Environment, Ecology & Biodiversity Solved MCQs for JKSSB & JKPSC — 966 Questions

Q1

General ScienceEcology

Which of the following constitute a food-chain?

Q2

General ScienceEnvironment

Who was the first scientist to use the term SMOG and define its layers?

Q3

General ScienceEnvironment

Consider the following statements regarding the greenhouse effect:

1. Life on the earth is possible due to the greenhouse effect.
2. Increased emission of greenhouse gases is a natural process.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Q4

General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTEnvironment

Consider the following national parks and the states they are located in:

- a. Kaziranga National Park: 4. Assam
- b. Jim Corbett National Park: 3. Uttarakhand
- c. Ranthambore National Park: 2. Rajasthan
- d. Gir National Park: 1. Gujarat

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Q5

Biochemistry & Human PhysiologyWildlife Protection

Which act deals with the protection and conservation of various species of birds and animals in India?

Q6

Forensic Serology & ImmunologyWildlife Conservation

IUCN stands for

Q7

Forensic Serology & ImmunologyWildlife Conservation

According to IUCN Red List, Endangered species are defined as

Q8

DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesWildlife Forensics

Establishing geographical location of a wildlife species is crucial to legislative actions. How can this be achieved?

Q9

DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesWildlife Protection

Appendix II of CITES includes

Q10

DNA Profiling & PCR TechniquesWildlife Protection

A wildlife poacher is interested in illegal trade of tiger skin. What method of poaching will he prefer?

Q11

Organic ChemistryEnvironmental Pollution

Which of the following primarily causes Mercury Pollution?

Q12

Organic ChemistryEcology & Wildlife

Where is the 'Rajaji Tiger Reserve' located in India?

Q13

Physical ChemistryEcology & Environment

When is the World Wildlife Week observed?

Q14

🌍 General AwarenessEnvironment & Ecology

Which of the following regions is regarded as an ecological hotspot of India?

Q15

🌍 General AwarenessEnvironment & Ecology

Which of the following fauna can be observed in Dachigam National Park?

Q16

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlMotor Vehicle Act & Penalties

As per central motor vehicle act 1988, if you drive while drunk, you can face an imprisonment for a term of upto

Q17

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlMotor Vehicle Act & Rules

What does central motor vehicle act 1988, section 129 specify

Q18

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlRTO Forms & Licensing

RTO Form No 2 is applicable for

Q19

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlMotor Vehicle Act & Rules

Which section of the Motor vehicle act 1988 deals with the grant of driving licence?

Q20

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlEnvironmental Pollution

Among the following options, which are man-made sources of air pollution?
(i) Burning of fire wood
(ii) Forest fire
(iii) Automobile
(iv) Earth quakes

Q21

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlEnvironmental Pollution

Among following pollutants which is not released by the motor vehicle

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Phosphorus trioxide (P4O6))

Automobiles emit SPM, sulfur dioxide (

SO_2

), nitrogen oxides (

NO_x

), carbon monoxide, and hydrocarbons. Phosphorus trioxide (

P_4O_6

) is not a constituent of automotive exhaust gases.

Q22

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlChemistry

Which of the following values of pH represents stronger acid?

Q23

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlCombustion Chemistry

Incomplete combustion of motor vehicle fuel, like petrol or diesel produce

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Carbon monoxide)

Complete combustion of hydrocarbons yields carbon dioxide (

CO_2

) and water. Incomplete combustion due to insufficient oxygen produces carbon monoxide (

CO

), a toxic gas.

Q24

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlEmission Norms

The carbon monoxide CO and HC (n-hexane equivalent) content respectively, of four wheelers, which is manufactured as per-Bharat Stage II emission norms

Q25

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlNoise Pollution & Regulations

Maximum permissible noise level recommended as per central motor vehicle rules 1989, for passenger or commercial vehicles with gross vehicle weight above 12000 kgs, is

Q26

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlEnvironmental awareness

Match the following (List-1) with their description (List-2):
List-1: (a) Idling at red traffic signal, (b) Cycling or walking, (c) Electric vehicle, (d) High vehicle density.
List-2: (1) Turning off engine, (2) Increase urban pollution, (3) Reduces air pollution, (4) Sustainable transport.

Q27

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlVehicle Documents

What does abbreviation "R.C." of a vehicle mean?

Q28

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlVehicle Documents

As per Indian motor vehicle act, the number of passengers permitted to be carried in a personal vehicle, is recorded in

Q29

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlVehicle Documents & RTO

Who is the competent authority to issue driving licence in India?

Q30

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlVehicle Insurance

Consider the following statements, choose the correct combination:
Statement-1: As per Indian motor vehicle act 1988, a comprehensive motor insurance policy is mandatory
Statement-2: Third-party liability insurance is optional for Indian vehicle

Q31

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlVehicle Insurance

Consider the following statements related with motor insurance, choose the correct option:
Statement-1: The motor insurance does not provide compensations if driver don't have driving licence
Statement-2: Third-party motor insurance cover third person who has been injured in an accident involving owner and his/her car

Q32

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlVehicle Registration

As per central motor vehicles rules, 1989, the number plate of vehicle should be written

Q33

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlPhysics of Motion

If 1000 kg vehicle is moving at 10 m/s, it has a kinetic energy of

💡Correct Answer: Option C (50,000 Joule)

Kinetic Energy (

KE

) =

\frac{1}{2} m v^2

. Given

m = 1000 \text{ kg}

,

v = 10 \text{ m/s}

.

KE = \frac{1}{2} \times 1000 \times 10^2 = 500 \times 100 = 50,000 \text{ Joules}

.

Q34

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlPhysics of Braking

When break is applied, the kinetic energy of the motor vehicle is converted into

Q35

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlHistory of Automobiles

In which of the following year was the first automobile built?

Q36

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlAutomobile classification

Which among the following is a classification of automobiles based on "load"?

Q37

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlTransmission System

Which among the following component, is used in transmission system of a motor vehicle?

Q38

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlEngine Diagnostics

What is generally the reason of engine misfiring?

Q39

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlCooling System

Among the following options, suitable reason for engine over heating is
(i) Excessive valve clearance
(ii) Insufficient coolant
(iii) Faulty radiator fan
(iv) Faulty water pump

Q40

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlBelts & Pulleys

V-belts is most suitable when the distance between drive and the driven pulley is

Q41

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlBelts & Pulleys

"V-belts" get their name because of

Q42

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlIgnition Systems

What are the type of ignition system used in petrol engine?

Q43

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlFuels & Lubricants

The ignition quality or combustion speed of diesel fuel is indicated by

Q44

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlScientific Instruments

Among the following instrument, which instrument you use to measure specific gravity or relative density of petrol

Q45

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlFuels & Lubricants

The most important characteristic of a lubricating oil is its

Q46

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlFuel System

Flooding in the carburetor of a motor vehicle is controlled by

Q47

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlFuel System

When the engine is being cold, which of the following valves is used, to start the engine manually?

Q48

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlCooling System

What is the purpose of radiator of a motor vehicle engine?

Q49

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlFuels & Lubricants

Among the following options, what are the basic characteristics or properties of the brake fluid?
(i) Low viscosity
(ii) High viscosity
(iii) High boiling point
(iv) Low boiling point

Q50

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlVehicle Dimensions

"Wheel base" of a motor vehicle is the distance between the

Q51

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlAir Filters

Among the following options, which type of air cleaner or filter is most effective in diesel engines vehicle?

Q52

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlCooling System

Among the following options, which is the best water used in a car radiator?

Q53

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlVehicle Instruments

Which of the following instruments is commonly used to measure the distance covered by the motor vehicle?

Q54

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlEmission Standards

Among the following options, what "BS IV" and "BS VI" engines signify

Q55

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlElectrical System

Among the following options, which one is used to supply power to starter motor in the diesel engine?

Q56

🔭 ScienceAquatic Ecology

Red tide is caused

Q57

🔭 ScienceAquatic Ecology

Plankton size classification:
a. Megaplankton
b. Macroplankton
c. Mesoplankton
d. Microplankton
e. Nanoplankton
f. Picoplankton

And dimensions:
i. 0.2-2 cm
ii. 20 to 200 µm
iii. 0.2 to 2 µm
iv. 2 to 20 µm
v. >20 cm
vi. 2-20 cm

Match correctly:

Q58

🔭 ScienceAquatic Ecology

Hydrosere Stages of ecological succession in pond/lake are

Q59

🔭 ScienceAquatic Ecology

Which of the following statements are true?
a. Plankton occur only in freshwater ecosystem
b. Plankton do not have active locomotory organs
c. Plankton include only unicellular organisms
d. Phytoplankton form the first trophic level

Q60

🔭 ScienceAquatic Ecology

The depth at which the photosynthesis balances respiration

Q61

🔭 ScienceAquatic Ecology

Functional role an organism plays within an ecosystem is

Q62

🔭 ScienceAquatic Ecology

Match the indices to what they quantify:
a. Shannon Weiner Index
b. Pielou Index
c. Margalef Index
d. Berger Parker Index

Quantifications:
1. Richness
2. Dominance
3. Diversity
4. Evenness

Match correctly:

Q63

🔭 ScienceEnvironment & Treaties

Match the International Conventions to respective years:
a. Convention on Biological Diversity
b. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
c. Ramsar Convention
d. International Union for Conservation of Nature

Years:
1. 1971
2. 1948
3. 1975
4. 1992

Match correctly:

Q64

🔭 ScienceEnvironment & Ecology

Which of the following statements are true?
a. There are 80 Ramsar sites in India
b. Ex-situ is a method of conservation that involves the conservation of species in its natural habitat
c. Kanwar Lake is the smallest lake in India
d. Manasbal is the deepest lake in India

Q65

🔭 ScienceAquatic Ecology

Identify the correct statements from the following:
a. Clownfish and sea anemones have a symbiotic relationship
b. Remora fish and Shark exhibit a commensalism relationship
c. Hermit crabs and sea anemones exhibit a parasitic relationship
d. Anchor worms are annelid parasites to freshwater finfishes

Q66

🔭 ScienceAquatic Ecology

Nitrification process involves

Q67

🔭 ScienceFisheries & Environment

Commercial species of fishes from river Jhelum

Q68

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyPollution & Biomagnification

__________ is the tendency of pollutants to become concentrated in successive trophic levels.

Q69

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyInternational Environmental Treaties

__________ is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion.

Q70

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyAtmospheric Stability & Meteorology

The atmosphere is said to be unstable when

Q71

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyClimate Change & Treaties

The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty that commits state parties to:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Reduce greenhouse gas emissions)

The Kyoto Protocol (adopted in Kyoto, Japan in 1997 under the UNFCCC) is an international treaty that commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions (including

CO_2, CH_4, N_2O, HFCs, PFCs, SF_6

) to fight global warming.

Q72

📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceNational Green Tribunal & Constitution

Among the following, which all articles in the Indian constitution are related to National Green Tribunal?
a. Article 24
b. Article 21
c. Article 48 A
d. Article 51-A(g)

Q73

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyAir Pollutants & Health Impacts

Consider the following statements:
a. CO emission is mainly due to incomplete combustion of fuel.
b. Affects the oxygen carrying capacity of blood
c. Can cause nausea
Which of the following statement is/are correct

💡Correct Answer: Option B (a, b, and c)

All statements (a, b, and c) are correct. Carbon monoxide (

CO

) is produced primarily by the incomplete combustion of hydrocarbon fuels. It binds to hemoglobin with an affinity 200–250 times greater than oxygen, forming carboxyhemoglobin (

COHb

) which reduces oxygen transport to vital organs and causes headache, nausea, dizziness, and asphyxiation.

Q74

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyHeavy Metal Toxicity

The chemical responsible for Minamata disease

💡Correct Answer: Option D (Mercury)

Minamata disease is a severe neurological toxic syndrome caused by methylmercury (

CH_3Hg^+

) poisoning. It was first identified in 1956 in Minamata Bay, Japan, resulting from the bioaccumulation of industrial mercury dumped into the marine ecosystem.

Q75

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEutrophication & Water Nutrients

__________ causes minimum water pollution among the following nutrients.

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Pottassium)

Potassium (

K^+

) causes minimal water pollution compared to Nitrogen (

N

) and Phosphorus (

P

), which are primary limiting nutrients driving cultural eutrophication, toxic cyanobacterial algal blooms, and dissolved oxygen depletion in aquatic environments.

Q76

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringPrimary Wastewater Treatment

Which of the following is correct?

Q77

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSewage Chemistry & Characteristics

The characteristics of fresh and septic sewage, respectively are

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Alkaline and acidic)

Fresh sewage is slightly alkaline in nature with a typical pH of 7.3 to 7.8. As sewage becomes stale and septic during anaerobic decomposition, organic acids and hydrogen sulfide (

H_2S

) are generated, lowering the pH and making septic sewage acidic.

Q78

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringColloidal Solids & Coagulation

The size of colloidal solids in waste water are in the range of

💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 nm - 100 nm)

Colloidal solids in wastewater have particle diameters typically ranging from

1\text{ nm}

to

100\text{ nm}

(or

10^{-3}\text{ }\mu\text{m}

to

0.1\text{ }\mu\text{m}

). These particles carry negative electrostatic surface charges and do not settle by gravity without chemical coagulation.

Q79

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringPopulation Equivalent & BOD

If the average sewage for a city is $80\times10^{6}\text{ l/day}$ and the average 5 day BOD is $300\text{ mg/l}$ against a standard of $60\text{ mg/day}$ (or $60\text{ g/capita-day}$ ) at $20^\circ\text{C}$ , then the population equivalent of the city will be.

💡Correct Answer: Option C ($400\times10^{6}$)

Total daily

BOD_5

load

= 80\times10^6\text{ L/day} \times 300\text{ mg/L} = 24,000\times10^6\text{ mg/day} = 24,000\text{ kg/day}

. With standard per capita domestic

BOD = 0.060\text{ kg/day}

, the population equivalent is

\frac{24,000\text{ kg/day}}{0.060\text{ kg/person/day}} = 400,000

(representing the magnitude

400\times10^6

). Option C is correct.

Q80

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSewer Hydraulics & Formulas

Pick the Hazen-William's formula for Sewer Design

💡Correct Answer: Option A ($V=0.85~C~r^{0.63}S^{0.54}$)

The Hazen-Williams formula in metric SI units for velocity of flow in pressure pipes and sewers is

V = 0.849~C~r^{0.63}S^{0.54}

(commonly written as

V = 0.85~C~r^{0.63}S^{0.54}

), where

C

is the Hazen-Williams roughness coefficient,

r

is the hydraulic radius (

R

), and

S

is the hydraulic energy slope.

Q81

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSewer Design Guidelines

The self-cleansing velocity of sewers in India generally is

💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 m/s - 1.2 m/s)

In Indian municipal sewer engineering practice (CPHEEO guidelines), self-cleansing velocity is maintained between

1.0\text{ m/s}

and

1.2\text{ m/s}

at peak flow to ensure that suspended solids and silt are transported without depositing along the sewer invert.

Q82

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringAnaerobic Digestion & Biogas

The main gas liberated from an anaerobic sludge digester is

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Methane)

Biogas produced during anaerobic digestion consists of approximately 60–70% Methane (

CH_4

) and 30–40% Carbon Dioxide (

CO_2

), with trace amounts of hydrogen sulfide (

H_2S

) and nitrogen. Methane is the primary and most valuable combustible gas released.

Q83

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyRiver Self-Purification Zones

A polluted stream undergoes self-purification in four distinct zones:
a. Zone of clear water
b. Zone of Active decomposition
c. Zone of degradation
d. Zone of recovery

Q84

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringTrickling Filters & Bio-film Processes

Match the following:
1. High rate trickling filter | a. Detachment of attached biofilm from the surface
2. Low rate trickling filter | b. Fly nuisance
3. Recirculation | c. BOD removal efficiency is 80%-95%
4. Sloughing | d. Depth of filter is 2 to 3 m

Q85

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSlow Sand Filtration Design

Match the slow sand filter components with its standard dimensions/values
1. Gravel bed coarse aggregate size | a. 90 cm to 110 cm
2. Filter media thickness | b. 3 mm to 60 mm
3. Gravel bed thickness | c. 20 mm to 40 mm
4. Gravel bed middle layer thickness | d. 30 cm to 75 cm

Q86

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWaste Stabilization Ponds

In facultative stabilization pond, the sewage is treated by:

Q87

📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceBIS Standards for Effluents

Identify the guiding standard for industrial effluent from the following:

Q88

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringRecirculation in Biological Filters

The recirculation ratio is defined as

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Volume of sewage to Volume of raw sewage)

The recirculation ratio (

R

) in wastewater treatment (such as high-rate trickling filters and activated sludge systems) is defined as the ratio of the volume of recirculated treated sewage (

Q_R

) to the volume of incoming raw sewage (

Q

).

Q89

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringPreliminary Treatment & Comminutors

The patented device which shreds the larger sewage solids to about 6 mm, when sewage is screened through them is known as

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Comminutors)

Comminutors (or shredders/grinders) are patented mechanical cutting devices equipped with rotating cutter teeth that intercept and shred coarse wastewater solids down to sizes of approximately 6 mm (

0.25\text{ inch}

), enabling them to remain in suspension for downstream processing.

Q90

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEutrophication & Algicides

Consider the following statements;
a. Eutrophication is the algal bloom produced due to excess discharge of plant nutrients into water body
b. Can be added by adding copper sulphate to water.

💡Correct Answer: Option D (Both (a) and (b) are true)

Both statements (a) and (b) are true. Statement (a) defines eutrophication caused by excess nitrogen and phosphorus enrichment. Statement (b) is true because copper sulphate (

CuSO_4

) is widely applied as an effective chemical algicide to control and eradicate unwanted algal blooms in water bodies.

Q91

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEIA Process & Methodology

Choose the correct sequence of steps adopted during the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process.

Q92

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEIA Screening Criteria

Which of the following is NOT a regular standard for figuring out whether an EIA is necessary?

Q93

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyBaseline Environmental Data

In EIA terminology, what does "baseline data" refer to?

Q94

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyCumulative Environmental Impacts

What does "cumulative impact" mean in the context of EIA?

Q95

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEIA Report Components

The Environmental Impact Assessment Report may consist of:
a. Assessment of the Sewerage and Sewage Treatment Implications
b. Assessment of the Land Contamination
c. Assessment of the Hazard to Life
d. Assessment of the Cultural Heritage Impact
Choose the best option.

Q96

📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEIA Public Hearing Exemptions

Consider the following projects and choose the best option for which the Public hearing is not required in the EIA?
i. Strengthening and widening of highways.
ii. Modernization of existing irrigation projects.

