📈Statistics & DemographyStatistics

Primary & Secondary Data, Measures of Central Tendency (Mean, Median, Mode), Measures of Dispersion, Index Numbers, Probability, and Indian Demography / Census.

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📝 Solved Statistics & Demography Questions (647)

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Q1
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTDemography

The population growth rate means:

Q2
Statistics & MathematicsStatistics

Secondary data is primarily sourced from:

Q3
Statistics & MathematicsStatistics

What is an example of a primary data collection method?

Q4
Statistics & MathematicsStatistics

Consider the following statements regarding questionnaire preparation:

- a. Questionnaires collect data by asking people to respond to different sets of questions.
- b. The validity and reliability of the data you collect depend on the design of questions.
- c. Collect the data without a pilot test of all questionnaires.
- d. When designing your questionnaire, you should consider the wording of individual questions prior to the order in which they appear.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Q5
Statistics & MathematicsStatistics

Which of the following statements regarding tabulation is FALSE?

Q6
Statistics & MathematicsStatistics

Eight randomly selected college students slept for the following hours previous night: 4, 8, 7, 5, 3, 7, 7, 3.

Arrange the following values in decreasing order:
- a. Mean of sleeping hours of the students
- b. Median of sleeping hours of the students
- c. Mode of sleeping hours of the students
- d. Number of random Sample

Q7
Statistics & MathematicsProbability

Consider the following statements regarding probabilities:

- P: Probabilities can never add up to more than one.
- Q: Probabilities of mutually exclusive events always add up to one.
- R: Probabilities can never be zero.
- S: Probabilities are always positive.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Q8
Statistics & MathematicsStatistics

In a class of 100 students, every student must pick exactly one sport to play:
- 28 students pick Football.
- 27 students pick Kho-Kho.
- 33 students pick Volleyball.
- 12 students pick Cricket.
- Total girls = 40. Total boys = 60.
- 13 girls play Kho-Kho.
- 13 boys play Volleyball.
- 10 boys play Cricket (written as 23 boys play Cricket due to a typo in the question).

Match the following:
- a. Boys who play Kho-Kho: 1. 2
- b. Girls who play cricket: 2. 10
- c. Boys who play cricket: 3. 14
- d. Total number of boys: 5. 60

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Q9
Statistics & MathematicsStatistics

An economist estimated that a commodity Y had a price index of 10, calculated for 1993 with a base year of 1990, and a quantity index of 0.5 when calculated for 1990 with a base year of 1993. What is the Fisher Ideal Value Index for 1993 with the base year taken to be 1990?

Q10
Statistics & MathematicsStatistics

One of the key features of the census is:

Q11
Statistics & MathematicsStatistics

Consider the following statements regarding Measures of Mortality:

- a. Gross Reproduction Rate: 5. Measures the number of daughters over a lifetime.
- b. Age-Specific Fertility Rate: 3. Has modal value between 20 and 25
- c. Net Reproduction Rate: 2. Affected by mortality rates
- d. Maternal Mortality Rate: 4. Is measured per 1000 live births.

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Q12
Statistics & MathematicsSimple Interest

The interest on Rs. 54,000 loan for nine months at 8% interest per year is:

Q13
Statistics & MathematicsLinear Equations

Tom and Jerry went to a restaurant for dinner. Tom ordered 2 hamburgers and 1 soft drink, totalling Rs. 70. Jerry ordered 1 hamburger and 2 soft drinks, totalling Rs. 50. What is the cost of one hamburger and one soft drink?

Q14
Statistics & MathematicsPermutations and Combinations

Consider the following statements:

- a. The number of ways to arrange the letters of the word "PEPPER" is 60.
- b. In a group of 20 people, the number of ways to select a committee of 3 members where the order doesn't matter is (203)\binom{20}{3}.
- c. The expansion of (2+x)3(2+x)^3 using binomial theorem is 8+6x+12x2+x38+6x+12x^2+x^3.
- d. The number of ways 3 boys and 3 girls can sit in a row is 360.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Q15
Statistics & MathematicsCalculus

Consider the following statements:

- a. The limit of x2−1x−1\frac{x^2-1}{x-1} as x approaches 1 is 0.
- b. If f(x)=1xf(x)=\frac{1}{x} then the derivative of f(x)f(x) with respect to x is 1x2\frac{1}{x^2}.
- c. The limit of ex−1x\frac{e^x-1}{x} as x approaches 0 is 1.
- d. The limit definition of a derivative for a function f(x)f(x) is lim⁡h→0f(x+h)−f(x)h\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Q16
Statistics & MathematicsSet Theory

Let A={x:x∈R,∣x∣<1}A=\{x: x\in \mathbb{R}, |x|<1\} and B={x:x∈R,∣x−1∣≥1}B=\{x: x\in \mathbb{R}, |x-1|\ge1\}. If A∪B=R∖DA \cup B = \mathbb{R} \setminus D, then the set D is:

Q17
Statistics & MathematicsRelations and Functions

Consider the following relations/functions and their properties:

- a. F={(x,y)∈R×R:x2+y=2}F=\{(x,y)\in \mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{R}: x^2+y=2\}
- b. F={(x,y)∈R×R:x2+y2=25}F=\{(x,y)\in \mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{R}: x^2+y^2=25\}
- c. F={(x,y)∈R×R:y=2x+1}F=\{(x,y)\in \mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{R}: y=2x+1\}
- d. F={(x,y)∈R×R:y=x2}F=\{(x,y)\in \mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{R}: y=x^2\}

Matches:
- 1. F∘F={(x,z)∈R×R:z=4x+3}F \circ F = \{(x,z)\in \mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{R}: z=4x+3\}
- 2. F is increasing on (0,∞)(0,\infty) but not on $\mathbb{R}
- 3$. F is one-one but not onto
- 4. Range of F=[−2,∞)F = [-2,\infty) (assuming y=x2−2y=x^2-2 in the paper's original intended equation)
- 5. F is not a function

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Q18
Statistics & MathematicsMatrices and Determinants

Consider the following matrices and their determinants:

- a. Square matrix has two identical rows
- b. 3×33\times3 Identity matrix
- c. 3×33\times3 diagonal matrix with diagonal entries 1, 2 and 3
- d. P and Q are two 3×33\times3 matrices with det⁡(P)=2\det(P)=2 and det⁡(Q)=4\det(Q)=4. Determinant of PQTP Q^T is:

Matches:
- 1. Determinant = 1
- 2. Determinant = 4
- 3. Determinant = 0
- 4. Determinant = 6
- 5. Determinant = 8

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Q19
Statistics & MathematicsProbability

Arrange the following events in increasing order of probability:

- a. Picking a diamond from a well-shuffled deck of 52 playing cards.
- b. Drawing a King from a standard deck of 52 cards.
- c. Rolling a number between 1 and 6 on a fair six-sided die.
- d. Getting heads on a fair coin toss.

Q20
Statistics & MathematicsVectors

The area of the triangle determined by the three points A(1,2,3), B(3,2,1) and C(2,4,5) is:

Q21
Statistics & MathematicsVectors

The unit vector having the opposite direction of the vector (1,-1) is:

Q22
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics

The English word "Statistics" is derived from

i. Latin word "Status"
ii. Italian word "Statista"
iii. German word "Statistik"

Q23
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of data?

Q24
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics

If the class-intervals in a frequency distribution are 72-73.9, 74-75.9, 76-77.9, 78-79.9, then the mid-value of the class 74-75.9 is:

Q25
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics

Which of the following is a positional average?

Q26
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics

Marks obtained by 9 students in mathematics as 52, 75, 40, 70, 43, 40, 65, 35, 48. The arithmetic mean is:

Q27
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics

Which of the following is considered as the highest level of measurement?

Q28
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics

Consider the following statements and choose the best alternative:

Assertion (A): Histogram is a graphical presentation of data
Reason (R): Statistical data can be represented in the form of graphs.

i. A is true
ii. R is true
iii. A is False
iv. R is False

Q29
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics

Match the following:

List-I
i. Mean
ii. Median
iii. Mode
iv. Range

List-II
a. Difference between largest and smallest value
b. Precise
c. Middle most term
d. Highest Frequency

Q30
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics

Match the following:

List-I
i. Chi-square test
ii. F-test
iii. T-test
iv. Z-test

List-II
a. Analyze the difference between the means of more than two groups.
b. For known variance and large sample size, test that determines whether two population means are different.
c. Used to compare means of two groups
d. Compares two categorical variables.

Q31
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics

Which of the following are categorical variable?

i. Age of a person
ii. Gender of a person
iii. Race of a person

Q32
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics

Arrange the stages of statistical investigation in their correct order.

a. Classification of Data
b. Collection of Data
c. Interpretation of Data
d. Analysis of Data
e. Planning the purpose of Investigation

Q33
Electromagnetism & OpticsStatistics

Which of the following are Non sampling statistical errors?

i. Coverage error
ii. Non-response error
iii. Response error

Q34
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyStatistics

What is the value with the most instances or occurrences in the list called?

Q35
Forensic Serology & ImmunologySampling

What is random sampling?

Q36
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyProbability

There are two events "I" and "J". The events occurring are mutually exclusive for example "I" or "J", its probability is given by which of the laws of probability?

Q37
Organic & StereochemistryStatistics

The simplest measurement of central tendency is

Q38
Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsStatistics

______ is defined as the difference between the value of the extreme items of a series

Q39
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsStatistics

If 35 is removed from the data, 30, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 40 then the median increased by

Q40
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsProbability

In a simultaneous throw of two dice, what is the probability of getting a total of 10 or 11?

Q41
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsProbability

Two unbiased coins are tossed. What's the probability of having access to at most one head?

Q42
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsProbability

IP P(A U B)=7/12 P(A)=1/3, are for two independent events A and B, then P(B) is

Q43
Computer Hardware & Operating SystemsStatistics

The relation between mean, median and mode in a moderately skewed distribution is

Q44
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsStatistics

Which of the following correctly describes F distributions?

Q45
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsStatistics

A population has a mean of 80 and a standard deviation of 7. A sample of 49 observations will be taken. The probability that the sample mean will be larger than 82 is

Q46
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsStatistics

The mean of 11 number is 7 if one of the numbers, 7 is deleted, what will be the mean of remaining 10 number?

Q47
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsStatistics

What is the variance of a constant 'x'?

Q48
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsStatistics

Find the median of 4, 5, 6, 3, 2, 6, 4.

Q49
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyStatistics

Consider the following pairs:
i. Mean - Most occurring value in a sample
ii. Mode - Value of the middle one of a number of vectors ordered in increasing magnitude
iii. Median - An arithmetic average of all values
iv. Standard deviation - Measure of dispersion around mean
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q50
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyProbability

The second law of probability, the addition rule is used for which of the following events?

Q51
Forensic Serology & ImmunologySampling Methods

What is systemic sampling?

Q52
Forensic Serology & ImmunologyPopulation Genetics

How would you calculate the locus genotype frequency for a heterozygous locus with allele frequencies p and q for human STR genotyping?

Q53
DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesPopulation Genetics

The minimum allele frequency for a sample size of 326 individuals is

Q54
Signatures & Forgery DetectionStatistics

What is the median of the following set of numbers?
10, 15, 8, 20, 12

Q55
Signatures & Forgery DetectionStatistics

If the variance of the dataset is zero, what can be said about the values in the dataset?

Q56
Organic & StereochemistryStatistics

Measures of central tendency are:

Q57
Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsStatistics

The ________ of a sample is the middle value when the data are arranged in ascending or descending rank order.

Q58
Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsProbability

A table with all possible value of a random variable and its corresponding probabilities is called

Q59
Forensic Physics & InstrumentationForensic Statistics

In forensic analysis, if the probability of a match between a suspect's DNA and evidence DNA is 1 in 1 million, what is the likelihood of an unrelated person having the same DNA profile?

Q60
Forensic Physics & InstrumentationStatistics

In a forensic investigation involving categorical data, which statistical test is used to determine if there is a significant association between two variables?

Q61
Forensic Physics & InstrumentationStatistics

If the mean length of hair samples is 10 cm, and the standard deviation is 2 cm, what is the variation coefficient?

Q62
Forensic Physics & InstrumentationProbability

In a forensic probability matrix, if the probability of Event A is 0.2 and the probability of Event B is 0.3, what is the joint probability of both events occurring?

Q63
Organic ChemistryModern Indian History

'Do or Die' (Karenge ya Marenge) Gandhiji gave this Mantra to the nation on the eve of which mass movement?

Q64
Physical ChemistryCensus of India 2011

According to Census of India 2011 which one of the following Union Territories had the highest sex ratio?

Q65
General Awareness & Current AffairsModern Indian History

The first newspaper published in India was

Q66
General Awareness & ScienceModern Indian History

In which year was English announced as the official language of the Government throughout India?

Q67
📚 Social ScienceModern Indian History

Who composed the famous song 'Sare Jahan Se Achha'?

Q68
📚 Social ScienceModern Indian History

Who among the following is the founder of the Theosophical Society?

Q69
📚 Social ScienceModern Indian History

The Third Battle of Panipat was fought between which of the following?

Q70
📚 Social ScienceModern Indian History

Match the following historical events/missions with their correct objectives:

P) The Cripps Mission - Seeking Cooperation from Indians in World War II
Q) Home Rule Movement - Self-government for India
R) Simon Commission - To review the political situation and reform
S) Morley-Minto Reforms - Separate electorate for Muslims

Q71
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringPopulation Equivalent & BOD

If the average sewage for a city is 80×106 l/day80\times10^{6}\text{ l/day} and the average 5 day BOD is 300 mg/l300\text{ mg/l} against a standard of 60 mg/day60\text{ mg/day} (or 60 g/capita-day60\text{ g/capita-day}) at 20∘C20^\circ\text{C}, then the population equivalent of the city will be.

Q72
🏗️ Environmental EngineeringMass Balance & Process Modeling

The performance of a wastewater treatment system is evaluated by comparing influent and effluent concentrations of pollutants. This comparison is done using:

Q73
🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnvironmental Modeling Tools

Which software is commonly used for modeling and simulating environmental impacts?

Q74
Environmental Pollution & ControlPlume Dispersion Behavior: Coning

Coning is observed when:

Q75
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringNAAQS Air Quality Sampling Protocol

Annual average for air pollution means total of........ measurements in a year.

Q76
General Knowledge & Current AffairsCensus 2011 Demographics

According to the Census of India 2011 which of the following Union Territory had the highest sex ratio?

Q77
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionElection Commission & Model Code of Conduct

Who implements the Model Code of Conduct for elections in India?

Q78
💻 Computer KnowledgeNetworking Hardware: Modem

Which of the following devices is used to transmit data over the telecommunication lines?

