Law of Demand & Supply, Inflation, National Income (GDP, GNP, NNP), Monetary & Fiscal Policies, Reserve Bank of India (RBI), Economic Reforms, and Union Budget.
GST is a consumption of goods and service tax based on:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Destination)
GST is a destination-based tax on consumption of goods and services, meaning the tax revenue goes to the consuming state rather than the producing state.
Q2
Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation
A Finance Bill becomes the Finance Act when it is passed by:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both House of Parliament and signed by President.)
A Finance Bill becomes the Finance Act after it is passed by both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) and receives the formal assent (signature) of the President of India.
Q3
Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation
Income which accrues or arises outside India & is also received outside India is taxable in the case of:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Resident and Ordinary Resident)
Under Indian income tax law, global income (income accruing/arising and received outside India) is taxable only for individuals who are Resident and Ordinarily Resident (ROR).
Q4
Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation (GST)
Which of the following is/are included in the definition of "Goods" as defined under section 2(52) of the CGST Act, 2017?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Actionable claim)
Section 2(52) of the CGST Act, 2017 defines 'goods' to exclude money and securities but specifically includes actionable claims, growing crops, grass, etc.
Q5
Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation
The amount payable at the time of closure or opting out of the National Pension Scheme referred to in section 80CCD shall be exempt to the extent of _____ of the total amount payable.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (40%)
Under the Income Tax Act, at the time of closure or exit from the NPS, the exemption was initially set to 40% of the total amount payable under Section 10(12A). Although it was later raised to 60%, the question features the legacy 40% value in the options which was marked as the key by JKSSB.
Q6
Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation
Assertion (A): If the interest is payable outside India, tax must be deducted at source. Reason (R): If tax has not been deducted at source, the amount paid as interest will not be allowed as a deduction in computing business income.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).)
Both are correct. Section 40(a)(i) mandates that if interest is payable outside India, tax must be deducted at source (TDS). If tax is not deducted, the interest expense is disallowed as a deduction, making R the correct explanation of A.
Q7
General EconomicsEconomics
Which of the below statements is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (When economists study a market's price, their main goal is to figure out why the price is what it is and how it might change.)
Statement D is correct. Statement A is wrong because Microeconomics studies individual behaviors (Macroeconomics studies the overall economy). Statement B is wrong for the opposite reason. Statement C is wrong because governments can regulate prices via caps/floors.
Q8
General EconomicsEconomics
What is the meaning of a 'Mixed Economy'?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Both the public and private sectors are involved)
A mixed economy is an economic system that blends elements of a market economy (private sector) with elements of a planned economy (public/state sector). India is a prime example.
Q9
General EconomicsEconomics
Which of the following is the relation that the law of demand defines?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Price and quantity of a commodity)
The Law of Demand states that, other things being equal (ceteris paribus), the quantity demanded of a commodity is inversely related to its price.
Q10
General EconomicsEconomics
What is Gross Domestic Product?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The monetary value of all finished goods and services made within a country during a specific period.)
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the total monetary or market value of all finished goods and services produced within a country's borders during a specific time period (usually annually).
Q11
General EconomicsEconomics
The 'Agreement on Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT)' is related to which institution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (World Trade Organization)
The Agreement on Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT Agreement) is an international treaty administered by the World Trade Organization (WTO) to ensure regulations/standards do not create unnecessary obstacles to trade.
Q12
General EconomicsEconomics
Commercial Paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Promissory Note)
Commercial Paper (CP) is an unsecured, short-term money market instrument issued by highly-rated corporations in the form of a promissory note.
Q13
General EconomicsEconomics
Bank rate is the rate at which the RBI extends credit to the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Commercial Banks)
Bank Rate is the official rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) provides long-term loans and rediscounts bills for commercial banks without requiring collateral.
Q14
General EconomicsEconomics
Which five-year plan of India was based on the Mahalanobis model?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Second)
The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961), drafted by Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis, focused on rapid industrialization and heavy basic industries.
Q15
General EconomicsEconomics
Which is NOT one of the four main factors of production?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Manufacturing)
The four classical factors of production are Land, Labour, Capital, and Entrepreneurship. Manufacturing is a production process/sector, not a fundamental factor of production.
Q16
General EconomicsEconomics
What does the Lorenz curve represent?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Income distribution)
The Lorenz curve is a graphical representation developed by Max O. Lorenz in 1905 to show the distribution of income or wealth within an economy (inequality representation).
Q17
Typewritten & Printed DocumentsElasticity
Hooke's Law describes the relationship between stress and:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Strain)
Hooke's Law states that within the elastic limit of a material, the stress applied is directly proportional to the strain produced.
Q18
Organic ChemistryIndian Economy
Which of the following taxes are abolished by the Goods and Services Tax?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (VAT)
VAT (Value Added Tax) is an indirect tax that was abolished and subsumed under the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in 2017. Property tax and Corporation tax are direct taxes and remain outside GST.
Q19
Physical ChemistryIndian Economy
Hundies are normally
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bills of Exchanges)
Hundies are traditional financial instruments used in the Indian subcontinent for trade and credit transactions, serving as bills of exchange in informal banking.
Q20
Physical ChemistryIndian Economy
The term HUF is frequently found in taxation system in India, what does HUF stands for?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Hindu Undivided Family)
HUF stands for Hindu Undivided Family. It is recognized as a separate entity for assessment under the Indian Income Tax Act.
Q21
General Knowledge & AwarenessEconomy
Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining a sound and efficient accounting and financial reporting system in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The Controller General of Accounts)
The Controller General of Accounts (CGA), in the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance, is responsible for establishing and maintaining a sound accounting system in the Union Government.
Q22
General Awareness & Current AffairsEconomy
Government strategy regarding exporters and importers is called
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Commercial policy)
Commercial policy (also known as trade policy) refers to the regulations and agreements that control imports and exports between countries.
Q23
📚 Social ScienceIndian Economy
How many times in a year does the RBI release the Monetary Policy?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (6)
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) releases its monetary policy bi-monthly, which is 6 times in a financial year.
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. The intake of a water supply scheme should
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Be located downstream of waste water disposal point)
The intake of a municipal water supply must always be located upstream of any wastewater disposal point to avoid collecting contaminated sewage water. Hence, locating it downstream is incorrect.
Q25
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KEconomy & Agriculture
Jammu and Kashmir is the leading producer of which high-value spice crop in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Saffron)
Pampore region of Jammu and Kashmir (often called the Saffron Town of Kashmir) is famous for producing high-quality saffron, making J&K the leading producer in India.
Q26
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KEconomy & Agriculture
Who is widely recognized as the 'Father of the Green Revolution' in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (M. S. Swaminathan)
M. S. Swaminathan is known as the Father of the Green Revolution in India for his leadership and role in introducing high-yielding varieties of wheat and rice.
Which among the following causes turbidity in water?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Suspended Solids)
Turbidity (cloudiness or haziness in water) is caused by individual non-settling suspended solids, fine clay, silt, colloidal matter, and micro-particles that scatter and absorb light rays.
The BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of a wastewater is a measure of
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Amount of oxygen required by bacteria to decompose the organic matter in the wastewater)
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is the empirical measure of the quantity of dissolved oxygen utilized by aerobic microorganisms during the biochemical oxidation and decomposition of biodegradable organic matter in water.
Q29
General Knowledge & Current AffairsMacroeconomics & Inflation
Which of the following most closely defines stagflation in an economy?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sluggish economic growth with high inflation)
Stagflation is an economic condition characterized by stagnant or sluggish economic growth, high unemployment, and persistently high inflation.
