consisting of 6 switches: - In 180° conduction mode, each switch conducts for 180°, and at any instant exactly 3 switches are conducting simultaneously. - In 120° conduction mode, each switch conducts for 120°, followed by a 60° non-conduction interval for that phase leg. Consequently, at any given instant, exactly 2 switches (one from the positive group and one from the negative group of different legs) conduct simultaneously.
Consider the following statements: If a 3-phase squirrel cage induction machine operates at a slip of minus 0.05, then the machine will: I. Draw electrical power from the mains II. Draw mechanical power through the shaft III. Deliver electrical power to the mains Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) I, II and III B) I and II C) II and III D) I and III
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II and III)
When an induction machine is driven by a prime mover above synchronous speed (N>Ns), its slip becomes negative (s=−0.05). In this generating mode (Induction Generator): - Mechanical power is supplied into the rotor through the shaft by the prime mover (Statement II is correct). - The developed torque reverses, and the machine delivers active electrical power back into the AC supply mains (Statement III is correct). (Note: While it absorbs reactive power for excitation, active power is delivered to the mains, making statements II and III the standard description of generator operation). Thus, II and III are correct (Option C).
Q590
Forensic Physics & Modern PhysicsModern Physics & Quantum Concepts
Match the following scientists/concepts with their corresponding values/discoveries:\ni. Planck\nii. De Broglie\niii. Einstein\niv. Nuclear reactor\na. Heavy water\nb. Photoelectric effect\nc. Matter wave\nd. 6.627*10^-27 erg·s\nChoose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a)
Planck's constant is 6.627*10^-27 erg·s (i-d); De Broglie proposed matter waves (ii-c); Einstein explained the photoelectric effect (iii-b); heavy water is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors (iv-a). Thus, i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a.
Q591
Forensic Physics & Modern PhysicsMicroscopic Dimensions & Particle Scales
Arrange the following in ascending order of their size:\nI. Electron\nII. Red blood cells\nIII. Proton\nIV. A cell\nChoose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I<III<II<IV)
In ascending order of physical dimension: Electron (< 10^-18 m) < Proton (~10^-15 m) < Red Blood Cell (~6-8 micrometers) < Typical large biological cell (~10-100 micrometers). Thus, I < III < II < IV.
Q592
Forensic Optics & SpectroscopyFour-Level Laser Population Kinetics
Arrange in correct sequence of population distribution in the energy levels of a four-level laser system in thermal equilibrium:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (N4<N3<N2<N1)
According to the Boltzmann distribution in thermal equilibrium, the population density of quantum states decreases exponentially with increasing energy (E1 < E2 < E3 < E4), meaning ground state N1 has the highest population and highest level N4 has the lowest: N4 < N3 < N2 < N1.
Average sample desired for qualitative analysis in IR spectroscopy:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1 milligram)
In standard qualitative transmission infrared spectroscopy (such as the preparation of a 1% KBr pellet or Nujol mull), approximately 1 milligram of sample is routinely required.
Q594
Forensic Statistics & Quality ControlFundamentals of Statistics
Statistics deals with:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both (A) and (B))
Statistics is the science of collecting, analyzing, and interpreting data, encompassing both quantitative numerical data and qualitative categorical/attribute data.
The chi-square distribution is applied in testing independence of attributes (contingency tables), testing the goodness-of-fit of distributions, and testing hypotheses regarding population variances and correlation coefficients. Thus, All the above.
Q596
Forensic Statistics & Quality ControlHypothesis Testing for Proportions
To test hypothesis about proportion of items in a class, the usual test is:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Z-test)
To test hypotheses regarding a population proportion (or difference between two proportions), the standard normal Z-test (Z-test for proportions) is used based on the normal approximation to the binomial distribution.
Paired t-test is applicable when the observations in the two samples are:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All the above.)
A paired t-test requires observations from the two samples to be collected in matched pairs (e.g., before and after on the same subject), meaning they are naturally paired, inherently correlated, and strictly equal in sample size. Thus, All the above.