Q79
📊 Construction Project ManagementPERT Uncertainty & Variance

The time estimates obtained from four contractors P, Q, R and S for executing a particular job are as under:
P: to=5,tm=10,tp=13t_o=5, t_m=10, t_p=13
Q: to=6,tm=9,tp=12t_o=6, t_m=9, t_p=12
R: to=5,tm=10,tp=14t_o=5, t_m=10, t_p=14
S: to=4,tm=10,tp=13t_o=4, t_m=10, t_p=13
Which one of the contractors is more certain about completing the work in time:

Q80
General EnglishCensus 2011 Data

As per the 2011 Census, which is the least populated state in India?

Q81
Computer Knowledge & ReasoningNetworking: OSI 7-Layer Model

Total number of layers in OSI model is

Q82
General Awareness with special ref to J&KCensus 2011 Data

According to the census of 2011, which state has the least population in India?

Q83
Numerical & Reasoning AbilityCensus Organization in India

In India, which organization conducts the decennial census?

Q84
Basic MathematicsProbability

A dice is thrown. What is the probability that the number shown on the dice is not divisible by 3?

Q85
General Awareness & ScienceCensus 2011: State Literacy Rates

As per the 2011 census, which among the following states has the highest literacy rate?

Q86
Basic MathematicsProbability & Combinatorics

Three squares of a chess board are chosen at random, the probability that two are of one colour, and one of another is

Q87
Basic MathematicsStatistics: Corrected Mean

The mean of 50 observations was 36. It was found later that an observation 48 was wrongly taken as 23. The corrected new mean is?

Q88
Basic MathematicsProbability

In a single throw of a die, what is the probability of getting a number greater than 4?

Q89
Basic MathematicsProbability & Combinations

A committee of 3 members is to be selected out of 3 men and 2 women. What is the probability that the committee has at least 1 woman?

Q90
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KCensus Methodology & Data Collection

Which of the following information is NOT collected during the census in India?

Q91
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KCensus of India 2011

Last census of India was conducted in

Q92
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KCensus 2011: Literacy in J&K

According to 2011 census, what is average literacy rate in the state of Jammu and Kashmir

Q93
Knowledge of ComputersNetworking Devices: Modem

What is the primary function of a modem?

Q94
General Intelligence & ReasoningNetwork Hardware: Modem

Which of the following devices converts computer output data into an analog form that can be transmitted over a telephone line?

Q95
Safe Driving & Vehicle MaintenanceHydraulic Brake System Failure Modes

Among the following options, what are the causes of brake failure?
(i) Low level of brake fluid
(ii) Worn brake pads
(iii) Improper maintenance

Q96
General English & ComprehensionPercentages & Expenditure Invariance

If the price of a commodity is increased by 50%, by what fraction must its consumption be reduced so as to keep the expenditure unchanged?

Q97
General ScienceFirst Census of India (1872)

When was the first synchronous/non-synchronous census held in India?

Q98
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Malthusian Theory of Population

Who wrote the landmark demography treatise "An Essay on the Principle of Population" in 1798?

Q99
General EnglishLiteracy Statistics across States

Which state in India recorded the lowest literacy rate (61.80%61.80\%) as per the 2011 Census?

Q100
Computer ApplicationsColor Models: RGB

In computer graphics, digital imaging, and video displays, the acronym 'RGB' stands for

Q101
Basic MathematicsProbability: Ball Selection

A box contains 12 balls (red and blue). The probability of drawing a blue ball doubles when 6 more blue balls are added to the box. Find the initial number of blue and red balls.

Q102
Basic MathematicsProbability: Dice Pairs

Two dice are rolled simultaneously. Find the probability of getting a multiple of 2 on one die and a multiple of 3 on the other die.

Q103
Basic MathematicsProbability: Card Decks

A card is drawn from a well-shuffled pack of 52 playing cards. A gambler bets that it is either a spade or an ace. What is the probability of losing the bet?

Q104
Basic ReasoningLiteracy Statistics across Indian States

According to the Census of India 2011, which states recorded the maximum and minimum literacy rates respectively?

Q105
Basic EnglishSex Ratio Statistics

According to the Census of India 2011, which Indian State recorded the highest sex ratio (1,084 females per 1,000 males)?

Q106
Basic EnglishPhases of Population Growth in India

In the demographic history of India, which period is officially characterized as the 'Period of Population Explosion'?

Q107
Basic MathematicsMeasures of Central Tendency (Mean & Median)

The mean and median of a set of 51 numbers is 30. The highest number in this set is replaced with twice its value. What will be the impact on the mean and median of the modified set?

Q108
Basic MathematicsProbability

A bag contains 4 red balls and 3 blue balls. A ball is randomly selected, removed from the bag, and set aside. Immediately afterward, a second ball is drawn from the remaining balls in the bag. What is the probability that the second ball drawn is red?

Q109
Basic MathematicsProbability

A coin is tossed 4 times. What is the probability of getting exactly 3 heads?

Q110
Basic MathematicsProbability

A die is rolled twice. What is the probability of getting a sum of 9?

Q111
Basic MathematicsProbability

A card is drawn from a deck of 52 cards. What is the probability of getting a face (joker, queen, king) card?

Q112
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentAnalysis of Variance (ANOVA)

How do we analysis data when we have one independent variable having three levels and one dependent variable and participants are randomly assigned to conditions?

Q113
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentDescriptive and Inferential Statistics

What are the attributes of Sample Statistics?
1. Known;
2. Estimated;
3. Calculated;
4. Unknown

Choose the correct option:

Q114
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentSampling Techniques

Match the Sampling method with its Characteristics:

| Sampling method | Characteristics |
| :--- | :--- |
| i. Simple Random | 2. Requires list of all participants |
| ii. Cluster | 1. Probability sampling using groups in population |
| iii. Quota | 4. Non-probability sampling using groups in population |
| iv. Snowball | 5. Sampled provides sample |

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Q115
Foundations of Clinical Psychology & AssessmentSampling Theory

Increase in sample size leads to
1. Reduced standard error
2. Inflation of standard error
3. Increase in df
4. Decrease in df

Choose the correct option:

Q116
Psychological Testing & NeuropsychologyFive-Factor Model & Personality Pathology

Which of the Big-Five personality dimension is strongly associated with antisocial personality disorder?

Q117
Psychological Testing & NeuropsychologyFive-Factor Model (Neuroticism & BPD)

The Five-Factor model personality dimension of neuroticism is associated with

Q118
AC Fundamentals & Polyphase SystemsFuzzy Logic in Modern Appliances

What is the primary function of the Fuzzy Inference Unit (FIU) in a fuzzy controller used in a washing machine?

Q119
Power Generation & DistributionOperating Modes of Induction Motor

Match the operating modes in 3-phase induction motor with their Features:

| Operating Modes | Features |
| :--- | :--- |
| i) Motoring Mode | 3) Speed is less than synchronous speed, torque varies from zero to full load as slip varies (0 < s < 1) |
| ii) Generating Mode | 1) Rotor speed exceeds synchronous speed, slip and torque are negative (s < 0) |
| iii) Braking Mode | 2) Supply phase sequence reversed (plugging) to rotate in reverse direction (s > 1) |

Choose the correct option:

Q120
Data Structures & AlgorithmsRelational Data Model

Which of the following is a property of the relational database model?

Q121
Database Management Systems (SQL)TCP/IP Model Layers

In the TCP/IP model, which layer is responsible for process-to-process communication?

Q122
Operating Systems & System ArchitectureOSI Reference Model Layers

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for ensuring reliable data transfer?

Q123
Web Technologies, Networking & Software EngineeringSDLC Models

Which of the following models is not a part of software development life cycle (SDLC)?

Q124
Web Technologies, Networking & Software EngineeringWaterfall Model Limitations

What is the main drawback of the Waterfall Model?

Q125
Radiation Safety, Protection & Quality AssuranceLinear Non-Threshold (LNT) Model

The currently accepted model of radiation dose vs effect used by regulatory agencies in determining dose standard is:

Q126
Art History, Visual Movements & Perspective DrawingPioneers of Modern Art Movements

Who is considered the father of modern abstract art?

Q127
Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsHead Modeling

What is the primary focus of head study in modelling?

Q128
Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsModeling Mediums

What material is commonly used for head study modelling in sculpture?

Q129
Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsModelling Techniques

Match the head study modelling techniques with their correct focus areas :

Techniques:
1. Proportional study
2. Detail modelling
3. Structural modelling.
4. Expression study

Focus areas:
i. Creating the overall shape and structure of the head.
ii. Accurately representing the facial features and their relationships.
iii. Focusing on the depth, shape, and dimension of the skull and face.
iv. Capturing the emotional expression or personality through the head's features.

Choose the correct options:

Q130
Head Study, Sculptural Design & AestheticsModelling Techniques

What is the primary focus of "modelling" in sculpture?

Q131
Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingLive Model Advantages

In modeling from life, what is the advantage of working with a live model for both full figure and bust studies?

Q132
Life Drawing, Sculptural Composition & Bronze CastingLife Modeling Concepts

Which of the following combinations of statements are correct about "Modeling (Full Figure and Bust Study from Life)"?

A) Full figure modeling focuses only on the head and torso, excluding limbs and feet.
B) Bust study primarily involves capturing the intricate details of the subject's facial features and expression.
C) Proportional accuracy in modeling is crucial for realistic representation, especially in full figure sculptures.
D) Gesture modeling is not important in bust studies because the focus is solely on the face.

Q133
Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologyModeling Techniques

Which of the following techniques is primarily used in modeling sculptures?

Q134
Human Anatomy, Carving Techniques & Dissertation MethodologyModelling vs Carving

Which of the following combinations of statements are true about modeling and carving techniques in sculpture?

A) In modelling, material is added to the structure, whereas in carving, material is removed from the original block.
B) Carving is ideal for soft materials like clay, while modelling is best suited for hard materials like stone.
C) Modelling allows for rapid changes to the sculpture, while carving requires more precision and cannot easily be altered.
D) Both modelling and carving primarily involve using a chisel and hammer to create detailed textures.

Q135
Entomology, Microbiology & Plant PathologyPopulation Demographics

The number of individuals in reproductive age is more than pre-reproductive phase in :

Q136
Evolutionary Biology, Genetics & ZoologyPopulation Genetics (Hardy-Weinberg)

In a population frequency of a homozygous recessive disease is 16% then the frequency of dominant allele would be

Q137
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsBee Communication & Ethology

When honey bee discovers a food source less than 250 feet away from the hive, it passes on the information to other bees by performing?

Q138
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsFoundations of Ethology

Term 'ethology' was introduced by

Q139
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsPheromone Functions

Functions of pheromones are

Q140
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsPioneering Primatologists & Ethologists

Match the following:
Ethologist:
1) Jane Van Lawick Goodall
2) Dian Fossey
3) George Schaller
4) Irwin Vore

Animal Studied:
i. Gorilla
ii. Tigers
iii. Chimpanzees
iv. Baboons

Choose the correct options:
1 2 3 4

Q141
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsEcological Succession

Succession on sand known as :

Q142
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsThermal Ecology

A majority of organism which are restricted to a narrow range of temperature are called as

Q143
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsCommunity Ecology

Identify the correct match:
Column-I:
i) Species diversity
ii) Species dominance
iii) Stratification
iv) Key stone Species

Column-II:
1. Great influence on community stability
2. Zonation according to the need of light
3. Different type of species in a community
4. Highest no.of one type of species

Choose the correct Answer

Q144
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsIndian Biodiversity Hotspots

Total number of biological hot spot in India

Q145
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsImprinting & Learning

The behaviour of young ducks following their mother is known as

Q146
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsClassical Conditioning

A process in which an animal learns to associate a previously neutral stimulus with a behaviour that was once triggered by a different stimulus is called.

Q147
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsCognitive Ethology

An animal's ability to escape from a predator by using the explored knowledge of home are is an example of

Q148
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsConditioned Behaviors

Aquarium fish often swim to the water's surface when a person approaches. Their behavior has probably formed through.

Q149
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsBehavioral Categories

Match the following:
1. Conditioning
2. Instinct
3. Tagging
4. Reaching

Descriptions:
i. Animal intelligence
ii. Innate behaviour
iii. Learned behaviour
iv. Tracking animals

Choose the correct Option:

Q150
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsSocial Insects and Altruism

Altruistic behaviour is not seen in

Q151
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsVertebrate Zoology Match

Match the following
1. Jawless vertebrate
2. Flightless bird
3. Cartilaginous fish
4. Amphibian

Examples:
i. Ichthyophis
ii. Shark
iii. Lamprey
iv. Cassowary

Choose the correct Option:

Q152
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsHerpetology Sensory Biology

Snakes are sensitive to

Q153
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsComparative Vertebrate Anatomy

In which of the animals the heart does not have the left and right auricles?

Q154
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsKin Selection & Sociobiology

Which of the following scenarios best describes kin selection in population biology?

Q155
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsMetapopulation Ecology

Which of the following is a key characteristic of a meta-population?

Q156
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsConservation Genetics

Which of the following is the most accurate statement about inbreeding depression?

Q157
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsHardy-Weinberg Calculations

In a population of wildflowers, the gene for flower color has two alleles: red (R) and white (r). If the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, and the frequency of the white allele (r) is 0.3, what is the expected frequency of heterozygous individuals (Rr)?

Q158
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsPopulation Genetics Equations

In a population, the frequency of the dominant allele (A) is 0.7. What is the expected proportion of homozygous recessive individuals (aa) in this population.

Q159
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsInterspecific Competition

What term best describes the type of interaction where two species use the same resources, leading to a negative impact on both species due to competition?

Q160
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsCarrying Capacity & Logistics

Which of the following is the primary factor limiting the growth of a population in an environment with abundant resources?

Q161
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsDensity-Dependent Factors

In the context of environmental factors, which of the following is an example of a density-dependent factor that regulates population size?

Q162
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsCoevolution Dynamics

Which of the following is an example of coevolution between two species?

Q163
Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population Dynamicsr and K Selection

Which of the following best describes r-selected species?

Q164
Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationBiostatistics - ANOVA

Which statistical test is typically used to compare the means of more than two groups?

Q165
Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationHypothesis Testing Errors

What is the term for the error made when a research hypothesis is accepted even though it is false?

Q166
Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationMultivariate Analysis

Which type of analysis is used to examine relationships between multiple variables simultaneously in multivariate data?

Q167
Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationChi-Square Test

Which type of statistical test is most appropriate when examining the relationship between two categorical variables?

Q168
Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationPsychometric Measurement Scales

What type of scale is used to measure the degree to which respondents agree or disagree with a statement?

Q169
Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationWildlife Forensics Objectives

What is the principal objective of wildlife forensics?

Q170
Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationForensic Evidence Types

Which of the following is NOT commonly examined in wildlife forensic investigations?

Q171
Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationCITES Regulatory Framework

The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) is significant in wildlife forensics due to :

Q172
Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationStable Isotope Provenancing

What is the purpose of isotope analysis in wildlife forensics?

Q173
Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationThreats to Wildlife

Which of these does not pose a major risk to wildlife?