Q30
General Knowledge & Current AffairsGST Structure in India
Consider the following pairs of types of GST along with their respective applications. 1. SGST - is applicable on intrastate (within the same state) transactions 2. CGST - is levied by the state on the goods and/or services that are purchased or sold within the state. 3. IGST - is applied on the interstate (between 2 states) supply of goods and/or services as well as on imports and exports. 4. UTGST - is levied on the supply of goods and/or services in the Union Territories (UTs) of India. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 3 and 4 only)
Pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched. Pair 2 is incorrect because CGST (Central Goods and Services Tax) is levied by the Central Government, not the State Government.
Q31
💼 Business & EconomyIndian Corporate Leaders & Founders
Who is the founder of the biotech Indian company called 'Biocon'?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Kiran Mazumdar Shaw)
Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw is the pioneer Indian entrepreneur who founded Biocon Limited in 1978 in Bengaluru, building it into one of Asia's largest biopharmaceutical enterprises.
Q32
🏦 Banking & FinanceBanking Abbreviations & Codes
In the context of the banking sector, what does 'F' stand for in IFSC?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Financial)
IFSC stands for Indian Financial System Code, an 11-character alphanumeric code used to uniquely identify all bank branches participating in online fund transfers (NEFT/RTGS/IMPS).
Q33
📊 EconomicsSectors of the Economy
Banking sector comes under which of the following sectors?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Service sector)
Banking, insurance, finance, and tourism provide commercial services and are classified under the Tertiary / Service Sector of the economy.
Q34
🏦 Banking & FinanceBanking History & New Private Banks
Which of the following is the recently opened bank in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (IDFC)
IDFC Bank (now IDFC FIRST Bank) was granted a universal banking license by the RBI and commenced commercial banking operations in October 2015 alongside Bandhan Bank.
Q35
🏦 Banking & FinanceCurrency & Coinage in India
Who is responsible for the supply of coins in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ministry of finance)
Under the Coinage Act, 2011, coins of all denominations (and the one-rupee note) are minted and supplied by the Ministry of Finance, Government of India, and put into circulation through the RBI.
Q36
🏦 Banking & FinancePublic vs Private Sector Banks
Which among the following is not a public sector bank?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (City Union Bank)
City Union Bank (headquartered in Kumbakonam, Tamil Nadu) is a scheduled Private Sector Bank, whereas the others are public sector banks.
Q37
📊 EconomicsGovernment Budget & Deficits
Which of the following is the definition of a budget deficit?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Excess of the total expenditure over the total receipts)
A Budget Deficit (or overall budgetary deficit) is defined as the excess of Total Government Expenditure over Total Government Receipts (both revenue and capital).
Q38
📊 EconomicsInternational Trade & Balance of Trade
Balance of trade is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Difference between export and import of goods.)
Balance of Trade (BOT) is the financial difference between the monetary value of merchandise goods exported and merchandise goods imported by a nation over a given period.
Q39
📊 EconomicsTaxation: Surcharge and Cess
The temporary tax levied to obtain additional revenue is called
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Surcharge)
A Surcharge is an additional temporary percentage charge levied on an existing tax to yield extra revenue for general purposes.
Q40
📊 Economics & Union BudgetUnion Budget 2024-25 Capex
What is the amount of capital expenditure (capex) outlay announced by the Indian government in the union budget 2024-25?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rs. 11.11 lakh crore)
In the Union Budget 2024-25, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced a record capital expenditure (Capex) outlay of Rs. 11,11,111 crore (Rs. 11.11 lakh crore), accounting for 3.4% of India's GDP.
Passive forecasting is applied in a static/stable operating environment where future patterns are assumed to follow past trends without substantial active strategic intervention.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: List-I: P. Propeller, Q. Francis turbine, R. Kaplan turbine, S. Pelton turbine List-II: 1. Inward flow reaction, 2. Tangential flow impulse, 3. Axial flow reaction with fixed vanes, 4. Axial flow reaction with adjustable vanes
⚙️ Mechanical EngineeringThermodynamics: Gas Turbine Brayton Cycle
The Brayton cycle is commonly used in:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Gas turbines)
The Brayton (or Joule) cycle is the theoretical thermodynamic operating cycle for open and closed-loop Gas Turbine power plants and jet propulsion aircraft engines.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Kinetic energy into mechanical energy)
A hydraulic turbine converts the hydraulic fluid energy (kinetic and pressure potential energy of water) into rotational mechanical energy at the turbine shaft to drive an electrical generator.
Q45
General Awareness & ScienceSectors of Indian Economy
Consider the following pairs: 1. Primary — a. Banking 2. Secondary — b. Car manufacturing 3. Tertiary — c. Fishing Which of the following pair is correct?
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KSatellite Launch Trajectories & Orbital Mechanics
Assertion (A): Artificial Satellites are always launched from the earth in the eastwards direction. Reason (R): The earth rotates from west to east and so the satellite attains the escape velocity. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A is correct, but R is incorrect.)
Assertion (A) is correct: Satellites are launched eastward to harness Earth's eastward rotational linear speed boost (maximum near the equator). Reason (R) is incorrect because Earth's rotational boost helps attain orbital insertion velocity (~7.8 km/s), NOT escape velocity (11.2 km/s).
Q47
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KNPCI vs RBI Regulatory Roles
Which of the following is NOT an objective of NPCI?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To regulate the payment and settlement systems in India.)
Regulating payment and settlement systems in India is the statutory constitutional function of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI under the PSS Act 2007). National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is an operational utility company (running UPI, IMPS, RuPay), not a statutory regulator.
Which one of the following best describes the term 'Blue Economy 2.0', highlighted in the Union Budget 2024?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sustainable development related to oceans, seas, and coastal ecosystems)
Blue Economy 2.0 focuses on the sustainable economic utilization, conservation, and regeneration of marine, ocean, and coastal resources, including maritime aquaculture and coastal tourism.
Q49
Mental Ability / ReasoningRBI Regulatory Actions on Payments Banks
Recently in early 2024, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed supervisory restrictions under Section 35A on which payment bank?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Paytm Payment Bank)
In January–February 2024, the RBI directed Paytm Payments Bank Limited (PPBL) to stop accepting deposits, credit transactions, and top-ups due to persistent regulatory non-compliance.
Q50
Mental Ability / ReasoningRBI QCVM Pilot Project
The QR Code-based Coin Vending Machine (QCVM), piloted by the Reserve Bank of India, dispenses coins using which technology?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Unified Payment Interface (UPI))
The RBI's QCVM machines allow bank customers to scan a dynamic QR code using any UPI application to debit their bank account and dispense physical currency coins.
Q51
Basic EnglishSectors of the Economy
Which of the following economic activities comes under the Tertiary (Services) Sector of the economy?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Tourism & Hospitality)
Tourism and hospitality provide intangible consumer services and belong to the Tertiary sector. (Mining is primary, and manufacturing is secondary).
Q52
Basic EnglishTaxes Subsumed under GST
Which of the following indirect taxes was subsumed and abolished upon the nationwide rollout of the Goods and Services Tax (GST)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Value Added Tax (VAT))
The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act (GST) subsumed 17 major central and state indirect taxes, including State VAT/Sales Tax, Central Excise, and Service Tax.
Q53
General English & ComprehensionJ&K Economy & GST Implementation
When was the Goods and Services Tax (GST) implemented in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (July 8, 2017)
While GST was rolled out across the rest of India on July 1, 2017, Jammu and Kashmir officially adopted and implemented GST on July 8, 2017, following the passage of the J&K GST Act, 2017 by the state legislature.
How does chronic pain often impact a person's psychological well-being?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It can lead to feelings of helplessness and social withdrawal.)
Chronic pain profoundly impairs mental health, frequently generating learned helplessness, depression, anxiety, sleep disturbances, and social withdrawal.