Q598
Forensic Statistics & Quality ControlPrinciples of Hypothesis Testing
Which of the following statements are true for the Test of Hypothesis?\nI. Tests do not explain the reason as to why does the difference exist between the mean of two samples.\nII. It can be used in any sample in mechanical fashion.\nIII. Results of significance test are based on probabilities.\nIV. Results of significance test are not based on probabilities.\nOptions:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both I and III)
Statement I is true because statistical significance tests detect mathematical differences but cannot explain causal underlying mechanisms. Statement III is true because test conclusions rely on p-values and sampling probability distributions. Statement II and IV are false. Thus, Both I and III are correct.
Chi-square test can be used:\nI. As a parametric test\nII. As a test of goodness of fit\nIII. As a test of independence.\nOptions:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (II and III)
The Chi-Square test is primarily a non-parametric test widely employed for testing goodness-of-fit (II) and evaluating the independence of categorical attributes in contingency tables (III). Thus, II and III are correct.
Match the statistical tests with their respective purposes:\ni. Z-test\nii. t-test\niii. Chi-square test\niv. ANOVA\na. Independence of attributes\nb. Difference among two or more samples\nc. Difference between two samples\nd. Difference between two samples when populations are normal and sample size is large\nOptions:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b)
Chi-square tests independence of attributes (iii-a); ANOVA tests variance/means among two or more groups (iv-b); Z-test and t-test evaluate differences between sample means under normal assumptions (i-c/d, ii-d/c). Option A aligns iii-a and iv-b.
Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in applying the chi-square test:\nI. Calculate the expected frequencies on the basis of given hypothesis.\nII. Find the summation values.\nIII. Divide the quantity obtained.\nIV. Obtain the difference between observed and expected frequencies and find out the square of such differences.\nOptions:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, IV, III, II)
To compute Chi-Square = Sigma [(O - E)^2 / E]: (I) Calculate expected frequencies E -> (IV) Calculate (O - E)^2 -> (III) Divide (O - E)^2 by E -> (II) Sum the values over all cells. Thus, I, IV, III, II.
Q602
Forensic StatisticsContinuous vs Discrete Variables
Which of the following variable can assume any numerical value over a certain interval?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Continuous Variable)
A continuous variable can take an infinite number of possible real numerical values within any specified interval (such as blood alcohol concentration, temperature, or mass), unlike discrete variables which only take countable integer values.
Q603
Forensic StatisticsInferential Statistics
Which of the following methods use sample results to help make decisions or predictions about a population?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Inferential Statistics)
Inferential statistics involves using data drawn from a sample to make generalizations, estimates, hypothesis tests, or predictions about an entire broader population.
Q604
Forensic StatisticsChi-Squared Distribution & Hypothesis Testing
Which of the following distributions is used for hypothesis testing?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Chi-Squared Distribution)
The Chi-Squared (χ²) distribution is a fundamental sampling distribution widely used in non-parametric hypothesis testing, notably goodness-of-fit tests and tests of independence between categorical variables.
Q605
Forensic StatisticsScales of Measurement
Which of the following scales shows equal intervals? I. Nominal scale II. Ordinal scale III. Interval scale IV. Ratio scale Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (III and IV only)
In Stevens' typology of measurement scales, both Interval and Ratio scales possess the mathematical property of equal units of distance (equal intervals) between consecutive numerical values. Nominal only categorizes, while Ordinal only ranks.
Q606
Forensic StatisticsF-test and ANOVA
Which of the following test is useful to find analysis of variance in a sample data?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (F test)
The F-test is the statistical test used in Analysis of Variance (ANOVA) to compare variances across two or more sample groups by calculating the ratio of between-group variance to within-group variance.
Q607
Forensic StatisticsSkewness and Symmetry
Which of the following represent degree of symmetry in statistical calculation
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Skewness)
Skewness is a measure of the asymmetry or degree of departure from symmetry of a frequency distribution about its mean. A symmetric distribution has a skewness value of zero.