Q174
Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationConservation Abbreviations

In terms of animal conservation, what does the abbreviation CITES stand for?

Q175
Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationIUCN Red List Categories

What level of conservation suggests that a species has a very high chance of going extinct in the wild?

Q176
Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationClimate Change & Extinction

Which of the following consequences of global warming may elevate the likelihood of extinction?

Q177
Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationSpecies Reintroduction Risks

What potential risk does the reintroduction of a species cause?

Q178
Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationSuccessful Conservation Programs

Which of these represents a successful program for reintroduction?

Q179
Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationNational Parks of India

Match the following:
National Park:
1. Gir National Park
2. Jim Corbett National Park
3. Desert National Park
4. Kuno National Park

State:
I. Rajasthan
II. Gujarat
III. Madya Pradesh
IV. Uttarakhand

Choose the correct Option:

Q180
Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationNational Birds of Countries

Match the following:
Country:
1. India
2. Bhutan
3. Afghanistan
4. Nepal

National Bird:
I. Himalayan Monal
II. Golden Eagle
III. Peacock
IV. Raven

Choose the correct Option:

Q181
Immunology, Cell Biology & Assertion AnalysisEffective Population Size

Which of the following best defines effective population size (Ne)?

Q182
Immunology, Cell Biology & Assertion AnalysisPopulation Growth Models

Assertion(A) : A Population exhibiting exponential growth will have a J-shaped growth curve.
Reason (R) : Exponential growth occurs under ideal conditions of unlimited resources.

Options:

Q183
Leprology & Mycobacterium leprae (NLEP)Leprosy Animal Models

Which of the following is NOT an animal model used in leprosy research?

Q184
General ScienceReproduction Modes

Which of the following is not a process of asexual reproductions?

Q185
History of India & Freedom StruggleModerate Political Philosophy

The method to protest of moderate leaders of the congress was _______.

Q186
Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTCensus 2011 Demographics

As per the 2011 census, which one of the following states has recorded a decrease in population?

Q187
Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTPopulation Density of India

Which one of the following states has the highest density of population according to the Census of India, 2011?

Q188
Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTCensus 2011 UT Literacy

Which one of the following Union Territories has the highest female literacy rate?

Q189
Refrigeration Cycles, Tools & PsychrometricsModern HVAC Technologies

Match the new air conditioning technologies with their descriptions.
AC Technology:
i. Inverter Technology
ii. Smart AC
iii. Variable Refrigerant Flow
iv. Portable AC

Feature:
1. Reduces energy consumption by adjusting compressor speed.
2. Allows remote control via smartphones, voice assistants, and AI.
3. Distributes refrigerant to multiple indoor units, maintaining efficiency.
4. Compact and mobile unit for cooling smaller spaces.

Which of the above is/are correct?

Q190
Child Psychology & Disability FrameworksModels of Disability

Which of the following statements are TRUE?
i. Medical Model of disabilities find its base in psychology.
ii. Human Rights Model of disabilities talks about equity.
iii. Charity Model of disabilities treats people with disabilities as incapable.
iv. Economic model of disabilities considers disabilities as burden.
v. Religions model of disabilities relates disabilities with God's Wrath.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Q191
Curriculum Development & Teaching MethodologiesLewin's Change Model

_______ developed a change model involving three steps.

Q192
Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHASHA Target Population

The ASHA program is mainly targeted towards which population group?

Q193
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentPsychosocial Adjustment Models

Arrange the following in order of progression in terms of adjustment to acquired disability, as suggested by social psychologist Dana Dunn:
1. Mourning
2. Shock
3. Adaptation
4. Depression
5. Denial
Options :

Q194
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentICF WHO Model

The international classification of Functioning, Disability and Health (ICF), by World Health Organization (2001) is based on the perspective of which of these models of disability?

Q195
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentResilience Models

'A person with disability having a stable family support, is more likely to be resilient', can be explained by which model of resilience?

Q196
Psychosocial Foundations of Disability & AdjustmentPsychoanalytic Model of Disability

According to the psychoanalytical model of disability, loss of a limb can have an effect on the ego similar to

Q197
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsParkinson's Disease Pathology

Common symptoms of Parkinson's disease include:
i. Postural Instability
ii. Muscle rigidity
iii. Tremors
iv. Complete paralysis
Which of this is True?

Q198
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsChronic Medical Conditions Match

Match the following pairs of health condition and with its description:
i. Multiple Sclerosis
ii. Leukemia
iii. Muscular dystrophy
iv. Irritable bowel syndrome

Description:
1. Progressive muscle weakness, muscle wasting
2. Chronic condition of the gastrointestinal tract
3. Cancer of the tissues in which blood is formed
4. Overproduction of thyroid hormone
5. Autoimmune condition in which the body's immune system attacks segments of myelin on nerve fibers

Options :

Q199
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsRehabilitation Philosophy & Goals

In terms of restoring functionality in persons with disabilities, which of this is a realistic rehabilitation goal?

Q200
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsPrognosis in Chronic Illness

A prognosis wherein there is no way of predicting the outcome or progression of the condition is referred to as?

Q201
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsLocomotor Functional Deficits

Which of the following areas of functional limitations is less likely to manifest in locomotor disabilities?

Q202
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsClinical Remission vs Cure

When all signs and symptoms of the disease have disappeared in the body, but it does not indicate that the disease has been cured, is referred to as

Q203
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsAssistive Devices & Implants

Cochlear implants are a surgical procedure done for which type of impairment?

Q204
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsOcular Physiology

What function does change in shape of lens play when it helps the eye focus on near or far vision?

Q205
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsBenchmark Disability Laws

In India for a person to be legally recognized as a person with disability, the disability needs to the be medically evaluated as

Q206
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsADIP Scheme Mandates

The Government of India, ADIP scheme provides some aid for:
i. Purchase of aids/appliances
ii. Fitment of prosthesis
iii. Cochlear implant surgery
Which of this is True?

Q207
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsComputer Assistive Technology

JAWS a commonly used computer based assistive technology is a

Q208
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsHearing Aid Typologies

Some persons with hearing impairment prefer to keep their disability hidden. Based on this idea arrange the following in order of how less visible or hidden this type of hearing aid would be from least visible to the most visible:
i. In the ear (ITE)
ii. Completely in the canal (CIC)
iii. Behind the ear (BTE)
iv. In the canal (ITC)
Options:

Q209
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsProsthetics vs Orthotics

Which of this is also called an artificial limb?

Q210
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsPost-Amputation Sequelae

Phantom limb pain can occur in which of these locomotor disabilities?

Q211
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsNeuromuscular Pathology

A symptom of 'exaggerated muscle tone' observed in some types of locomotor disabilities is referred to as

Q212
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsClassification of Illnesses

An illness which has a sudden onset of symptoms that are short term and that affect individuals for only a short time is referred to as

Q213
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsResearch Validity Threats

A researcher who wants to study effectiveness of social skills training on young adults with physical disabilities. He selects all his participants from a single rehabilitation center. This research is likely to suffer from the problem of

Q214
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsNon-Probability Sampling Techniques

In a study exploring the impact of support groups on the mental health parents of children with cerebral palsy. Researchers rely on existing support group members to refer earlier support group members. This is an example of

Q215
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsParametric Hypothesis Testing

A researcher is interested in comparing the mean scores on a measure of depression between visually impaired and orthopedically impaired patients. Which of the following statistical test of significance would be most appropriate?

Q216
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsCategorical Data Analysis

As a researcher you want to examine if there exist a statistically significant difference in the proportion of people who have reported they have benefitted from a said rehabilitation intervention and those who have not. Which statistical method would be most appropriate?

Q217
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsHypothesis Testing Directionality

In a given research you are interested in testing the difference between means. Your alternate hypothesis is non directional. Which test will be carried out?

Q218
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsEffect Size & Clinical Significance

If an Effect-size analysis is carried out when our hypothesis is accepted. What purpose does it serve?

Q219
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsParametric Assumptions

Which of this is an assumption of independent samples t-test?

Q220
Medical Aspects of Disability & Research Methodology / StatisticsLogistic Regression Modeling

Which type of regression method is employed when the dependent variable is dichotomous in nature?

Q221
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsREBT ABCDE Model

In the ABCDE model of REBT, C stands for?

Q222
Counselling Theories, Psychotherapies & Behavioural InterventionsCognitive Modeling Strategies

Learning appropriate self-talk in order to avoid self-defeating thoughts is an example of what type of cognitive modelling?

Q223
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationMedical Suffixes

Which of the following suffixes indicates "inflammation"?

Q224
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationSurgical Terminology

Which of the following terms refers to "surgical gallbladder removal"?

Q225
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationEndoscopic Terminology

Which term describes "visual examination of a joint"?

Q226
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationClinical Medical Terminology

A patient suffers from a condition called "nephrolithiasis". What does this condition involve?

Q227
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationEmergency Clinical Interventions

A patient with "hypoglycaemia" is brought to the emergency room. What is the immediate treatment required?

Q228
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationPediatric Medical Terminology

A newborn is diagnosed with "microcephaly". What does this condition mean?

Q229
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationLegal Duties in Health Administration

What is the basic legal obligation of a healthcare facility regarding medical records?

Q230
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationExceptions to Patient Confidentiality

Under which circumstances can a healthcare provider disclose medical records without the patient's consent?

Q231
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationMedical Records Legal Violations

Which of the following constitutes violating the legal aspects of medical records retention?

Q232
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationHospital Utilization Statistics

What does the term "bed occupancy rate" represent in hospital statistics?

Q233
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationHospital Inpatient Metrics

Which metric evaluates the effectiveness of a hospital in treating admitted patients?

Q234
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationBed Turnover Rate Formula

How is the "bed turnover rate" calculated?

Q235
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationMRD Statistical Functions

Which department is typically responsible for generating hospital statistics?

Q236
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationAverage Length of Stay (ALOS)

In a hospital patient flow analysis, which metric provides the best insights into patient care efficiency?

Q237
Medical Terminology, Statistics & Hospital AdministrationHospital Statistical Analysis

Identify the correct statements regarding hospital statistics:
Statement A: Bed turnover rate can be improved by shortening the average Length of Stay
Statement B: Mortality rates do not account for patient severity or complexity.
Statement C: The "average cost per patient" is typically used to measure the hospital's financial efficiency.

Q238
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeBasic Probability

A bag contains 5 red balls, 7 green balls, and 8 blue balls. What is the probability of picking a green ball?

Q239
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeDaily Census Reporting

In hospital statistics, what does a daily census report typically include?

Q240
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeObstetric Hospital Statistics

What is the live birth rate used to measure in hospital statistics?

Q241
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityCalendar Probability

What is the possibility of having 53 Thursdays in a non-leap year?

Q242
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityCard Probability

What will be the possibility of drawing a jack or a spade from a well shuffled standard deck of 52 playing cards?

Q243
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityDice Probability

A fair dice is rolled twice. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers on both rolls is equal to 8?

Q244
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityInclusion-Exclusion Probability

In a lottery, there are 100 tickets numbered from 1 to 100. What is the probability that a ticket drawn at random has a number multiple of 2, 3, or 7?

Q245
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityBinomial Probability

A coin is tossed 5 times. What is the probability of getting at least 2 tails?

Q246
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyModern Indian Freedom Movement

The Poona Pact of 1932 was signed between:

Q247
Electronics, Audio Engineering & Public Address SystemsOSI Model Network Devices

Match the following networking devices with their corresponding OSI Layer:
I. Hub
II. Switch
III. Routers
IV. Gateway

Layers:
1. Data link layer
2. Network layer
3. Application layer
4. Physical layer

Choose the correct option:

Q248
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessModern Indian History

Which of the following battle marked the beginning of the British rule in India?

Q249
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryFreedom Movement Chronology

The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place in which year?

Q250
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryQuit India Movement

The Quit India Movement was launched in which year?

Q251
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryNational Slogans

Who gave the famous slogan "Give me blood and I will give you freedom"?

Q252
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryViceroys of India

Who was the Viceroy of India during the Jallianwala Bagh massacre?

Q253
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryDandi March 1930

The famous 'Salt March' (Dandi March) was led by Mahatma Gandhi in which year?

Q254
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryPartition of Bengal

The partition of Bengal took place in which year?

Q255
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryLal Bal Pal Triumvirate

Which of the following was not a part of the three main leaders of the 'Lal Bal Pal' group?

Q256
Indian National Movement & Modern HistorySurat Split 1907

The Indian National Congress split into two factions at which session?

Q257
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryNon-Cooperation Movement

Which event led to the withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922?

Q258
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryPoona Pact 1932

The 'Poona Pact' was signed between

Q259
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryFundamental Rights Article 19

The right to move freely throughout the territory of India comes under which Article of the Indian Constitution?

Q260
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryKhilafat and Non-Cooperation

Which of the following events is related to the 'Khilafat Movement'?

Q261
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryFreedom Slogans

Who gave the famous slogan "Swaraj is my Birthright and I shall have it"?

Q262
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryConstitutional Acts 1919

The 'Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms' were introduced in which year?

Q263
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryViceroys of India

Who was the last British Viceroy of India?

Q264
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryChamparan Satyagraha 1917

The famous 'Champaran Satyagraha' was associated with the issue of

Q265
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryModerates vs Extremists

The main difference between the Moderates and the Extremists was

Q266
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryDivide and Rule Policy

The 'Partition of Bengal' in 1905 was a move by the British to

Q267
Indian National Movement & Modern HistorySocio-Religious Reformers

Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance"?

Q268
Indian National Movement & Modern HistorySocial Reformers

Which reformer is associated with the promotion of widow remarriage in India?

Q269
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryRamakrishna Mission

Which movement, founded by Swami Vivekananda, emphasized the idea of Indian self-reliance and national pride?

Q270
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryGandhian Era Chronology

When did Mahatma Gandhi return to India from South Africa?

Q271
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryDandi March Origin

Where was the famous Dandi March (Salt March) started by Gandhiji?

Q272
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryLahore Session 1929

In 1929, at the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress, which resolution was passed under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru?

Q273
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryQuit India Slogans

Which famous slogan was coined during the Quit India Movement?

Q274
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryCivil Disobedience Movement

In which year did Gandhiji launch the "Civil Disobedience Movement" to challenge British laws?

Q275
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryCauses of Quit India Movement

Which of the following was one of the main reasons behind the launch of the Quit India Movement?

Q276
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyNatural Resources Classification

What is the primary source of non-renewable resources?

Q277
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyEnvironmental Impacts

Which of the following is a major consequence of overuse of natural resources?

Q278
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyNon-Renewable Resource Properties

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of non-renewable resources?

Q279
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyMineral Extraction

What is the process of obtaining minerals from the Earth's crust called?

Q280
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyResource Conservation

Which of the following activities can lead to the depletion of natural resources?