Q97

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyImpact Prediction Methodologies

Which of the following is not a material consideration when making impact predictions of environmental damage?

Q98

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnvironmental Organizations

IAIA stands for

Q99

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyForestry Institutions in India

The Headquarters of the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) is situated in

Q100

📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEPA 1986 Penalties

What sanctions apply when the Environment Protection Act is violated?

Q101

📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceStockholm Conference & EPA History

The Environment Protection Act 1986 was enacted following the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held at

Q102

📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceRiver Basin Authorities & NGRBA

National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) is responsible for ________ duties.

Q103

📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceAir (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act 1981

Consider the following pairs from the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981:
1. Section 21 | a. Power of State Government to supersede State Board
2. Section 47 | b. Power of State Government to make rules
3. Section 53 | c. Restrictions on use of certain industrial plants
4. Section 54 | d. Power of Central Government to make rules
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Q104

📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceBasel Convention on Hazardous Wastes

Which of the following convention governs the Hazardous waste management?

Q105

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEcosystem Components: Biotic & Abiotic

The non-living components of the environment, such as water, air, and minerals, are part of the:

Q106

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnergy Resources

Fossil fuels like coal, oil, and natural gas are examples of:

Q107

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyParticulate Matter & Human Health

Inhalation of fine particulate matter (PM2.5) can lead to health issues primarily affecting the:

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Respiratory system)

Fine particulate matter with aerodynamic diameter

\le 2.5\text{ }\mu\text{m}

(

PM_{2.5}

) penetrates deep into the alveolar regions of the human lungs and enters the bloodstream, primarily causing severe respiratory illnesses (asthma, bronchitis, COPD) and cardiovascular disorders.

Q108

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnvironmental History & Earth Day

The event that led to the creation of Earth Day on April 22nd each year was:

Q109

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyRadiation Hazards & Health

Prolonged exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun can increase the risk of:

Q110

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyHeavy Metal Ecotoxicology

Industrial pollutants like mercury and cadmium can accumulate in the food chain and pose a threat to the:

Q111

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnvironmental Literature & History

The event that initiated the modern environmental movement is often associated with the publication of the book:

Q112

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyStratospheric Ozone Depletion

The "Ozone Hole" phenomenon is most prominently associated with which region of the Earth?

Q113

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSewage Flow Estimation

The estimation of sewage discharge is typically based on:

Q114

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringTreatment Plant Design Parameters

The design period in wastewater treatment refers to the:

Q115

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringCoagulation & Flocculation

Coagulation is the process of:

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mixing chemicals to form flocs)

Coagulation is the chemical water treatment process where chemical coagulants (like alum,

Al_2(SO_4)_3

) are added and rapid-mixed to neutralize colloidal surface charges, destabilizing fine particles to aggregate into settleable flocs.

Q116

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Filtration

Filtration in water treatment involves passing water through a medium to remove:

Q117

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringAdvanced Water Treatment & Adsorption

Adsorption is a process used for:

Q118

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringBiological Wastewater Treatment

Treatment ponds and aerated lagoons are examples of:

Q119

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringAttached Growth Biological Systems

Trickling filters are designed to:

Q120

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringRBC & Attached Growth Systems

Rotating biological contactors (RBCs) are used to:

Q121

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSequencing Batch Reactors

A Sequencing Batch Reactor (SBR) is a type of wastewater treatment process that involves:

Q122

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringAnaerobic Digestion Fundamentals

Anaerobic digestion is a process that occurs in the absence of:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Oxygen)

Anaerobic digestion is a biological process in which specialized obligate and facultative anaerobic microorganisms break down biodegradable organic matter in the strict absence of dissolved or molecular free oxygen (

O_2

), generating biogas.

Q123

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSewage Pumping Equipment

Pneumatic ejectors utilize ________ to pump sewage.

Q124

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringIndustrial Waste Management

The waste generated by the tannery industry is often characterized by:

Q125

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSludge Volume Index & Bulking

A high sludge volume index (SVI) indicates:

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Poor sludge settling)

Sludge Volume Index (SVI) measures the settling characteristics of activated sludge in milliliters occupied by 1 gram of MLSS after 30 minutes of settling. A high SVI (

> 150\text{ mL/g}

) indicates filamentous sludge bulking and poor settling/compaction.

Q126

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringEffluent Quality Standards

A high effluent Total Suspended Solids (TSS) level indicates:

Q127

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSludge Yield & Loading Parameters

The ratio of sludge mass (lbs or kg) to the volume of sewage treated (gal or m³) is known as:

Q128

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyNutrient Removal & Eutrophication

The efficiency of a wastewater treatment system in removing nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus is crucial to prevent:

Q129

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringMass Balance & Process Modeling

The performance of a wastewater treatment system is evaluated by comparing influent and effluent concentrations of pollutants. This comparison is done using:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mass balance analysis)

Mass balance analysis (conservation of mass principle:

\text{Mass In} = \text{Mass Out} + \text{Mass Accumulated} - \text{Mass Converted}

) is the fundamental analytical method used to evaluate removal efficiencies across wastewater treatment units.

Q130

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnvironmental Impact Statement (EIS)

An Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) is a document that:

Q131

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologySocio-Economic Impact Assessment

Socio-economic impacts of a project relate to its effects on:

Q132

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyGIS Applications in EIA

Geographic Information Systems (GIS) are used in EIA to:

Q133

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyRemote Sensing in Environmental Studies

Remote sensing is employed in EIA to:

Q134

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnvironmental Modeling Tools

Which software is commonly used for modeling and simulating environmental impacts?

Q135

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEcological Terminology: Biota

In EIA, the term "biota" refers to:

Q136

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologySocio-Economic Environment

The socio-economic environment encompasses aspects related to:

Q137

📜 Environmental Law & GovernancePrecautionary Principle & Jurisprudence

The "Precautionary Principle" enshrined in the Environment (Protection) Act emphasizes:

Q138

📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceCoastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) & EPA

The amendments to the Environment (Protection) Act in 1991 extended its provisions to cover:

Q139

📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEIA Categorization (Category A & B)

The EIA notification categorizes projects into two broad categories based on their potential environmental impacts. These categories are:

Q140

📜 Environmental Law & GovernancePollution Control Boards Functions

The central and state pollution control boards were established under these acts to:

Q141

📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceWater Act 1974 Consent Provisions

Under the Water Act, 1974, no person can discharge any pollutant into a water body without obtaining:

Q142

📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceAir Act 1981 Powers

The Air Act, 1981, empowers the central and state boards to take measures for:

Q143

🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityUnits of Environmental Measurements

Consider the following pairs:
a. AQI | 1. ppm
b. Discharge | 2. Litre
c. Turbidity | 3. m³/s
d. Conductivity | 4. Unitless
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-4, b-3, c-1)

Air Quality Index (AQI) is a dimensionless unitless scale (a-4); river discharge is measured in volumetric flow rate (

m^3/s

or cumecs) (b-3); and Turbidity on standard silica scale is expressed in ppm (or NTU) (c-1).

Q144

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Treatment Terminology

Consider the following pairs:
a. Hardness | 1. Attached growth bio-treatment
b. POH | 2. Cm/min
c. Trickling filter | 3. Suspended growth bio-treatment
d. Screening | 4. 14
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (c-1, b-4)

A Trickling Filter is an attached-growth biological wastewater treatment process (c-1), and the sum of

pH + pOH = 14

at

25^\circ\text{C}

on the standard aqueous dissociation scale (b-4).

Q145

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSedimentation Tank Hydraulic Zones

Arrange the following zones of sedimentation tank in sequence as per the flow of water processes in the tank.
1. Outlet zone
2. Inlet zone
3. Sludge zone
4. Settling zone

Q146

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringGrit Separation & Wastewater Solids

Consider the following statements:
a. Grit represents the heavier inert matter in wastewater.
b. Chloramine represents the heavier inert matter in wastewater.
c. Ammonia represents the purity of water.
d. Plankton represents the fully treated wastewater.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (ONLY-a)

Statement (a) is correct: Grit refers to the heavier, non-putrescible inorganic mineral matter (such as sand, gravel, eggshells, and silt) with specific gravity

> 2.0

present in wastewater.

Q147

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyRiver Pollution & DO Sag Curve

Arrange the following zones of river water pollution in the correct sequence of their occurrence after the discharge of effluent.
1. Zone of clear water
2. Zone of pollution
3. Zone of recovery
4. Zone of active decomposition

Q148

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnvironmental Assessment Tools (REA)

What is the REA tool?

Q149

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyAtmospheric Layers & Greenhouse Effect

Where of the following greenhouse gases are present?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Troposphere)

Greenhouse gases (

CO_2, CH_4, N_2O

, and water vapor) are primarily concentrated in the Troposphere (the lowest atmospheric layer extending up to ~12 km), where they trap outgoing terrestrial infrared radiation to maintain Earth's thermal equilibrium.

Q150

📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceBhopal Gas Tragedy & EPA 1986

When EPA came into force?

Q151

📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceBiological Diversity Act 2002

Consider the following statements:
a. Biodiversity Act passed in year 2002.
b. Biodiversity Act passed in year 2010.
c. Biodiversity Act passed in year 1996.
d. Biodiversity Act passed in year 1977.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Q152

📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceWater Act 1974 Sections

Which section of Water Act 1974 deals with Compulsory acquisition of land for the State Board?

Q153

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWastewater Treatment Units & Functions

Consider the following pairs:
a. ASP | 1. Oil and Grease removal from sewage
b. Fungi | 2. Type of coliform
c. $H_{2}S$ | 3. Secondary treatment method
d. Skimming tank | 4. Healthy mineral in drinking water
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q154

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSecondary Clarifier Phenomena & Filters

Consider the following pairs:
a. Screen | 1. Gravity filter
b. Denitrification | 2. Bacterial density
c. RSF | 3. Threshold number
d. Total Alkalinity | 4. Rising of sludge
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q155

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringAnaerobic Treatment Units: Imhoff Tank

Which of the following is an ANAEROBIC process for treating sewage?

Q156

🧪 Chemistry & Water QualityUnits of Environmental Parameters

Consider the following pairs:
a. Unit of turbidity of water | 1. Tesla
b. Unit of specific conductivity of water | 2. AQI
c. $AgNO_3$ | 3. NTU
d. BOD | 4. Siemen
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (a-3, b-4)

The standard modern unit of Turbidity is Nephelometric Turbidity Units (NTU) (a-3), and the unit of electrical Specific Conductivity of water is Siemens per meter (

S/m

or

\mu S/cm

) (b-4).

Q157

Ecology & Environmental BiologyEnergy Resources & Calorific Values

Arrange the following non-renewable fossil fuel in the sequence of higher to lower heating values.
1. Coal
2. Hydrogen
3. Petroleum.
4. Natural Gas

Q158

Ecology & Environmental BiologyEnvironmental Observance Days

Consider the following statements:
a) Earth Day is celebrated on March-22.
b) Ammonia is the form of carbonaceous impurity.
c) Potable water is a mineral water.
d) World Water Day is celebrated on March-22.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (ONLY-d)

World Water Day is observed globally on March 22 every year (Statement d is correct). Note: Earth Day is celebrated on April 22, Ammonia (

NH_3

) is a nitrogenous (not carbonaceous) impurity, and potable water is safe drinking water conforming to health standards.

Q159

Ecology & Environmental BiologyEutrophication & Water Nutrients

Consider the following statements:
a) Eutrophication causes the water pollution and death of aquatic lives.
b) Phosphorous and Nitrogen causes the eutrophication.
c) Smog causes the eutrophication.
d) Water Hyacinth is the source of water pollution.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Q160

Ecology & Environmental BiologyBiotic vs Abiotic Components

Which among the following is abiotic?

Q161

Ecology & Environmental BiologyWater Quality Parameters & Chemical Formulas

Consider the following pairs:
a. NGT — 1. Ferroin indicator
b. Blue baby disease — 2. Nitric acid
c. $\text{CO}_2$ — 3. Excessive Nitrates
d. $\text{HNO}_3$ — 4. Peroxyacetyl nitrate
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (b-3, d-2)

Blue baby syndrome (methemoglobinemia) is caused by Excessive Nitrates in drinking water (b-3), and

\text{HNO}_3

is the chemical formula for Nitric acid (d-2).

Q162

Ecology & Environmental BiologyNitrogen Forms & Sewage Freshness

Which form of nitrogen in sewage indicates that the decomposition of nitrogenous organic matter impurity has just started in the wastewater?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ammonia)

In sanitary engineering, Free Ammonia (ammoniacal nitrogen) indicates recent pollution and the initial onset of organic decomposition. Albuminoidal nitrogen represents undecomposed organic nitrogen, Nitrites (

NO_2^-

) indicate ongoing active decomposition, and Nitrates (

NO_3^-

) indicate fully stabilized past pollution.

Q163

Ecology & Environmental BiologyBOD Calculations

A sewage of 3% diluted sample is incubated for 5 days at 20 deg.C and D.O. depletion found to be $3\text{ mg/lit}.$ Estimate BOD of sewage after 5 days.

💡Correct Answer: Option A ($100\text{ mg/lit}$)

Dilution Factor

= \frac{100}{\%\text{ dilution}} = \frac{100}{3}

.

\text{BOD}_5 = \text{D.O. Depletion} \times \text{Dilution Factor} = 3\text{ mg/L} \times \frac{100}{3} = 100\text{ mg/L}

.

Q164

Ecology & Environmental BiologyBacterial Classification & Decomposers

Which bacteria live on dead, decaying organic matters and dead tissues hence beneficial to mankind?

Q165

Ecology & Environmental BiologyAttached vs Suspended Growth Processes

Which among the following is attached growth process?

Q166

Ecology & Environmental BiologypH Scale & Chlorination Chemistry

Consider the following statements:
a) 7.0 pH value has most efficient disinfection by chlorination.
b) 7.0 pH is low alkaline.
c) 7.0 pH is high acidic.
d) 14 pH is high alkaline.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (a and d)

Statements (a) and (d) are correct: Around neutral pH (~7.0–7.5), chlorine exists predominantly as hypochlorous acid (

HOCl

), providing rapid and potent germicidal disinfection without causing excessive eye/skin irritation. On the standard pH scale (0 to 14), a pH of 14 represents maximum alkalinity.

Q167

Ecology & Environmental BiologyActivated Sludge Process

Which of the following type of wastewater treatment process is used for treating wastewater or industrial wastewater using aeration and biological flocs?

Q168

Ecology & Environmental BiologyDisinfection Chemistry: HOCl

Which among the following is responsible for disinfection of germs and bacteria?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (HOCl)

Hypochlorous acid (

HOCl

) is the active germicidal chemical form of free residual chlorine that rapidly penetrates microbial cell walls and destroys cellular enzymes.

Q169

Ecology & Environmental BiologyWater Quality Parameters: Turbidity

Which among the following causes turbidity in water?

Q170

Ecology & Environmental BiologyPhysical vs Chemical Water Parameters

Which among the following is NOT a physical characteristic?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (pH)

pH is a Chemical characteristic of water measuring hydrogen ion activity (

-\log_{10}[H^+]

). Color, Odour, Temperature, and Turbidity are Physical characteristics.

Q171

Ecology & Environmental BiologyThreshold Odour Number (TON) Standards

What is the acceptable range for threshold odour number?

Q172

Ecology & Environmental BiologypH and pOH Calculations

The concentration of $[\text{OH}^-]$ ion in a water sample is measured as $17\text{ mg/L}$ at 25 degrees Celsius. What is the pH of water sample?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (11)

Molecular weight of

[OH^-] = 17\text{ g/mol} = 17,000\text{ mg/mol}

. Molarity of

[OH^-] = \frac{17\text{ mg/L}}{17,000\text{ mg/mol}} = 10^{-3}\text{ mol/L}

. Therefore,

pOH = -\log_{10}[OH^-] = -\log_{10}(10^{-3}) = 3

. Since

pH + pOH = 14

,

pH = 14 - 3 = 11

.

Q173

Ecology & Environmental BiologyEIA Definition & Concepts

What is full form of EIA?

Q174

Ecology & Environmental BiologyWater Filtration & Treatment Units

Consider the following pairs:
a. Gravity filter — 1. Inorganic material
b. Grit — 2. Slow sand filter
c. Carbohydrate — 3. Pressure filter
d. Viscosity — 4. KVA
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q175

Ecology & Environmental BiologyISO 14000 Environmental Management Standards

Which of the ISO 14000 series of standards focuses on evaluation of environmental performance?

Q176

Ecology & Environmental BiologyFactories Act 1948

When was the Factories act enacted in India?

Q177

Ecology & Environmental BiologyEnvironmental Regulatory Framework in India

Which of the following is NOT the key environmental regulatory authority in India?

Q178

Ecology & Environmental BiologyPublic Liability Insurance Act 1991

Which victim of an accident is liable for Public Liability Insurance act-1991?

Q179

Ecology & Environmental BiologyInternational Environmental Conferences

Which of the following is NOT the key international conferences on environment to the development of international environmental law?

Q180

Ecology & Environmental BiologyNational Environment Policy (NEP 2006)

Which is the most recent pronouncement of the government's commitment to improve environmental conditions?

Q181

Environmental Pollution & ControlEnvironmental Terms & Organizations

Consider the following pairs:
a. Unit of (BOD/COD) — 1. National Green Tribunal
b. NGT — 2. Unitless
c. PAN — 3. $\text{m}^3/\text{s}$
d. Conductivity — 4. National Geographic Tracking
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

💡Correct Answer: Option D (a-2, b-1)

NGT stands for National Green Tribunal (b-1), and in standardized matching options, BOD/COD is expressed in concentration units (

mg/L

) or ratios.

Q182

Environmental Pollution & ControlChronology of Indian Environmental Acts

Arrange the following environmental legislations in India, in chronological order with respect to their passing and enactment.
1. The air (Prevention and control of Pollution) Act
2. Forest conservation Act
3. Wildlife protection Act
4. The water (Prevention and control of Pollution) Act

Q183

Environmental Pollution & ControlEnvironmental Movements in India

Arrange the following environmental movements in chronological order.
1. Narmada Bachao Andolan
2. Silent Valley movement
3. Chipko movement
4. Appiko movement

Q184

Environmental Pollution & ControlMajor Global Environmental Disasters

Arrange the following environmental disasters in chronological order.
1. Niger-Delta Oil Pollution
2. India - Bhopal Cyanide Gas Leak
3. Italy - Seveso Dioxin Cloud
4. Romania - Cyanide Spill

Q185

Environmental Pollution & ControlSafety Signs & Shapes

What is the shape of warning sign?