Q55
Radiotherapy Equipment (Linac, Telecobalt)GDPR & Healthcare Data Privacy
What is the main concern addressed by GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) in data privacy.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ensuring data privacy)
GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) establishes comprehensive legal frameworks to ensure personal data privacy, consent, and protection for individuals.
In the RTOG grading scale, which grade corresponds to severe erythema and moist desquamation caused by radiation therapy?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Grade 3)
Under the RTOG Acute Radiation Morbidity Scoring Criteria for skin: - Grade 1: Faint/dull erythema, dry desquamation - Grade 2: Moderate to brisk erythema, patchy moist desquamation - Grade 3: Confluent, severe moist desquamation, pitting edema - Grade 4: Ulceration, hemorrhage, necrosis.
Q57
Organic Chemistry, Stereochemistry & Reaction IntermediatesMolecular Orbital Aromaticity
What is the molecular orbital description of aromaticity and antiaromaticity?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Aromatic compounds have electrons in bonding molecular orbitals and antiaromatic compounds have electrons in anti-bonding/non-bonding orbitals)
In Frost circle MO diagrams, aromatic species possess completely filled, closed-shell bonding molecular orbitals, whereas antiaromatic (4nπ) species have unpaired electrons in degenerate non-bonding or anti-bonding orbitals.
Q58
Applied Behaviour Analysis (ABA) & Community-Based Rehabilitation (CBR)Token Economy Systems
Token economies are being used in a psychiatric rehabilitation facility to effectively maintain or change a broad range of behaviors. What is the underlying concept of behaviourism which is operating here?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Contingency management)
A token economy is a formal Contingency Management system based on operant conditioning, where tokens earned as secondary reinforcers for target behaviors are exchanged for backup reinforcers.
Q59
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetySectors of Economy
Which of the following is a characteristic of the primary sector of the economy?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Extraction of raw materials from nature)
The Primary Sector comprises economic activities that directly harvest and extract natural resources (agriculture, forestry, fishing, mining).
Q60
General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyNational Income Economics
What is the use of Net National Product (NNP)?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (To calculate per capita income)
Net National Product (NNP at factor cost) represents true National Income; dividing NNP by total population gives the country's Per Capita Income.
Q61
Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Limit Tests & Instrumental AnalysisTurbidimetry vs Nephelometry
What would you use to measure the intensity of light transmitted through a solution containing suspended particles?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Turbidimetry)
Turbidimetry measures the reduction in transmitted light intensity passing directly through a turbid suspension along the primary optical axis (0∘).
Q62
Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & Drug SARBarbiturate Synthesis
Which of the following is the precursor of barbituric acid?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Diethylmalonate)
Barbituric acid is synthesized by the base-catalyzed condensation of Diethyl Malonate with Urea.
Q63
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessPublic Finance & Budgeting
What is the primary purpose of a budget?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To allocate resource effectively)
The fundamental purpose of a financial budget is the strategic, systematic allocation of finite economic resources to accomplish prioritized organizational or national goals.
Q64
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessGoods and Services Tax (GST)
IGST is payable when the supply is?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Inter-state)
Under the GST regime, Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) is levied by the Central Government on all Inter-State taxable supplies of goods and services as well as imports.
Which section of the Reserve Bank of India has been amended after the commencement of the Information Technology Act, 2000 to include electronic fund transfer services like RTGS, NEFT, etc.?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Section 58 (2))
The Third Schedule of the IT Act, 2000 amended Section 58(2) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 to empower RBI to regulate electronic fund transfers (NEFT, RTGS).
Q66
Pharmaceutical Analysis, Limit Tests & Quality ControlClinical Applications of Turbidimetry
What is the main clinical use of Turbidimetry
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Determination of concentration of total proteins in biological fluids.)
Turbidimetry is clinically employed for the rapid quantitative determination of Total Protein concentrations in biological fluids (CSF, urine, plasma) and immunoturbidimetric assays.
Q67
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessFive Year Plans & Blue Revolution
Blue revolution was first launched in India during which of the Five Year Plan?
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($7^{\text{th}}$ Five Year Plan)
The Blue Revolution (Neel Kranti Mission for aquaculture and fisheries development) was officially launched in India during the 7th Five Year Plan (1985–1990) through the Fish Farmers Development Agency (FFDA).
Q68
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessMacroeconomics Concepts
Which of the following best describes the Phillips Curve in macroeconomics?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It shows the trade off between inflation and unemployment)
The Phillips Curve (A.W. Phillips, 1958) is an economic concept stating that inflation and unemployment have a stable, inverse relationship (trade-off).
Q69
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessBanking & NBFC Regulations
Which type of NBFC activities are not eligible for bank credit?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Investments in shares and debentures)
Under Reserve Bank of India (RBI) prudential guidelines, commercial bank financing is strictly prohibited for NBFC activities involving investments in shares, debentures, and speculative real estate.
Q70
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessInternational Trade Economics
Consider a scenario in which a small country imposes a tariff on a product. Which of the statements below is false?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The surplus of the producer of the goods will decrease.)
When a tariff is imposed on imported goods, domestic prices rise, causing domestic Producer Surplus to INCREASE (not decrease). Thus, Statement B ('The surplus of the producer of the goods will decrease') is FALSE.
Consider the following pairs: i. Reaction turbine ii. Impulse turbine iii. Runner iv. Turbines
1. The flow energy is converted into kinetic energy through a nozzle before the liquid impacts the runner 2. Moving component of a turbine 3. Extract useful energy from the water flowing in a piping system 4. Uses both flow energy and kinetic energy
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3)
i -> 4 (Reaction turbine: uses pressure and kinetic energy), ii -> 1 (Impulse turbine: nozzle converts all head to kinetic jet), iii -> 2 (Runner: rotating wheel with blades), iv -> 3 (Turbines: hydraulic machines extracting fluid energy). Correct match: i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3.
Which of the statement is incorrect with respect to Francis turbine
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The pressure at the exit of the runner is always above atmospheric.)
Statement C is incorrect: In a Francis reaction turbine, fluid expands through the runner and exits into a draft tube at Sub-Atmospheric (vacuum / negative pressure) to maximize effective head extraction.
Consider the following statements with respect to the Reaction turbines: I. The flow is contained in a volute II. Adjustable guide vanes are situated downstream of the runner III. When the fluid travels through the runner, angular momentum is reduced IV. There is no diffuser in this turbine Which of the following statement is/are correct:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I and III)
Statements I and III are correct: (I) Reaction turbines are enclosed in a spiral volute casing; (III) Runner blades extract torque by reducing the angular momentum of fluid according to Euler's turbine equation. (Guide vanes are upstream, and draft tubes act as diffusers).
Q74
Electrical Machines & Power SystemsPower Plant Economics Matching
Match the two lists and choose the correct answer from the code given below: List -I (Name of Power Plant): w. Thermal x. Nuclear y. Hydro z. Diesel
List-II (Plant Features): i. High operating cost ii. High capital cost iii. High plant life iv. High fuel transportation cost
Choose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (w-iv, x-ii, y-iii, z-i)
w -> iv (Thermal: huge coal transportation logistics), x -> ii (Nuclear: massive containment capital cost), y -> iii (Hydro: civil dams have 80–100+ year life), z -> i (Diesel: expensive diesel fuel operating costs). Correct match: w-iv, x-ii, y-iii, z-i.
Arrange the products of vitamin C in sequential order of oxidation: I. L-Ascorbic Acid II. Diketo-L-Gulonic Acid III. Dehydro-L-Ascorbic Acid Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I, III, II)
Oxidative pathway of Vitamin C: L-Ascorbic Acid (I) reversibly oxidizes to Dehydro-L-Ascorbic Acid (III), which then undergoes irreversible hydrolytic ring-opening to Diketo-L-Gulonic Acid (II). Correct sequence: I, III, II.