Q608
Modern Indian HistoryIndian National Movement Leaders
Match the following: National Leaders i) Mahatma Gandhi ii) Bhagat Singh iii) Subhash Chandra Bose iv) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Contribution 1. Azad Hind Fauj 2. Central Legislative Assembly Bombing 3. Dandi March 4. Swaraj is my birthright Options:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4)
Mahatma Gandhi led the Dandi March in 1930 (i-3). Bhagat Singh threw bombs in the Central Legislative Assembly in 1929 (ii-2). Subhash Chandra Bose led the Azad Hind Fauj (iii-1). Bal Gangadhar Tilak declared 'Swaraj is my birthright' (iv-4). Thus, i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4.
Q609
Indian Polity & DemographyCensus of India Administration
Which body is responsible for conducting the census in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ministry of Home Affairs)
The decennial population Census in India is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, functioning under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
Q610
Economy of Jammu & KashmirJ&K Economic Survey - GDP and Population Share
As per Economic Survey, 2024-2025, the UT of Jammu and Kashmir contributes _____% to national GDP in proportion to its population being _____% of total national population.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (0.8 and 0.98, respectively)
According to the official Economic Survey of Jammu & Kashmir, the UT of J&K contributes approximately 0.8% to India's national Gross Domestic Product (GDP), in proportion to its population share of 0.98% of the total national population.
Q611
Basic MathematicsProbability - Binomial Distribution
A coin is tossed 5 times. Each head contributes +1 and each tail contributes -1. What is the probability that the total sum is exactly +1?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (5/16)
Let H = number of heads, T = number of tails. Total tosses H + T = 5. Net sum H - T = 1. Solving gives 2H = 6 => H = 3 and T = 2. Number of favorable outcomes = C(5, 3) = 10. Total possible outcomes = 2⁵ = 32. Probability = 10 / 32 = 5/16.
Q612
Basic MathematicsConditional Probability
A die is thrown 3 times. What is the probability that the sum is even, given that at least one 6 appears and all three outcomes are not the same?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1/2)
Condition B: At least one 6 appears, but not (6,6,6). Total outcomes with at least one 6 = 6³ - 5³ = 216 - 125 = 91. Excluding (6,6,6), |B| = 90. Out of the 108 even sum outcomes in 3 rolls, outcomes without any 6 having an even sum = (3 evens from {2,4}) + (1 even, 2 odds from {1,3,5}) = 2³ + 3(2)(3²) = 8 + 54 = 62. Thus, even sums with at least one 6 = 108 - 62 = 46. Excluding (6,6,6) (sum 18 is even), favorable even sums in B = 46 - 1 = 45. Probability = 45 / 90 = 1/2.
Q613
Basic MathematicsProbability - Combinations
A bag contains 4 red, 3 blue, and 3 green balls. Three balls are drawn without replacement. What is the probability that exactly two balls are of the same colour and one is different?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (13/20)
Total balls = 10. Total ways to draw 3 balls = C(10, 3) = 120. All 3 same colour: C(4,3) + C(3,3) + C(3,3) = 4 + 1 + 1 = 6. All 3 different colours: C(4,1) × C(3,1) × C(3,1) = 4 × 3 × 3 = 36. Favorable outcomes (exactly two of same colour) = 120 - (6 + 36) = 120 - 42 = 78. Probability = 78 / 120 = 13/20.
Q614
Basic MathematicsProbability - Number Sets
Two numbers are chosen at random from the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} without replacement. What is the probability that their sum is prime?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (7/15)
Total pairs = C(6, 2) = 15. The prime sums possible from {1..6} are 3, 5, 7, 11: Sum 3: (1,2); Sum 5: (1,4), (2,3); Sum 7: (1,6), (2,5), (3,4); Sum 11: (5,6). Total favorable pairs = 1 + 2 + 3 + 1 = 7. Probability = 7/15.