Q281
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyNational Parks of J&K

Which of the following is the largest national park in Jammu and Kashmir?

Q282
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyHangul Conservation in Dachigam

Which endangered species is primarily protected in Dachigam National Park?

Q283
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyWildlife Sanctuaries of Kashmir

Which wildlife sanctuary is located near Pahalgam in Kashmir Valley?

Q284
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyHydroelectric Projects of J&K

The Baglihar Hydroelectric Project is located on which river in Jammu and Kashmir?

Q285
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyHydroelectric Stations of J&K

The Uri-I Hydroelectric Power Station is located on which river?

Q286
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyHydroelectric Stations of J&K

The Salal Hydroelectric Project is located on which river in Jammu and Kashmir?

Q287
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyHydroelectric Stations of J&K

The Dulhasti Hydro Power Station is located in which district of Jammu and Kashmir?

Q288
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyCensus 2011 Demographics

What was the total population of India as per the 2011 Census?

Q289
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyCensus 2011 State Populations

According to the 2011 Census, which state had the highest population in India?

Q290
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyCensus 2011 Literacy Rates

What was the literacy rate of India according to the 2011 Census?

Q291
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyCensus 2011 Sex Ratio

What was the sex ratio of India as per the 2011 Census?

Q292
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyCensus 2011 State Literacy

Which state had the highest literacy rate in India according to the 2011 Census?

Q293
Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyCensus 2011 Districts Count

What was the total number of districts in India as per the 2011 Census?

Q294
Sports Medicine, Rehabilitation & Sports ManagementTalent Identification Models

Comprehensive talent identification requires:

Q295
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsSkewness Relationships

A negatively skewed distribution has

Q296
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsFactor Analysis Sampling Adequacy

A KMO value of .30 indicates

Q297
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsCorrelation Significance Testing

Which of the following statistics is used to test the significance of the Pearson correlation coefficient?

Q298
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsRank Correlation

A Pearson's correlation coefficient computed on rank-ordered variables is known as

Q299
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsHypothesis Testing t-Distribution

If the tabled t value at p=0.05 for df=29 is 2.045 and the obtained value is 2.132 then which of the following can be concluded?
I. The obtained t value is not significant
II. The obtained t value is significant
III. The null can be accepted
IV. The null can be rejected
Choose the correct options:

Q300
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsParametric vs Non-Parametric Tests

Which of the following are non-parametric statistics?
I. Student's t-test
II. Spearman's rho
III. Wilcoxon sign rank test
IV Pearson's r
Choose the correct option:

Q301
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsNormal Distribution Properties

On X axis, Normal distribution ranges from

Q302
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsStatistical Power & Sample Size

Power calculations can be used for determining ______

Q303
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsAdvanced Statistical Models Matching

Match the following:
Statistical technique:
i. Mediating
ii. Stepwise regression
iii. Moderated

Description:
1. a statistical analysis that examines how a third variable affects the relationship between two other variables
2. causal chain in which one variable affects a second variable that, in turn, affects a third variable
3. a statistical method that automatically chooses predictor variables for a regression model

Choose the correct option:

Q304
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsANOVA Interpretation

A p-value in ANOVA is used to ______.

Q305
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsExperimental Research Design

To answer which of the following research objectives, is a research most likely to rely on pure experimental methods?

Q306
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsExperimental vs Non-Experimental

Which of the following is NOT a key feature of an experimental study?

Q307
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsExperimental Variables Matching

Match the following:
Column A:
i. Independent Variable
ii. Dependent Variable
iii. Null Hypothesis
iv. Hypothesis

Column B:
1. Variable being measured in an experiment
2. Testable prediction about the outcome
3. Statement of no effect or no difference
4. Variable that is manipulated by the researcher

Choose the correct option:

Q308
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsScientific Method in Psychology

What is the primary goal of using the scientific method in psychology?

Q309
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsHypothesis Formulation

Hypothesis in experiment assesses ______

Q310
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsExperimental Control Techniques

We try to make different groups of participants as similar as possible through ______

Q311
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsExperimental Research Designs

Which of the following is a primary advantage of using a dependent groups design over an independent groups design?
I. Increased generalizability of the findings
II. Elimination of confounding variables
III. Reduction of individual differences in variability
IV. Simplification of counterbalancing procedures
Choose the correct option:

Q312
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsExperimental Research Steps

Arrange the steps of conducting a two-group experimental design in the correct order:
I. Randomly assign participants to groups
II. Introduce the independent variable
III. Measure the dependent variable
IV. Define the independent and dependent variables
V. Formulate a hypothesis
Choose the correct option:

Q313
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsCorrelational Research

Which technique is used to find out the degree of association?

Q314
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsResearch Methodology Principles

Which statements about research methods in psychology is NOT true?

Q315
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsSurvey Research Steps

Arrange the following steps for conducting a survey-based study in the correct order:
I. Develop survey questions
II. Distribute the survey to participants for the pilot
III. Analyze survey responses
IV. Report findings
Choose the correct option:

Q316
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsPhilosophy of Science

Who introduced the concept of critical realism?

Q317
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsFunctions of Scientific Theories

Which of the following does a theory NOT do?

Q318
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsPrinciple of Parsimony

Another name for Occam's Razor is the idea of

Q319
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsKuhnian Paradigms

The term 'paradigm' is associated with

Q320
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsThreats to Internal Validity

What is selective subject loss in research?

Q321
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsConfounding Variables

Change in variable not controlled in the experiment is called as

Q322
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsPerformance Intelligence Tests

Which of the following requires placing of blocks of different shapes in empty correct shapes?

Q323
Clinical Psychopathology, Diagnostics & Social PsychologyAttitude Components (ABC Model)

Which of the following is NOT a component of attitudes?

Q324
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsPsychometric Item Analysis

What is the primary purpose of item analysis in test construction

Q325
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsStructural Equation Modeling & CFA

Which structural equation model is used to estimate the construct validity of a psychometric test?

Q326
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsTest Publishing Steps

Select the correct sequence of the process of publishing a psychological test.
I. Develop a user manual with administration and scoring instructions
II. Conduct final testing with a diverse population
III. Establish copyright and intellectual property rights
IV. Distribute the test through professional channels
Choose the correct option:

Q327
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsMMPI Validity

MMPI uses which kind of validity?

Q328
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsMaximal vs Typical Performance Tests

Out of the following variables, which psychometric measurement is determined by right and wrong answers?
I. Personality
II. Attitude
III. Motivation
IV. Aptitude
V. Intelligence
VI. Abstract reasoning
Choose the correct option:

Q329
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsTest Construction Steps

Arrange the following steps in test development.
I. Content validity with expert review
II. Theorisation and operational definition
III. Psychometric properties
IV. Standardisation
V. Development of an item pool
Choose the correct option:

Q330
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsHealth Psychology Matching

Match the following:
Concept:
i. Health Belief Model
ii. Stress
iii. Coping
iv. Psychoneuroimmunology

Meaning:
1. The study of how psychological, neural, and immune processes interact
2. Behavior is influenced by perceived susceptibility, severity, and benefits of action
3. A psychological and physiological response to a threat or challenge
4. Strategies to manage stress or adapt to adversity

Choose the correct option:

Q331
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsLevels of Prevention

Below are two statements. Select your answer using the code below
Statement 1: Vaccination is an example of primary prevention
Statement 2: Rehabilitation is an example of secondary prevention

Q332
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsStress Endocrine Physiology Matching

Match the following:
Hormone:
i. Cortisol
ii. Adrenaline (Epinephrine)
iii. Norepinephrine
iv. CRH (Corticotropin-Releasing Hormone)

Brain part / Gland:
1. Adrenal Medulla
2. Hypothalamus
3. Adrenal Cortex
4. Locus Coeruleus

Choose the correct option:

Q333
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsBiopsychosocial Model

Which of the following statements about the Biopsychosocial Model are true?
I. It integrates biological, psychological, and social factors in understanding health and illness.
II. It replaces the biomedical model by disregarding physical causes of illness.
III. It emphasizes that health outcomes can be influenced by stress, behavior, and social support.
IV. It assumes that only psychological interventions can improve health.
Choose the correct option:

Q334
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsHealth Protective Factors

Which of the following are protective factors in health psychology?
I. Regular physical exercise
II. Chronic stress
III. Social support networks
IV. Maladaptive coping strategies
Choose the correct option:

Q335
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsHealth Belief Model Constructs

Which of the following are key components of the Health Belief Model (HBM)?
I. Perceived susceptibility to a health issue
II. Perceived benefits of taking preventive action
III. Perceived stigma surrounding the health condition
IV. Cues to action that trigger behavior change
Choose the correct option:

Q336
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsWorkplace Motivation Theories

Which theory explains employee motivation through the balance of inputs and outcomes?

Q337
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsHerzberg Two-Factor Theory

According to Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory, which of the following is classified as a hygiene factor?
I. Recognition
II. Job security
III. Achievement
IV Responsibility
V. Compensation
Choose the correct option:

Q338
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsOrganizational Commitment

Which type of organizational commitment is based on an employee's emotional attachment to their workplace?

Q339
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsOrganizational Culture

Which of the following is TRUE about organizational culture?
I. Shared values and norms influence employee behavior.
II. Strong organizational culture always leads to innovation.
III. Organizational culture can be influenced by leadership style.
IV. A mismatch between personal and organizational values may result in turnover.
Choose the correct option:

Q340
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsLeadership Styles

Which of the following statements about leadership styles are correct?
I. Transformational leaders focus on inspiring and motivating employees.
II. Transactional leaders rely primarily on rewards and punishments to influence behavior.
III. Autocratic leadership emphasizes employee participation in decision-making.
IV. Laissez-faire leadership involves minimal intervention in employees' activities.
Choose the correct option:

Q341
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsOrganizational Psychology Matching

Match the following:
Organizational Concepts:
I. Job Satisfaction
II. Employee Engagement
III. Occupational Stress
IV. Diversity Management

Descriptions:
1. Emotional and intellectual investment in the organization
2. Psychological and physical strain due to workplace demands
3. Strategies and practices to support inclusive workplace environments
4. The degree of contentment employees feel about their work

Choose the correct option:

Q342
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsVroom's Expectancy Theory

According to Vroom's Expectancy Theory, which factors influence job satisfaction and motivation?
I. Valence: The importance of the reward to the individual.
II. Instrumentality: The belief that performance will lead to rewards.
III. Expectancy: The belief that effort will lead to performance.
IV. Security: The assurance of job stability.
Choose the correct option:

Q343
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsHerzberg Two-Factor Theory

Which of the following statements about Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory is true?
I. Hygiene factors eliminate dissatisfaction but do not create satisfaction.
II. Motivators include factors like recognition and achievement.
III. Salary is considered a motivator.
IV. Poor working conditions can lead to dissatisfaction.
Choose the correct option:

Q344
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsJob Characteristics Model

What is the Job Characteristics Model (JCM) primarily concerned with?

Q345
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsPsychotherapies Matching

Match the following:
Therapies:
i. CBT
ii. Psychoanalysis
iii. Systematic Desensitization
iv. EMDR

Description:
1. Focuses on changing maladaptive thoughts and behaviors.
2. Gradual exposure to anxiety-inducing stimuli while practicing relaxation.
3. Combines cognitive restructuring with bilateral stimulation to treat trauma.
4. Explores unconscious conflicts and early life experiences.

Choose the correct option:

Q346
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsPsychotherapists Matching

Match the following:
Therapies:
I. Family therapy
II. Transactional Analysis
III. Play therapy
IV. EMDR

Important Psychologist:
1) Virginia Axline
2) Salvador Minuchin
3) Dr. Francine Shapiro
4) Eric Berne

Choose the correct option:

Q347
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsDialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT)

Which of the following statements about Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT) are true?
I. DBT was initially developed to treat Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD).
II. DBT combines principles of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) with mindfulness practices.
III. DBT completely rejects the use of behavioral techniques in therapy.
IV. Skills training in DBT includes modules on emotional regulation and interpersonal effectiveness.
Choose the correct option:

Q348
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsMCMI Clinical Assessment

Which of the following about MCMI is true?
I. It is based on Millon's Evolutionary-Neurodevelopmental theory
II. It is based on DSM's earlier multiaxial system
III. MCMI IV added the turbulent personality disorder
IV. MCMI III has 175 items rated as "True", "Maybe", "False"
Choose the correct option:

Q349
Health, Industrial-Organizational & Psychotherapy ModelsValidity Scales of MMPI and MCMI

Select the correct statements about MMPI and MCMI
I. In MMPI, F scale assesses a person's defensiveness
II. In MCMI, Y scale measures the Desirability of the respondent.
III. In MCMI, V scale contains items that are highly improbable.
Choose the correct option:

Q350
Research Methodology, Psychometrics & StatisticsPsychological Assessment Instruments

Match the following:
Test/ Scale:
I. WMS
II. IPDE
III. DAT
IV. BDI

Type of Assessment:
1. Aptitude
2. Semi-structure interview
3. Self-report
4. Neurocognitive

Choose the correct option:

Q351
Operating Systems (Linux, Windows), System Software & Hardware ArchitectureProcessor Addressing Modes

In which of the following addressing modes does the operand immediately follow the op-code?

Q352
Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesOSI Reference Model

Consider the following statements:
I. The full form of OSI is Operating Systems Interconnection
II. Web service facilitates the communication between nodes in a network
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Q353
Computer Networks, Internet Protocols & Web TechnologiesModem Functionality

Which of the following best describes the primary function of a modem?

Q354
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsCamera Shooting Modes

Which feature allows the camera to take multiple shots in quick succession?

Q355
Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomAutofocus Modes (AF-S, AF-C, AF-A)

Consider the following statements:
I. Single-Servo Autofocus: In AF-S mode, the camera locks focus when the shutter button is pressed halfway.
II. Continuous-Servo Autofocus: In AF-C mode, the camera continuously adjusts focus as long as the shutter button is pressed halfway.
III. Automatic-Servo Autofocus: Some cameras offer an automatic AF mode that switches between AF-S and AF-C depending on whether the subject is stationary or moving.
Which of the given statement is/ are correct?

Q356
Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomLight Metering Modes

The mode divides the frame into multiple zones and evaluates the light levels in each zone to determine the most appropriate exposure settings:

Q357
Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomCamera Scene Modes

Which mode should be used to capture fast-moving subjects?

Q358
Exposure Triangle, Lenses, Camera Mechanics & DarkroomManual Mode Operation

In manual mode, which two settings are adjusted to control exposure?

Q359
Computer Science, Operating Systems & MS OfficeOSI Model Layers Matching

Choose the best matching between GROUP-I and GROUP-II
GROUP-I:
w. Data Link Layer
x. Network Layer
y. Transport Layer

GROUP-II:
i. Ensures reliable transport of bits over a Physical point-to-point link
ii. Encodes/decodes data for physical transmission
iii. end-to-end communication between two processes
iv. Routes data from one network node to the next

Choose the correct options:

Q360
Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Hospital Administration Statistics

Medical records are used for hospital administration by:

Q361
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsHospital Bed Terminology

What does "inpatient bed" means?