Sorbic acid and its potassium/sodium salts are wide-spectrum antimycotic preservatives specifically potent against Yeasts and Molds in cheese, bakery products, and beverages across pH 3.0 to 6.5.
Vitamin C is chemically known as L-Ascorbic Acid (C6H8O6), a water-soluble enediol lactone antioxidant and antiscorbutic factor.
Q78
Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringTurbidity Principles
Consider the following pairs: 1. Turbidity: Measure of the extent to which light is absorbed or scattered by suspended matter 2. Turbidity: Measure of the extent to which light is absorbed or scattered by dissolved matter 3. Turbidity: Turbidity is not a direct quantitative measure of suspended solids 4. Turbidity: Soaps and detergents do not produce stable colloids that cause turbidity Which of the above pairs match correctly?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1 and 3)
Pairs 1 and 3 are correct: Turbidity is an optical property measuring light scattered/absorbed by suspended particulate matter in Nephelometric Turbidity Units (NTU - 1), and because scattering depends on particle shape and refractive index, turbidity is not a direct quantitative mass concentration of total suspended solids (3). Correct: 1 and 3.
Q79
Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringOxygen Demand Parameters Matching
Consider the following pairs: Set-A: 1. BOD 2. COD 3. TOC 4. Ultimate BOD
Set-B: i. Measure of natural organic matter ii. BOD equal to the initial oxygen equivalent of the water iii. Organic matter chemically oxidized iv. Amount of oxygen consumed during microbial utilization of organics v. Conversion of substrates to cells
Which one among the pairs given below is correct:
💡Correct Answer: Option B ((1)-(iv), (2)-(iii), (3)-(i), (4)-(ii))
1 -> iv (BOD: dissolved oxygen consumed by aerobic microorganisms metabolizing organic matter), 2 -> iii (COD: oxygen required to chemically oxidize organic compounds using dichromate), 3 -> i (TOC: direct instrumental combustion measure of total organic carbon), 4 -> ii (Ultimate BOD L0: total stoichiometric oxygen required for complete bio-oxidation). Correct match: (1)-(iv), (2)-(iii), (3)-(i), (4)-(ii).
Which of the following is an example of ultra short acting barbiturates?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Thiopental sodium)
Thiopental Sodium (Sodium Pentothal) is a classic Ultra-Short-Acting Thiobarbiturate intravenous anesthetic with onset of ~20 seconds and duration of 5–10 minutes due to rapid redistribution into skeletal muscle and adipose tissue.
Q81
Medicinal Chemistry, Pharmacology & PharmacognosyBarbituric Acid SAR
If both the hydrogens at 5th position of barbituric acid are not replaced, then it leads to:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Tautomerization)
Unsubstituted barbituric acid (having hydrogens at C-5) undergoes extensive Keto-Enol and Lactim-Lactam Tautomerization, producing an acidic, fully ionized compound that cannot cross the blood-brain barrier and possesses zero central nervous system depressant/hypnotic activity.
Q82
General Knowledge, Physiology & Current AffairsEconomics (REER)
What does an increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicate for a country's economy?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Overvaluation of the currency, making exports costlier)
An increase/appreciation in a country's Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an Overvaluation of the domestic currency relative to trading partners, making exports more expensive and reducing international export competitiveness.
Q83
General Knowledge, Physiology & Current AffairsBanking Financial Systems (RTGS)
What is the full form of RTGS in banking?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Real-Time Gross Settlement)
RTGS in financial systems stands for Real-Time Gross Settlement, a continuous electronic interbank funds transfer mechanism where money is transferred and settled instantaneously on an individual order basis.
Q84
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTEconomics (Consumer Sovereignty)
What does "consumer sovereignty" in a free market economy refer to?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Consumer preferences guide the production of goods and services.)
Consumer Sovereignty is an economic principle in a free-market economy asserting that consumers dictate what goods and services are produced through their purchasing preferences and market demand.
Q85
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTEconomy of J&K
Which sector is the primary contributor to Jammu and Kashmir's economy?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Services)
The Services Sector (tertiary sector, including tourism, trade, transport, banking, and public administration) is the largest contributor to J&K's Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP), accounting for over 54–56% of the economy.
Q86
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTTaxation Structure in India
Match the different types of taxes in India with their corresponding impositions: Different types of taxes: i) Income Tax ii) Central Goods and Service Tax (CGST) iii) Customs Duty iv) Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST)
Imposition of tax: 1) Levied on the import and export of goods 2) Levied by the central government on the intrastate movement of goods and services. 3) Levied when there is an inter-state transfer of goods and services. 4) Levied on the income of individuals and organisations.
Choose the Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3)
Tax Impositions: i -> 4 (Income Tax: levied on individual/corporate taxable income), ii -> 2 (CGST: central tax on intra-state supplies), iii -> 1 (Customs Duty: tax on import/export across borders), iv -> 3 (IGST: tax on inter-state supply of goods/services). Correct match: i-4, ii-2, iii-1, iv-3.
Q87
Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentPublic Policy & NITI Aayog
NITI Aayog can transform the development agenda of India by:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
The National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog, est. 2015) acts as the premier policy think tank promoting cooperative federalism through bottom-up planning, citizen-centric pro-active governance, empowerment of marginalized groups, and evidence-based policy inputs ⟹ All of the above.
Which of these is a low demand tactic used in hotel revenue management?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Options A, B, C)
During periods of low occupancy/demand, revenue managers deploy yield tactics including: removing minimum length-of-stay restrictions (A), designing discounted value packages and promotions (B), and encouraging room upgrades to stimulate booking volume ⟹ Options A, B, C. Choice D.
Q89
Hotel Administration, HRACC Star Classification & TimeshareHotel Financial Budgetary Control
Which among these is an advantage of budgetary control in hotel management?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Budgetary control in hotel management establishes accountability across departments (B), enforces cost efficiency and revenue targets (A), and serves as an early-warning performance signal comparing actuals to forecasts ⟹ All of the above. Choice D.
Q90
Hotel Administration, HRACC Star Classification & TimeshareMaster Budget in Hospitality
The summary of all functional and departmental budgets prepared in an organization is called the:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Master budget)
The Master Budget is the comprehensive, consolidated financial blueprint of an organization that aggregates all individual operating, departmental, sales, capital expenditure, and cash budgets into a unified whole.
Q91
Indian Polity, History & GeographySectors of Economy (Secondary Sector)
The ________ sector covers economic activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing associated with industrial activity:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Secondary Sector)
The Secondary Sector includes industrial and manufacturing activities that process raw agricultural or mineral materials from the primary sector into finished goods.
Q92
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsIndian Economy & Taxation (GST Council)
Which of the following are part of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council of India? I. Cabinet Ministers of Union Government II. Union Finance Minister III. Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance IV. The Minister in charge of Finance for each state or any minister nominated by the state government Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II, III, and IV)
Under Article 279A of the Indian Constitution, the GST Council consists of: Union Finance Minister (Chairperson - II), Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue/Finance (Member - III), and the State Finance/Taxation Ministers nominated by each State/UT (Members - IV). Union Cabinet Ministers generally (I) are not members. Correct: II, III, and IV (Choice C).
Q93
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsGST Genesis & Kelkar Task Force
Who initially proposed the idea of implementing a nationwide GST in India, and in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The Kelkar Task Force on Indirect Taxes in 2000)
The concept of a nationwide Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India was first mooted by Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee's administration in 2000, which set up the Empowered Committee and was formally recommended by the Kelkar Task Force on Implementation of the FRBM Act in 2000/2004.