Q615
General Knowledge & Current AffairsModern Indian History (Freedom Struggle)
Arrange the following events in correct chronological order: I. Poorna Swaraj Resolution II. Launch of Civil Disobedience Movement III. Poona Pact IV. Second Round Table Conference Choose the correct option: A) I - II - III - IV B) I - II - IV - III C) II - I - IV - III D) II - I - III - IV
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I - II - IV - III)
Chronology of events: I. Poorna Swaraj Resolution: Adopted at the Lahore session of the Indian National Congress in December 1929. II. Launch of Civil Disobedience Movement: Commenced with the Dandi March on March 12, 1930 (breaking of salt law on April 6, 1930). IV. Second Round Table Conference: Held in London between September 7 and December 1, 1931 (attended by Mahatma Gandhi). III. Poona Pact: Signed between Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and representatives of caste Hindus on September 24, 1932. Chronological order: I - II - IV - III.
Q616
Basic MathematicsProgressions & Means (AM & GM)
X and Y are two numbers whose A.M. is 41 and G.M. is 9. Which of the following may be a value of X? A) 125 B) 81 C) 49 D) 25
💡Correct Answer: Option B (81)
Given: (X + Y) / 2 = 41 => X + Y = 82 √(X × Y) = 9 => X × Y = 81. The quadratic equation with roots X and Y is: t² - 82t + 81 = 0 => (t - 81)(t - 1) = 0. Thus, the two numbers are 81 and 1. Therefore, X can be 81.
Q617
Basic MathematicsProbability
A card is drawn at random from a pack of 100 cards numbered 1 to 100. The probability of drawing a number which is a square, is: A) 1/10 B) 1/100 C) 9/10 D) 90/100
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1/10)
Total outcomes = 100. Perfect squares from 1 to 100 are: 1², 2², 3², 4², 5², 6², 7², 8², 9², 10² (1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 81, 100). Number of favourable outcomes = 10. Probability = 10 / 100 = 1/10.
Q618
Basic MathematicsProbability
A dice is thrown once. Find the probability that 3 or greater than 3 turns up: A) 1/2 B) 1/3 C) 1/4 D) 2/3
💡Correct Answer: Option D (2/3)
Total possible outcomes on a fair six-sided die = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} (6 outcomes). Favourable outcomes (3 or greater than 3) = {3, 4, 5, 6} (4 outcomes). Probability = 4 / 6 = 2/3.
Q619
General Knowledge & Current AffairsModern Indian History (Anglo-Sikh Wars)
Arrange the following battles of the First Anglo-Sikh War in chronological order: I. Battle of Mudki II. Battle of Ferozeshah III. Battle of Aliwal IV. Battle of Sobraon Choose the correct option: A) I - II - III - IV B) I - III - II - IV C) II - I - III - IV D) II - III - I - IV
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I - II - III - IV)
Chronological order of the First Anglo-Sikh War (1845–1846): 1. Battle of Mudki: 18 December 1845 (I) 2. Battle of Ferozeshah: 21–22 December 1845 (II) 3. Battle of Aliwal: 28 January 1846 (III) 4. Battle of Sobraon: 10 February 1846 (decisive British victory ending the war) (IV). Correct sequence: I - II - III - IV.
Q620
General Awareness with special ref to J&KModern Indian History - Freedom Movement
With reference to the Indian Freedom struggle, consider the following events: I. Poona Pact II. Lord Irwin's declaration III. Second Round Table Conference
Arrange them in the correct chronological order: A) I-II-III B) II-I-III C) I-III-II D) II-III-I
💡Correct Answer: Option D (II-III-I)
Chronology of the events: 1. Lord Irwin's Declaration (Deepavali Declaration on Dominion Status): October 31, 1929 2. Second Round Table Conference (attended by Mahatma Gandhi in London): September to December 1931 3. Poona Pact (agreement between Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi on depressed classes representation): September 24, 1932 Thus, the correct chronological sequence is II - III - I.
Q621
General Awareness with special ref to J&KDemography and Indian Economy
Consider the following statements regarding India's demographic trends: I. Demographic dividend refers to the economic growth potential arising from a declining dependency ratio, due to a rising working-age population. II. Demographic winter refers to the economic and social challenges arising from an increasing working-age population and decreasing old-age dependency. III. India is expected to enjoy its demographic dividend till the mid-21st century, and its realization depends on education, skill development, health, and employment generation.