Q362
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsAverage Length of Stay (ALOS)

What is the primary factor that most significantly affects the average length of stay (ALOS) in a hospital?

Q363
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsHospital Resource Utilization

Which statistic is used to assess resource utilization in a hospital?

Q364
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsCase Mix Index (CMI)

What does the "case mix index" represent in hospital statistics?

Q365
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsBiostatistics Measures

Which statistical measure is most effective for assessing the consistency of patient outcomes across multiple hospital departments?

Q366
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsPredictive Hospital Analytics

Which of the following statistical tools would be most appropriate to predict patient demand for a hospital's services based on historical data?

Q367
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsHospital Statistics Evaluation

Which of the following statements about hospital statistics is correct?
Statement 1: A high "Case Mix Index" (CMI) reflects a hospital's ability to treat complex patients
Statement 2: Hospital statistics could be evaluated in isolation without considering external benchmarks.
Statement 3: The "patient satisfaction score" is a critical hospital statistic for improving service delivery.
Which of the following statement is correct?

Q368
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsSpeed, Distance & Time

If a train travels 60km in 1 hour, how far will it travel in 4 hours at the same speed?

Q369
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsMarked Price and Discount

A shopkeeper buys an article for Rs.500. He marks it at 20% above the cost price. If he sells it at 12% discount, what is the selling price?

Q370
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsConsecutive Even Numbers

The sum of the squares of two consecutive even numbers is 340. What are the numbers?

Q371
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsTime and Work

If the time taken by A and B together to complete a task is 6 hours and A alone takes 10 hours, how long will B take to complete the task alone?

Q372
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsNumber Series

Find the missing number in the series: 2,6,12,20,30,?2, 6, 12, 20, 30, \text{?}

Q373
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsExponents and Powers

What is the value of 23×222^3 \times 2^2?

Q374
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsAverages

The average of five consecutive odd numbers is 25. What is the largest number?

Q375
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsTrain Bridge Problems

A train 100 meters long is running at a speed of 72km/h as it crosses a bridge in 25 seconds. What is the length of the bridge?

Q376
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsAge Problems Ratio

If the ratio of the ages of A and B is 4:5. The difference between their age is 8 years. Then the sum of their ages is?

Q377
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsAverages Arithmetic

The average of five numbers is 27. If one of the numbers is excluded, the average becomes 25. The excluded number is:

Q378
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsAge Calculation

The sum of the ages of A and B is 60 years. If 3 years ago, the ratio of the ages of A and B was 5:4. Find the present age of A.

Q379
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsGeometric Ratios

The ratio of the areas of two squares is 49:64. What is the ratio of their perimeters?

Q380
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsFather-Son Age Problem

The sum of the ages of the father and his son is 60 years. After 15 years, the father will be twice as old as his son. Their present ages are?

Q381
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsHospital Statistics Formulas

How is the discharge rate calculated in hospital statistics?

Q382
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsHospital Mortality Rates

Which formula is used to calculate the gross death rate?

Q383
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsInfection Rate Calculation

If a hospital treated 500 patients in a month and 50 of them acquired infections, what is the infection rate?

Q384
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsHospital Patient Turnover

Which term refers to the total number of patients treated in a hospital during a specific time?

Q385
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsAverage Daily Census

Which of the following statistics is used to measure the workload of hospital staff?

Q386
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsHospital Autopsy Rates

What does the gross autopsy rate measure in a hospital?

Q387
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsBed Occupancy Rate Calculation

A hospital has 50 operational beds and reports 1,200 patient-days in a month (30 days). What is the percentage occupancy rate?

Q388
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & Hospital StatisticsNumerical Indexing Capacity

A medical record is indexed using a code system where each code is 7 digits long. How many unique records can be coded?

Q389
Food Analysis, Analytical Chemistry & InstrumentationStandard Error of Mean (SEM)

SEM or standard error of the mean is equals to:

Q390
Food Analysis, Analytical Chemistry & InstrumentationBiostatistics Sampling Principles

Consider the following statements:
I. A larger sample size enables more accurate approximation of the true population values
II. Samples from a population are meant to represent the whole population
III. T test is used for n < 25-30
IV. T test is used for n > 25-30
Select the correct statements from the above:

Q391
Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsLogistic Population Growth (S-Curve)

Which curve shows the population growth of every organism in the environment with carrying capacity?

Q392
Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeWind and Dispersion Meteorology

Consider the following statements:
i. Wind is air in motion relative to the earth's surface
ii. Wind is air in motion relative to atmosphere.
iii. Wind is air in motion relative to Earth's rotation.
iv. Vertical motion of the wind is responsible for the movement of pollutants.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Q393
Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)Sampling Distribution Statistics

The probability distribution that characterizes some aspects of sampling variability is known as

Q394
Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)Student's t-Distribution Properties

Consider the following statements:
i. Student's t distribution depends on the quantity called degree of freedom
ii. Student's t distribution is symmetric, and bell shaped
iii. Student's t distribution have a smaller standard deviation
iv. As the sample size increases the student's t distribution approaches Poisson distribution
Which of the above statements are correct?

Q395
Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)Median Calculation

In one of the monitoring experiments conducted in the field, the following concentrations of NOx\text{NO}_x in μg/m3\mu\text{g/m}^3 were obtained:
75.83,76.03,82.35,82.7,87.08,88.25,97.43,108.12,125.2875.83, 76.03, 82.35, 82.7, 87.08, 88.25, 97.43, 108.12, 125.28
What is the median?

Q396
Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)Standard Deviation Definition

The standard deviation of data set is

Q397
Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)Standard Deviation Calculation

In one of the water quality experiments in the field the following concentration of NO3\text{NO}_3 was obtained in mg/l:
46,46,50,54,5446, 46, 50, 54, 54
The variance of the above experimental data is 12.8. What is the standard deviation?

Q398
Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)Normal Distribution Empirical Rule

Consider the following statements:
i. Lognormal distribution fits the skewed data sets
ii. In the normal distribution curve, around 95% of the values are withing one standard deviation of the mean
iii. The normal distribution curve is not symmetrical about its central line
iv. Normal distribution fits the symmetrical data sets
Which of the above statements are not correct?

Q399
Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)Solid Waste Classification Matching

Consider the following pairs:
Set - A (Waste Category):
1. Vegetable residues and garbage
2. Pulp and paper waste
3. Radioactive substance
4. Pathological waste

Set - B (Classification):
i. Hazardous waste
ii. Municipal Solid waste
iii. Biomedical waste
iv. Industrial waste

Which one among the pairs given below is correct:

Q400
Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)Solid Waste Moisture Determination

To obtain the dry mass of solid waste material and to limit the vaporization of volatile materials, the solid waste material is dried in an oven at:

Q401
Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)Moisture Content Formula

If 'a' is an initial mass of solid waste sample and 'b' is mass of sample after drying. What is the formulae moisture content (in %)?

Q402
Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)EIA Foundational Aims

Consider the following statements:
i. The aim of EIA is to inform the decision maker of the potential significant environment effects and risks of developmental proposals.
ii. The aim of EIA is to model the dispersion of pollutant coming out of sources present in the developmental projects.
iii. The aim of EIA is to promote sustainable development by ensuring that the development proposals do not undermine critical resources.
iv. The aim of EIA primarily involves the screening and scoping of developmental projects.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Q403
Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)EIA Baseline Methodologies Matching

Consider the following pairs:
Set - A (Baseline Stage):
1. Baseline Analysis
2. Baseline Assessment
3. Baseline Survey
4. Baseline Information

Set - B (Description):
i. Preliminary evaluation of environmental components
ii. Any form of measurement that's used for comparison and analysis
iii. Conditions at the time the project is proposed
iv. Done at the beginning of a project to get knowledge of current status

Which one among the pairs given below is correct:

Q404
Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)EIA Impact Matrices Matching

Consider the following pairs:
Set - A (EIA Matrix Tool):
1. Simple Matrix
2. Time-dependent matrix
3. Magnitude Matrix
4. Leopold Matrix

Set - B (Characteristics):
i. Qualitative methods for assessing environmental impacts of proposed projects
ii. Tool that identifies the importance, magnitude, and time frame of potential impacts
iii. Grid or table that lists environmental aspects on one axis and activities on the other
iv. Tool that identifies impacts based on their magnitude, importance, and time frame

Which one among the pairs given below is correct:

Q405
Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)ISO 14000 Environmental Series Matching

Consider the following pairs:
Set - A (ISO Standards):
1. ISO 14001
2. ISO 14006
3. ISO 14020
4. ISO 14040

Set - B (Scope):
i. Guidelines for incorporating eco-design
ii. Environmental labels and declarations
iii. Environmental management systems - requirements with guidance for use
iv. Life cycle assessment

Which one among the pairs given below is correct:

Q406
Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeAir Quality Sampling (Gas Absorption)

In a high-volume sampler, the gases are measured using the principle of

Q407
Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangePollutant Dispersion Equation

Dispersion is equal to:

Q408
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsHierarchy of Communication Effects

Which of the following is the correct sequence of levels in studying the effect of communication, as described in the communication process?

Q409
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsPropaganda History Chronology

Arrange the following historical events in the order they occurred:
i. Establishment of the Ministry of Popular Enlightenment and Propaganda in Nazi Germany.
ii. Use of propaganda by the Allies during WWII.
iii. Cold War propaganda efforts by the US and USSR.
iv. Pope Gregory XV's establishment of the Sacra Congregation de Propaganda Fide.
Choose the correct Answer:

Q410
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsCritical Media Theory (Frankfurt School)

The Frankfurt School's critical theory of communication primarily focuses on:

Q411
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsWestern Communication Models

Which of the following statements about Western communication models are true?
i. Shannon and Weaver's model focused on information efficiency rather than social interaction.
ii. Lasswell's model emphasizes the process of persuasion and propaganda.
iii. Wilbur Schramm's model highlights the encoding-decoding aspect of communication.
iv. Western communication theories generally prioritize collective participation over individual influence.
Choose the correct answer:

Q412
Development Communication, Rural Media & International CommunicationModernization Paradigm (Magic Multipliers)

In the modernization approach to development communication, mass media were often viewed as which of the following?

Q413
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsPropaganda Typologies (Black Propaganda)

What is the primary goal of "black propaganda"?

Q414
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsNazi Propaganda Techniques

Which of the following techniques was used by the Nazis to make their propaganda effective?

Q415
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsIndian Communication Theory (Sadharanikaran)

According to Indian communication theory:
i. Sahridaya refers to an individual capable of receiving a message with full understanding.
ii. Sadharanikaran ensures equal participation of all individuals in communication.
iii. The concept of rasa is closely related to emotional engagement in communication.
iv. Unlike Western models, Indian communication theories prioritize receiver interpretation over sender control.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Q416
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsCommunication Levels & Types Matching

Match the following communication types with their characteristics:
Communication Type:
i. Intrapersonal
ii. Interpersonal
iii. Group Communication
iv. Mass Communication

Characteristic:
1. Public discourse with feedback
2. Individual reflection and thought
3. One-to-one direct interaction
4. One-to-many mediated message dissemination

Choose the correct answer:

Q417
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsSadharanikaran Universalization

Which of the following concepts in Indian communication theory is closest in meaning to 'commonness' in communication?

Q418
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsPropaganda Classifications Matching

Match the following types of propaganda with their descriptions:
i. Black Propaganda
ii. White Propaganda
iii. Grey Propaganda

Description:
1. Uses mostly accurate information from a clearly identified source.
2. Spreads false information while concealing the source.
3. A mix of true and false information, with unclear sources.

Which of the following is the correct match?

Q419
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsSadharanikaran Shared Consciousness

Which term describes the process where an individual enters into mental cooperation with another, forming a common conscience?

Q420
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsRasa Theory (Bharata Muni)

Which Indian scholar proposed that the ancient concept of 'rasa' is central to communication theory?

Q421
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsCommunication Theorists Matching

Match the scholars with their corresponding communication theories:
i. Harold Lasswell
ii. Wilbur Schramm
iii. Stuart Hall
iv. James Carey

Communication Theory:
1. Encoding-Decoding Model
2. Effects Model
3. Ritual Model
4. Reception Theory / Cultural Encoding

Choose the correct answer:

Q422
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsHistory of Mass Media Inventions

Arrange the following key developments in mass communication in chronological order:
i. Gutenberg's printing press
ii. The rise of the telegraph
iii. The invention of radio
iv. The emergence of the internet
Choose the correct sequence:

Q423
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsHypodermic Needle Theory

In the context of mass media effects, which theory assumes that audiences are passive and directly influenced by media messages?

Q424
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsWhite Propaganda Example

Which of the following is an example of "white propaganda"?

Q425
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsMarshall McLuhan (Gutenberg Galaxy)

According to Marshall McLuhan, the printing press led to:

Q426
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsNatya Shastra Communication Concepts

Match the following terms with their meanings in Indian communication theory:
Concept:
i. Sadharanikaran
ii. Sahridaya
iii. Rasa
iv. Bhava

Meaning:
1. Emotional essence of communication
2. Mutual understanding in communication
3. One with a receptive heart
4. The permanent mood in a communicative act

Choose the correct answer:

Q427
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsGrey Propaganda Example

Which of the following is an example of "grey propaganda"?

Q428
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsPropaganda Nature & History

Consider the following statements about propaganda:
i. Propaganda is always based on false information.
ii. Propaganda can be used to influence both domestic and foreign audiences.
iii. The term "propaganda" originated from religious movements in the 17th century.
iv. Propaganda is only effective in totalitarian regimes.
Which of the statements is/are correct?

Q429
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsHistorical Propaganda Methods Matching

Match the following historical events with their associated propaganda techniques:
i. Nazi Germany
ii. Allied efforts during WWII
iii. Cold War

Techniques:
1. Demonising the enemy through films and posters.
2. Subtle censorship and "strategy of truth."
3. Psychological warfare through radio broadcasts.

Which of the following is the correct match?

Q430
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsRitual Model of Communication (James Carey)

Who among the following scholars is associated with the 'Ritual Model' of communication?

Q431
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsPropaganda Techniques (Fear Appeals)

Which of the following techniques is commonly used in propaganda to create a climate of fear?

Q432
Mass Communication Theories, Models & EffectsSource Credibility (Hovland & Weiss)

In a study on the credibility of sources and opinion change, Hovland and Weiss manipulated the authorship of messages attributed to different sources. What was the key finding of this experiment?

Q433
Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentModern Sociological Theory (Risk Society)

Who proposed the idea of Risk Society?

Q434
Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentModels of Development

Which of the following model of development is based on free market and competitiveness?

Q435
Psychopathology, Psychoanalysis & Counselling PsychologyFreud Structural Personality Model

Freud's structural model of personality is related to:

Q436
Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsExperimental Cognitive Psychology (Stroop Effect)

Which of the following is an experimental cognitive psychology interference effect on reaction time?