Q94
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Banking History
Who among the following was the first Indian Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (CD Deshmukh)
Sir Chintaman Dwarakanath Deshmukh (C.D. Deshmukh) was appointed as the first Indian Governor of the Reserve Bank of India on 11 August 1943 (Sir Osborne Smith was the first British governor).
Q95
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceEconomics & Econometrics
Econometrics is concerned with which of the following aspects? (A) Empirical support to economic theory (B) Quantitative analysis of economic data (C) Use of tools of mathematics and statistical inference (D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Econometrics is the quantitative application of statistical methods and mathematical economic models to empirical data to test economic theories ⟹ All of the above. Choice D.
Q96
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceInternational Trade Economics
The Terms of Trade (TOT) of a country are said to be favorable when the prices of its exports are ________ relatively to the prices of its imports:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (High)
Terms of Trade is defined as the ratio of export prices to import prices (TOT=PmPx×100). It is favorable when export prices are relatively High compared to import prices.
Q97
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceMacroeconomics (Deflation)
A persistent and sustained fall in the general price level of goods and services in an economy is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Deflation)
Deflation is a sustained decrease in the general price level of goods and services, occurring when the inflation rate falls below 0% (negative inflation).
The international 'carbon credit' and cap-and-trade market system allows countries and corporations to: (A) Buy the right to pollute in exchange for forest conservation/offsets (B) Set a cap on carbon emissions and trade emission allowances among countries (C) Receive credits from the UN for reducing emissions (D) Both A and B are correct
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Both A and B are correct.)
Under the Kyoto Protocol's Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) and compliance emissions trading schemes, an overall cap is placed on emissions (B), and regulated entities can trade carbon credits or purchase verified emission reductions from forestry/renewable projects (A) ⟹ Both A and B are correct. Choice D.
Q99
Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryWater Pollution & Oxygen Demand (BOD vs COD)
In a water sample, COD is higher than BOD due to: 1. Presence of synthetic chemicals that are non-biodegradable 2. Faster oxidation of organic matter in COD testing 3. Higher microbial decomposition under test conditions Choose the correct statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 and 2 only)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) uses boiling dichromate acid (K2Cr2O7+H2SO4), which chemically oxidizes virtually all organic matter—both biodegradable and refractory/non-biodegradable synthetic pollutants (1)—and achieves complete stoichiometric oxidation within 2 hours compared to the slow 5-day biological degradation of BOD (2). Statement 3 is false because COD is a chemical oxidation test with zero microbial decomposition. Hence, 1 and 2 only. Choice A.
Q100
Stereochemistry, Molecular Structure & Symmetry ElementsMolecular Orbital Theory of Aromaticity
Which of the following statements correctly describe the molecular orbital (MO) theory of aromaticity and antiaromaticity? 1. According to MO theory, aromatic compounds have a completely filled set of bonding molecular orbitals, leading to delocalization and stabilization. 2. Antiaromatic compounds are characterized by partially filled or degenerate molecular orbitals, resulting in instability. 3. In a cyclic π-system, aromaticity is associated with the presence of 4n+2π-electrons, while antiaromaticity occurs with 4nπ-electrons. 4. Nonaromatic compounds lack cyclic conjugation and do not exhibit molecular orbital stabilization or destabilization due to π-electrons.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All statements are correct)
According to Frost circle and Hückel Molecular Orbital (HMO) theory: 1) Aromatic molecules have a closed-shell electronic configuration with all bonding MOs completely paired and filled. 2) Planar monocyclic 4n systems have two unpaired electrons in non-bonding degenerate orbitals (open-shell diradical character, causing antiaromatic instability). 3) 4n+2 gives closed shell; 4n gives open shell/degenerate occupation. 4) Nonaromatic systems lack continuous cyclic overlap. All statements are correct.
Q101
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsOrbital Mechanics & Kepler's Laws
A planet's orbit is an ellipse with the Sun at one focus. What happens if the eccentricity of the orbit becomes very close to 1?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The orbit becomes highly elongated)
The orbital eccentricity e measures deviation from circularity: e=0 is a circle, 0<e<1 is an ellipse, and as e→1, the ellipse becomes highly elongated and flattened with the apoapsis moving far from the periapsis.
Q102
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsKepler's Laws & Orbital Mechanics
A satellite orbits the Earth for a time period of 10 hours at a certain distance from the Earth's surface. If the distance between the satellite and Earth is increased to 8 times the original distance, how will the time period of the satellite change?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The new time period will be 226 hours)
By Kepler's Third Law: T2∝r3⟹T2=T1(r1r2)3/2. Given r2/r1=8: T2=10×83/2=10×(8)3=10×(22)3=10×162=160×1.4142≈226.27 hours.
Q103
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsAttitude and Orbit Control (AOCS)
Which of the following attitude control methods is most commonly used for precise satellite orientation without using propellant?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Reaction wheels)
Reaction wheels (and momentum wheels) are electrically driven flywheels that exchange angular momentum with the spacecraft body, enabling high-precision three-axis attitude pointing and slewing without expending consumable chemical propellant.
Q104
Satellite Communications & Space SystemsSatellite Link Budget
Which of the following statements are correct about a link budget? I. A link budget is the total of all the signal gains and losses along the path. II. A link budget is the cost associated with setting up the transmitter and receiver link. III. A link budget helps compute SNR at both the satellite and ground station receivers for a specific modulation scheme. Choose the correct statement:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I and III)
A link budget is a technical accounting of all transmission gains (transmitter power, antenna gains) and attenuation losses (free-space path loss, atmospheric loss, feeder loss) along the RF path (Statement I), used to calculate carrier-to-noise ratio (C/N0) and SNR to guarantee signal reception (Statement III). Statement II refers to financial budgeting, not an RF link budget.
Q105
Engineering Drawing, Agricultural Schemes & General AgricultureAgricultural Economics & MSP
Which one of the following bodies recommends the minimum support price for agricultural crops?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (CACP)
The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), an expert advisory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, is mandated to analyze input costs, market trends, and inter-crop parity to recommend Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for 22 mandated agricultural crops plus Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for sugarcane.
Q106
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KJ&K Agriculture & Economy
Purple revolution in Jammu and Kashmir is associated with which crop?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Lavender)
The 'Purple Revolution' (Aroma Mission launched by CSIR-IIIM Jammu) in Jammu & Kashmir refers to the transformative commercial cultivation of Lavender, with Doda and Bhaderwah emerging as national hubs of lavender oil distillation.
Which of the following options is correctly represent the basic variations between (i) Airflow and (ii) Fuel consumption, when an "air cleaner" of an automobile gets clogged with dirt.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Airflow decreases and Fuel consumption increases)
When the engine air filter becomes clogged with dust, intake restriction chokes the induction tract, causing airflow to decrease. The resulting air starvation causes an excessively rich fuel mixture and poor combustion efficiency, forcing the driver to depress the throttle more and causing fuel consumption to increase.
Q108
EconomicsElasticity of Demand & Revenue
Producers' total revenue will decrease if: A) the price rises and demand is elastic B) income increases and the good is a normal good C) the price falls and demand is elastic D) income falls and the good is an inferior good.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (the price rises and demand is elastic)
When demand is price elastic (|Ed| > 1), the percentage decrease in quantity demanded is greater than the percentage increase in price. Therefore, if price rises, total revenue (TR = P * Q) will decrease.
Q109
EconomicsConsumer Theory & Elasticity
If the cross elasticity of demand between goods A and B is positive, A) the demands for A and B are both price elastic. B) A and B are complements. C) A and B are substitutes. D) the demands for A and B are both price inelastic.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A and B are substitutes.)
Cross price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of quantity demanded of good A to a change in the price of good B. A positive cross elasticity (Ec > 0) means that an increase in the price of good B leads to an increase in demand for good A, which defines substitute goods (e.g., tea and coffee).