Which of the above statements are correct? A) I and III only B) II and III only C) I and II only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I and III only)
Evaluating demographic trends: - Statement I is correct: Demographic dividend is the economic boost resulting from a shift in population age structure when the working-age population (15-64) exceeds the dependent population. - Statement II is incorrect: 'Demographic winter' describes sub-replacement birth rates, declining population, and a rapidly aging society with INCREASING old-age dependency. - Statement III is correct: India's median age remains under 29 and its dividend window extends up to ~2047–2055, dependent on skill and health investments. Therefore, statements I and III only are correct.
Q622
Basic Concepts of ComputersModern Input-Output & VR Peripherals
Match the following devices with their corresponding descriptions: Devices: 1. Haptic Gloves 2. Tactile Display 3. Voice Response Unit (VRU) 4. Data Glove
Statements: i. Generates tactile sensations and may sense user interaction. ii. Captures fine hand/finger movements for computer input. iii. Detect user gestures and provide force feedback. iv. Generates synthesised audio output for interaction with users.
Choose the correct match: A) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii B) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii C) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii D) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii)
Device mappings: - Haptic Gloves (1): Combine sensors and actuators to detect hand gestures and apply physical force feedback resistance (iii) - Tactile Display (2): Uses mechanical actuators to dynamically generate tactile sensations or braille patterns (i) - Voice Response Unit / VRU (3): Generates synthesized voice or recorded audio responses in automated telecommunications (iv) - Data Glove (4): Pure sensory glove measuring joint bends and hand kinematics to capture fine input movements (ii) Hence, 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii.
Q623
Basic Concepts of ComputersCloud Computing - Service Models
In the context of cloud computing in an IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) model, what is managed by the service provider? A) Networking hardware B) Operating system C) Hardware platform and operating system D) Operating system and data
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Networking hardware)
In the IaaS cloud computing model (e.g., AWS EC2, Microsoft Azure VMs), the cloud service provider manages the physical data center facilities, virtualization layer, physical servers, storage disks, and networking hardware. The customer is responsible for installing and configuring the operating system, middleware, runtime, and data.
Q624
Basic MathematicsProbability
A bag contains 3 red balls, 2 blue balls, and 5 green balls. If one ball is drawn at random, what is the probability that it is red? A) 3/10 B) 1/2 C) 1/5 D) 2/5
💡Correct Answer: Option A (3/10)
Total balls = 3 + 2 + 5 = 10. Favorable outcomes (red balls) = 3. Probability = 3/10.
Q625
Basic MathematicsProbability
A die is rolled once. What is the probability of getting an even number greater than 2? A) 1/2 B) 1/3 C) 1/6 D) 1/8
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1/3)
Total outcomes on a fair die = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} (6 outcomes). Even numbers greater than 2 are {4, 6} (2 outcomes). Probability = 2 / 6 = 1/3.
Q626
Basic MathematicsProbability
Two coins are tossed together. What is the probability of getting one head and one tail? A) 1/4 B) 1/2 C) 3/4 D) 1
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1/2)
Total outcomes = {HH, HT, TH, TT} (4 outcomes). Favorable outcomes with one head and one tail = {HT, TH} (2 outcomes). Probability = 2 / 4 = 1/2.
Q627
General Awareness & ScienceModern Indian History - Governor Generals
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Governor Generals: I. Lord Wellesley II. Lord William Bentinck III. Lord Charles Metcalfe IV. Lord Ripon Acts/Policies/Titles: Subsidiary Alliance Abolition of Sati Act, 1829 Liberator of the Press Father of Local Self-Government Choose the correct option: A) I and II only B) I, II and IV only C) II, III and IV only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
All pairs are correctly matched: I. Lord Wellesley introduced the Subsidiary Alliance policy (1798); II. Lord William Bentinck abolished Sati via Regulation XVII in 1829; III. Lord Charles Metcalfe removed restrictions on the press via the Press Act of 1835 ('Liberator of the Press'); IV. Lord Ripon issued the Local Self-Government resolution of 1882 ('Father of Local Self-Government').