Q437
Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsSignal Detection Theory in Memory

Which of the following is a commonly used dependent variable in signal detection memory experiments?

Q438
Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsResearch Methodology (Experimental Design)

In which research method does the researcher have maximum control over the manipulation of the Independent Variable (IV)?

Q439
Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsQualitative Research (Focus Group)

A qualitative research method which involves getting a group of people who share a common problem or interest together to have an interactive discussion on the same is known as:

Q440
Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsExperimental Designs (Repeated Measures)

A research design where every participant is exposed to all levels of the Independent Variable (IV) is known as:

Q441
Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsStatistical Tests and Metrics Matching

Match the statistical method with its primary purpose:
i. Shapiro-Wilk Test
ii. Cohen's d
iii. Kendall's tau
iv. Levene's Test

Purpose:
1. Effect size estimation
2. Check data suitability for factor analysis
3. Test of normality
4. Test of homogeneity of variance
5. Correlation of ordinal variables

Choose the correct option:

Q442
Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsInferential Statistics (p-value Interpretation)

A statistically significant result (p<.05p < .05) in a psychological study implies the following:
1. A moderate effect size
2. The research hypothesis is accepted / supported
3. Null hypothesis is false
4. The probability that the observed result occurs by chance is less than 5%
Choose the correct option:

Q443
Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsParametric Statistics (One-Way ANOVA)

A researcher is interested in understanding if there is a significant difference in the loneliness experienced between single, married and divorced women. Which statistical test would be most appropriate to use?

Q444
Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsPsychometrics (Criterion-Related Validity)

Which of this is a type of criterion-related validity for psychometric tests?

Q445
Psychological Research Methodology, Statistics & PsychometricsPsychometrics Concepts Matching

Match the psychometric concepts with their techniques/formulas:
i. Item analysis
ii. Standard score
iii. Internal consistency
iv. Scaling technique

Techniques:
1) Parallel forms
2) KR-20 / Cronbach Alpha
3) Semantic differential
4) Stanine / Z-score
5) Discrimination index

Choose the correct option:

Q446
Neuropsychology, Clinical Assessment & De-Addiction InterventionsWHO Biopsychosocial Model of Disability

Over the years, the World Health Organization's (WHO) conceptual, diagnostic and treatment purview has evolved through which of the models of disability?

Q447
Guest Cycle, Reservations & TelecommunicationsModes of Reservation vs Walk-in

Which of the following is NOT a mode of reservation?

Q448
Guest Cycle, Reservations & TelecommunicationsModern Front Office Technology Trends

Which among these is NOT an emerging modern digital trend in rooms division?

Q449
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTModern Indian History Matching

Match the following historical events with their years:
Events:
i. Civil Disobedience Movement
ii. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
iii. Quit India Movement
iv. Simon Commission Arrival in India

Years:
1. 1919
2. 1942
3. 1930
4. 1928

Choose the correct answer:

Q450
Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning & Basic MathematicsProbability & Gambler's Fallacy

Consider the following Statement:
Assertion (A): The coin when flipped next time will come up tails.
Reason (R): Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time it came up heads.
Choose the correct answer from below:

Q451
Animal Sciences, Zoology, Veterinary Physiology & ImmunologyPopulation Genetics & Evolution Unit

The fundamental unit of biological evolution is the:

Q452
Basic Mathematics, Numerical Ability & ReasoningProbability

When two coins are tossed simultaneously, what are the chances (probability) of getting at least one tail?

Q453
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Modern Indian History (Poona Pact)

The historic Poona Pact of 1932 was an agreement signed between:

Q454
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Modern Indian History (Partition of Bengal)

Name the Viceroy of India at the time of the Partition of Bengal in 1905:

Q455
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Modern Indian History (Annulment of Bengal Partition)

In which year was the partition of Bengal cancelled / annulled?

Q456
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Modern Indian History (Khilafat Movement)

Which among the following movements was combined with the Non-Cooperation Movement under Gandhiji's leadership?

Q457
Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeProbability (Coin Tosses)

When two coins are tossed simultaneously, what are the chances of getting at least one tail?

Q458
Indian Polity, History & GeographyModern Indian History (Partition of Bengal)

Name the Viceroy of India at the time of the Partition of Bengal in 1905:

Q459
Indian Polity, History & GeographyModern Indian History (Annulment of Partition)

In which year was the partition of Bengal cancelled/annulled by the British Crown?

Q460
Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudeStatistics (Mode & Modal Class)

A histogram represents the data distribution of the marks scored by 50 students in a test:
Interval: 0-10 (freq: 5), 10-20 (freq: 8), 20-30 (freq: 12), 30-40 (freq: 15), 40-50 (freq: 10).
Which interval contains the mode of the data?

Q461
Computer Applications, IT & e-Governancee-Governance & PPP Models

Consider the following statement:
Statement (I): The long-term sustainability of e-governance projects depends on financial viability, especially if they are to be implemented in the Public-Private Partnership (PPP) mode.
Statement (II): PPP models in e-governance often involve significant upfront investments by private partners, requiring a robust revenue model to ensure project continuity.
Which of the following statement is/are correct?

Q462
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceModern Indian History

The historic Battle of Plassey took place in which year?

Q463
Audio-Visual Systems, Television, Electronics & Electrical EngineeringData Communications (Modems)

In telecommunication classifications, a modem is historically classified as a 'low-speed modem' if the data transmission rate handled is up to:

Q464
Biostatistics, Hypothesis Testing & Research MethodologyStatistics (Normal Distribution)

In a perfectly symmetrical, bell-shaped normal distribution curve (Gaussian distribution), the Mean, Median, and Mode are all:

Q465
Biostatistics, Hypothesis Testing & Research MethodologyInferential Statistics (p-value Interpretation)

In inferential statistics, a calculated test result with a p-value of 0.03 (p=0.03<0.05p = 0.03 < 0.05) indicates that:

Q466
Biostatistics, Hypothesis Testing & Research MethodologyHypothesis Testing Principles

Which of the following statements about statistical hypothesis testing are true?
I. The null hypothesis (H0H_0) states that there is no significant difference or relationship between groups or variables.
II. In hypothesis testing, a smaller p-value suggests stronger empirical evidence against the null hypothesis.
III. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it should be rejected.
IV. A p-value greater than 0.05 usually indicates strong evidence for rejecting the null hypothesis.
Choose the correct statements:

Q467
Biostatistics, Hypothesis Testing & Research MethodologyStatistical Tests Matching

Match the following inferential statistical tests in Column -A with their appropriate research applications in Column -B:
Column - A:
1. One-Way ANOVA
2. Chi-square Test of Independence
3. Pearson's Correlation Coefficient (rr)
4. Independent Samples t-test

Column - B:
i. Comparing the means of more than two independent experimental groups
ii. Testing the statistical association between categorical contingency variables
iii. Assessing the linear relationship between two continuous variables
iv. Comparing the difference between the means of two independent groups

Choose the correct option:

Q468
Radiation Protection, Shielding, Radiobiology & Waste ManagementNuclear Decay Modes & Equations

Complete the decay equation: ^90_38 Sr -> ^90_39 Y + ________

Q469
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityProbability

A box contains 5 black marbles and 7 white marbles. Two marbles are drawn at random without replacement. What is the probability that both are black?

Q470
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityProbability

A coin is tossed three times. What is the probability of getting at least two heads?

Q471
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityProbability

A box contains 6 blue and 8 red marbles. One marble is drawn at random from the box. What is the probability that the marble drawn is red?

Q472
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceModern Indian History

2nd Anglo-Mysore war ended with the _______?

Q473
Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleAutofocus Modes & AI

What is face detection used for in digital cameras?

Q474
Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleCamera Modes

What does the "P" mode on a camera stand for?

Q475
Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleCamera Modes

On most cameras what does AV stand for?

Q476
Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleCamera Modes

In which mode does the camera choose the aperture, while the user selects the shutter speed?

Q477
Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleCamera Modes

On most cameras what does the setting TV stand for?

Q478
Camera Mechanics, Optics & Exposure TriangleSampling Theorem & Aliasing

What is the name of the phenomenon that corrupts the sampled image, and how does it happen?

Q479
Signals, Digital Communications & ModulationSampling & Aliasing

A signal x(t)=cos(100\pi t)+2cos(150\pi t) is sampled at a rate of 80 Hz. What are the frequency components present in the sampled signal?

Q480
Digital Electronics, Microprocessors & Microcontrollers8085 Addressing Modes

Match the two lists and choose the correct answer from the code given below:
List -I (addressing mode in 8085 Microprocessor):
(w) Immediate addressing
(x) Implied addressing
(y) Register addressing
(z) Direct addressing

List-II (Instruction):
(i) MOV A, B
(ii) LDA 305C
(iii) LXI H, 2025t
(iv) RRC

Choose the correct option:

Q481
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsCensus of India 2011

Consider the following statements based on the 2011 Census of India:
I. The literacy rate in India increased to over 74%
II. Uttar Pradesh has the highest population among Indian states
III. Kerala recorded the highest literacy rate among all states
IV. The sex ratio in India (females per 1000 males) improved to above 1000
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Q482
History & Masters of Islamic & Kashmiri CalligraphyFather of Modern Calligraphy

جدید خطاطی کے "بابائے خطاطی" کس سے کہا جاتا ہے؟
(Who is globally acclaimed as the "Father of Modern Calligraphy"?)

Q483
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsClassical Communication Models

Which of the following statements about communication models are correct?
i. The Shannon-Weaver Model introduced the concept of noise.
ii. Berlo's SMCR Model emphasizes the role of the sender, message, channel, and receiver.
iii. Schramm's Model highlights the importance of shared meaning in communication.
iv. Lasswell's Model focuses primarily on media effects.
Options:

Q484
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsMass Communication Theories

Consider the following statements about mass communication theories:
i. Hypodermic Needle Theory assumes a passive audience.
ii. Cultivation Theory suggests long-term media exposure shapes perceptions.
iii. Spiral of Silence Theory explains why individuals conform to dominant opinions.
iv. Uses and Gratifications Theory highlights media's manipulation of audiences.
Which of the following statements are correct?

Q485
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsVerbal vs Non-Verbal Communication

Non-verbal communication includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Gestures
B) Facial expressions
C) Written letters
D) Body posture

Q486
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsSynchronous vs Asynchronous Media

Which medium is considered asynchronous in communication?
A) Face-to-face conversation
B) Telephone call
C) Email
D) Video conferencing

Q487
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsSemiotics & Signs (Peirce)

Match the following types of signs in semiotics with their examples:
1. Icon
2. Index
3. Symbol
Examples:
i. Smoke as an index of fire.
ii. A picture of a pen resembling a real pen.
iii. The word "Mango" representing a fruit.
Choose the correct Option:

Q488
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsParticipatory Communication Typologies

Match the following types of participation with their descriptions:
Types of Participation:
i. Non-participation
ii. Controlled participation
iii. Co-management
iv. Self-management
Descriptions:
1. Power is shared between funders and local groups.
2. Authority imposes decisions without consultation.
3. Elites permit discussion but retain control over outcomes.
4. Participants collectively decide and execute decisions.
Choose the correct Option:

Q489
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsEvolution of Media Formats

Arrange the following media formats in the order of their historical emergence:
i. Print Media
ii. Broadcast Media
iii. New Media
iv. Social Media
Choose the correct Option:

Q490
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsPaulo Freire Critical Pedagogy

What is the primary goal of participation according to Paulo Freire?
A) To transfer knowledge from experts to marginalized communities.
B) To facilitate conscientisation and collective action against oppressive elements.
C) To create a climate of acceptance for exogenous ideas.
D) To ensure controlled participation by elites.

Q491
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsBarriers to Communication

Match the communication barriers with examples:
i. Physical Barrier
ii. Psychological Barrier
iii. Semantic Barrier
iv. Organizational Barrier
Examples:
1. Language differences
2. Noise in the environment
3. Emotional stress
4. Poor hierarchical structure
Choose the correct option:

Q492
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsCommunication for Development (C4D)

Match the following C4D communication approaches with their primary focus:
i. Participatory Communication
ii. Advocacy Communication
iii. Development Communication
iv. Behaviour Change Communication
Primary Focus:
1. Information dissemination
2. Empowerment and engagement
3. Social and policy change
4. Change in individual behaviors
Choose the correct option:

Q493
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsSemiotics of Brand Logos

A designer is creating a logo for a brand. Which type of sign in semiotics would be most appropriate for the logo?
A) Icon
B) Index
C) Symbol
D) Signifier

Q494
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsStages of Communication Process

Arrange the following stages of the communication process in the correct sequence:
i. Encoding
ii. Feedback
iii. Message transmission
iv. Decoding
Options:

Q495
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsSchramm Interactive Communication Model

Which of the following models of communication emphasizes feedback and two-way interaction?
A) Shannon-Weaver Model
B) Lasswell's Model
C) Schramm's Model
D) Magic Bullet Theory

Q496
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsGatekeeping Theory in Journalism

In mass communication, 'gatekeeping' refers to:
A) The audience's control over content
B) The process of filtering information
C) The transmission of messages
D) Feedback from receivers

Q497
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsRole of Feedback in Communication

In the context of communication, 'feedback' is important because it:
A) Completes the communication loop
B) Starts the communication process
C) Acts as the main message
D) Replaces the sender's role

Q498
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsCommunication Barriers Categorization

Match the following communication barriers with their types:
i. Jargon
ii. Network Failure
iii. Lack of Attention
iv. Cultural Differences
Types:
1. Semantic Barrier
2. Technical Barrier
3. Psychological Barrier
4. Sociological Barrier
Choose the correct option:

Q499
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsNon-Verbal Gestures

In a noisy classroom, a teacher uses hand gestures to explain a concept. This is an example of:
A) Verbal communication
B) Feedback mechanism
C) Non-verbal communication
D) Psychological noise

Q500
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsCommunication Concepts Verification

Consider the following statements:
i. Communication is a one-way process.
ii. Verbal communication includes written and spoken words.
iii. Noise can be both physical and psychological.
iv. Non-verbal cues are irrelevant in professional settings.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Q501
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsSelective Exposure Theory

The concept of "Selective Exposure" in media consumption suggests that:
A) Audiences consume all types of media without bias
B) People tend to expose themselves to messages that align with their beliefs
C) Advertisers control audience behaviour through exposure frequency
D) Governments regulate the types of media content available

Q502
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsSignifier vs Signified (Saussure)

In semiotics, what is the term for the physical form of a sign?
A) Signified
B) Signifier
C) Icon
D) Index

Q503
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsParticipatory Communication Typology

Match the following types of participation with their descriptions:
Types of Participation:
i. Non-participation
ii. Controlled participation
iii. Co-management
iv. Self-management
Descriptions:
1. Power is shared between funders and local groups.
2. Authority imposes decisions without consultation.
3. Elites permit discussion but retain control over outcomes.
4. Participants collectively decide and execute decisions.
Choose the correct option:

Q504
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsC4D Planning Cycle

Arrange the following stages of Communication for Development (C4D) planning in the correct order:
i. Situation analysis
ii. Identification of target audience
iii. Development of communication strategy
iv. Monitoring and evaluation
v. Message creation and delivery
Choose the correct option:

Q505
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsDevelopment Communication Concepts (Melkote)

Which of the following is NOT an essential concept of development communication as outlined by Srinivas R. Melkote and H. Leslie Steeves?
A) Development
B) Empowerment
C) Third World
D) Capitalism

Q506
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsParticipatory Communication Paradigm

Which of the following best describes the participatory paradigm in development communication?
A) It focuses on transferring information from experts to communities.
B) It emphasizes horizontal knowledge sharing and collective decision-making.
C) It relies on centralized decision-making by external authorities.
D) It prioritizes the use of mass media for disseminating development messages.