Q110
EconomicsMicroeconomics & Consumer Choice
A Consumer has utility function U(X1, X2) = X1^2 * X2. Price of X1 = 1 and Price of X2 = 3 and consumer income is 180. Find the consumer's optimal bundle. A) (120, 20) B) (40, 80) C) (20, 120) D) (80, 40)
💡Correct Answer: Option A ((120, 20))
For a Cobb-Douglas utility function U = X1^a X2^b, the consumer spends a fraction a/(a+b) of income on good 1 and b/(a+b) on good 2. Here, a = 2, b = 1, so a/(a+b) = 2/3 and b/(a+b) = 1/3. Expenditure on X1: P1 X1 = (2/3) 180 = 120 => X1 = 120 / 1 = 120. Expenditure on X2: P2 X2 = (1/3) * 180 = 60 => X2 = 60 / 3 = 20. Hence, the optimal bundle is (120, 20).
Q111
EconomicsProduction Theory & Isoquants
(10, 16) and (12, 14) are two points on an isoquant, where the first input is labour and the second is capital. The rate of substitution of labour for capital between these two points is: A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 10
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1)
Marginal Rate of Technical Substitution (MRTS_LK) is defined as -ΔK / ΔL along an isoquant. Here, L changes from 10 to 12 (ΔL = 2), and K changes from 16 to 14 (ΔK = -2). Thus, rate of substitution = |-ΔK / ΔL| = |-(-2) / 2| = 2 / 2 = 1.
Q112
EconomicsTheory of Production
Suppose, production function for automobiles is given by q = KL. Assume q = 100 and K = 25. If one more unit of labour is used while capital is held constant, marginal product of labour is equal to ______ and average product of labour ______ A) 25; decreases from 25 to 20 automobiles per unit of labour. B) 125; remains unchanged at 25 automobiles per unit of labour. C) 25; remains unchanged at 25 automobiles per unit of labour. D) 25; decreases from 25 to 24 automobiles per unit of labour.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (25; remains unchanged at 25 automobiles per unit of labour.)
Production function is q = K * L. Since K = 25 is held constant, q = 25L. The Marginal Product of Labour is MP_L = dq/dL = K = 25. The Average Product of Labour is AP_L = q/L = 25L/L = 25. Both MP_L and AP_L are constant and equal to 25. Thus, MP_L is 25 and AP_L remains unchanged at 25 automobiles per unit of labour.
Q113
EconomicsCost Theory & Minimization
A firm faces the following long run cost function TC = q^3 - 40q^2 + 450q. Average Cost, AC, will be at its minimum when: A) Q = 10, AC = 20 B) Q = 40, AC = 60 C) Q = 20, AC = 50 D) Q = 40, AC = 10
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Q = 20, AC = 50)
Average Cost AC = TC / q = q^2 - 40q + 450. To find the minimum of AC, take d(AC)/dq = 2q - 40 = 0 => 2q = 40 => q = 20. At q = 20, minimum AC = (20)^2 - 40(20) + 450 = 400 - 800 + 450 = 50. Hence, Q = 20, AC = 50.
Q114
EconomicsMarket Structures
Under which market structure does the firm's demand curve coincide with the market demand curve? A) Perfect Competition B) Monopoly C) Monopolistic Competition D) Oligopoly
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Monopoly)
In a pure Monopoly, the single firm comprises the entire industry. Since there are no rival producers or close substitutes, the individual firm's demand curve is identically the market demand curve (downward-sloping).
Q115
EconomicsPerfect Competition
In the case of a perfectly competitive firm, the A) firm's marginal revenue exceeds the price of the product. B) change in the firm's total revenue equals the price of the product multiplied by the change in quantity sold. C) firm's marginal revenue is less than average revenue. D) price of the product falls sharply when the quantity the firm sells doubles.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (change in the firm's total revenue equals the price of the product multiplied by the change in quantity sold.)
A perfectly competitive firm is a price taker facing a perfectly horizontal demand curve where P = AR = MR. Total revenue is TR = P Q. Since price P is constant, any change in total revenue is ΔTR = P ΔQ (the price multiplied by the change in quantity sold).
Q116
EconomicsMacroeconomics & Economic Policies
Match List A with List B: List - A (I) Fall in general price level (II) Reduction in value of currency (III) Increase in spending by the government (IV) Increase in taxes on traded goods
List - B 1) Devaluation 2) Expansionary policy 3) Deflation 4) Tariff
Choose the correct option: A) (I)-(1), (II)-(3), (III)-(4), (IV)-(2) B) (I)-(2), (II)-(1), (III)-(3), (IV)-(4) C) (I)-(3), (II)-(1), (III)-(2), (IV)-(4) D) (I)-(3), (II)-(1), (III)-(4), (IV)-(2)
💡Correct Answer: Option C ((I)-(3), (II)-(1), (III)-(2), (IV)-(4))
Correct matching: (I) A sustained fall in general price level is Deflation (3); (II) Reduction in value of domestic currency under fixed exchange rate is Devaluation (1); (III) Increase in spending by government is an Expansionary fiscal policy (2); (IV) Increase in taxes levied on imported/traded goods is a Tariff (4). Hence, (I)-(3), (II)-(1), (III)-(2), (IV)-(4) (Option C) is correct.
Q117
EconomicsDevelopment Economics & Income Distribution
Inequality of income is measured by: A) Human development index B) Gini coefficient C) Per capita income D) Physical quality of life index
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Gini coefficient)
The Gini coefficient (derived from the Lorenz curve) is the primary statistical measure used internationally to gauge income or wealth inequality within a nation, ranging from 0 (perfect equality) to 1 (perfect inequality).
Q118
EconomicsIndian Demography & Census
When was the last Census of India conducted? A) 2011 B) 2021 C) 2024 D) 2025
💡Correct Answer: Option A (2011)
The last official decennial Census of India was conducted in the year 2011 (the 15th National Census of India). The 2021 Census was postponed due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
Q119
EconomicsIndian Economy & Reforms
What has been a key factor in India's economic growth in recent decades? A) Strict regulations on foreign investments B) Declining population growth C) Improved business climate D) Reduced emphasis on infrastructure projects
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Improved business climate)
An improved business climate (driven by economic deregulation, ease of doing business reforms, FDI liberalization, and digital infrastructure) has been a central catalyst for India's high economic growth over recent decades.
Q120
EconomicsNational Income Accounting
Suppose, GDP in India in FY 2023-24 is 6,00,000 and we also assume the following: Mr. P, an Indian citizen, works in Tokyo and earns 50,000. Mr. Q, an Australian citizen, works in Mumbai and earns 30,000. Mrs. R, an Indian citizen, owns a restaurant in UK which she rents to a British family for 25,000. Mrs. S, a German citizen, owns a factory in New Delhi which she rents to an Indian firm for 60,000. Given above, GNP in India in FY 2023-24 will be: A) 5,85,000 B) 6,45,000 C) 4,80,000 D) 5,30,000
💡Correct Answer: Option A (5,85,000)
GNP = GDP + Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA). Factor income earned by Indian residents abroad: Mr. P (50,000) + Mrs. R (25,000) = 75,000. Factor income earned by non-residents in India: Mr. Q (30,000) + Mrs. S (60,000) = 90,000. NFIA = 75,000 - 90,000 = -15,000. Therefore, GNP = 6,00,000 + (-15,000) = 5,85,000.