Q186

Environmental Pollution & ControlActive vs Passive Fire Protection

What is Fire extinguisher?

Q187

Environmental Pollution & ControlHeavy Metal Standards: Lead

What is acceptable limit of Lead in drinking water?

💡Correct Answer: Option D ($0.01\text{ mg/L}$)

According to Indian Standard Drinking Water Specification (IS 10500:2012) and WHO guidelines, the acceptable limit for Lead (

Pb

) in drinking water is

0.01\text{ mg/L}

(

10\text{ ppb}

).

Q188

Environmental Pollution & ControlWater Chemistry & Odors

Consider the following statements:
a) The smell of hydrogen sulphide is like a rotten egg in wastewater.
b) Presence of algae in water increases alkalinity of water.
c) Alkali salts are used to balance pH of acidic water.
d) Hydrogen sulphide is odourless gas.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (a, b and c)

Statements (a), (b), and (c) are correct: Hydrogen sulfide (

H_2S

) produces a characteristic rotten egg odor, algal photosynthesis removes dissolved

CO_2

which shifts bicarbonate equilibria and increases water pH/alkalinity, and alkaline salts (like lime or soda ash) neutralize acidic water.

Q189

Environmental Pollution & ControlAir Quality Index (AQI) Color Codes

Which colour of AQI indicates good air condition?

Q190

Environmental Pollution & ControlDisinfection By-Products (DBPs)

When chlorine reacts with organic matters what does it form?

Q191

Environmental Pollution & ControlAcidity, Neutrality & pH Scale

Consider the following pairs:
a. $\text{H}^+ = \text{OH}^-$ — 1. $\text{pH} = 04$
b. Total solids experiment — 2. 05 Hrs
c. Acidic nature — 3. 30min
d. Potable water — 4. $\text{pH} = 07$
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (a-4, c-1)

When

[H^+] = [OH^-]

, the solution is neutral with

pH = 7

(a-4), and an Acidic nature corresponds to a low

pH < 7

such as

pH = 4

(c-1).

Q192

Environmental Pollution & ControlTotal Suspended Solids (TSS) Testing

Where Whatman's filter paper is used?

Q193

Environmental Pollution & ControlBacterial Morphologies & Shapes

Consider the following statements:
a) Bacilli bacteria has a rod-shaped structure.
b) Cocci bacteria has a rod-shaped structure.
c) Spirilla bacteria has a rod-shaped structure.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Q194

Environmental Pollution & ControlDisaster Management Cycle

Arrange the following phases of Disaster Management in the correct sequence.
1. Mitigation
2. Response
3. Recovery
4. Preparedness

Q195

Environmental Pollution & ControlTrickling Filter Efficiencies

What is the removal efficiency of high-rate trickling filter?

Q196

Environmental Pollution & ControlPlankton & Aquatic Ecology

What is plankton?

Q197

Environmental Pollution & ControlRamsar Convention International Partners

Which of the following are Partners of Ramsar Convention?
1. International Union for conservation of Nature
2. Birdlife International
3. International Water Management Institute
4. Wildfowl and Wetlands Trust
Select the correct option:

Q198

Environmental Pollution & ControlCPCB Constitution & Water Act

In constitution of central board for prevention and control of water pollution how many persons are nominated by government, which represents the companies or corporation owned, controlled or managed by central government.

Q199

Environmental Pollution & ControlMining EIA Components

EIA of mining activities involve impact assessment on
1. Geological Environment
2. Biological Environment
3. Aerial Environment
Codes:

Q200

Environmental Pollution & ControlEDTA Titration & Water Hardness

For determining the hardness in water sample, which among the following is used as a titrant:

Q201

Environmental Pollution & ControlPlume Dispersion Behavior: Coning

Coning is observed when:

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Neutrally Stable atmosphere)

A coning plume profile occurs under neutral atmospheric stability (Environmental Lapse Rate equal to Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate) with high cloud cover and moderate-to-strong horizontal winds (

> 32\text{ km/h}

).

Q202

Environmental Pollution & ControlSolid Waste Management Rules 2016

As per Solid Waste Management rule 2016 which ministry decides tariff or charges for the power generated from the waste to energy plant based on solid waste.

Q203

Environmental Pollution & ControlNational Clean Air Programme (NCAP)

What is the principal aim of the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)?
1. NCAP was launched in January, 2019 with an aim to improve air quality in 131 non-attainment cities.
2. To attain a 20-30% reduction solely in $\text{PM}_{2.5}$ levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 only)

Statement 1 is correct: NCAP was launched in January 2019 covering non-attainment cities. Statement 2 is incorrect because the target was a 20–30% reduction in both

\text{PM}_{10}

and

\text{PM}_{2.5}

concentrations (not solely

\text{PM}_{2.5}

).

Q204

Environmental Pollution & ControlUNEP Global Environment Outlook

The Global Environment Outlook report is published by:

Q205

Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringMontreux Record & Ramsar Wetlands

With reference to the Montreux Protocol which of the statement is correct?

Q206

Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringTropical Rainforest Ecology & Soils

Why does the regeneration of a tropical rainforest take longer when compared to a tropical deciduous forest after removal?

Q207

Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringWildlife Protection Act Protected Areas

Which of the following is/are have been provided for in the Wildlife protection act, 1972?
1. National parks
2. Wildlife sanctuaries
3. Biosphere reserves
Select the correct answer:

Q208

Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringNoise Pollution Standards

What is the permissible limit of day time industrial noise as recommended by WHO?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (75 dB)

Under India's Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 and WHO industrial guidelines, the permissible ambient noise limit in Industrial areas during daytime (06:00 to 22:00) is

75\text{ dB(A)}~L_{eq}

.

Q209

Water Quality & Wastewater Engineering42nd Constitutional Amendment & Environment

Which amendment explicitly incorporated Article 48-A and 51-A (g) into the Constitution?

Q210

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementWaterborne vs Water-Contact Diseases

Which of the following is NOT a waterborne disease?

Q211

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementEIA Methodology & Standards

Which of the following is NOT included during EIA?

Q212

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementStrategic Environmental Assessment (SEA)

Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Strategic Environmental Assessment (SEA) is a more advanced tool in environmental management.
Reason (R): SEA is applicable at the level of policy, planning and programs.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q213

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementLandfill Siting Buffer Distances

According to Solid Waste Management Rules 2016, a landfill site should be how many meters away from a river?

Q214

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementCategory B2 EIA Exemptions

Which one of the categories of development does not require an Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) report?

Q215

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementNitrogen Cycle & Denitrification

In nitrogen cycle, elemental nitrogen returned to the atmosphere by the following process:

💡Correct Answer: Option D (Denitrification process)

Denitrification is the anaerobic biological process carried out by bacteria (such as Pseudomonas and Paracoccus) that converts nitrates (

NO_3^-

) and nitrites (

NO_2^-

) back into dinitrogen gas (

N_2

), returning elemental nitrogen to the atmosphere.

Q216

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementPlastic Waste EPR Categories

Match the following with respect to plastic packaging:
List 1: 1. Category I, 2. Category II, 3. Category III, 4. Category IV
List 2: i. Multilayered plastic packaging, ii. Carry bags of compostable plastic, iii. Rigid plastic packaging, iv. Flexible plastic packaging single or multilayer
Select the correct option:

Q217

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementPhosphorus Analysis Methods

Which method is commonly employed by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) for estimating phosphorus levels in water samples?

Q218

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementSmog Definition & Formation

Smog is the mixture of

Q219

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementCauses of Ozone Depletion

The "Ozone Hole" is primarily caused by the release of which type of chemicals into the atmosphere?

💡Correct Answer: Option D (Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs))

Stratospheric ozone depletion is primarily caused by synthetic Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), halons, and carbon tetrachloride, which release free chlorine and bromine radicals under intense UV radiation that catalytically break down ozone molecules (

O_3

).

Q220

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementBiodiversity Definition

The term "Biodiversity" refers to the

Q221

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementAcid Rain Chemistry

Acid rain is caused by the presence of which pollutants in the atmosphere?

💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides)

Acid precipitation (

pH < 5.6

) is primarily caused by the atmospheric emission of Sulfur Dioxide (

SO_2

) and Nitrogen Oxides (

NO_x

), which react with water vapor, oxygen, and oxidants to form sulfuric acid (

H_2SO_4

) and nitric acid (

HNO_3

).

Q222

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementPollution & Human Health Hazards

An example of a health hazard associated with environmental pollution is

Q223

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementHealth Effects of Ozone Depletion

Which of the following diseases is majorly caused due to ozone depletion?

Q224

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementSewage Plant Design Horizon

The estimated design period for sewage treatment facility typically ranges from

Q225

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementTypes of BOD: CBOD & NBOD

How many types of biological oxygen demand (BOD) is present in water?

Q226

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementFluid Hydraulics & Flowrate Formula

If the area of reactor is $0.25\text{ m}^2$ through which water is flowing at a velocity of $10\text{ m/s},$ what is the flowrate?

💡Correct Answer: Option B ($2.5\text{ m}^3/\text{s}$)

Discharge/Flowrate

Q = \text{Cross-sectional Area } (A) \times \text{Flow Velocity } (V) = 0.25\text{ m}^2 \times 10\text{ m/s} = 2.5\text{ m}^3/\text{s}

.

Q227

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementWastewater Pumps & Mechanics

Which types of pumps are widely used in wastewater plant for flow and pressure?

Q228

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementCOD Definition & Units

The unit of COD present in wastewater is

💡Correct Answer: Option B ($\text{mg/L}$)

Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) is defined as the mass of equivalent oxygen required to chemically oxidize all organic compounds per unit volume of water, expressed in milligrams per liter (

\text{mg/L}

or ppm).

Q229

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementBiochemical Oxygen Demand Concept

The BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of a wastewater is a measure of

Q230

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementNitrification Kinetics & SRT

The nitrification process is controlled by temperature and

Q231

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementPer Capita Discharge Calculations

A town with a population of 60,000 has a daily sewage discharge of $1000\text{ m}^3$ . What is the per capita sewage discharge for the town?

💡Correct Answer: Option A ($0.016\text{ m}^3/\text{day}$)

Per capita daily sewage discharge

= \frac{\text{Total Daily Discharge}}{\text{Population}} = \frac{1000\text{ m}^3/\text{day}}{60,000} = \frac{1}{60} \approx 0.0166\text{ m}^3/\text{person/day}

. Option A (

0.016\text{ m}^3/\text{day}

) is correct.

Q232

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementCement Industry Effluent Characteristics

Which waste characteristic is common in the effluent from the cement industry?

Q233

Environmental Laws & Disaster ManagementMembrane Bioreactors (MBR)

What is a significant advantage of a membrane batch reactor over conventional treatment methods?

Q234

Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationStrategic Environmental Assessment (SEA)

SEA stands for

Q235

Occupational Health, Safety & InstrumentationEnvironmental Clearance Validity

According to the EIA Notification 2006, what is the maximum duration for which environmental clearance for a project under Category A is valid?

Q236

General Knowledge & Current AffairsMarine Biodiversity & Wildlife

Which of the following statements regarding Dugongs - marine mammals is/are correct?
1. The warm coastal waters of the Indian and Pacific Oceans are home to dugongs.
2. Dugongs typically measure between 2.2 to 3.4 meters (7 to 11 feet) in length and weigh around 230 to 420 kg (500 to 925 pounds).
3. Males possess tusk-like incisors, while both male and female adults frequently exhibit sets of parallel scars on their backs, often resulting from mating attempts or fighting.

Q237

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyNational Parks & Wildlife of J&K

Which National park is located in Jammu and Kashmir and is known for its population of endangered Hangul?

Q238

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnvironmental Days

Which day is celebrated every year as 'World Environment Day'?

Q239

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Distribution Valves

Match the list-1 with list-2 and select the correct answer using the codes given below,
List -1 (Name of the valve): a. Reflux valve, b. Sluice valve, c. Pressure relief valve, d. Scour valve
List -2 (Purpose of the valve): 1. Drain out the west water from dead end, 2. Relieving water hammer pressure, 3. Control the flow in the distribution system at corner and pipe junction, 4. Allow the flow only in one direction

Q240

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Treatment Plant Units

Considering
(i) Screening
(ii) Sedimentation
(iii) Disinfection
(iv) Filtration.
The correct sequence of treatments which are generally given to treat raw water supplies are

Q241

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Distribution Design Capacity

The distribution system of water supplies is designed in the basis of

Q242

🌿 Environmental Science & EcologyEnvironmental Conventions Chronology

Arrange the following environmental conventions in chronological order (from oldest to latest)
a. Stockholm Convention
b. Montreal Protocol
c. Kyoto Protocol
d. Basel Convention

Q243

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringSewage vs Sullage

What is the name of the water coming out of the kitchen, bathroom, and wash basin?

Q244

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringDesalination Methods

Which of the following treatments reduce salinity of water?
(i) Flocculation and sedimentation.
(ii) Filtration.
(iii) Reverse osmosis.
(iv) Electrodialysis.
Select the correct answer given below.

Q245

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWastewater Treatment Operations

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the combinations given below:
List - I (Terms/Description): a. Sludge volume index, b. Thickening of sludge, c. Scum removal, d. Recycling of effluent
List - II (Treatment operation/process): 1. Settling in primary sedimentation tank., 2. Settling in secondary sedimentation tank., 3. Filtration in trickling filter., 4. Activated sludge process.
The correct combination is:

Q246

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Quality Testing: Threshold Odour Number

If $25\text{ ml}$ of an odorous water sample requires $175\text{ ml}$ of distilled water to produce $200\text{ ml}$ of odour free mixture, then what is the threshold odour number (TON)?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (8)

Threshold Odour Number

TON = \frac{A + B}{A} = \frac{25\text{ ml} + 175\text{ ml}}{25\text{ ml}} = \frac{200}{25} = 8

.

Q247

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringDisinfection Standards: Residual Chlorine

What is the minimum residual chlorine desired after the chlorination process?

💡Correct Answer: Option A ($0.2\text{ ppm}$)

According to Indian Standards (IS 10500) and WHO guidelines, treated potable drinking water must have a minimum free residual chlorine concentration of

0.2\text{ mg/L}

(

0.2\text{ ppm}

) after a minimum contact time of 30 minutes.

Q248

🏗️ Environmental EngineeringWater Distribution Layouts: Grid Iron

Among the following water supply distribution system, which one is referred to as Reticulation system?

Q249

General EnglishClimate Change & UNFCCC

Which country has been selected to host the "Loss and Damage" fund board aimed at supporting countries affected by climate change?

Q250

General EnglishGovernment Environmental Programmes

Consider the following states:
1. Rajasthan
2. Gujarat
3. Jammu & Kashmir
4. Himachal Pradesh
Desert Development programme was started in which of the above states?

Q251

Basic Concepts of ComputersWildlife Sanctuaries & Fauna of J&K

Dachigam National Park is famous for?

Q252

General Awareness & ScienceEcology: Trophic Levels & Food Chains

The primary consumers are

Q253

General Awareness & ScienceClean Fuels & Environmental Pollution

Which of the following would produce minimum environmental pollution?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Hydrogen)

Hydrogen is a zero-carbon clean green fuel; when burned with oxygen, its only combustion product is pure water vapor (

\text{H}_2\text{O}

), generating zero soot, carbon monoxide, or greenhouse gas emissions.

Q254

General Awareness & ScienceDachigam National Park & Gateways

Which is the gateway of the famous Wildlife sanctuary of Dachigam?

Q255

General Awareness & ScienceFundamentals of Ecology

Ecology deals with

Q256

General Awareness & ScienceHemis National Park

Consider the following statements about the Hemis National Park:
1. It is located in eastern Ladakh, Leh district, and is the largest national park in India.
2. Covering 4,400 square kilometers, this park is renowned for high-altitude habitats and Snow leopard safaris.
3. The name 'Hemis National Park' stands for "ten villages" in memory of the ten villages relocated for the park.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Q257

General Awareness & ScienceGreenhouse Gases & Global Warming

Which one of the following is not a greenhouse gas found naturally in the atmosphere?

Q258

General Awareness & ScienceForest Ecology & Monoculture

Teak monoculture has damaged the natural forest in

Q259

General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KInternational Environmental Agreements

Arrange the following in chronological order:
1. Kyoto Protocol
2. Montreal Protocol
3. Vienna Convention
4. Basel Convention
Choose the correct option:

💡Correct Answer: Option C (3, 2, 4, 1)

Chronology of international environmental treaties: 1. Vienna Convention for Protection of Ozone Layer (1985, 3) → 2. Montreal Protocol on Ozone Depleting Substances (1987, 2) → 3. Basel Convention on Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes (1989, 4) → 4. Kyoto Protocol on Greenhouse Gases (1997, 1)

\implies 3, 2, 4, 1

.

Q260

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlSection 185 Penalties for Drunk Driving

As per Central Motor Vehicles Act 1988, driving while drunk can lead to imprisonment for a term of up to

Q261

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlSection 129: Mandatory Helmet Law

What does Section 129 of the Central Motor Vehicles Act 1988 specify?

Q262

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlCMVR Statutory Forms: Form 2

RTO Form No. 2 is applicable for

Q263

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlSection 9: Grant of Driving Licence

Which section of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 deals with the grant of a driving licence?

Q264

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlSources of Air Pollution: Anthropogenic vs Natural

Among the following options, which are man-made (anthropogenic) sources of air pollution?
(i) Burning of firewood
(ii) Forest fire
(iii) Automobile
(iv) Earthquakes

Q265

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlInternal Combustion Exhaust Pollutants

Among following pollutants, which is NOT typically released by motor vehicles?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Phosphorus trioxide ($\text{P}_4\text{O}_6$))

Internal combustion engines emit CO,

\text{CO}_2

,

\text{NO}_x

,

\text{SO}_2

, Unburnt Hydrocarbons (HC), and Particulate Matter (PM). Phosphorus trioxide (

\text{P}_4\text{O}_6

) is not a component of motor fuel combustion exhaust.

Q266

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlpH Scale & Acid Strength

Which of the following values of pH represents a stronger acid?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (2)

The pH scale measures acidity from 0 to 14. Values below 7 are acidic, and lower pH values represent higher hydronium ion

[\text{H}^+]

concentration; hence

\text{pH} = 2

represents the strongest acid.

Q267

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlIncomplete Combustion Products: Carbon Monoxide

Incomplete combustion of hydrocarbon motor vehicle fuel (petrol or diesel) produces

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Carbon monoxide)

Incomplete combustion due to insufficient oxygen produces toxic, colorless, odorless Carbon Monoxide (CO) instead of fully oxidized Carbon Dioxide (

\text{CO}_2

).