Q628
General Awareness & ScienceHistory of Jammu and Kashmir - Modern Period
Who was one of the founders of the political organisation 'All Jammu and Kashmir Muslim Conference' in 1932? A) Mohammad Ali Jinnah B) Liaqat Ali Khan C) Sheikh Abdullah D) Sikandar Hayat Khan
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sheikh Abdullah)
The All Jammu and Kashmir Muslim Conference was founded in October 1932 at Pathar Masjid in Srinagar by Sheikh Mohammad Abdullah along with Chaudhry Ghulam Abbas. Sheikh Abdullah was elected its first president. In 1939, it was secularized and renamed the National Conference.
Q629
Basic MathematicsProbability
What's the probability of drawing a red card or a card with a face (king, queen, or jack) from a standard deck of 52 cards? A) 13/15 B) 1/4 C) 29/52 D) 8/13
💡Correct Answer: Option D (8/13)
Total cards = 52. Red cards = 26 (which already include 6 red face cards: 2 kings, 2 queens, 2 jacks). Black face cards = 6 (2 kings, 2 queens, 2 jacks). Total favorable outcomes = 26 + 6 = 32. Probability = 32 / 52 = 8 / 13.
Q630
Basic MathematicsProbability
What is the probability of a sure event? A) 1 B) 0.5 C) 0 D) 0.25
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1)
A sure (or certain) event is an event that is guaranteed to happen under the given conditions. Its probability is always 1.
Q631
Basic MathematicsProbability
What is the probability of getting a number greater than 6 on dice? A) 1 B) 0.5 C) 0 D) 0.25
💡Correct Answer: Option C (0)
A standard die has faces numbered from 1 to 6. Getting a number strictly greater than 6 is an impossible event, so its probability is 0 / 6 = 0.
Q632
General ScienceBiology - Modes of Nutrition
Which of the following organisms exhibits parasitic nutrition? A) Nitrosomonas B) Amoeba C) Plasmodium D) Paramecium
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Plasmodium)
Plasmodium is a protozoan endoparasite that causes malaria in humans and relies on parasitic nutrition by feeding on the nutrients of its host organisms (humans and female Anopheles mosquitoes). Amoeba and Paramecium exhibit holozoic nutrition, while Nitrosomonas is chemoautotrophic.
Q633
Modern Indian HistoryRevolt of 1857 & Government of India Act 1858
Following the suppression of the revolt of 1857, what major constitutional change was adopted via the Government of India Act, 1858?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The power of the East India Company was abolished, and power was transferred to the British Crown.)
The Government of India Act, 1858 (also known as the Act for the Better Government of India) liquidated the British East India Company and transferred the government, territories, and revenues of India directly to the British Crown (Queen Victoria). The Governor-General was given the additional title of Viceroy, and a Secretary of State for India was created to head the Indian administration.
Q634
Modern Indian HistoryLord Lytton & Nationalist Upsurge
Which of the following administrative measures taken by Lord Lytton was a factor in the rise of Indian Nationalism?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Passing of the Vernacular Press Act (1878))
Lord Lytton served as Viceroy of India from 1876 to 1880. His reactionary administration enacted the Vernacular Press Act (1878) to muzzle Indian language newspapers, the Arms Act (1878), reduced the maximum age for ICS recruitment from 21 to 19, and held the lavish Delhi Durbar during the devastating 1876-78 famine. These repressive measures galvanized educated Indians and greatly accelerated the rise of organized nationalism.
Q635
Modern Indian HistoryFormation of Indian National Congress
The 'Safety Valve theory' propounded by leaders like Lala Lajpat Rai in the context of the formation of the Indian National Congress suggests that-
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The congress was formed to provide a peaceful outlet for public discontent and prevent another revolt like 1857.)