Q507
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsParticipatory Paradigm Attributes

Consider the following statements about the participatory paradigm:
i. It recognizes cultural differences and rejects a universal development model.
ii. It prioritizes the use of big media like television and newspapers.
iii. It encourages self-management and collective decision-making.
iv. It is primarily concerned with creating a climate of acceptance for exogenous ideas.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Q508
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsKey Principle of C4D

Which of the following is a key principle of Communication for Development (C4D)?
A) Broadcasting information to a mass audience
B) Encouraging one-way communication from the government to the people
C) Participatory communication that involves communities in decision-making
D) Focusing solely on marketing and advertising for development goals

Q509
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsEvolution of Development Communication Paradigms

Arrange the following concepts in the order they emerged in development communication:
i. Dominant Paradigm
ii. Participatory Paradigm
iii. Communication for Development (CFD)
iv. Development Support Communication (DSC)
Options:

Q510
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsMedia Types Matching

Match the following types of media with their characteristics:
Types of Media:
i. Print Media
ii. New Media
iii. Broadcast Media
iv. Social Media
Characteristics:
1. Uses digital technology for content distribution.
2. Relies on static representation of information.
3. Combines audio and visual elements for storytelling.
4. Enables user-generated content and real-time interaction.
Options:

Q511
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsMedia Systems Characteristics

Match the following types of media with their characteristics:
Types of Media:
i. Print Media
ii. New Media
iii. Broadcast Media
iv. Social Media
Characteristics:
1. Uses digital technology for content distribution.
2. Relies on static representation of information.
3. Combines audio and visual elements for storytelling.
4. Enables user-generated content and real-time interaction.
Choose the correct option:

Q512
Pomology, Olericulture & Post-Harvest TechnologyPomology & Agricultural Statistics

Which country is the largest producer of mangoes in the world?

Q513
Floriculture, Ornamental Gardening & Landscape ArchitectureGlobal Floriculture Statistics

Leading country in export and import of floricultural products:

Q514
Database Management Systems & SQLEntity-Relationship Modeling

An attribute in an E-R model is represented by:

Q515
Software Engineering, Testing & Quality AssuranceSDLC Models & History

Arrange the following models in order of their historical development:
I. Waterfall Model
II. Spiral Model
III. Agile Model
IV. Prototyping Model
Choose the correct option:

Q516
Software Engineering, Testing & Quality AssuranceCapability Maturity Model (CMM)

The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is primarily used for:

Q517
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionDigital Media & Computer Graphics

Which application is used to create or contribute to images in art printed media, video games, films, television programs commercial, videos and simulations.

Q518
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionComputer Fundamentals for Imaging

What is the primary function of an operating system?

Q519
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionHistogram & Dynamic Range Analysis

In the context of digital image processing, what does "clipping" refer to?

Q520
Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyAutofocus Modes & Subject Tracking

Which feature is used in modern cameras to automatically adjust the focus based on subject movement?

Q521
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionDigital Imaging Color Science

What does the term "bit depth" refer to in digital imaging?

Q522
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionDigital Imaging Formats & Dynamic Range

What does the acronym HDR mean?

Q523
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionComputer Fundamentals for Imaging

What is the primary function of an operating system?

Q524
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionDigital Media & Storage Systems

Which of the following storage devices is known for its speed and durability?

Q525
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionPhoto Editing Tools & Retouching

Which feature in photo editing software helps in restoring a part of an image that has been altered or removed?

Q526
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionHistogram & Exposure Evaluation

What is the primary function of the histogram in digital photography?

Q527
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionColor Spaces & Color Grading

What does the term "HSL" stand for in photo editing software?

Q528
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionImage Editing Software & Tools

Which of the following software is primarily known for its advanced photo editing capabilities?

Q529
Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyHistoric Camera Models & Innovations

Which camera (from around 1984) used solar energy to assist the batteries?

Q530
Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyAutofocus Modes & Systems

Consider the following statements:
I. Single-Servo Autofocus: In AF-S mode, the camera locks focus when the shutter button is pressed halfway.
II. Continuous-Servo Autofocus: In AF-C mode, the camera continuously adjusts focus as long as the shutter button is pressed halfway.
III. Automatic-Servo Autofocus: Some cameras offer an automatic AF mode that switches between AF-S and AF-C modes depending on whether the subject is stationary or moving.
Which of the given statement is/ are correct?

Q531
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionNon-Destructive Editing & Layers

In photo editing, what is a 'layer'?

Q532
Exposure Triangle, Lighting & Composition TechniquesMetering Modes & Backlight

Which metering mode would be most effective for photographing a backlit subject?

Q533
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionImage Cropping & Composition Editing

What is the purpose of the 'crop' tool in photo editing software?

Q534
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionImage File Formats (RAW vs JPEG)

In a digital camera, what does the term "RAW" refer to?

Q535
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionWhite Balance & Color Calibration

What does the term "white balance shift" refer to in digital photography?

Q536
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionImage Management & RAW Processing

Which photo editing software is specifically designed for professional photographers to manage and edit large volumes of images?

Q537
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionPhoto Editing Tools & Gradients

What is a common use for the 'Gradient Tool' in photo editing?

Q538
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionAdvanced Digital Manipulation

What does the 'Puppet Warp' feature allow you to do in photo editing software?

Q539
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionColor Models & Print Production

Which color model is primarily used for print media?

Q540
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionDigital Filtering & Noise Reduction

Which of the following is a common method for removing noise from an image?

Q541
History of Photography & Classical Chemical ProcessesPhoto-Secession & Modern Photography

What was the primary significance of the "Photo-Secession" movement, founded by Alfred Stieglitz in 1902?

Q542
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionImage Compression & File Formats

Which of the following file formats is considered a "lossy" compression format?

Q543
Digital Image Processing, Color Models & Post-ProductionDigital Imaging Color Science

In the context of digital cameras, what does the term "bit depth" refer to?

Q544
Camera Mechanics, Optics & Sensor TechnologyAutofocus Modes & Action Photography

Which autofocus mode would be most suitable for capturing fast-moving subjects in sports photography?

Q545
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityProbability

A card is removed from a well shuffled pack of 52 cards. A card is now drawn at random from the pack. What is the probability that the drawn card is a king?

Q546
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityProbability

A die is rolled twice. What is the probability of getting a sum equal to 9?

Q547
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityProbability & Combinations

If 8 coins are tossed, what is the chance that one and only one will turn up Head?

Q548
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KModern Indian History

Mahatma Gandhi's remark, "A post-dated cheque on a crumbling bank" is regarding the proposals of:

Q549
Printing Processes, Typography & Prepress FundamentalsColor Modes & Prepress File Formats

Which of the following file formats is not compatible with saving duotone images for proper printing?

Q550
Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingDOS Hardware Device Configuration: MODE

What is the primary function of the MODE command in DOS?

Q551
Bioinformatics, Genomics & Computational BiologyComputational Biology: Hidden Markov Models

What is the purpose of the Hidden Markov Model (HMM) in bioinformatics?

Q552
EconomicsIndian Demography & Census

When was the last Census of India conducted?
A) 2011
B) 2021
C) 2024
D) 2025

Q553
StatisticsCollection of Data

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the use of enumerators in collecting data through questionnaires?
A) Less time consuming
B) Less costly
C) Less reliable
D) Less chance of bias

Q554
StatisticsIndex Numbers & Purchasing Power

If the price index for the year 2024 is 105.5, and the purchasing power of money (in Rs.) of 2014 compared to 2024 is 1.11, then what is the price index for the year 2014?
A) 0.01
B) 95.04
C) 117.11
D) 98.40

Q555
StatisticsMeasures of Skewness

For a certain frequency distribution, we calculated the following values:
Mean = 62, Co-efficient of skewness = -0.6, Standard Deviation = 30
The median is equal to:
A) 60
B) 66
C) 68
D) 70

Q556
StatisticsProbability Theory

Let A, B and C be three events such that P(A ∩ B) = 1/4, P(A ∩ C) = 1/5, P(B ∩ C) = 1/5, and P(A ∩ B ∩ C) = 1/6. The probability that at least two events occur is equal to:
A) 13/60
B) 19/60
C) 29/60
D) 31/60

Q557
StatisticsMeasures of Central Tendency

Given the following numbers: 1, 7, 8, 2, 4, 10, 14, 11, 37, 16, 17. The value of mean - median is:
A) 11.5
B) 1.55
C) 10
D) 21.5

Q558
StatisticsLinear Functions & Demography

The life expectancy, E, of females is a linear function of time (in years). In 1995, the life expectancy was 72 years, and in 2015, it was 78 years. What would be the predicted life expectancy in the year 2025?
A) 80
B) 82
C) 79
D) 81

Q559
StatisticsBayes' Theorem & Conditional Probability

A box contains a certain number of balls out of which 15% are red, 80% are yellow and 5% are green. All the balls of the same color are indistinguishable. Further, it is known that among all the yellow balls, x% are defective, among all the red, 6% are marked defective and among all the green balls, 9% are marked defective. A ball is chosen at random. If the conditional probability that the chosen ball is yellow, given that it is defective is 0.4, the value of x is:
A) 1.12
B) 0.01
C) 0.05
D) 1.05

Q560
StatisticsTheory of Attributes

For two attributes A and B, we have the following information: N = 100; (A) = 50, (B) = 60, (AB) = 5. Which of the following is true about consistence of the data?
A) Data are inconsistent
B) Data are consistent
C) Cannot be determined
D) Both (A) and (B)

Q561
StatisticsSet Theory & Probability

In a college, 75% of students passed Mathematics, and 80% of students passed English. What is the minimum percentage of students who must have passed both subjects?
A) 25%
B) 55%
C) 20%
D) 5%

Q562
StatisticsCorrelation and Regression

If the line of regression of y on x is 5x - 8y + 14 = 0 then the correlation between y and x is:
A) Positive
B) Negative
C) Zero
D) Cannot be determined

Q563
StatisticsCorrelation and Regression

If the two regression lines—one obtained by regressing y on x, and the other by regressing x on y—are 5x - 8y + 14 = 0 and 2x - 5y + 11 = 0, then x̄ + ȳ is:
A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 0

Q564
StatisticsPermutations & Probability

In a random arrangement of the letters of the word 'STATISTICS', the probability that all the vowels come together is:
A) 1/15
B) 3/28
C) 2/15
D) 5/28

Q565
StatisticsCollection of Data

Interview is an example of which data?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) None of the above

Q566
StatisticsTabulation of Data

Zero should be used only to indicate the
A) Quality of variable
B) Non availability of data
C) Quantity of variable
D) All of these

Q567
StatisticsQuestionnaire Design & Survey Sampling

'Do you own a vehicle? ______ Yes ______ No' is an example of what type of question?
A) Loaded
B) Leading
C) Simple-dichotomy
D) Open-ended response

Q568
StatisticsVital Statistics & Demography

Which of the following is a measure of mortality?
A) Crude death rate
B) Immunization rate
C) Literacy rate
D) Birth weight

Q569
StatisticsVital Statistics & Demographic Indicators

Which is a demographic indicator of health?
A) Oxygen level
B) Life expectancy
C) Literacy rate
D) Blood group

Q570
StatisticsInterpolation & Numerical Methods

If x_0 = 5, x_1 = 6, x_2 = 9 and x_3 = 11, and f(x_0) = 12, f(x_1) = 13, f(x_2) = 14 and f(x_3) = 16 then the approximate value of f(10) using Lagrange's interpolation formula is:
A) 15
B) 14.67
C) 16
D) 15.47

Q571
StatisticsCombined Mean

The average height of male employees in a company is 68 inches and that of female employees is 63 inches. The average height of all the employees is 65 inches. The percentage of male employees in the company is:
A) 40%
B) 60%
C) 50%
D) 55%

Q572
StatisticsIndex Numbers

If Laspeyres' price index is 100, Fisher's index number is 120, then Bowley's index number is:
A) 122
B) 144
C) 110
D) 100

Q573
StatisticsVital Statistics & Reproduction Rates

The population of a city is 12000. If the population size after 3 generations is 768000, then the net reproductive rate is:
A) 3
B) 2
C) 8
D) 4

Q574
StatisticsDemography & Fertility Rates

If the gross reproductive rate is 1.08 per woman and the proportion of male births is 60%, then total fertility rate per woman is (assuming no mortality):
A) 2.5
B) 2.7
C) 1.8
D) 2.2

Q575
StatisticsTests of Index Numbers

Fisher's Ideal Index Number does not satisfy:
A) Unit Test
B) Time Reversal Test
C) Circular Test
D) Factor Reversal Test

Q576
StatisticsProperties of Correlation Coefficient

The class instructor calculated the correlation coefficient between the marks obtained by students in English and Hindi, and found it to be -0.5. Later, she realized that she had forgotten to include 1 grace mark for every student in the English scores. What will be the new correlation coefficient between the updated English marks and the Hindi marks?
A) 0.5
B) -0.5
C) 0
D) 1

Q577
StatisticsMedian of Grouped Frequency Distribution

What is the value of x if the median wage is Rs. 4675 for the following salary distribution?
Salary (in Rs.): 2000-3000 | 3000-4000 | 4000-5000 | 5000-6000 | 6000-7000
Number of Employees: 3 | 5 | x | 10 | 5
A) 8
B) 20
C) 12
D) 9

Q578
General Knowledge & Current AffairsModern Indian History & Social Reforms

Name the Governor General who abolished 'Sati' in 1829.
A) Lord Clive
B) Lord Curzon
C) Lord Bentinck
D) Lord Dalhousie

Q579
Quantitative AptitudeStatistics (Distributions & Histograms)

Which of the following type of histogram represents a normal distribution?
A) Bell-shaped
B) Comb
C) Skewed
D) Plateau

Q580
Quantitative AptitudeStatistics (Measures of Central Tendency)

Magnitude of scores is included in which of the central tendency measures?
A) Median
B) Mode
C) Mean
D) None

Q581
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityProbability

In a single throw of 2 dice, what is the probability of getting a sum of 7 ?
A) 1/6
B) 1/2
C) 1/12
D) 2/5