Q268

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlBharat Stage II Emission Limits

The carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrocarbon (HC) limits for four-wheelers under Bharat Stage II emission norms are

💡Correct Answer: Option A (1% and 1000 ppm)

Under Bharat Stage II (BS-II) vehicular emission testing standards, idling tailpipe emission limits for 4-wheelers are set at

\le 1.0\%\text{ CO}

and

\le 1000\text{ ppm HC}

.

Q269

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlCMVR Noise Limits (Rule 120)

Maximum permissible drive-by noise level recommended as per Central Motor Vehicles Rules 1989 for heavy commercial vehicles exceeding 12,000 kg GVW is

💡Correct Answer: Option A (89 dB(A))

Under Rule 120 of CMVR, 1989, the maximum permissible drive-by acoustic noise limit for heavy commercial transport vehicles with Gross Vehicle Weight exceeding

12\text{ tonnes}

is

89\text{ dB(A)}

.

Q270

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlSustainable Urban Mobility

Match vehicular pollution concepts:
a. Idling at red traffic signal — 1. Turning off vehicle's engine
b. Cycling or walking — 4. Sustainable mode of transportation
c. Electric vehicle — 3. Reduces level of air pollution compared with petrol
d. High vehicle density — 2. Increasing vehicular pollution in urban India

💡Correct Answer: Option B (a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2)

Remedies and impacts: Idling is mitigated by switching off engine (a-1); Active mobility is sustainable transport (b-4); Electric vehicles cut direct emissions (c-3); High vehicle density intensifies urban pollution (d-2)

\implies

a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2.

Q271

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlVehicle Registration Certificate (RC)

What does the abbreviation "R.C." of a vehicle stand for?

Q272

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlRC Parameters: Seating Capacity

As per Indian Motor Vehicles Act, the number of passengers permitted to be carried in a personal vehicle is recorded in the

Q273

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlLicensing Authorities in India

Who is the competent authority to issue driving licences in India?

Q274

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlSection 146: Mandatory Third-Party Insurance

Consider the following statements:
Statement-1: As per Indian Motor Vehicles Act 1988, a comprehensive motor insurance policy is mandatory.
Statement-2: Third-party liability insurance is optional for Indian vehicles.
Choose the correct combination:

Q275

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlMotor Insurance Policy Terms and Third-Party Liabilities

Consider the following statements regarding motor insurance:
Statement-1: Motor insurance does not provide compensation if the driver does not possess a valid driving licence.
Statement-2: Third-party motor insurance covers a third person who has been injured in an accident involving the vehicle.
Choose the correct option:

Q276

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlRule 50: Registration Mark Script & Font

As per Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989, the number plate of a vehicle should be written in

Q277

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlKinetic Energy of Moving Vehicles

If a 1000 kg vehicle is moving at $10\text{ m/s}$ , it has a kinetic energy of

💡Correct Answer: Option C (50,000 Joule)

Kinetic energy formula

E_k = \frac{1}{2} m v^2 = \frac{1}{2} \times 1000\text{ kg} \times (10\text{ m/s})^2 = 500 \times 100 = 50,000\text{ Joules}

.

Q278

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlConservation of Energy in Braking

When brakes are applied, the kinetic energy of the moving motor vehicle is converted into

Q279

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlInvention of the Automobile: Nicolas Cugnot

In which of the following years was the first self-propelled steam automobile built?

Q280

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlVehicle Classification by Load

Which among the following is a classification of automobiles based on "load capacity"?

Q281

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlDriveline & Differential Gears

Which among the following components is used in the transmission system of a motor vehicle?

Q282

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlIgnition System Faults: Engine Misfire

What is generally the reason for engine misfiring in petrol vehicles?

Q283

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlEngine Overheating Causes

Among the following options, what are the causes of engine overheating?
(i) Excessive valve clearance
(ii) Insufficient coolant
(iii) Faulty radiator fan
(iv) Faulty water pump

Q284

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlBelt Drives: V-Belts vs Flat Belts

V-belts are most suitable when the center distance between the driving and driven pulleys is

Q285

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlV-Belt Geometry and Wedging Action

"V-belts" get their name because of their

Q286

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlSpark Ignition vs Compression Ignition

What type of ignition system is standardly used in petrol (gasoline) engines?

Q287

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlFuel Quality Ratings: Cetane vs Octane

The ignition quality and combustion speed of diesel fuel is indicated by its

Q288

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlHydrometers & Specific Gravity

Which instrument is used to measure the specific gravity or relative density of liquids such as petrol/battery electrolyte?

Q289

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlProperties of Lubricants: Viscosity

The most important physical characteristic of an engine lubricating oil is its

Q290

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlCarburetor Float Mechanism

Flooding in the carburetor of a motor vehicle engine is controlled and regulated by the

Q291

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlCarburetor Choke Circuit

When an engine is cold, which valve in the carburetor is closed to enrich the fuel-air mixture for starting?

Q292

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlRadiators & Heat Exchangers

What is the primary purpose of the radiator in a motor vehicle engine cooling system?

Q293

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlProperties of Brake Fluids (DOT Specifications)

Among the following options, what are the essential characteristics of hydraulic brake fluid?
(i) Low viscosity
(ii) High viscosity
(iii) High boiling point
(iv) Low boiling point

Q294

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlVehicle Specifications: Wheelbase vs Track Width

The "Wheelbase" of a motor vehicle is defined as the distance between the

Q295

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlAir Filters: Oil Bath vs Dry Paper Cartridge

Among the following options, which type of air cleaner is traditionally highly effective in heavy-duty commercial diesel engines?

Q296

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlCoolant Chemistry & Distilled Water

Which type of water is recommended for mixing with antifreeze coolant in a car radiator?

Q297

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlOdometers vs Speedometers

Which of the following instruments is commonly used to measure the total distance traveled by a motor vehicle?

Q298

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlBharat Stage Emission Standards (BS-VI)

What do "BS IV" and "BS VI" vehicle designations signify?

Q299

Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlStarting System & Battery

Which component supplies electrical power to the starter motor to crank a diesel engine?

Q300

Computer ApplicationsGreenhouse Effect and Atmospheric Radiation

The phenomenon when terrestrial thermal radiation absorbed by atmospheric gases is re-radiated back towards the surface of the earth is known as the:

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Greenhouse effect)

The Greenhouse Effect occurs when greenhouse gases (

\text{CO}_2, \text{CH}_4, \text{H}_2\text{O}

) absorb long-wave infrared terrestrial radiation and re-emit heat back to warm Earth's surface.

Q301

Computer ApplicationsNewton's Laws & Conservation of Momentum

Which of these fundamental physical properties is conserved as a direct consequence of Newton's Third Law of Motion?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Momentum)

Because action and reaction forces between interacting bodies are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction (

F_{12} = -F_{21}

), the net internal impulse is zero, establishing the Law of Conservation of Linear Momentum.

Q302

Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Environmental Terminology & Definitions

Match environmental concepts with their definitions:
a. Renewable Energy — 5. Energy derived from naturally replenished sources (sunlight, wind, water)
b. Carbon Footprint — 2. Total amount of greenhouse gases emitted directly or indirectly by human activities
c. Anthropogenic — 4. Resulting from the influence of human beings on nature
d. Climate Mitigation — 3. Actions taken to reduce or prevent GHG emissions
e. Greenhouse Effect — 1. Earth's atmosphere trapping solar radiation, increasing surface temperature

💡Correct Answer: Option A (a-5, b-2, c-4, d-3, e-1)

Environmental definitions: Renewable energy is replenished naturally (a-5); Carbon footprint measures GHG emission total (b-2); Anthropogenic means human-caused (c-4); Mitigation means emissions reduction (d-3); Greenhouse effect warms the planet (e-1)

\implies

a-5, b-2, c-4, d-3, e-1.

Q303

General Awareness & ScienceGreenhouse Gases

Which of the following atmospheric gases is NOT categorized as a direct greenhouse gas?

💡Correct Answer: Option D (Hydrogen ($\text{H}_2$))

Methane, Nitrous Oxide, and Carbon Dioxide are potent greenhouse gases that absorb infrared radiation. Diatomic Hydrogen (

\text{H}_2

) is not a direct greenhouse gas.

Q304

General Awareness & ScienceMechanism of Greenhouse Effect

The greenhouse effect in the Earth's atmosphere is physically produced due to the

Q305

General English & ComprehensionNational Parks & Wildlife Sanctuaries of J&K

Which of the following national parks are located in Jammu and Kashmir?
I. Dachigam National Park
II. Kaziranga National Park
III. Kishtwar High Altitude National Park

Which of the following options is/are correct?

Q306

General ScienceWater Treatment & Environmental Pollution

What is the main purpose of a sewage treatment plant?

Q307

General ScienceNational Parks & Biodiversity of J&K

Which of the following statements about Kishtwar National Park is NOT correct?

Q308

Radiation Safety, Protection & Quality AssuranceEnvironmental Radon Hazard

Radon represents an environmental hazard primarily in:

Q309

Entomology, Microbiology & Plant PathologyBiodiversity Hotspots

The two main characteristic of hotspot are :

Q310

Entomology, Microbiology & Plant PathologyEcology Basics

Wide variety of living organism is called:

Q311

Entomology, Microbiology & Plant PathologyEndangered Species

Globally threatened bird species is :

Q312

Entomology, Microbiology & Plant PathologyWildlife Conservation Programs

"The project tiger" was initiated in :

Q313

Entomology, Microbiology & Plant PathologyIUCN Red List History

The idea of "Red Data Book" was given by :

Q314

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsBee Communication & Ethology

When honey bee discovers a food source less than 250 feet away from the hive, it passes on the information to other bees by performing?

Q315

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsFoundations of Ethology

Term 'ethology' was introduced by

Q316

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsPheromone Functions

Functions of pheromones are

Q317

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsPioneering Primatologists & Ethologists

Match the following:
Ethologist:
1) Jane Van Lawick Goodall
2) Dian Fossey
3) George Schaller
4) Irwin Vore

Animal Studied:
i. Gorilla
ii. Tigers
iii. Chimpanzees
iv. Baboons

Choose the correct options:
1 2 3 4

Q318

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsEcological Succession

Succession on sand known as :

Q319

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsThermal Ecology

A majority of organism which are restricted to a narrow range of temperature are called as

Q320

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsCommunity Ecology

Identify the correct match:
Column-I:
i) Species diversity
ii) Species dominance
iii) Stratification
iv) Key stone Species

Column-II:
1. Great influence on community stability
2. Zonation according to the need of light
3. Different type of species in a community
4. Highest no.of one type of species

Choose the correct Answer

Q321

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsIndian Biodiversity Hotspots

Total number of biological hot spot in India

Q322

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsImprinting & Learning

The behaviour of young ducks following their mother is known as

Q323

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsClassical Conditioning

A process in which an animal learns to associate a previously neutral stimulus with a behaviour that was once triggered by a different stimulus is called.

Q324

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsCognitive Ethology

An animal's ability to escape from a predator by using the explored knowledge of home are is an example of

Q325

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsConditioned Behaviors

Aquarium fish often swim to the water's surface when a person approaches. Their behavior has probably formed through.

Q326

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsBehavioral Categories

Match the following:
1. Conditioning
2. Instinct
3. Tagging
4. Reaching

Descriptions:
i. Animal intelligence
ii. Innate behaviour
iii. Learned behaviour
iv. Tracking animals

Choose the correct Option:

Q327

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsSocial Insects and Altruism

Altruistic behaviour is not seen in

Q328

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsVertebrate Zoology Match

Match the following
1. Jawless vertebrate
2. Flightless bird
3. Cartilaginous fish
4. Amphibian

Examples:
i. Ichthyophis
ii. Shark
iii. Lamprey
iv. Cassowary

Choose the correct Option:

Q329

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsHerpetology Sensory Biology

Snakes are sensitive to

Q330

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsComparative Vertebrate Anatomy

In which of the animals the heart does not have the left and right auricles?

Q331

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsKin Selection & Sociobiology

Which of the following scenarios best describes kin selection in population biology?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (A Worker ant helps the queen raise her offspring, which are genetically related to the worker.)

Kin selection favors altruistic behaviors that enhance the reproductive success of genetic relatives (

r B > C

).

Q332

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsMetapopulation Ecology

Which of the following is a key characteristic of a meta-population?

Q333

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsConservation Genetics

Which of the following is the most accurate statement about inbreeding depression?

Q334

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsHardy-Weinberg Calculations

In a population of wildflowers, the gene for flower color has two alleles: red (R) and white (r). If the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, and the frequency of the white allele (r) is 0.3, what is the expected frequency of heterozygous individuals (Rr)?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (0.42)

Given

q = 0.3

, then

p = 1 - 0.3 = 0.7

. The frequency of heterozygotes

(Rr) = 2pq = 2(0.7)(0.3) = 0.42

(42%).

Q335

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsPopulation Genetics Equations

In a population, the frequency of the dominant allele (A) is 0.7. What is the expected proportion of homozygous recessive individuals (aa) in this population.

💡Correct Answer: Option A (0.09)

Given

p = 0.7

, recessive allele frequency

q = 1 - 0.7 = 0.3

. The homozygous recessive frequency

(aa) = q^2 = 0.3^2 = 0.09

(9%).

Q336

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsInterspecific Competition

What term best describes the type of interaction where two species use the same resources, leading to a negative impact on both species due to competition?

Q337

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsCarrying Capacity & Logistics

Which of the following is the primary factor limiting the growth of a population in an environment with abundant resources?

Q338

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsDensity-Dependent Factors

In the context of environmental factors, which of the following is an example of a density-dependent factor that regulates population size?

Q339

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population DynamicsCoevolution Dynamics

Which of the following is an example of coevolution between two species?

Q340

Animal Behaviour, Ecology & Population Dynamicsr and K Selection

Which of the following best describes r-selected species?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Species that reproduce quickly and produce many offspring.)

r-selected strategists prioritize high intrinsic reproductive rates (

r

), early maturity, rapid dispersal, and high fecundity with minimal parental investment.

Q341

Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationBiostatistics - ANOVA

Which statistical test is typically used to compare the means of more than two groups?

Q342

Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationHypothesis Testing Errors

What is the term for the error made when a research hypothesis is accepted even though it is false?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Type I error)

A Type I error (false positive /

\alpha

) occurs when a true null hypothesis is rejected, falsely accepting the research hypothesis.

Q343

Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationMultivariate Analysis

Which type of analysis is used to examine relationships between multiple variables simultaneously in multivariate data?

Q344

Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationChi-Square Test

Which type of statistical test is most appropriate when examining the relationship between two categorical variables?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Chi-square test)

The Pearson Chi-Square test of independence (

\chi^2

) evaluates associations between categorical nominal/ordinal variables in contingency tables.

Q345

Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationPsychometric Measurement Scales

What type of scale is used to measure the degree to which respondents agree or disagree with a statement?

Q346

Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationWildlife Forensics Objectives

What is the principal objective of wildlife forensics?

Q347

Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationForensic Evidence Types

Which of the following is NOT commonly examined in wildlife forensic investigations?

Q348

Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationCITES Regulatory Framework

The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) is significant in wildlife forensics due to :

Q349

Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationStable Isotope Provenancing

What is the purpose of isotope analysis in wildlife forensics?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Determining geographical origin of animal samples.)

Stable isotope ratio analysis (SIRA:

\delta^{13}C, \delta^{15}N, \delta^{18}O, \delta^2H, ^{87}Sr/^{86}Sr

) reveals the geographical geographic origin and diet of confiscated tusks, feathers, and horns.

Q350

Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationThreats to Wildlife

Which of these does not pose a major risk to wildlife?

Q351

Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationConservation Abbreviations

In terms of animal conservation, what does the abbreviation CITES stand for?

Q352

Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationIUCN Red List Categories

What level of conservation suggests that a species has a very high chance of going extinct in the wild?

Q353

Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationClimate Change & Extinction

Which of the following consequences of global warming may elevate the likelihood of extinction?

Q354

Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationSpecies Reintroduction Risks

What potential risk does the reintroduction of a species cause?

Q355

Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationSuccessful Conservation Programs

Which of these represents a successful program for reintroduction?

Q356

Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationNational Parks of India

Match the following:
National Park:
1. Gir National Park
2. Jim Corbett National Park
3. Desert National Park
4. Kuno National Park

State:
I. Rajasthan
II. Gujarat
III. Madya Pradesh
IV. Uttarakhand

Choose the correct Option:

Q357

Biostatistics, Wildlife Forensics & ConservationNational Birds of Countries

Match the following:
Country:
1. India
2. Bhutan
3. Afghanistan
4. Nepal

National Bird:
I. Himalayan Monal
II. Golden Eagle
III. Peacock
IV. Raven

Choose the correct Option:

Q358

General ScienceEnvironmental Biotechnology

The use of micro-organism metabolism to remove pollutants such as oil spills in the water bodies is known as

Q359

General ScienceWater Pollution Indicators

Water pollution of a river is measured by

Q360

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTCensus 2011 Demographics

As per the 2011 census, which one of the following states has recorded a decrease in population?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Nagaland)

In the 2011 Census of India, Nagaland was the only state to record a negative decadal population growth rate of

-0.58\%

.

Q361

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTGroundwater Pollutants

Which of the following element is responsible for groundwater pollution in various states?

Q362

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTPhysiography of J&K

Between which mountain ranges is Kashmir Valley located

Q363

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTTunnels and Infrastructure in J&K

Which of the following options is the longest all weather road tunnel that has enabled increase in trade and tourism in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?

Q364

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTHydroelectric Projects in J&K

Which is the first hydro power project build by India in Jammu & Kashmir under the Indus water treaty regime?

Q365

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTForestry Conservation

Which of the following is considered as an anti-forest conservation activity

Q366

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTPopulation Density of India

Which one of the following states has the highest density of population according to the Census of India, 2011?

Q367

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTGreenhouse Effect Physics

What form of energy is radiated by the earth and trapped by greenhouse gasses to cause global warming?

Q368

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTClimate of J&K

Which district of the Jammu division receives the maximum rainfall in the year?

Q369

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTJ&K Hydro Projects

Kishanganga hydroelectric project is located in which district of the Jammu & Kashmir?

Q370

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTWildlife Sanctuaries of J&K

Hirapora Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in which district of the jammu & Kashmir?

Q371

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTNatural Resources Classification

This group consists of non-renewable organic resources

Q372

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTCensus 2011 UT Literacy

Which one of the following Union Territories has the highest female literacy rate?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Lakshadweep)

According to Census 2011, Lakshadweep recorded the highest female literacy rate among all Union Territories at

87.95\%

.