The 'Safety Valve theory', highlighted by Lala Lajpat Rai in his 1916 work 'Young India', argued that A.O. Hume founded the Indian National Congress under the guidance of Viceroy Lord Dufferin to act as an escape pipe or 'safety valve' for releasing growing political and social discontent among educated Indians, thereby preventing another mass revolt similar to 1857.
Q636
Modern Indian HistoryModerate Phase of INC
What was/were the primary political demands of the Moderates during the early phase of the Indian National Congress?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Expansion of Legislative Councils and greater representation of Indians in the Civil Services)
During the Moderate phase (1885–1905), Congress leaders like Dadabhai Naoroji, Gopal Krishna Gokhale, and Pherozeshah Mehta pursued constitutional agitation. Their primary political demands included expansion and reform of the Imperial and Provincial Legislative Councils with greater elected Indian representation, and the Indianisation of higher administrative and Civil Services (holding simultaneous examinations in India and England).
Q637
Modern Indian HistorySwadeshi Movement & Indigenous Enterprises
Match the following in the context of the Swadeshi Movement: Swadeshi Initiatives: i. Bengal Chemicals Factory ii. Steam Navigation Company iii. Dawn Society iv. Swadesh Bandhab Samiti Associated Leaders: a. V.O. Chidambaram Pillai b. Prafulla Chandra Ray c. Ashwini Kumar Datta d. Satish Chandra Mukherjee Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c)
During the Swadeshi Movement (1905–1908): - Bengal Chemicals Pharmaceutical Works was established by Acharya Prafulla Chandra Ray (i-b). - Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company was launched at Tuticorin by V.O. Chidambaram Pillai (ii-a). - Dawn Society was founded in 1902 to promote national education by Satish Chandra Mukherjee (iii-d). - Swadesh Bandhab Samiti was formed in Barisal by Ashwini Kumar Datta to mobilize the masses (iv-c). Hence, the correct matching is i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c.
Q638
Modern Indian HistoryIndian National Movement Chronology
Arrange the following historical events in the correct Chronological order. I. Death of Bal Gangadhar Tilak II. Formation of the Swaraj Party by C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru III. Self-Respect Movement by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker IV. Chauri Chaura incident during the Non-Cooperation Movement
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I - IV - II - III)
Chronological timeline of the events: I. Death of Bal Gangadhar Tilak: August 1, 1920 (on the day the Non-Cooperation Movement began). IV. Chauri Chaura incident: February 4/5, 1922 (led to the suspension of Non-Cooperation Movement). II. Formation of the Swaraj Party: January 1, 1923 (founded by C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru). III. Self-Respect Movement: 1925 (launched by Periyar E.V. Ramasamy in Tamil Nadu). Therefore, the correct chronological order is I - IV - II - III.
Q639
Modern Indian HistoryShimla Deputation & Formation of Muslim League
Why was the Shimla deputation (1906) prominent for the rise of the Muslim League in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The deputation received a positive assurance from Lord Minto regarding separate electorates)
On October 1, 1906, a delegation of 35 aristocratic Muslim leaders led by the Aga Khan met Viceroy Lord Minto at Shimla (the Shimla Deputation). They demanded separate electorates and weighted representation for Muslims in municipal and legislative bodies. Lord Minto gave them a sympathetic reception and positive assurance, which directly encouraged the establishment of the All India Muslim League in Dhaka in December 1906 and culminated in the Indian Councils Act 1909.
Q640
Modern Indian HistoryKhilafat Movement
Who were the two primary brothers who founded the 'All India Khilafat Committee' in 1919?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali)
The All India Khilafat Committee was formed in Bombay in 1919 under the leadership of the 'Ali Brothers'—Maulana Mohammad Ali Jauhar and Maulana Shaukat Ali—along with prominent leaders like Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, Hasrat Mohani, and Hakim Ajmal Khan, to defend the Ottoman Caliphate against British dismemberment.