Q121
EconomicsNational Income Accounting
Suppose the GDP at Market Price of a country in 2024 was 1000 crores. The values of Net factor income from abroad was 100 crores, net factor income paid to abroad was 50 crores, net indirect taxes were 100 crores and the national income was 700 crores. Calculate the total value of depreciation. A) 250 crores B) 450 crores C) 1850 crores D) 300 crores
💡Correct Answer: Option A (250 crores)
National Income is NNP_FC = 700 crores. GDP_MP = 1000 crores. NFIA = Factor income from abroad (100) - Factor income paid to abroad (50) = 50 crores. GNP_MP = GDP_MP + NFIA = 1000 + 50 = 1050 crores. GNP_FC = GNP_MP - Net Indirect Taxes = 1050 - 100 = 950 crores. Since NNP_FC = GNP_FC - Depreciation, we have 700 = 950 - Depreciation => Depreciation = 950 - 700 = 250 crores.
Q122
EconomicsMacroeconomic Identities
If Indian government is running a budget deficit and net exports are zero, then A) investment is greater than saving. B) saving is greater than investment. C) investment and saving are equal. D) None of the above.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (saving is greater than investment.)
From the macroeconomic identity: (S - I) = (G - T) + (X - M). Given budget deficit (G - T > 0) and net exports NX = (X - M) = 0, we have (S - I) = (G - T) > 0, which directly implies S > I (private saving is greater than private investment).
Q123
EconomicsTheory of the Firm & Profit Maximization
Hypothetically, a firm's profit margin and total profit are maximized at the same point when A) P - minimum ATC is the maximum B) when only P = MR = SMC C) when P = minimum ATC D) None of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option D (None of the above)
Profit margin is (P - ATC), which is maximized where ATC is minimized (or where d(P - ATC)/dq = 0), whereas total profit π = (P - ATC)*q is maximized where Marginal Revenue equals Marginal Cost (MR = MC). In general, the output that maximizes unit profit margin does NOT coincide with the output that maximizes total profit, making 'None of the above' correct.
Q124
EconomicsMonetary Policy & Banking
Match List A with List B: List - A (I) Bank Rate (II) Reverse Repo Rate (III) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (IV) Cash Reserve Ratio
List - B (1) Minimum percentage of a bank's deposits that must be maintained as reserves in liquid form with the RBI. (2) Minimum percentage of a bank's deposits that must be maintained as reserves in liquid form. (3) Rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks. (4) Rate at which the RBI provides loans to commercial banks for long-term and without any collateral.
Choose the correct option: A) (I)-(3), (II)-(4), (III)-(1), (IV)-(2) B) (I)-(4), (II)-(3), (III)-(1), (IV)-(2) C) (I)-(3), (II)-(4), (III)-(2), (IV)-(1) D) (I)-(4), (II)-(3), (III)-(2), (IV)-(1)
💡Correct Answer: Option D ((I)-(4), (II)-(3), (III)-(2), (IV)-(1))
Correct matching: (I) Bank Rate is the rate at which RBI lends long-term without collateral (4); (II) Reverse Repo Rate is the rate at which RBI borrows funds from commercial banks (3); (III) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is the percentage of NDTL maintained in liquid assets by banks themselves (2); (IV) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the percentage of deposits maintained with RBI in cash (1). Hence, (I)-(4), (II)-(3), (III)-(2), (IV)-(1) (Option D) is correct.
Q125
EconomicsForeign Exchange & International Trade
Identify which of the following statements is true? A) The flexible exchange rate system gives the government more flexibility to maintain large stocks of foreign exchange reserves. B) In the fixed exchange rate system, the government intervenes to buy and sell foreign currencies. C) In the managed floating exchange rate system, the central bank intervenes to moderate exchange rate fluctuations. D) In the fixed exchange rate system, market forces fix the exchange rate.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (In the managed floating exchange rate system, the central bank intervenes to moderate exchange rate fluctuations.)
Managed floating exchange rate system (also called a dirty float) is an international exchange rate arrangement where the currency exchange rate is primarily determined by market forces of demand and supply, but the central bank intervenes by buying or selling foreign currency to stabilize extreme short-term volatility.
Q126
EconomicsIndian Economic History & Planning
Arrange the following economic events in India in chronological order: i) Nationalization of 14 major banks ii) India's LPG reforms iii) Launch of the First Five-Year Plan iv) Formation of NITI Aayog Options: A) iii, i, ii, iv B) i, iii, ii, iv C) iii, ii, i, iv D) i, ii, iii, iv
💡Correct Answer: Option A (iii, i, ii, iv)
Chronological order of economic events: iii) Launch of the First Five-Year Plan: 1951; i) Nationalization of 14 major commercial banks: July 1969; ii) India's LPG (Liberalization, Privatization, Globalization) reforms: July 1991; iv) Formation of NITI Aayog: 1 January 2015. Thus, the sequence is iii, i, ii, iv (Option A).
Q127
EconomicsPoverty Estimation in India
Arrange the following committees related to poverty estimation in India in chronological order: i) Alagh Committee ii) Lakdawala Committee iii) Tendulkar Committee iv) Rangarajan Committee Options: A) ii, i, iii, iv B) i, iii, ii, iv C) ii, iii, i, iv D) i, ii, iii, iv
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i, ii, iii, iv)
Chronological timeline of poverty estimation committees in India: i) Y.K. Alagh Task Force (1979 - nutritional calorie norms); ii) D.T. Lakdawala Committee (constituted 1989, submitted report in 1993); iii) Suresh Tendulkar Committee (constituted 2005, submitted report in 2009); iv) C. Rangarajan Committee (constituted 2012, submitted report in 2014). Hence, i, ii, iii, iv (Option D) is correct.
Q128
EconomicsEconomic Systems
Which of the following best describes the main difference between a market economy and a planned economy? A) Both systems rely on government intervention for economic decisions. B) In a market economy, supply and demand determine production and pricing, while in a planned economy, the government makes these decisions. C) In a market economy, the government sets all prices, while in a planned economy, businesses do. D) There is no difference between the two systems.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (In a market economy, supply and demand determine production and pricing, while in a planned economy, the government makes these decisions.)
In a free market (capitalist) economy, resource allocation, production choices, and pricing are determined decentralised through the price mechanism of market supply and demand. In a command/planned (socialist) economy, a central government authority owns the means of production and determines what, how, and for whom goods are produced.
Q129
EconomicsPublic Finance & Fiscal Policy
The excess of total expenditure over total receipts, excluding debt capital receipts, is called: A) Revenue deficit B) Budgetary deficit C) Fiscal deficit D) Primary deficit
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Fiscal deficit)
Fiscal Deficit is defined as the excess of total government expenditure (revenue + capital) over total non-debt receipts (revenue receipts + non-debt capital receipts such as loan recoveries and disinvestment). It measures the total borrowing requirements of the government.
Q130
EconomicsIndian Agriculture & Green Revolution
What was the main technological innovation introduced during the Green Revolution? A) Use of green manure B) Organic farming C) Crop rotation D) High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds
💡Correct Answer: Option D (High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds)
The core technological cornerstone of the Green Revolution in the mid-1960s was the adoption of dwarf, semi-dwarf High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds of wheat and rice (developed by Norman Borlaug and introduced in India under M.S. Swaminathan), accompanied by chemical fertilizers, pesticides, and assured irrigation.
Q131
EconomicsEconomic Reforms 1991
What was the main reason for introducing economic reforms in India in 1991? A) High agricultural output B) Increase in exports C) Political instability D) Balance of Payments crisis
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Balance of Payments crisis)
The immediate trigger for the 1991 Economic Reforms (LPG policy) was a severe Balance of Payments (BoP) crisis: foreign exchange reserves had dropped to barely two weeks of imports, inflation was soaring, fiscal deficits were unsustainable, and India had to pledge gold reserves to secure emergency IMF loans.