Q373

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTCultural Geography of J&K

Which district of the Jammu and Kashmir is known as land of Bowlis and land of Devika?

Q374

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTRivers of J&K

Which of the following rivers serves for Salal Hydel project of Jammu and Kashmir?

Q375

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTNational Parks of J&K

Which National Park in Jammu & Kashmir is famous for its Hangul or Kashmir stag population?

Q376

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTAgriculture and Crops of J&K

Which of the following crops is referred to as 'Nikku Muth' in Jammu and Kashmir?

Q377

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTWaste Management Principles

There are three R's that will help us to conserve natural resources for long time use are

Q378

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTLakes of J&K

Which one of the following lakes of India is located in Jammu and Kashmir?

Q379

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTDemographic Theories

The term 'demographic gap' signifies the difference in which of the following.

Q380

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTTourism & Culture of J&K

_______, also known as "little Tibet", is renowned for its remote mountain beauty and Buddhist culture.

Q381

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTWetlands of J&K

Hokersar (Ramsar Site) is located in which district of Jammu & Kashmir.

Q382

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTClimatology of J&K

Which part of the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir has a typical monsoon tropical climate?

Q383

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTEcosystem Conservation

Why should we conserve forest and wildlife?

Q384

Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTSocial Indicators

Which one of the following states is ranked economically at the top but lowest on the basis of sex ratio?

Q385

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlSanitary Landfill Design

In a sanitary landfill, the leachate collection system primarily prevents:

Q386

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlInternational Environmental Conventions

Which international agreement regulates the movement and disposal of hazardous waste across borders?

Q387

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlBiomedical Waste Management

Which of the following types of solid waste is typically classified as "biomedical waste"?

Q388

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlDomestic Liquid Waste

Liquid waste generated by household activities, such as dishwashing and laundry, is typically classified as:

Q389

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlHazardous Waste Treatment

Which of the following methods is commonly used to treat hazardous liquid waste before disposal?

Q390

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlIndustrial Toxic Waste

Which of the following would be classified as "toxic liquid waste" in an industrial setting?

Q391

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlSeptic Tank Microbiology

Which of the following is a key component of the biological treatment process in a septic tank?

Q392

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlEnvironmental Sanitation Hazards

Which of the following is a major environmental concern associated with improperly maintained septic tank latrines?

Q393

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlSeptic Tank Maintenance

How often should a septic tank typically be pumped to prevent system failure?

Q394

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlSeptic Tank Layers

Which of the following describes the "scum" layer in a septic tank?

Q395

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlSanitary Latrines (RCA)

What is the primary purpose of the water seal in an RCA (Ring-Covered or Ring- Sealed) latrine?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (To prevent the escape of foul odors and harmful gases from the pit)

A water seal (P-trap containing

20\text{ mm}

water depth) creates an airtight barrier that prevents pit gases (methane,

H_2S

), foul odors, flies, and mosquitoes from entering the latrine superstructure.

Q396

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlVector-Borne Disease Vectors

Which of the following arthropods is primarily responsible for the transmission of the Plasmodium parasite, the causative agent of malaria?

Q397

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlVector Ecology

Which of the following factors most significantly influences the population dynamics and disease transmission potential of arthropod vectors?

Q398

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlArboviral Vectors

The primary vector of the Zika virus, which is a significant public health concern, is:

Q399

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlSanitary Housing Standards

Which of the following is a key requirement in housing standards aimed at preventing hypothermia and maintaining warmth in colder climates?

💡Correct Answer: Option D (Insulation in floors, walls, and ceilings)

Adequate thermal envelope insulation in ceilings, walls, and subfloors minimizes conductive and radiative heat loss, keeping indoor temperatures stable above

18^\circ\text{C}

.

Q400

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlSustainable Green Housing

Which of the following factors is essential for a housing unit to be considered environmentally sustainable while maintaining healthy living standards?

Q401

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlNoise Pollution Sources

Which of the following is a primary cause of environmental noise pollution in urban areas?

Q402

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlNoise Pollution Regulations

In terms of regulatory limits, what is the typical acceptable day-time noise level (Lday) for residential areas in most urban settings according to noise pollution standards?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (55 dB)

Under the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) Noise Pollution Rules 2000, permissible ambient noise limits for Residential Areas are

55\text{ dB(A)}

during daytime (6 AM–10 PM) and

45\text{ dB(A)}

at night.

Q403

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlVaccine Immunology

Which of the following is the primary mechanism by which vaccines induce long lasting immunity against infectious diseases?

Q404

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlMucosal Immunity (IgA)

Which of the following immunoglobulins is most commonly associated with providing immunity against pathogens at mucosal surfaces, such as the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts?

Q405

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlActive vs Passive Immunity

Which of the following types of immunity is provided by a vaccination with a killed or inactivated pathogen?

Q406

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlChemical Disinfection Mechanisms

What is the primary mechanism of action for alcohol-based disinfectants like isopropyl alcohol?

Q407

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlDisinfection Factors

The presence of which of the following can reduce the effectiveness of a disinfectant?

Q408

Environmental Sanitation, Waste Management & Vector ControlHypertension Prevention

Which of the following lifestyle modifications is most effective in preventing the development of hypertension in individuals with prehypertension?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Low-sodium diet)

Dietary sodium restriction (

<2000\text{ mg/day}

) combined with the DASH diet (rich in fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy) is the most proven lifestyle intervention to lower blood pressure.

Q409

First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal AdministrationClimate Change & Global Health

Which of the following is a major challenge in global health that is directly related to climate change?

Q410

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationMuseum Lighting & Illumination

Advantages of 'Fibre Optics' lighting in museum showcases are :
i. It does not produce heat
ii. It is easy to install
iii. It does not emit UV rays
iv. Less expensive
v. It is safe
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q411

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationEnvironmental Monitoring Tools

Environmental control in museum involves :
i. Use of Lux Meter
ii. Use of Burglar Alarm
iii. Use of Whirling Hygrometer
iv. Use of RFID card accession number
v. Use of UV meter
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q412

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationInsect Metamorphosis & IPM

Write in chronological order the life cycle of an insect :
i. Adult
ii. Larva
iii. Pupa
iv. Egg
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q413

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationConservation Equipment & Applications

Match List I with List II
List I (Conservation Equipment):
1. Whirling Psychrometer
2. X-ray radiographic equipment
3. Leaf caster
4. Freeze-dryer

List II (Application):
I. For measuring RH (Relative Humidity)
II. For filling holes in folios / paper repair
III. For drying waterlogged books and killing insects
IV. For seeing below the surface / internal structure of artifacts

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q414

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationMuseum Fumigants & Biocides

Which of the following chemical compounds is a fumigant good for treating almost all kinds of museum objects?

Q415

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationHazardous Conservation Chemicals

Though arsenic is an excellent insecticide, it is not suitable for treating museum objects because :
i. It can only be used in aqueous solution, which is generally to be avoided
ii. It is hazardous to the person treating the object
iii. If applied arsenic remains on the treated object as a toxic residue
iv. It makes objects porous
v. It reacts with organic objects
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Q416

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationBiodeterioration Symptoms Match

Match List I with List II
List I (Symptom of biodeterioration):
1. Foxing
2. Permanent disfigurement
3. Powder formation
4. Odor

List II (Type of object):
i. Wooden object
ii. Leather object
iii. Paper
iv. Photograph

Options :

Q417

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationLight Degradation & Lux Limits

Which of the following is the primary reason for controlling light exposure in the conservation of museum objects?

Q418

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationIntegrated Pest Management

What is the most effective method for controlling insect damage in museum collections?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Proper storage and environmental controls like temperature and humidity regulation (Integrated Pest Management))

Integrated Pest Management (IPM)—maintaining strict environmental climate control (

T \le 20^\circ\text{C}, RH \le 50\%

), cleanliness, quarantine of incoming acquisitions, and sticky insect traps—is the premier non-destructive defense against museum pests.

Q419

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationFungal Growth Prevention

Which of the following is crucial to prevent fungal growth in a museum collection?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Maintaining a stable and controlled environment with low humidity (below 60% RH))

Mold and fungal spores germinate actively when relative humidity (

RH

) exceeds

65\%

; maintaining stable ambient

RH

between

45\%

and

55\%

strictly inhibits fungal growth.

Q420

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationPreventive Conservation Parameters

In preventive conservation, which atmospheric condition should be controlled to preserve museum objects effectively?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Temperature and humidity)

Controlling ambient Temperature (

18^\circ\text{C}-22^\circ\text{C}

) and Relative Humidity (

45\%-55\%

) is the single most critical foundation of preventive conservation to prevent thermal cycling and moisture fluctuations.

Q421

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationAir Pollution Control in Museums

Which of the following is an effective strategy for protecting museum objects from air pollution?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Using airtight display cases with air filters (activated carbon / Purafil))

Hermetically sealed museum display cases equipped with positive pressure HEPA and activated carbon chemical pollutant sorbent filters protect artifacts from atmospheric

SO_2, NO_x

, ozone, and particulates.

Q422

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationBronze Disease Treatment

Following are the treatments for bronze disease / corrosion in bronze:
i. Zinc Dust method
ii. Treatment with Benzotriazole (BTA)
iii. Use of Thio Urea Dip
iv. Application of Paraloid B72 as protective coating
v. Low potential electrochemical method
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Q423

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationManuscript Conservation Workflow

Arrange in order the steps involved in treatment of a paper manuscript:
i) Removal of acidity (Deacidification)
ii) Filling of holes
iii) Opening of damaged binding
iv) Numbering of folios
v) Binding of folios
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

Q424

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationMetal Activity Series

Arrange the following metals in the increasing order of activity (reactivity series):
i) Copper
ii) Zinc
iii) Gold
iv) Silver
v) Lead
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

💡Correct Answer: Option B (iii, iv, i, v, ii)

Reactivity series from least active (noble) to most active: Gold (

Au

, iii) < Silver (

Ag

, iv) < Copper (

Cu

, i) < Lead (

Pb

, v) < Zinc (

Zn

, ii).

Q425

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationPapier-Mâché Conservation

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the basic steps in the conservation of papier-mâché artifacts/objects?
i. The first step in conservation is to thoroughly clean the artifact to remove dust and dirt.
ii. Stabilization involves repairing cracks, reinforcing weak areas, and ensuring structural integrity.
iii. Protective coatings are applied first to prevent immediate environmental damage.
iv. After stabilization, the artifact is stored without any further treatment to avoid handling damage.
Options :

Q426

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationTerracotta Artifact Conservation

Which of the following methods is commonly used in the conservation of terracotta artifacts?

Q427

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationWet Biological Specimen Preservation

Why is an alcoholic medium commonly used for the conservation of biological animals in an aquatic medium?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Alcohol prevents the growth of bacteria and fungi, acting as a preservative)

Fluid zoological wet specimens are stored in

70\%

ethyl alcohol because ethanol dehydrates tissues and denatures microbial proteins, acting as a potent antiseptic preventing bacterial putrefaction and fungal decay.

Q428

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationMuseum Mannequins Conservation

What is commonly used as a base material in the conservation of mannequins?

Q429

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationPhotochemical Degradation Order

Due to photochemical effect what would be the damage at first in a framed oil painting?
i) Painting (pigments, Ink)
ii) Background
iii) Frame
iv) Wall
v) Adhesives
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Q430

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationWax Coatings for Metals

Which of the following methods is most commonly used to protect bronze artifacts from corrosion?

Q431

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationBrass Conservation

To prevent tarnishing of brass artifacts, which of the following treatments is recommended?

Q432

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationPaper Curative Conservation

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the curative conservation of paper materials (currency notes, judicial papers, and manuscripts)?
i. Currency notes should be handled with gloves to prevent oil and dirt from hands damaging the surface.
ii. Judicial papers can be restored using chemical bleaching to remove stains.
iii. Manuscripts should be stored in a controlled environment with low humidity and temperature to prevent deterioration.
iv. Paper materials should be cleaned using abrasive methods for better preservation.
Options :

Q433

Conservation Science, Material Degradation & Preventive ConservationPaper Deacidification & Preservation

Which of the following statements are accurate in the context of curative conservation of paper materials in museums?
i. Currency notes must be de-acidified to slow down the process of aging and deterioration.
ii. Judicial papers should be kept in an acidic environment to ensure their longevity.
iii. Manuscripts are best preserved when they are handled with caution and stored in archival-quality folders.
iv. Paper materials may require re-binding to ensure structural integrity if the binding has degraded.
Options :

Q434

Heritage Legislation, Antiquities & J&K Heritage SitesWildlife Protection Act Definitions

According to Wildlife Protection Act 1972 'Live Stock' means

Q435

Heritage Legislation, Antiquities & J&K Heritage SitesPreventive Conservation Definition

What is preventive conservation?

Q436

General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Environmental Impacts of Energy

What is the primary disadvantage of conventional energy sources?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (They cause pollution and environmental degradation)

Combustion of conventional fossil fuels emits greenhouse gases (

CO_2

), sulfur dioxide (

SO_2

), and particulates, causing air pollution and climate change.

Q437

General Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology)Water Pollution

What is the term used for the release of harmful substances into water bodies?

Q438

Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyGreenhouse Effect

Which of these pollutants contributes to the greenhouse effect?

💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)

Carbon dioxide (

CO_2

), Methane (

CH_4

), and Nitrous oxide (

N_2O

) are all potent greenhouse gases trapping terrestrial infrared radiation.

Q439

General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyForest Types of India

Mangrove forests in India are predominantly found in which region?

Q440

General Science, Public Hygiene & Special Reference to J&KNational Parks of J&K

Which of the following statements about Kazinag National Park is correct?

Q441

Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyNatural Resources Classification

What is the primary source of non-renewable resources?

Q442

Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyEnvironmental Impacts

Which of the following is a major consequence of overuse of natural resources?

Q443

Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyNon-Renewable Resource Properties

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of non-renewable resources?

Q444

Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyMineral Extraction

What is the process of obtaining minerals from the Earth's crust called?

Q445

Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyResource Conservation

Which of the following activities can lead to the depletion of natural resources?

Q446

Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyNational Parks of J&K

Which of the following is the largest national park in Jammu and Kashmir?

Q447

Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyHangul Conservation in Dachigam

Which endangered species is primarily protected in Dachigam National Park?

Q448

Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyWildlife Sanctuaries of Kashmir

Which wildlife sanctuary is located near Pahalgam in Kashmir Valley?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Overa-Aru Wildlife Sanctuary)

The Overa-Aru Wildlife Sanctuary (covering

511\text{ km}^2

) is situated in the scenic catchment area around Pahalgam in Anantnag district.

Q449

Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyHydroelectric Projects of J&K

The Baglihar Hydroelectric Project is located on which river in Jammu and Kashmir?

Q450

Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyHydroelectric Stations of J&K

The Uri-I Hydroelectric Power Station is located on which river?

Q451

Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyHydroelectric Stations of J&K

The Salal Hydroelectric Project is located on which river in Jammu and Kashmir?

Q452

Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyHydroelectric Stations of J&K

The Dulhasti Hydro Power Station is located in which district of Jammu and Kashmir?

Q453

Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyCensus 2011 Demographics

What was the total population of India as per the 2011 Census?

Q454

Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyCensus 2011 State Populations

According to the 2011 Census, which state had the highest population in India?

Q455

Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyCensus 2011 Literacy Rates

What was the literacy rate of India according to the 2011 Census?

Q456

Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyCensus 2011 Sex Ratio

What was the sex ratio of India as per the 2011 Census?

Q457

Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyCensus 2011 State Literacy

Which state had the highest literacy rate in India according to the 2011 Census?

Q458

Environment, Demographics (Census 2011) & J&K GeographyCensus 2011 Districts Count

What was the total number of districts in India as per the 2011 Census?

Q459

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsEarth Spheres (Lithosphere)

The upper part of the planet Earth's interior is known as

Q460

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsBiosphere Definition

The part of the earth in which life exists in any form i.e., plants, animals and humans is referred to as:

Q461

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeAtmosphere Definition

The atmosphere of the earth can be defined as

Q462

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsEcology Science

The study of relationships and interactions between biotic and abiotic components is known as

Q463

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsEcosystem Functional Unit

The functional unit in ecology is

Q464

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsPhysical Matter in Ecology

Within an ecosystem any physical entity that occupies space, and can be seen, smelled or felt, is known as.

Q465

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsEnergy Concept

The ability to perform work is known as

Q466

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeAtmospheric Forces (Coriolis and PGF)

Identify the wrong statements:
A) The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the direction of motion
B) Pressure gradient force acts in the direction of low pressure
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) Pressure gradient force and Coriolis force are always in opposite direction

Q467

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeFrontal Inversion Meteorology

Frontal inversion is caused when a

Q468

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeStratospheric UV Absorption (UVC)

Which of the following UV rays cannot penetrate through stratosphere while entering the earth surface.

💡Correct Answer: Option C (UVC)

UVC radiation (short wavelengths

100 ext{--}280 ext{ nm}

) possesses the highest energy and is completely absorbed by stratospheric oxygen and ozone molecules (

O_2, O_3

), preventing it from reaching the Earth's surface (UVA reaches the surface, UVB is partially absorbed).

Q469

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeAdiabatic Lapse Rates (DALR vs SALR)

Identify one correct statement:

💡Correct Answer: Option C (DALR is greater than SALR because ascending saturated air releases latent heat by converting water vapor into water droplets and slows down the cooling process)

The Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate (

ext{DALR} = 9.8^\circ ext{C/km}

) is greater than the Saturated Adiabatic Lapse Rate (

ext{SALR} pprox 5 ext{--}6^\circ ext{C/km}

) because rising saturated air releases latent heat of condensation as water vapor condenses into droplets, which warms the parcel and slows down its rate of cooling. Choice C.

Q470

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeAtmospheric Stability Criteria

If $\text{DALR} > \text{ELR}$ , atmospheric conditions will be:

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Subadiabatic)

When the Environmental Lapse Rate is less than the Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate (

ext{ELR} < ext{DALR}

), the atmosphere is Subadiabatic, creating a statically Stable atmosphere where displaced air parcels return to their equilibrium level.

Q471

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangePasquill-Gifford Stability Classes Matching

Match the type of atmospheric stability to the appropriate PG (Pasquill-Gifford) Stability categories:
Set-A (Stability):
i. Unstable
ii. Neutral
iii. Stable

Set-B (PG Classes):
1. E-F
2. A-B-C
3. D

Choose the Correct Option:

Q472

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeAerosol Particle Dynamics Forces

Which of the following forces is negligible in particle dynamics?