Q641
Modern Indian HistoryQuit India Movement & Parallel Governments
In which of the following places was a 'Parallel Government' (Prati Sarkar) formed by Nana Patil during the Quit India Movement?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Satara (Maharashtra))
During the Quit India Movement in 1942–43, Nana Patil, along with leaders like Y.B. Chavan and Kisan Veer, established a famous parallel government ('Prati Sarkar') in Satara (Maharashtra). It functioned effectively for nearly three years, running volunteer corps (Toofan Sena) and people's courts (Nyayadan Mandals). (Ballia in UP was led by Chittu Pandey; Tamluk in Bengal was led by Satish Chandra Samanta).
Q642
Modern Indian HistoryIndian Independence Act 1947
On which of the following dates the 'Indian Independence Act-1947' was given the British Royal Assent, thereby giving legal effect to the Mountbatten Plan?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (July 18, 1947)
The Indian Independence Bill was introduced in the British Parliament on July 4, 1947, and received the Royal Assent from King George VI on July 18, 1947. The Act provided for the partition of British India and the creation of two independent Dominions, India and Pakistan, with effect from August 15, 1947.
Q643
Basic MathematicsProbability & Bayes' Theorem
At a doctor's clinic, 8% of patients with liver disease are alcoholics. 6% of all patients are alcoholics, and 12% have liver disease. What's the probability a patient has liver disease if they are alcoholic?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (0.16)
Let L be the event that a patient has liver disease and A be the event that a patient is an alcoholic. Given: - P(L) = 12% = 0.12 - P(A) = 6% = 0.06 - P(A | L) = 8% = 0.08 By Bayes' theorem / conditional probability: P(L ∩ A) = P(A | L) × P(L) = 0.08 × 0.12 = 0.0096 P(L | A) = P(L ∩ A) / P(A) = 0.0096 / 0.06 = 0.16. Hence, the required probability is 0.16.
Q644
Basic MathematicsProbability
Two fair dice are rolled. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers rolled is either 7 or 11?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (2/9)
When two fair dice are rolled, total possible outcomes = 6 × 6 = 36. - Outcomes giving sum = 7: (1,6), (2,5), (3,4), (4,3), (5,2), (6,1) → 6 outcomes. - Outcomes giving sum = 11: (5,6), (6,5) → 2 outcomes. Total favorable outcomes = 6 + 2 = 8. Probability = 8 / 36 = 2 / 9.
Q645
Basic MathematicsProbability
Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 5?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (9/20)
Sample space S = {1, 2, 3, ..., 20}, n(S) = 20. Multiples of 3: {3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18} (6 numbers) Multiples of 5: {5, 10, 15, 20} (4 numbers) Common multiple of 3 and 5: {15} (1 number) Favorable numbers = {3, 5, 6, 9, 10, 12, 15, 18, 20} (9 numbers). Probability = 9 / 20.
Q646
Basic MathematicsProbability
In a lottery, there are 10 prizes and 25 blanks. A lottery is drawn at random. What is the probability of getting a prize?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2/7)
Total tickets = 10 (prizes) + 25 (blanks) = 35. Number of favorable outcomes (getting a prize) = 10. Probability = 10 / 35 = 2 / 7.
Q647
Basic MathematicsAverages (Cricket Statistics)
A cricketer has a batting average of 50 runs over 40 innings. The difference between his highest and lowest scores is 172 runs. If the highest and lowest scores are removed, the average of the remaining 38 innings is 48. What was the cricketer's highest score?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (174)
Total runs in 40 innings = 40 × 50 = 2000. Total runs in 38 innings = 38 × 48 = 1824. Sum of Highest (H) and Lowest (L) scores = 2000 - 1824 = 176. Given: H - L = 172. Adding both equations: 2H = 176 + 172 = 348 ⇒ H = 174. (Lowest score L = 176 - 174 = 2).
About Statistics & Demography Questions for JKSSB & JKPSC
Practice authentic Statistics & Demography questions asked in official JKSSB, JKPSC, and JK Police examinations. This comprehensive deck includes 647 solved MCQs from 91 different recruitment cycles with verified solutions.
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