Q132
EconomicsEmployment & Unemployment
Unemployment that occurs due to a mismatch between the skills of workers and the requirements of jobs is called: A) Structural unemployment B) Frictional unemployment C) Seasonal unemployment D) Disguised unemployment
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Structural unemployment)
Structural unemployment arises from fundamental long-term shifts in an economy (such as technological advancement or industrial restructuring) creating a qualitative mismatch between the skills possessed by job seekers and the specific technical qualifications demanded by employers.
A generating station has a maximum demand of 30 MW, a load factor of 60% and a plant capacity factor of 50%. The reserve capacity of the plant is: A) 5 MW B) 4 MW C) 3 MW D) 6 MW
Computer Science & ITMicroprocessors & Bus Arbitration
Which type of control pins are used in a microprocessor to regulate access to the bus and prevent multiple devices from using it simultaneously? A) Bus Request (BR) and Bus Grant (BG) pins B) Interrupt Request (IRQ) and Interrupt Acknowledge (INTA) pins C) Read (RD) and Write (WR) pins D) Clock (CLK) and Reset (RST) pins
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bus Request (BR) and Bus Grant (BG) pins)
Bus arbitration control signals—such as HOLD / HLDA in 8085 or Bus Request (BR) and Bus Grant (BG) in microprocessors—are used to mediate and regulate control of the shared system bus between the CPU and DMA controllers/co-processors, preventing bus contention.
Q135
General Knowledge & Current AffairsEconomics (Tariffs & Trade)
Consider a scenario in which a small country imposes a tariff on a product. Which of the statements below is false? A) The good's consumer surplus will decrease. B) The surplus of the producer of the goods will decrease. C) The number of goods imported will decrease. D) The total drop in surplus will be less than the deadweight loss.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The total drop in surplus will be less than the deadweight loss.)
When a small importing country imposes an import tariff: domestic price rises by the tariff amount, consumer surplus decreases, domestic producer surplus increases. In international trade theory, the deadweight loss is only a net part of the total surplus loss, meaning the total drop in surplus is strictly GREATER than the deadweight loss, never less. Thus statement D is false.
Q136
General Knowledge & Current AffairsEconomics (Price Mechanism)
What happens if the price floor is set higher than the equilibrium price? A) Scarcity B) Stability C) Surpluses D) None of the preceding
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Surpluses)
A price floor set above the market equilibrium price is binding. At this higher price, the quantity supplied by producers exceeds the quantity demanded by consumers (Q_s > Q_d), resulting in a market surplus (excess supply).
Q137
Knowledge of Computer Applications & ITCyber Security & E-Banking
'Skimming' in e-banking is a method of A) Converting Debit card into Credit card B) Transferring cash from one account to another account C) Stealing credit card information D) Intimating the customer about his heavy withdrawals
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Stealing credit card information)
In electronic banking and cybersecurity, 'skimming' is an illegal technique of capturing and stealing magnetic stripe information and PIN data from credit/debit cards using unauthorized card reader devices attached to ATMs or point-of-sale terminals.
Following is a Rate list for an earth excavation work: Item 1: Manual excavation | Fixed Rate: Rs. 10 /cum | Variable rate: Nil Item 2: Machine excavation | Fixed Rate: Rs. 4000 fixed | Variable rate: Rs. 2 /cum As per above rate list, estimated quantity of earth, for which the cost of excavation by machine will be equal to the cost of manual excavation, considering variable rate is A) 500 cum B) 1000 cum C) 2500 cum D) 3000 cum
💡Correct Answer: Option A (500 cum)
Let Q be the quantity of earth in cubic meters (cum) at the break-even point where costs are equal: Cost of manual excavation = 10 Q
Cost of machine excavation = 4000 (fixed) + 2 Q Equating both costs: 10 Q = 4000 + 2 Q => 8 * Q = 4000 => Q = 4000 / 8 = 500 cum.
In suicidal poisoning cases, which substance is often associated with intentional overdose?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Paracetamol)
In clinical and forensic toxicology, Paracetamol (acetaminophen) is globally documented as the single most common over-the-counter pharmaceutical substance taken in intentional suicidal overdose, causing fatal hepatotoxicity. (Barbiturates were historically prominent but are now tightly restricted prescription sedatives).
Q140
Economy of Jammu & KashmirJ&K Economic Survey - GDP and Population Share
As per Economic Survey, 2024-2025, the UT of Jammu and Kashmir contributes _____% to national GDP in proportion to its population being _____% of total national population.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (0.8 and 0.98, respectively)
According to the official Economic Survey of Jammu & Kashmir, the UT of J&K contributes approximately 0.8% to India's national Gross Domestic Product (GDP), in proportion to its population share of 0.98% of the total national population.
Q141
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Economy & Foreign Trade
Consider the following statements: I. As per the Economic Survey 2025-26, India accounts for more than 5% of global merchandise exports. II. As per the Economic Survey 2025-26, India's service imports were greater than its exports. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Neither I nor II)
- Statement I is incorrect: India's share in global merchandise exports stands at approximately 1.8% to 2.2% (well below 5%). - Statement II is incorrect: India consistently runs a substantial trade surplus in services, meaning service exports are significantly higher than service imports. Therefore, Neither I nor II is correct.
Q142
General Knowledge & Current AffairsEconomics (National Income & Development)
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): A rise in per capita GNP always reflects an improvement in living standards. Reason (R): Income levels are fundamental metrics of Economic development. Which of the statements is/are correct: A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A C) A is true, R is false D) A is false, R is true
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A is false, R is true)
- Assertion A is false: The word 'always' invalidates it. Per capita GNP is an aggregate average and does not account for income inequality, inflation, environmental degradation, or access to healthcare and education. A rise in per capita GNP concentrated among the wealthy does not improve living standards for the general populace. - Reason R is true: National income and per capita income are standard fundamental baseline metrics used in economic development analysis. Hence, A is false, R is true.
Q143
General Awareness with special ref to J&KDemography and Indian Economy
Consider the following statements regarding India's demographic trends: I. Demographic dividend refers to the economic growth potential arising from a declining dependency ratio, due to a rising working-age population. II. Demographic winter refers to the economic and social challenges arising from an increasing working-age population and decreasing old-age dependency. III. India is expected to enjoy its demographic dividend till the mid-21st century, and its realization depends on education, skill development, health, and employment generation.
Which of the above statements are correct? A) I and III only B) II and III only C) I and II only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I and III only)
Evaluating demographic trends: - Statement I is correct: Demographic dividend is the economic boost resulting from a shift in population age structure when the working-age population (15-64) exceeds the dependent population. - Statement II is incorrect: 'Demographic winter' describes sub-replacement birth rates, declining population, and a rapidly aging society with INCREASING old-age dependency. - Statement III is correct: India's median age remains under 29 and its dividend window extends up to ~2047–2055, dependent on skill and health investments. Therefore, statements I and III only are correct.
Q144
General Awareness & ScienceCurrent Affairs and Union Budget
What is/are NOT the features of the BioPharma SHAKTI mission proposed in the Union Budget 2026-27? I. The initiative aims to strengthen India's biopharmaceutical manufacturing sector with an outlay of about Rs. 1 crore over five years. II. It envisages strengthening India's ecosystem for the production of biologics and biosimilars and capturing 5% of the global biopharmaceutical market share. Choose the correct option: A) I only B) II only C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I only)
Statement I is NOT a feature because the financial outlay for the BioPharma SHAKTI mission is ₹10,000 crore over five years (not ₹1 crore). Statement II is an accurate feature of the mission, which aims to capture a 5% global market share in biologics and biosimilars. Hence, only Statement I is NOT a feature.
About General Economics & Indian Economy Questions for JKSSB & JKPSC
Practice authentic General Economics & Indian Economy questions asked in official JKSSB, JKPSC, and JK Police examinations. This comprehensive deck includes 144 solved MCQs from 50 different recruitment cycles with verified solutions.
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