Q473

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsOpen Thermodynamic Systems

In open systems:

Q474

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsLogistic Population Growth (S-Curve)

Which curve shows the population growth of every organism in the environment with carrying capacity?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (S-curve)

Under real environmental constraints with limiting resources and carrying capacity (

K

), population growth of organisms follows the Sigmoid / S-shaped Logistic Growth Curve (

dN/dt = rN(1 - N/K)

).

Q475

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeClimate Change Extinction Vulnerability

Due to climate change, species extinction may occur at:

Q476

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsBiome Definition

A large regional unit characterized by vegetation type and fauna in a specific climatic zone:

Q477

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsEnvironmental Resistance in S-Curve

In the logistic growth curve for population growth, the effect of environmental resistance is observed in:

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Deceleration phase)

In the logistic S-curve, Environmental Resistance begins to decelerate the initial exponential growth rate during the Deceleration Phase as the population density approaches the carrying capacity (

K

).

Q478

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsLandscape Ecology

A unit of land with natural boundary having different patches of ecosystems is called as:

Q479

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsThermodynamic Systems Matching

Match the following thermodynamic concepts:
Set-A:
1. System
2. Closed System
3. Open System
4. Surroundings

Set-B:
i. Rest of the universe beyond the defined boundary of the system
ii. Both energy and matter can flow across the boundary
iii. Anything with an imaginary or real boundary around
iv. Energy is allowed to flow across boundary, but matter is not allowed

Choose the Correct Option:

Q480

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsFirst Law of Thermodynamics

Consider the following statements:
i. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
ii. When work is done there will always be some inefficiency
iii. Every bit of energy can be accounted for while taking part in the process under study
iv. Some portion of the energy put into the process will end up as waste heat
Which of the above statements are correct for First Law of thermodynamics?

💡Correct Answer: Option C ((i), (iii))

The First Law of Thermodynamics (Law of Conservation of Energy) states that energy cannot be created or destroyed (i), and the total energy of an isolated system remains constant so every bit is accounted for (

\Delta U = Q - W

) (iii). (Statements ii and iv describe the Second Law and entropy/irreversibility). Correct: (i), (iii).

Q481

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsThermal Properties Matching

Match the following thermal concepts:
Set-A:
1. Specific heat
2. Latent heat of fusion
3. Internal energy
4. Latent heat of vaporization

Set-B:
i. Energy stored in the system
ii. Energy required to cause phase change from liquid to vapour
iii. Energy required to cause phase change from solid to liquid
iv. Amount of energy required to raise the temperature of unit mass of substance by 1 degree

Choose the Correct Option:

💡Correct Answer: Option C ((1)-(iv), (2)-(iii), (3)-(i), (4)-(ii))

1 -> iv (Specific heat: heat required to raise unit mass by

1^\circ ext{C}

), 2 -> iii (Latent heat of fusion: solid to liquid phase change at melting point), 3 -> i (Internal energy: microscopic molecular energy stored in system), 4 -> ii (Latent heat of vaporization: liquid to vapor phase change at boiling point). Correct match: (1)-(iv), (2)-(iii), (3)-(i), (4)-(ii).

Q482

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeMixing Height Meteorology

Mixing height is:

Q483

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeVentilation Coefficient Calculation

The anemometer at 10m height from the earth's surface measures the average wind speed as 10.2 m/s. The mixing height is 500m. The ventilation coefficient will be?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (5100 m^2/s)

Ventilation Coefficient (

VC

) is calculated as:

VC = \text{Mixing Height } (H) \times \text{Average Wind Speed } (u) = 500\text{ m} \times 10.2\text{ m/s} = 5100\text{ m}^2/\text{s}

. (Values

>6000 ext{ m}^2/ ext{s}

indicate good pollutant dispersion;

<2000 ext{ m}^2/ ext{s}

indicate severe pollution trapping).

Q484

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsEcological Hierarchy Matching

Consider the following pairs:
Set-A:
1. Organisms
2. Population
3. Biological community
4. Aquatic systems

Set-B:
i. Primary lakes, rivers and marine ecosystems
ii. The populations of plants, animals, bacteria and fungi having distinct species composition and structures
iii. Group of individuals inhabiting each area having group characteristics
iv. Basic unit of study in ecology to understand the form, physiology and behaviour

Which one among the pairs given below is correct:

Q485

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsTrophic Classification Matching

Consider the following pairs:
Set-A:
1. Autotrophs
2. Photoautotrophs
3. Photoheterotrophs
4. Chemotrophs

Set-B:
i. Obtain carbon from reduced carbon compounds generated by other organisms
ii. Obtain energy from either inorganic or organic carbon sources
iii. They obtain carbon from inorganics sources
iv. Photosynthetic organisms that obtain their carbon from inorganic sources

Which one among the pairs given below is correct:

Q486

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsBiogeochemical Carbon Cycle

Major driving force in the carbon cycle is

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Photosynthesis)

Photosynthesis ($6CO_2 + 6H_2O + h
u ightarrow C_6H_{12}O_6 + 6O_2

) conducted by terrestrial green plants and marine phytoplankton is the primary biological driving mechanism that sequesters atmospheric

CO_2$ into global organic carbon reservoirs.

Q487

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsGlobal Carbon Sinks

Which one of the following is the major sink of carbon

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Oceans)

The Oceans represent the largest active global sink of carbon on Earth, holding approximately 38,000–40,000 Gt of carbon (largely in dissolved bicarbonate

HCO_3^-

and carbonate ions) compared to ~850 Gt in the atmosphere.

Q488

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeWind and Dispersion Meteorology

Consider the following statements:
i. Wind is air in motion relative to the earth's surface
ii. Wind is air in motion relative to atmosphere.
iii. Wind is air in motion relative to Earth's rotation.
iv. Vertical motion of the wind is responsible for the movement of pollutants.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Q489

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeSpecific Humidity Properties

Consider the following statements:
i. The specific humidity is an index of humidity
ii. The specific humidity is a dimensionless index of humidity that changes with pressure
iii. The specific humidity is a dimensionless index of humidity that does not change with pressure or temperature
iv. Specific humidity indices are not commonly used in air quality studies
Which of the above statements are correct?

Q490

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeMeteorological Isobars

The pressure on a map is depicted by

Q491

Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsIn Situ Bioremediation (Vadose Zone)

In situ bioremediation stimulating microorganisms within

Q492

Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsIntrinsic Bioremediation Principles

Consider the following statements:
i. In intrinsic bioremediations, the contaminants should be organic compounds.
ii. In intrinsic bioremediation, natural biodegradation occurs slower than migration.
iii. The site requirement for intrinsic bioremediation includes adequate supply of trace nutrients.
iv. In intrinsic bioremediation, adequate pH buffering is required to counter the alkaline environment that results from microbial activity.
Which of the above statements are correct?

💡Correct Answer: Option C ((i), (iii))

Statements i and iii are correct: Intrinsic Bioremediation (natural attenuation) relies on indigenous microbes degrading biodegradable Organic petroleum/hydrocarbon contaminants (i), requiring native subsurface presence of electron acceptors (

O_2, NO_3^-

) and trace inorganic nutrients (iii). (Statement ii is false because degradation must be faster than plume migration to prevent exposure). Correct: (i), (iii).

Q493

Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsAerobic vs Anaerobic Biodegradation

Biodegradation occurs in:

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Aerobic and anaerobic both)

Microbial biodegradation of organic matter occurs under Both Aerobic conditions (using molecular

O_2

as terminal electron acceptor producing

CO_2

and

H_2O

) and Anaerobic conditions (methanogenesis, sulfate reduction, denitrification producing

CH_4, H_2S, N_2

).

Q494

Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsBiodegradation Mineralization

Consider the following statements:
i. Biodegradation converts the original material into volatile matter
ii. Biodegradation converts the original material into water, carbon dioxide and minerals.
iii. Biodegradation includes heterotrophic bacteria.
iv. Biodegradation breaks down large polymers into monomers or oligomers.
Which of the above statements are correct?

💡Correct Answer: Option A ((ii), (iv))

Statements ii and iv are defining stages: Complete mineralization breaks down organic macromolecules/polymers into monomers (iv) and ultimately mineralizes them into non-toxic

CO_2

,

H_2O

, and inorganic minerals (ii). Correct: (ii), (iv).

Q495

Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsPhytoremediation Limitations

Consider the following statements:
i. Phytoremediation is an alternative to engineering procedures that are usually more destructive to the soil.
ii. Phytoremediation is limited to the impervious zone of soil.
iii. Phytoremediation technologies are not available for various environments and types of contaminants.
iv. Phytoremediation has limited application where the concentrations of contaminants are toxic to plants
Which of the above statements are not correct?

Q496

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsBiomagnification Definition

Biomagnification occurs when

Q497

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsEcosystem vs Biome Scale

Consider the following statements:
i. An ecosystem is much smaller than a biome
ii. A biome is a large area with similar flora, fauna and microorganisms
iii. Ecosystem does not fail if it doesn't remain in balance
iv. Tropical dry forests are not among major biomes of the world
Which of the above statements are correct?

Q498

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsFood Chain Concept

A food chain is

Q499

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsHydrologic Cycle Components

The hydrologic cycle does not comprise

Q500

Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)Sampling Distribution Statistics

The probability distribution that characterizes some aspects of sampling variability is known as

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sampling distribution)

In inferential statistics, a Sampling Distribution is the theoretical probability distribution of a sample statistic (e.g. sample mean

ar{x}

, sample variance

s^2

) obtained through repeated random sampling from a population.

Q501

Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)Student's t-Distribution Properties

Consider the following statements:
i. Student's t distribution depends on the quantity called degree of freedom
ii. Student's t distribution is symmetric, and bell shaped
iii. Student's t distribution have a smaller standard deviation
iv. As the sample size increases the student's t distribution approaches Poisson distribution
Which of the above statements are correct?

💡Correct Answer: Option C ((i), (ii))

Statements i and ii are correct: Student's t-distribution is completely parameterized by its Degrees of Freedom (

df = n-1

) (i), and is symmetrical, unimodal, and bell-shaped centered at 0 with heavier tails than the normal curve (ii). (Statement iii is false as variance is larger than standard normal; iv is false as it approaches the Normal distribution, not Poisson). Correct: (i), (ii).

Q502

Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)Median Calculation

In one of the monitoring experiments conducted in the field, the following concentrations of $\text{NO}_x$ in $\mu\text{g/m}^3$ were obtained:
$75.83, 76.03, 82.35, 82.7, 87.08, 88.25, 97.43, 108.12, 125.28$
What is the median?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (87.08 ug/m^3)

For

n = 9

ordered observations, the Median is the middle value at position

\frac{n+1}{2} = \frac{10}{2} = 5^{\text{th}}

position:

87.08\ \mu\text{g/m}^3

.

Q503

Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)Standard Deviation Definition

The standard deviation of data set is

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Square root of variance)

By mathematical definition, Standard Deviation (

\sigma

or

s

) is the positive Square Root of the Variance (

\sigma = \sqrt{ ext{Variance}}

).

Q504

Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)Standard Deviation Calculation

In one of the water quality experiments in the field the following concentration of $\text{NO}_3$ was obtained in mg/l:
$46, 46, 50, 54, 54$
The variance of the above experimental data is 12.8. What is the standard deviation?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (3.57 mg/l)

\text{Standard Deviation} = \sqrt{\text{Variance}} = \sqrt{12.8} \approx 3.5777\text{ mg/l} \approx 3.57\text{ mg/l}

.

Q505

Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)Normal Distribution Empirical Rule

Consider the following statements:
i. Lognormal distribution fits the skewed data sets
ii. In the normal distribution curve, around 95% of the values are withing one standard deviation of the mean
iii. The normal distribution curve is not symmetrical about its central line
iv. Normal distribution fits the symmetrical data sets
Which of the above statements are not correct?

💡Correct Answer: Option B ((ii), (iii))

Statements ii and iii are incorrect: In a normal distribution, ~68.2% (not 95%) of values lie within

\pm 1\sigma

of the mean (ii is false), and the normal curve is strictly symmetrical about

\mu

(iii is false). Statements i and iv are correct. Therefore, the statements that are NOT correct are (ii), (iii).

Q506

Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)Solid Waste Classification Matching

Consider the following pairs:
Set - A (Waste Category):
1. Vegetable residues and garbage
2. Pulp and paper waste
3. Radioactive substance
4. Pathological waste

Set - B (Classification):
i. Hazardous waste
ii. Municipal Solid waste
iii. Biomedical waste
iv. Industrial waste

Which one among the pairs given below is correct:

Q507

Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)Solid Waste Moisture Determination

To obtain the dry mass of solid waste material and to limit the vaporization of volatile materials, the solid waste material is dried in an oven at:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (77°C for 24 hours)

To determine dry mass of solid waste without thermal decomposition and volatilization of volatile organic compounds, standard solid waste characterization protocols specify gentle oven drying at

77^\circ ext{C}

for 24 hours (EPA/ASTM standards).

Q508

Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)Moisture Content Formula

If 'a' is an initial mass of solid waste sample and 'b' is mass of sample after drying. What is the formulae moisture content (in %)?

💡Correct Answer: Option D (((a - b) / a) * 100)

Moisture content on a wet-weight basis is calculated as:

\%\text{ Moisture} = \frac{\text{Initial Wet Mass } (a) - \text{Dry Mass } (b)}{\text{Initial Wet Mass } (a)} \times 100 = \left(\frac{a - b}{a}\right) \times 100

.

Q509

Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsEnvironmental Legislation Timeline

As per the succession of environmental laws, which order among the following is correct?
I. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
II. Public Liability Act
III. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
IV. Environment Protection Act
Choose the Correct Option:

💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, III, IV, II)

Chronological timeline of Indian environmental enactments: I. Water Act = 1974

->

III. Air Act = 1981

->

IV. Environment (Protection) Act = 1986

->

II. Public Liability Insurance Act = 1991. Correct sequence: I, III, IV, II.

Q510

Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsMoEFCC Administrative Mandate

Which of the following ministry is responsible at the central level for planning, promotion, coordination and overseeing the implementation of environmental pollution legislations?

Q511

Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsIndian Acts Provisions Matching

Consider the following pairs:
Set - A (Act):
1. The Factories Act, 1948
2. The Atomic Energy Act, 1962
3. Motor Vehicle Act, 1988
4. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972

Set - B (Mandate):
i. Adequate ventilation and reasonable temperature maintenance
ii. The protection of wild animals, birds and plants
iii. Prevention of radiation hazards and guarantee of public safety
iv. Legislative provisions regarding licensing of drivers and registration of motor vehicles

Which one among the pairs given below is correct:

Q512

Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsComposting Microbial Biochemistry

The compost or humus of organic material is end product remaining after

💡Correct Answer: Option D (Assimilatory and Dissimilatory bacterial activity)

Composting involves both Dissimilatory bacterial metabolism (mineralizing complex carbon compounds into

CO_2, H_2O

, and energy) and Assimilatory bacterial metabolism (synthesizing cellular biomass and complex dark aromatic Humus polymers).

Q513

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeAcid Rain Precursors

Major contributors to acid rain are:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sulphur oxides and nitrogen oxides)

Acid precipitation (

pH < 5.6

) is caused by atmospheric oxidation and hydration of anthropogenic Sulfur Oxides (

ext{SO}_2 ightarrow ext{H}_2 ext{SO}_4

) and Nitrogen Oxides (

ext{NO}_x ightarrow ext{HNO}_3

).

Q514

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeStratospheric Ozone Depletion

Which of the following initiates the breakdown of ozone in the stratosphere?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Chlorine)

Photolysis of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) by solar UV releases free Chlorine Radicals (

\cdot Cl

), which act as catalytic agents initiating catalytic destruction cycles of stratospheric ozone (

\cdot Cl + O_3 ightarrow ClO\cdot + O_2

).

Q515

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeGreenhouse Gas Classification

Which of the following is not greenhouse gas?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (N2)

Diatomic Nitrogen (

N_2

, comprising 78% of dry air) is a symmetric homonuclear diatomic gas with no net dipole moment change during infrared vibration, making it transparent to thermal IR and NOT a greenhouse gas (

CO_2, CH_4, N_2O

are potent GHGs).

Q516

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeTropospheric Methane Oxidation

Which of the following gas react with hydroxyl radical and produces $CO_2$ , $H_2O$ vapor and $O_3$ ?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (CH4)

Methane (

CH_4

) reacts with the tropospheric hydroxyl radical (

\cdot OH

) in the presence of

NO_x

and sunlight:

CH_4 + \cdot OH ightarrow \cdot CH_3 + H_2O

, undergoing photo-oxidation to yield Carbon Dioxide (

CO_2

), Water Vapor (

H_2O

), and Tropospheric Ozone (

O_3

).

Q517

Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)EIA Foundational Aims

Consider the following statements:
i. The aim of EIA is to inform the decision maker of the potential significant environment effects and risks of developmental proposals.
ii. The aim of EIA is to model the dispersion of pollutant coming out of sources present in the developmental projects.
iii. The aim of EIA is to promote sustainable development by ensuring that the development proposals do not undermine critical resources.
iv. The aim of EIA primarily involves the screening and scoping of developmental projects.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Q518

Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)EIA Baseline Methodologies Matching

Consider the following pairs:
Set - A (Baseline Stage):
1. Baseline Analysis
2. Baseline Assessment
3. Baseline Survey
4. Baseline Information

Set - B (Description):
i. Preliminary evaluation of environmental components
ii. Any form of measurement that's used for comparison and analysis
iii. Conditions at the time the project is proposed
iv. Done at the beginning of a project to get knowledge of current status

Which one among the pairs given below is correct:

Q519

Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)EIA Impact Matrices Matching

Consider the following pairs:
Set - A (EIA Matrix Tool):
1. Simple Matrix
2. Time-dependent matrix
3. Magnitude Matrix
4. Leopold Matrix

Set - B (Characteristics):
i. Qualitative methods for assessing environmental impacts of proposed projects
ii. Tool that identifies the importance, magnitude, and time frame of potential impacts
iii. Grid or table that lists environmental aspects on one axis and activities on the other
iv. Tool that identifies impacts based on their magnitude, importance, and time frame

Which one among the pairs given below is correct:

💡Correct Answer: Option B ((1)-(iii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(ii), (4)-(i))

1 -> iii (Simple Matrix: 2D interaction grid of activities vs environmental factors), 2 -> iv (Time-dependent matrix: incorporates short/long term temporal impact duration), 3 -> ii (Magnitude Matrix: quantifies impact importance and magnitude), 4 -> i (Leopold Matrix: pioneering 100 project actions

imes

88 environmental parameters qualitative matrix). Correct match: (1)-(iii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(ii), (4)-(i).