Q582
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityProbability

A bag contains 3 red balls and 2 green balls. One ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that it is red?
A) 2/5
B) 3/5
C) 1/2
D) 1/3

Q583
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityProbability

Two coins are tossed together. What is the probability of getting at least one head?
A) 1/4
B) 1/2
C) 3/4
D) 1

Q584
Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityProbability

What is the probability of drawing an ace or a king from a deck of 52 cards?
A) 2/13
B) 1/13
C) 1/26
D) 4/13

Q585
General Awareness & ScienceModern Indian History & Constitutional Acts

The Indian Councils Act of 1909 is also known as
A) Morley-Minto Reforms
B) Government of India Act
C) Rowlatt Act
D) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms

Q586
Civil EngineeringConstruction Management - PERT Expected Time & Variance

If the optimistic time (t_o), most likely or probable time (t_m), and pessimistic time (t_p), for activity (A) are 2, 5 and 14 days respectively, then expected duration and variance of the activity are
A) 2 and 5 days
B) 6 and 4 days
C) 14 and 7 days
D) 16 and 5 days

Q587
Electrical EngineeringElectronics - Diode Small-Signal Model

Which of the following statements is correct?
Under small signal operation of a diode _______?
A) Its bulk resistance increases
B) It behaves as a clipper
C) It acts like a closed switch
D) Its junction resistance predominates

Q588
Electrical EngineeringPower Electronics - Three-Phase Inverter Conduction Modes

In a three-phase VSI, with 120° conduction mode, how many switches conduct at a time?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 6

Q589
Electrical EngineeringElectrical Machines - Induction Generator Mode

Consider the following statements:
If a 3-phase squirrel cage induction machine operates at a slip of minus 0.05, then the machine will:
I. Draw electrical power from the mains
II. Draw mechanical power through the shaft
III. Deliver electrical power to the mains
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) I, II and III
B) I and II
C) II and III
D) I and III

Q590
Forensic Physics & Modern PhysicsModern Physics & Quantum Concepts

Match the following scientists/concepts with their corresponding values/discoveries:\ni. Planck\nii. De Broglie\niii. Einstein\niv. Nuclear reactor\na. Heavy water\nb. Photoelectric effect\nc. Matter wave\nd. 6.627*10^-27 erg·s\nChoose the correct options:

Q591
Forensic Physics & Modern PhysicsMicroscopic Dimensions & Particle Scales

Arrange the following in ascending order of their size:\nI. Electron\nII. Red blood cells\nIII. Proton\nIV. A cell\nChoose the correct options:

Q592
Forensic Optics & SpectroscopyFour-Level Laser Population Kinetics

Arrange in correct sequence of population distribution in the energy levels of a four-level laser system in thermal equilibrium:

Q593
Forensic Chemistry & InstrumentationIR Sampling Techniques

Average sample desired for qualitative analysis in IR spectroscopy:

Q594
Forensic Statistics & Quality ControlFundamentals of Statistics

Statistics deals with:

Q595
Forensic Statistics & Quality ControlChi-Square Applications

Chi-square distribution is useful to test the:

Q596
Forensic Statistics & Quality ControlHypothesis Testing for Proportions

To test hypothesis about proportion of items in a class, the usual test is:

Q597
Forensic Statistics & Quality ControlStudent's Paired t-Test

Paired t-test is applicable when the observations in the two samples are:

Q598
Forensic Statistics & Quality ControlPrinciples of Hypothesis Testing

Which of the following statements are true for the Test of Hypothesis?\nI. Tests do not explain the reason as to why does the difference exist between the mean of two samples.\nII. It can be used in any sample in mechanical fashion.\nIII. Results of significance test are based on probabilities.\nIV. Results of significance test are not based on probabilities.\nOptions:

Q599
Forensic Statistics & Quality ControlNon-Parametric Chi-Square Testing

Chi-square test can be used:\nI. As a parametric test\nII. As a test of goodness of fit\nIII. As a test of independence.\nOptions:

Q600
Forensic Statistics & Quality ControlComparative Statistical Tests

Match the statistical tests with their respective purposes:\ni. Z-test\nii. t-test\niii. Chi-square test\niv. ANOVA\na. Independence of attributes\nb. Difference among two or more samples\nc. Difference between two samples\nd. Difference between two samples when populations are normal and sample size is large\nOptions:

Q601
Forensic Statistics & Quality ControlChi-Square Calculation Steps

Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in applying the chi-square test:\nI. Calculate the expected frequencies on the basis of given hypothesis.\nII. Find the summation values.\nIII. Divide the quantity obtained.\nIV. Obtain the difference between observed and expected frequencies and find out the square of such differences.\nOptions:

Q602
Forensic StatisticsContinuous vs Discrete Variables

Which of the following variable can assume any numerical value over a certain interval?

Q603
Forensic StatisticsInferential Statistics

Which of the following methods use sample results to help make decisions or predictions about a population?

Q604
Forensic StatisticsChi-Squared Distribution & Hypothesis Testing

Which of the following distributions is used for hypothesis testing?

Q605
Forensic StatisticsScales of Measurement

Which of the following scales shows equal intervals?
I. Nominal scale
II. Ordinal scale
III. Interval scale
IV. Ratio scale
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q606
Forensic StatisticsF-test and ANOVA

Which of the following test is useful to find analysis of variance in a sample data?

Q607
Forensic StatisticsSkewness and Symmetry

Which of the following represent degree of symmetry in statistical calculation

Q608
Modern Indian HistoryIndian National Movement Leaders

Match the following:
National Leaders
i) Mahatma Gandhi
ii) Bhagat Singh
iii) Subhash Chandra Bose
iv) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Contribution
1. Azad Hind Fauj
2. Central Legislative Assembly Bombing
3. Dandi March
4. Swaraj is my birthright
Options:

Q609
Indian Polity & DemographyCensus of India Administration

Which body is responsible for conducting the census in India?

Q610
Economy of Jammu & KashmirJ&K Economic Survey - GDP and Population Share

As per Economic Survey, 2024-2025, the UT of Jammu and Kashmir contributes _____% to national GDP in proportion to its population being _____% of total national population.

Q611
Basic MathematicsProbability - Binomial Distribution

A coin is tossed 5 times. Each head contributes +1 and each tail contributes -1. What is the probability that the total sum is exactly +1?

Q612
Basic MathematicsConditional Probability

A die is thrown 3 times. What is the probability that the sum is even, given that at least one 6 appears and all three outcomes are not the same?

Q613
Basic MathematicsProbability - Combinations

A bag contains 4 red, 3 blue, and 3 green balls. Three balls are drawn without replacement. What is the probability that exactly two balls are of the same colour and one is different?

Q614
Basic MathematicsProbability - Number Sets

Two numbers are chosen at random from the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} without replacement. What is the probability that their sum is prime?

Q615
General Knowledge & Current AffairsModern Indian History (Freedom Struggle)

Arrange the following events in correct chronological order:
I. Poorna Swaraj Resolution
II. Launch of Civil Disobedience Movement
III. Poona Pact
IV. Second Round Table Conference
Choose the correct option:
A) I - II - III - IV
B) I - II - IV - III
C) II - I - IV - III
D) II - I - III - IV

Q616
Basic MathematicsProgressions & Means (AM & GM)

X and Y are two numbers whose A.M. is 41 and G.M. is 9. Which of the following may be a value of X?
A) 125
B) 81
C) 49
D) 25

Q617
Basic MathematicsProbability

A card is drawn at random from a pack of 100 cards numbered 1 to 100. The probability of drawing a number which is a square, is:
A) 1/10
B) 1/100
C) 9/10
D) 90/100

Q618
Basic MathematicsProbability

A dice is thrown once. Find the probability that 3 or greater than 3 turns up:
A) 1/2
B) 1/3
C) 1/4
D) 2/3

Q619
General Knowledge & Current AffairsModern Indian History (Anglo-Sikh Wars)

Arrange the following battles of the First Anglo-Sikh War in chronological order:
I. Battle of Mudki
II. Battle of Ferozeshah
III. Battle of Aliwal
IV. Battle of Sobraon
Choose the correct option:
A) I - II - III - IV
B) I - III - II - IV
C) II - I - III - IV
D) II - III - I - IV

Q620
General Awareness with special ref to J&KModern Indian History - Freedom Movement

With reference to the Indian Freedom struggle, consider the following events:
I. Poona Pact
II. Lord Irwin's declaration
III. Second Round Table Conference

Arrange them in the correct chronological order:
A) I-II-III
B) II-I-III
C) I-III-II
D) II-III-I

Q621
General Awareness with special ref to J&KDemography and Indian Economy

Consider the following statements regarding India's demographic trends:
I. Demographic dividend refers to the economic growth potential arising from a declining dependency ratio, due to a rising working-age population.
II. Demographic winter refers to the economic and social challenges arising from an increasing working-age population and decreasing old-age dependency.
III. India is expected to enjoy its demographic dividend till the mid-21st century, and its realization depends on education, skill development, health, and employment generation.

Which of the above statements are correct?
A) I and III only
B) II and III only
C) I and II only
D) All of the above

Q622
Basic Concepts of ComputersModern Input-Output & VR Peripherals

Match the following devices with their corresponding descriptions:
Devices:
1. Haptic Gloves
2. Tactile Display
3. Voice Response Unit (VRU)
4. Data Glove

Statements:
i. Generates tactile sensations and may sense user interaction.
ii. Captures fine hand/finger movements for computer input.
iii. Detect user gestures and provide force feedback.
iv. Generates synthesised audio output for interaction with users.

Choose the correct match:
A) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii
B) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii
C) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii
D) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii

Q623
Basic Concepts of ComputersCloud Computing - Service Models

In the context of cloud computing in an IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) model, what is managed by the service provider?
A) Networking hardware
B) Operating system
C) Hardware platform and operating system
D) Operating system and data

Q624
Basic MathematicsProbability

A bag contains 3 red balls, 2 blue balls, and 5 green balls. If one ball is drawn at random, what is the probability that it is red?
A) 3/10
B) 1/2
C) 1/5
D) 2/5

Q625
Basic MathematicsProbability

A die is rolled once. What is the probability of getting an even number greater than 2?
A) 1/2
B) 1/3
C) 1/6
D) 1/8

Q626
Basic MathematicsProbability

Two coins are tossed together. What is the probability of getting one head and one tail?
A) 1/4
B) 1/2
C) 3/4
D) 1

Q627
General Awareness & ScienceModern Indian History - Governor Generals

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Governor Generals:
I. Lord Wellesley
II. Lord William Bentinck
III. Lord Charles Metcalfe
IV. Lord Ripon
Acts/Policies/Titles:
Subsidiary Alliance
Abolition of Sati Act, 1829
Liberator of the Press
Father of Local Self-Government
Choose the correct option:
A) I and II only
B) I, II and IV only
C) II, III and IV only
D) All of the above

Q628
General Awareness & ScienceHistory of Jammu and Kashmir - Modern Period

Who was one of the founders of the political organisation 'All Jammu and Kashmir Muslim Conference' in 1932?
A) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
B) Liaqat Ali Khan
C) Sheikh Abdullah
D) Sikandar Hayat Khan

Q629
Basic MathematicsProbability

What's the probability of drawing a red card or a card with a face (king, queen, or jack) from a standard deck of 52 cards?
A) 13/15
B) 1/4
C) 29/52
D) 8/13

Q630
Basic MathematicsProbability

What is the probability of a sure event?
A) 1
B) 0.5
C) 0
D) 0.25

Q631
Basic MathematicsProbability

What is the probability of getting a number greater than 6 on dice?
A) 1
B) 0.5
C) 0
D) 0.25

Q632
General ScienceBiology - Modes of Nutrition

Which of the following organisms exhibits parasitic nutrition?
A) Nitrosomonas
B) Amoeba
C) Plasmodium
D) Paramecium

Q633
Modern Indian HistoryRevolt of 1857 & Government of India Act 1858

Following the suppression of the revolt of 1857, what major constitutional change was adopted via the Government of India Act, 1858?

Q634
Modern Indian HistoryLord Lytton & Nationalist Upsurge

Which of the following administrative measures taken by Lord Lytton was a factor in the rise of Indian Nationalism?

Q635
Modern Indian HistoryFormation of Indian National Congress

The 'Safety Valve theory' propounded by leaders like Lala Lajpat Rai in the context of the formation of the Indian National Congress suggests that-

Q636
Modern Indian HistoryModerate Phase of INC

What was/were the primary political demands of the Moderates during the early phase of the Indian National Congress?

Q637
Modern Indian HistorySwadeshi Movement & Indigenous Enterprises

Match the following in the context of the Swadeshi Movement:
Swadeshi Initiatives:
i. Bengal Chemicals Factory
ii. Steam Navigation Company
iii. Dawn Society
iv. Swadesh Bandhab Samiti
Associated Leaders:
a. V.O. Chidambaram Pillai
b. Prafulla Chandra Ray
c. Ashwini Kumar Datta
d. Satish Chandra Mukherjee
Choose the correct option:

Q638
Modern Indian HistoryIndian National Movement Chronology

Arrange the following historical events in the correct Chronological order.
I. Death of Bal Gangadhar Tilak
II. Formation of the Swaraj Party by C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru
III. Self-Respect Movement by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker
IV. Chauri Chaura incident during the Non-Cooperation Movement

Q639
Modern Indian HistoryShimla Deputation & Formation of Muslim League

Why was the Shimla deputation (1906) prominent for the rise of the Muslim League in India?

Q640
Modern Indian HistoryKhilafat Movement

Who were the two primary brothers who founded the 'All India Khilafat Committee' in 1919?

Q641
Modern Indian HistoryQuit India Movement & Parallel Governments

In which of the following places was a 'Parallel Government' (Prati Sarkar) formed by Nana Patil during the Quit India Movement?

Q642
Modern Indian HistoryIndian Independence Act 1947

On which of the following dates the 'Indian Independence Act-1947' was given the British Royal Assent, thereby giving legal effect to the Mountbatten Plan?

Q643
Basic MathematicsProbability & Bayes' Theorem

At a doctor's clinic, 8% of patients with liver disease are alcoholics. 6% of all patients are alcoholics, and 12% have liver disease. What's the probability a patient has liver disease if they are alcoholic?

Q644
Basic MathematicsProbability

Two fair dice are rolled. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers rolled is either 7 or 11?

Q645
Basic MathematicsProbability

Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 5?

Q646
Basic MathematicsProbability

In a lottery, there are 10 prizes and 25 blanks. A lottery is drawn at random. What is the probability of getting a prize?

Q647
Basic MathematicsAverages (Cricket Statistics)

A cricketer has a batting average of 50 runs over 40 innings. The difference between his highest and lowest scores is 172 runs. If the highest and lowest scores are removed, the average of the remaining 38 innings is 48. What was the cricketer's highest score?

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