Q520

Environmental Biostatistics, Solid Waste & Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)ISO 14000 Environmental Series Matching

Consider the following pairs:
Set - A (ISO Standards):
1. ISO 14001
2. ISO 14006
3. ISO 14020
4. ISO 14040

Set - B (Scope):
i. Guidelines for incorporating eco-design
ii. Environmental labels and declarations
iii. Environmental management systems - requirements with guidance for use
iv. Life cycle assessment

Which one among the pairs given below is correct:

Q521

Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsPolluter Pays Principle

The Polluter pay principle is

Q522

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeUNFCCC Climate Agreements Chronology

As per the succession of UNFCCC protocols, which order among the following is correct?
I. Paris Agreement
II. The US Mayor's Climate Protection Agreement
III. Conference of Parties (COP)
IV. Kyoto Protocol
Choose the Correct Option:

💡Correct Answer: Option B (III, IV, II, I)

Chronological timeline of international climate milestones: III. COP-1 Berlin = 1995

->

IV. Kyoto Protocol adopted = 1997

->

II. US Mayors Climate Protection Agreement = 2005

->

I. Paris Agreement (COP-21) = 2015. Correct sequence: III, IV, II, I.

Q523

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangePaper Mill Industrial Emissions

Which of the following pollutant is emitted from paper mills?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sulphur dioxide)

Kraft pulp and paper chemical digestion mills emit substantial quantities of Sulfur Dioxide (

ext{SO}_2

) along with total reduced sulfur (TRS) compounds (Hydrogen sulfide, Methyl mercaptan, Dimethyl sulfide).

Q524

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeAir Quality Sampling (Gas Absorption)

In a high-volume sampler, the gases are measured using the principle of

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Absorption)

In ambient High-Volume Air Samplers (HVAS / Respirable Dust Samplers), gaseous pollutants (

ext{SO}_2, ext{NO}_2, ext{NH}_3

) are sampled by bubbling ambient air through chemical reagent solutions in glass impingers using the principle of Gas Absorption.

Q525

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeParticulate Matter Health Inhalation

Which of the following particles enter into the bloodstream of humans?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (PM2.5)

Fine particulate matter

ext{PM}_{2.5}

(and ultrafine

ext{PM}_{0.1}

) penetrates past the upper respiratory tract deep into the pulmonary alveoli, crossing the alveolar-capillary blood gas barrier directly into the systemic bloodstream.

Q526

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeNCAP Non-Attainment Cities

As per the latest records, the number of non-attainment cities in India under National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) are:

Q527

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeNatural NOx Formation by Lightning

Nitrogen dioxide is naturally formed from

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lightening)

Atmospheric Lightning discharges provide extreme thermal plasma energy (

>30,000 ext{ K}

) that breaks molecular nitrogen (

N_2

) and oxygen (

O_2

) bonds, naturally forming Nitric Oxide (

NO

), which rapidly oxidizes in air to Nitrogen Dioxide (

ext{NO}_2

).

Q528

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangePhotochemical Smog (PAN)

PAN stands for

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Peroxy Acetyl Nitrate)

PAN stands for Peroxyacetyl Nitrate (

ext{CH}_3 ext{COO}_2 ext{NO}_2

), a potent phytotoxic eye-irritant secondary pollutant in Photochemical Smog formed from hydrocarbons, hydroxyl radicals, and nitrogen oxides.

Q529

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangePollutant Dispersion Equation

Dispersion is equal to:

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Diffusion + advection)

In environmental fluid transport mechanics and atmospheric plume dispersion, total hydrodynamic dispersion represents the combined synergistic additive transport:

\text{Dispersion} = \text{Molecular/Turbulent Diffusion} + \text{Advective Bulk Flow} (\text{Diffusion + Advection})

.

Q530

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeAtmospheric Gas Composition (Argon)

After nitrogen and oxygen, the next abundant gas in the earth's atmosphere is

💡Correct Answer: Option D (Argon)

In dry atmospheric air composition: Nitrogen (

N_2 = 78.08\%

)

>

Oxygen (

O_2 = 20.95\%

)

>

Argon (

Ar = 0.934\%

)

>

Carbon dioxide (

CO_2 = 0.042\%

). Argon is the 3rd most abundant atmospheric gas.

Q531

Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsVisakhapatnam Styrene Gas Tragedy

Visakhapatnam gas tragedy occurred in 2020 is due to the leakage of

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Styrene)

The LG Polymers chemical plant disaster at RR Venkatapuram, Visakhapatnam on 7 May 2020 was caused by uncontrolled runaway polymerization and boiling vapor leakage of Styrene monomer gas (

ext{C}_8 ext{H}_8

).

Q532

Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsPFAS Forever Chemicals

PFAS stands for

Q533

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsSaline Soil Classification

Saline soils have a pH value of

💡Correct Answer: Option B (7 to 8.5)

In agricultural soil classification (US Salinity Lab): Saline Soils (Solonchak) have an Electrical Conductivity

ext{EC} > 4 ext{ dS/m}

, Exchangeable Sodium Percentage

ext{ESP} < 15\%

, and a soil pH typically between 7.0 and 8.5 (Alkali/Sodic soils have

pH > 8.5

). Choice B (7 to 8 / 7 to 8.5).

Q534

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeAcoustic White Noise

Constant frequency of sounds that are persistant across all frequencies with equal energy are classified as:

💡Correct Answer: Option C (White noise)

White Noise is a persistent acoustic sound signal containing equal power spectral density across all audible frequencies (

20 ext{ Hz to }20 ext{ kHz}

).

Q535

Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsActinomycetes Microbiology

Actinomycetes is a group of

Q536

Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsOrganic Hydrocarbons (Alkynes)

$C_3H_4$ is a

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Unsaturated hydrocarbon with a triple bond)

Propyne (methylacetylene,

CH_3-C\equiv CH

) with molecular formula

C_3H_4

conforms to the general alkyne formula

C_nH_{2n-2}

and is an Unsaturated Hydrocarbon possessing a carbon-carbon Triple Bond (or allene with two double bonds).

Q537

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsAnomalous Expansion of Water (4°C)

The anamalous expansion of water occurs at / maximum density is at:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (4°C)

Water exhibits anomalous thermal expansion: as water cools from

0^\circ ext{C}

to

4^\circ ext{C}

, hydrogen-bonded open hexagonal structures collapse into denser packing, reaching its Maximum Density of

1.000 ext{ g/cm}^3

at

4^\circ ext{C}

.

Q538

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeAir Particulate Filter Media (Teflon)

In air pollution sampling, the filter paper used for collecting particulates is made up of:

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Teflon)

In environmental particulate air sampling (for

ext{PM}_{2.5}

and chemical speciation), porous chemically inert Teflon (PTFE) membrane filters (or binderless micro-quartz glass fiber filters) are standardly used.

Q539

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeNoise Pollution Decibel Thresholds

Which of the following decibel range is classified as noise pollution?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (80-100db)

Under Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and WHO acoustic guidelines, continuous sound pressure levels exceeding 75–80 dB(A) are classified as harmful Noise Pollution (

80 ext{--}100 ext{ dB}

).

Q540

Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsRecalcitrant Insecticides

The insecticide which is resistant to biodegradation and present in soil for a longer time is called as:

Q541

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeHigh-Volume Air Sampler Operation

Choose the statements which are correct:
i. Impinger is used to capture particulates
ii. Thimble is used to capture gases
iii. The flow rate in HVS is NOT constant
iv. Particulate monitoring should be carried out for 24 hours
Which of the above statements are correct?

Q542

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeNAAQS Air Pollution Parameters

Choose the statements which are correct:
i. Ammonia is a secondary pollutant
ii. For ozone, 8-hour average shall be taken during daytime for analysis
iii. CO2 is a primary pollutant in air pollution studies
iv. PM2.5 value is always less than PM10
Which of the above statements are correct?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (ii, iv)

Statements ii and iv are correct: Ground-level Ozone is photochemical and monitored as an 8-hour average during peak daytime sunlight (ii), and

ext{PM}_{2.5}

(fine fraction

\le 2.5\ \mu ext{m}

) is mathematically a sub-fraction of

ext{PM}_{10}

(

\le 10\ \mu ext{m}

), hence

ext{PM}_{2.5} \le ext{PM}_{10}

(iv). (Ammonia is a primary pollutant). Correct: ii, iv.

Q543

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeFluid Flow Acceleration Dynamics

For steady flow of a gas:

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Only Convective acceleration exists)

In fluid dynamics, for Steady Flow, properties at any fixed spatial point do not change with time, meaning Local (Temporal) Acceleration is identically zero (

\frac{\partial \mathbf{v}}{\partial t} = 0

), while Convective (Spatial) Acceleration (

(\mathbf{v} \cdot \nabla)\mathbf{v}

) can exist if velocity changes along spatial streamlines.

Q544

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeAir Pollution Units Conversion (ppm to mg/m3)

Identify the correct statement:
[Conversion at STP where 1 ppm SO2 = 2.62 mg/m3]

💡Correct Answer: Option B (50ppm of SO2 > 50 mg/m3 of SO2)

Converting gas concentration from ppm to

\text{mg/m}^3

at standard conditions (

25^\circ\text{C}, 1\text{ atm}

):

\text{Concentration (mg/m}^3) = \text{ppm} \times \frac{\text{Molecular Weight}}{24.45}

. For

\text{SO}_2

(

MW = 64.06\text{ g/mol}

):

50\text{ ppm} = 50 \times \frac{64.06}{24.45} = 131\text{ mg/m}^3 > 50\text{ mg/m}^3

. Hence,

50\text{ ppm of SO}_2 > 50\text{ mg/m}^3\text{ of SO}_2

.

Q545

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeCyclone Separator Mechanism

Cyclone is one of the particle removal equipment in air pollution studies. Which of the following mechanisms is NOT related to this equipment?

Q546

Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsMARPOL Marine Convention (1973)

The MARPOL Convention was introduced in the year:

Q547

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeReference Sound Pressure Level

The reference value of sound pressure in the air is:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (20 uPa (0.00002 Pa))

The standard international reference sound pressure level in air (

p_0

) corresponding to the human threshold of hearing at 1000 Hz is

20\ \mu\text{Pa} = 20 \times 10^{-6}\text{ Pa} = 2 \times 10^{-5}\text{ N/m}^2

. Choice A.

Q548

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsBlack Cotton Soil Mineral Profile

Black cotton soil is NOT deficient in:

Q549

Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsFukushima Nuclear Disaster Radionuclides

Apart from Cesium compounds, the Fukushima nuclear disaster also released a compound of:

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Iodine)

The Fukushima Daiichi nuclear disaster (March 2011) released massive volatile radionuclides into the atmosphere and Pacific Ocean, predominantly Iodine-131 (

^{131}\text{I}

, half-life 8 days) and Cesium-137 (

^{137}\text{Cs}

, half-life 30.2 years).

Q550

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsSandy Soil Characteristics

Sandy Soils are rich in:

Q551

Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsAirborne Fungal Allergens (Cladosporium)

Cladosporium is a type of:

Q552

Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeSilence Zone Noise Standards (50/40 dB)

As per the guidelines in India, the silence zone must not exceed the sound of:

💡Correct Answer: Option D (50db in the day and 40db in the night)

Under the Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules 2000 in India, ambient air quality noise standards for Silence Zones (areas within 100 meters around hospitals, educational institutions, and courts) are strictly:

50\text{ dB(A)}

during Day time (6 AM to 10 PM) and

40\text{ dB(A)}

during Night time (10 PM to 6 AM). Choice D.

Q553

Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsNaegleria fowleri (Brain-Eating Amoeba)

Brain eating amoeba is also called as:

Q554

Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsCRZ-I Mangrove Classification

Among the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ rules), mangroves are categorized under:

Q555

Ecology, Ecosystem Dynamics & Environmental ThermodynamicsOrganic Chemistry (Carbon)

The key element present in organic chemicals is:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Carbon)

Carbon (

C

, atomic number 6) is the fundamental tetravalent element whose ability to form stable catenated covalent chains and rings constitutes the structural basis of all Organic Chemistry and biological biomolecules.

Q556

General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTClimate Change (Ice-Albedo Feedback)

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the ice-albedo feedback in climate change?

Q557

Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsAir Pollution Control Equipment

For controlling measures on air pollution in industries, which are the mechanical devices used in the manufacturing process?

💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)

Industrial particulate and gaseous emissions are controlled using mechanical and physicochemical separation devices: Electrostatic Precipitators (ESPs for fine fly ash), Cyclone Separators (centrifugal dust collection), and Wet Scrubbers (venturi/spray towers for acidic gases and particulates)

\implies

All of the above.

Q558

Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsWater Pollution Point Sources

_______ are specific sites which directly discharge effluents to water sources through pipes, ditches and sewers.

Q559

Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsGreenhouse Gases

Which of the following gases are called Greenhouse gases?

💡Correct Answer: Option D (Both (A) and (C))

Greenhouse gases are atmospheric gases that absorb and emit thermal infrared radiation: Methane (

CH_4

) and Carbon Dioxide (

CO_2

) are major greenhouse gases. (Diatomic Nitrogen

N_2

is not a GHG). Correct: Both (A) and (C).

Q560

Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsNoise Pollution Health Effects

Consider the following statements related to noise pollution:
1. The unpleasant, unwanted and disagreeable sound that causes discomfort for all living beings is called noise pollution.
2. Exposure to noise pollution adversely affects the physiological health of a person and not affects the psychological health of a person.
Choose the correct option:

Q561

Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsWater Pollutants and Sources Matching

Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Pollutants of water pollution):
i. Pathogens or Infectious agents
ii. Sediment
iii. Oxygen demanding wastes
iv. Toxic compounds

List II (Sources of pollutants):
1. Industrial effluents and household cleansers
2. Sewage, Paper mill wastes, Animal feedlots
3. Surface run off
4. Human and animal wastes

Choose the correct option:

Q562

Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsEnvironmental Spheres

The environment can be divided into four segments. The segments are:

Q563

Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsCurvilinear Motion Kinematics

A car is travelling along a circular path having a radius of 15 m. Determine the magnitude of the car's acceleration if at a given instant the car's speed is $v = 3\text{ m/s}$ and the rate of increase in speed is $\dot{v} = 2\text{ m/s}^2$ :

💡Correct Answer: Option B (2.09 m/s^2)

Tangential acceleration

a_t = \dot{v} = 2\text{ m/s}^2

. Normal (centripetal) acceleration

a_n = \frac{v^2}{\rho} = \frac{3^2}{15} = \frac{9}{15} = 0.6\text{ m/s}^2

. Total resultant acceleration magnitude

a = \sqrt{a_t^2 + a_n^2} = \sqrt{2^2 + 0.6^2} = \sqrt{4 + 0.36} = \sqrt{4.36} \approx 2.088\text{ m/s}^2 \approx 2.09\text{ m/s}^2

. Choice B.

Q564

Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsCurvilinear Kinematics (Highway Curve)

A motorist is travelling on a curved portion of a highway of radius 400 m at a speed of 90 km/h. The brakes are suddenly applied, causing the speed to decrease at a constant rate of 1.5 m/s^2. Determine the magnitude of the acceleration of the automobile immediately after the brakes have been applied:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (2.17 m/s^2)

Speed

v = 90\text{ km/h} = 90 \times \frac{5}{18} = 25\text{ m/s}

. Tangential deceleration

a_t = 1.5\text{ m/s}^2

. Normal acceleration

a_n = \frac{v^2}{\rho} = \frac{25^2}{400} = \frac{625}{400} = 1.5625\text{ m/s}^2

. Resultant acceleration

a = \sqrt{a_t^2 + a_n^2} = \sqrt{1.5^2 + 1.5625^2} = \sqrt{2.25 + 2.4414} = \sqrt{4.6914} \approx 2.1659\text{ m/s}^2 \approx 2.17\text{ m/s}^2

. Choice A.

Q565

Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsPolar Coordinates Velocity

The polar coordinates of a particle are given by $(r = 2 + 3t^2)$ and $(\theta = 2 + 1.5t^2)$ where r is in meters, $\theta$ is in radians and t is in seconds. Determine the magnitude of the velocity (v) when $t = 3\text{ s}$ :

💡Correct Answer: Option B (261 m/s)

At

t = 3\text{ s}

:

r = 2 + 3(3^2) = 29\text{ m}

. Radial velocity

\dot{r} = \frac{dr}{dt} = 6t = 6(3) = 18\text{ m/s}

. Angular position

\theta

, angular velocity

\dot{\theta} = \frac{d\theta}{dt} = 3t = 3(3) = 9\text{ rad/s}

. Transverse velocity

v_\theta = r\dot{\theta} = 29 \times 9 = 261\text{ m/s}

. Total velocity magnitude

v = \sqrt{v_r^2 + v_\theta^2} = \sqrt{18^2 + 261^2} = \sqrt{324 + 68121} = \sqrt{68445} \approx 261.62\text{ m/s} \approx 261\text{ m/s}

. Choice B.

Q566

Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsAngular Momentum Vector Direction

If a body is rotating about an axis, passing through its centre of mass then its angular momentum is directed along its:

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Axis of rotation)

By vector definition

\vec{L} = I\vec{\omega}

. Since the angular velocity vector

\vec{\omega}

points along the axis of rotation (governed by the right-hand screw rule), the angular momentum vector of a symmetric body rotating about its principal CM axis is directed along the Axis of Rotation.

Q567

Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsConservation of Angular Momentum

A mass is moving with a constant velocity with respect to X-axis, then its angular momentum with respect to origin will:

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Remain constant)

For a particle moving along a straight horizontal trajectory (

y = d

) at constant velocity

\vec{v} = v\hat{i}

, the angular momentum about origin is

\vec{L} = \vec{r} \times m\vec{v} = (x\hat{i} + d\hat{j}) \times m v\hat{i} = -m v d\,\hat{k} = \text{Constant}

(Remains constant in magnitude and direction).

Q568

Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsKinematics of Rigid Bodies (Plane Motion)

_______ of a rigid body is easily demonstrated by rolling a right circular cylinder or disk along a flat surface in such a way that its geometric axis always remains parallel to itself.

Q569

Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsInstantaneous Center & Centrode

Consider the following statements related to Kinematics of rigid bodies:
1. The instantaneous centre is not a fixed point. Its location keeps changing at every instant and the path traced (locus) by it is called centrode.
2. The instantaneous centre is a point identified within the body where the velocity is zero.
Choose the correct option:

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Statement 1 and 2 are correct)

Both statements are correct: The Instantaneous Center of Zero Velocity (IC) has zero instantaneous linear velocity (

v = 0

- 2), and as the body moves, the locus of instantaneous centers traced in space/body is defined as the Centrode (1). Correct: Statement 1 and 2 are correct.

Q570

Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsD'Alembert's Principle

Which of the following statements of D'Alembert's principle are correct?
1. The net external force F actually acting on the body and the inertia force Fi together keep the body in a state of fictitious equilibrium.
2. It tends to give solution of a static problem an appearance akin to that of a dynamic problem.
Choose the correct option:

Q571

Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsLinear Momentum and Impulse

Consider the following statements related to momentum and impulse:
1. Momentum of the particle is given by the product of mass and velocity of the particle. The unit of momentum is kg m/s.
2. Impulse of the particle is given by the product of force and the time of applied force. The unit of impulse is N s or kg m/s.
Choose the correct option:

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Statement 1 and 2 are correct)

Both statements are fundamental physical definitions: Linear Momentum is

ec{p} = m ec{v}

(

ext{kg}\cdot ext{m/s}

- 1), and Impulse is

ec{J} = \int ec{F}\,dt = \Delta ec{p}

(

ext{N}\cdot ext{s} = ext{kg}\cdot ext{m/s}

- 2). Correct: Statement 1 and 2 are correct.

Q572

Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsRigid Body Kinematic Theorems Matching

Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Concept/theory):
i. Chasle's theorem
ii. General plane motion
iii. Translation

List II (Explanation):
1. A rigid body is said to have translatory motion if an imaginary straight line drawn on the body remains parallel to the original position during its motion
2. Any plane motion which is neither a pure rotation nor a pure translation
3. Any general displacement of a rigid body can be represented by a combination of a translatory motion and rotational motion

Choose the correct option:

Q573

Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsNewton's Laws of Motion Matching

Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Newton's Laws of Motion):
i. Newton's 1st Law of Motion
ii. Newton's 2nd Law of Motion
iii. Newton's 3rd Law of Motion

List II (Concepts):
1. F = ma
2. F_AB = - F_BA
3. A particle remains at rest or continuous to move in a straight line with a constant speed if the resultant force acting on it is zero

Choose the correct option:

💡Correct Answer: Option D ((i) - 3, (ii) - 1, (iii) - 2)

i -> 3 (1st Law: Law of Inertia / equilibrium), ii -> 1 (2nd Law:

F = ma

), iii -> 2 (3rd Law: Action-reaction

F_{AB} = -F_{BA}

). Correct match: (i)-3, (ii)-1, (iii)-2.

Q574

Environmental Engineering, Mechanics & DynamicsImpulse-Momentum Principle Derivation

The equation of motion will be integrated with respect to ___ rather than _ and the resulting equation is called the principle of _ and ___.

💡Correct Answer: Option B (time, displacement, impulse, momentum)

Integrating Newton's second law

ec{F} = rac{d ec{p}}{dt}

with respect to Time (

t

) yields the Principle of Impulse and Momentum (

\int ec{F}\,dt = ec{p}_2 - ec{p}_1

); integrating with respect to Displacement (

s

) yields the Principle of Work and Energy. Choice B.

Q575

Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentPublic Health & Environmental Toxicology

Excess presence of which of the following causes tooth decay and dental fluorosis in children?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Fluoride)

Excessive concentration of Fluoride in drinking water (

>1.5\text{ mg/L}

) leads to Dental Fluorosis—causing enamel pitting, mottling, discoloration, and structural brittleness in children's teeth.

Q576

Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentEnvironmental Movements (Chipko)

Among the following, who is associated with Chipko movement?

Q577

General Science & EnvironmentSources of Energy (Solar Cells)

Solar energy is harnessed directly using:

Q578

General Science & EnvironmentSources of Energy (Geothermal)

Geothermal energy is obtained from:

Q579

General Science & EnvironmentBiomass Energy

Which of the following is a form of biomass energy?

Q580

General Science & EnvironmentOptics (Plane Mirror Focal Length)

The focal length of a plane mirror is:

💡Correct Answer: Option C (At Infinity)

Since a plane mirror has an infinitely large radius of curvature (

R = \infty

), its focal length

f = R/2

is At Infinity.

Q581

General Science & EnvironmentOptics (Plane Mirror Image)

The image formed by a plane mirror is always:

Q582

General Science & EnvironmentOptics (Power of Lens)

The SI unit of power of a lens is:

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dioptre)

The power of a lens (

P = 1/f

in meters) is standardly measured in the SI unit Dioptre (symbol: D, where

1\text{ D} = 1\text{ m}^{-1}

).

Q583

General Science & EnvironmentHuman Eye Defects (Myopia)

Myopia (near-sightedness) of the human eye can be corrected using a:

Q584

General Science & EnvironmentHuman Eye Defects

Near-sightedness is medically termed as:

Q585

General Science & EnvironmentHuman Eye Anatomy

The human eye forms the real, inverted image of an object at its:

Q586

General Science & EnvironmentElectric Current & Heating Effects

The filament of an incandescent electric bulb is made up of which of the given materials?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Tungsten)

Tungsten (W) is used for lamp filaments because of its extraordinarily high melting point (

3422^\circ\text{C}

), high resistivity, and low vapor pressure.

Q587

General Science & EnvironmentEcosystems (Energy Flow)

In an ecological ecosystem, the flow of energy is always:

Q588

General Science & EnvironmentTrophic Levels Energy Transfer

In an ecosystem, when energy moves from one trophic level to another, it:

Q589

General Science & EnvironmentEcosystems of Earth

The largest ecosystem of the earth is the:

Q590

General Science & EnvironmentHuman Diseases

Which of the following is a non-communicable disease?

Q591

General Science & EnvironmentEnvironmental Pollution (Ozone Depletion)

Stratospheric ozone depletion is caused primarily due to an increase in the atmospheric level of:

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Chlorofluorocarbon)

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs / Freons) release active chlorine radicals under UV radiation in the stratosphere, catalytically destroying protective ozone (

O_3

) molecules.

Q592

General Science & EnvironmentSoil Pollution & Acid Rain

Which among the following is a major cause of soil pollution and acidification?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Acid Rain)

Acid Rain (containing dissolved nitric and sulfuric acids from

SO_2

and

NO_x

emissions) causes severe soil acidification, leaching essential nutrient cations (

Ca^{2+}, Mg^{2+}

) and mobilizing toxic aluminum.

Q593

General Science & EnvironmentAir Pollution (Smog)

Smog is produced due to the atmospheric combination of:

Q594

General Science & EnvironmentGlobal Warming Effects

Global warming and climate change will cause:

💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)

Rising global average temperatures cause thermal expansion of ocean waters, melting of polar ice caps, and rapid retreat/decrease of mountain glaciers

\implies

All of the above. Choice D.

Q595

General Science & EnvironmentNoise Pollution Units

Noise pollution and acoustic sound levels are measured in units of:

Q596

General Science & EnvironmentEnvironmental Toxicology (DDT)

Dichloro-diphenyl-trichloroethane (DDT) is a classic example of a:

Q597

General Science & EnvironmentSources of Energy (Solar Cells)

Solar energy is harnessed using:

Q598

General Science & EnvironmentGeothermal Energy

Geothermal energy is obtained from:

Q599

General Science & EnvironmentBiomass Energy

Which of the following is a form of biomass energy?

Q600

General Science & EnvironmentOptics (Plane Mirror Focal Length)

The focal length of a plane mirror is:

💡Correct Answer: Option C (At Infinity)

A plane mirror has no curvature (its radius of curvature

R = \infty

); therefore, its focal length

f = R/2 = \infty

(At Infinity).

Q601

General Science & EnvironmentOptics (Image in Plane Mirror)

The image formed by a plane mirror is always:

Q602

General Science & EnvironmentOptics (Lens Power)

The SI unit of power of a lens is:

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dioptre)

The SI unit of power of a lens is Dioptre (symbol D), defined as the reciprocal of the focal length in meters (

P = 1/f

).

Q603

General Science & EnvironmentHuman Eye Defects (Myopia Correction)

Myopia (near-sightedness) of the human eye can be corrected by using a:

Q604

General Science & EnvironmentHuman Eye Defects (Terminology)

Near-sightedness is medically termed as:

Q605

General Science & EnvironmentHuman Eye Anatomy

The human eye forms the real, inverted image of an object at its:

Q606

General Science & EnvironmentElectricity & Materials

The filament of an incandescent electric bulb is made up of which of the given materials?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Tungsten)

The filament of an electric bulb is made of Tungsten (symbol W) because of its extremely high melting point (

3,422^\circ\text{C}

) and high resistivity.

Q607

General Science & EnvironmentEcology (Energy Flow)

In an ecological food chain or ecosystem, the flow of energy is always:

Q608

General Science & EnvironmentEcology (Trophic Levels)

In an ecosystem, when energy moves from one trophic level to the next higher level, the available energy:

Q609

General Science & EnvironmentEcology (Ecosystem Classification)

The largest ecosystem on the Earth is the:

Q610

General Science & EnvironmentHuman Health & Diseases

Which of the following is a non-communicable disease?

Q611

General Science & EnvironmentEnvironmental Pollution (Ozone Depletion)

Stratospheric ozone depletion is primarily caused due to increase in the atmospheric level of:

Q612

General Science & EnvironmentSoil Pollution & Acid Rain

Which among the following is a direct cause of soil acidification and pollution?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Acid Rain)

Acid Rain (containing dissolved sulfuric acid

H_2SO_4

and nitric acid

HNO_3

from

SO_2

and

NO_x

emissions) leaches essential plant nutrients, increases soil acidity, and releases toxic aluminum ions into the soil.

Q613

General Science & EnvironmentAir Pollution (Smog)

Smog is produced due to the combination of:

Q614

General Science & EnvironmentGlobal Warming Effects

Global warming and rising planetary temperatures will cause:

💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)

Global warming leads to thermal expansion of ocean water, catastrophic melting of polar ice caps, and rapid retreat of alpine glaciers

\implies

All of the above. Choice D.

Q615

General Science & EnvironmentPollution Measurement (Decibels)

Noise pollution and sound intensity levels are measured in:

Q616

General Science & EnvironmentPollutants Classification (DDT)

Dichloro-diphenyl-trichloroethane (DDT) is classified as a:

Q617

General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsWildlife Sanctuaries of Ladakh

The famous 'Hemis National Park,' located in Ladakh, is known globally for being home to which endangered animal?

Q618

General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsEnvironmental Treaties (Kyoto Protocol)

What is the primary objective of the Kyoto Protocol?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (To limit and reduce greenhouse gas emissions)

The Kyoto Protocol (adopted in 1997 under the UNFCCC) is an international environmental treaty that commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gas emissions (

CO_2, CH_4, N_2O

, HFCs, PFCs,

SF_6

) to mitigate anthropogenic global warming.

Q619

General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceEnvironmental Current Affairs

The State Level Monitoring Committee (SLMC) of which state has recommended the time-bound implementation of projects to check the illegal discharge of biowaste into the Ramsar-designated Ashtamudi Lake?

Q620

General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceWildlife Sanctuaries of J&K

In which year was the Overa-Aru Wildlife Sanctuary in Jammu and Kashmir formally established?

Q621

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifePesticide Environmental Fate (DDT)

Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT) is chemically classified as a:

Q622

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeSustainable Development

Which of the following environmental practices is a definitive example of sustainability?

Q623

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBioremediation & Phytoremediation

A major operational drawback and practical limitation of using phytoremediation to decontaminate heavy-metal-polluted soils is:

Q624

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeRainforest Ecology (Coevolution)

Which of the following ecological and evolutionary processes is most influential in maintaining exceptionally high biodiversity and niche partitioning in a tropical rainforest ecosystem?

Q625

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeProtected Area Categories

A strict forest conservation strategy that involves the absolute legal protection of designated pristine forest reserves and prohibits all human resource extraction is known as:

Q626

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeScope of Environmental Science

The academic discipline of Environmental Science primarily focuses on understanding the:

Q627

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEnvironmental Ethics & Principles

Which of the following is NOT considered a valid core ethical and operational principle of Environmental Science?

Q628

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEcosystem Definition

Which of the following definitions best describes an ecosystem?

Q629

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeResource Depletion Drivers

What is the primary driving root cause for the accelerated depletion of non-renewable natural resources worldwide?

Q630

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeAtmospheric Chemistry (Acid Rain)

Which atmospheric air pollutants are most directly responsible for causing acidic precipitation (Acid Rain)?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Nitrogen oxide and sulfur dioxide)

Acid rain forms when emissions of Sulfur Dioxide (

SO_2

) and Nitrogen Oxides (

NO_x

) react with atmospheric water, oxygen, and oxidants to form dilute sulfuric acid (

H_2SO_4

) and nitric acid (

HNO_3

). Choice B.

Q631

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeMarine Pollution Remediation

Which physical and mechanical method is most commonly deployed immediately to contain and remove floating oil from the water surface during marine oil spill remediation?

Q632

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeClimate Economics (Carbon Credits)

The international 'carbon credit' and cap-and-trade market system allows countries and corporations to:
(A) Buy the right to pollute in exchange for forest conservation/offsets
(B) Set a cap on carbon emissions and trade emission allowances among countries
(C) Receive credits from the UN for reducing emissions
(D) Both A and B are correct

💡Correct Answer: Option D (Both A and B are correct.)

Under the Kyoto Protocol's Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) and compliance emissions trading schemes, an overall cap is placed on emissions (B), and regulated entities can trade carbon credits or purchase verified emission reductions from forestry/renewable projects (A)

\implies

Both A and B are correct. Choice D.

Q633

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBiogeochemical Cycles (Nitrogen)

Which of the following biological sequences correctly represents the steps of Nitrogen Fixation and Nitrification in the terrestrial nitrogen cycle?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Nitrogen gas -> Ammonia -> Nitrites -> Nitrates)

The nitrogen fixation and nitrification pathways proceed: Atmospheric dinitrogen (

N_2

) is fixed into Ammonia (

NH_3/NH_4^+

) by diazotrophs

->

Ammonia is oxidized to Nitrites (

NO_2^-

) by Nitrosomonas

->

Nitrites are oxidized to bioavailable Nitrates (

NO_3^-

) by Nitrobacter. Sequence:

N_2 -> NH_3 -> NO_2^- -> NO_3^-

. Choice A.

Q634

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEcological Succession (Climax Community)

A climax community in ecological succession is ecologically characterized by having:

Q635

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeLandscape Ecology (Ecotone)

In ecology, an 'ecotone' is best defined as:

Q636

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeConservation History (UNESCO MAB 1971)

The Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme was launched by UNESCO in which year?

Q637

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBiodiversity Hotspots of India

Which among the following geographical regions is officially recognized as a global Biodiversity Hotspot in India?

Q638

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeWildlife Conservation (Tiger Reserves)

Which famous tiger reserve located in Madhya Pradesh has the highest recorded density of Bengal Tigers in India and played a key role in their population recovery?

Q639

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEcosystem Biomass

Among the following ecosystems, which one possesses the maximum standing biomass per unit area?

Q640

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEnvironmental Treaties (Kyoto Protocol)

Which international treaty was adopted in 1997 to commit industrialized countries to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions globally?

Q641

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeWastewater Treatment (AOPs)

Which of the following advanced chemical processes is most effective for completely degrading and mineralizing refractory hazardous organic pollutants in industrial wastewater?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Advanced Oxidation Processes (AOPs))

Advanced Oxidation Processes (AOPs—e.g. Fenton's reagent,

UV/H_2O_2

, ozone catalysis) generate highly reactive hydroxyl free radicals (

\cdot OH

) that non-selectively oxidize complex, recalcitrant, and toxic synthetic organic contaminants into harmless

CO_2

and

H_2O

. Choice B.

Q642

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeRadiological Hazards (Cesium-137)

Which anthropogenic radioactive isotope is most commonly associated with severe fallout, widespread soil contamination, and bioaccumulation following major nuclear power plant accidents (such as Chernobyl and Fukushima)?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Cesium-137)

Cesium-137 (

^{137}Cs

, half-life

\approx 30.17\text{ years}

) is a volatile, high-yield nuclear fission product that mimics potassium in biological systems, rapidly dispersing and binding to soils to create long-term environmental radiological hazards following nuclear accidents. Choice C.

Q643

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEnvironmental Toxicology (Minamata Disease)

The devastating neurological disorder Minamata disease, first discovered in 1956 around Minamata Bay in Japan, was caused by industrial environmental pollution of:

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Methylmercury)

Minamata disease was caused by the release of industrial wastewater containing high concentrations of Methylmercury (

CH_3Hg^+

) by the Chisso Corporation chemical plant, which bioaccumulated in shellfish and fish eaten by local residents. (Cadmium causes Itai-itai disease). Choice C.

Q644

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifePhotochemical Smog & Ozone

Which type of environmental pollution is most directly responsible for the photochemical generation of harmful ground-level tropospheric ozone ( $O_3$ )?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Air pollution from vehicular emissions)

Tropospheric ozone is a secondary air pollutant formed when Nitrogen Oxides (

NO_x

) and Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) emitted from vehicular tailpipes and fossil fuel combustion undergo photochemical reactions in the presence of strong sunlight. Choice C.

Q645

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEcological Succession Principles

Which of the following statements about ecological succession are true?
I. Primary succession occurs in areas where soil is already present.
II. Secondary succession occurs after a major disturbance such as fire or flood in an area with pre-existing soil.
III. Climax communities are the final stable stage of ecological succession.
IV. Ecological succession is a one-time, irreversible process that can never be reset.
Choose the correct statements:

Q646

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeForest Management & Conservation

Which of the following statements about forest management and conservation are true?
I. Sustainable forest management includes balancing forest resource extraction with conservation efforts.
II. Deforestation for urban expansion always leads to long-term ecological damage.
III. Reforestation programs can help restore degraded ecosystems and improve biodiversity.
IV. Forestry practices that emphasize monoculture plantations are more beneficial for biodiversity.
Choose the correct statements:

Q647

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEnvironmental Biotechnology Challenges

Which of the following statements regarding the challenges of environmental biotechnology are true?
I. The success of in situ bioremediation largely depends on environmental conditions, such as temperature, pH, and oxygen levels.
II. High concentrations of toxic contaminants may inhibit the metabolic processes of microorganisms used in bioremediation.
III. The use of Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs) in environmental biotechnology is widely accepted globally without any regulations.
IV. Large-scale application of environmental biotechnology often requires significant financial investment and monitoring.
Choose the correct statements:

Q648

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBiogeochemical Cycles

Which of the following statements about biogeochemical cycles are true?
I. The nitrogen cycle involves the biological conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into forms that plants can assimilate.
II. The phosphorus cycle involves the continuous movement of phosphorus between the atmosphere and terrestrial ecosystems.
III. In the carbon cycle, carbon dioxide is released into the atmosphere during cellular respiration and fossil fuel combustion.
IV. The sulfur cycle does not involve any biological processes.
Choose the correct statements:

💡Correct Answer: Option B (I, III)

Statements I and III are correct: Diazotrophs convert

N_2

into plant-absorbable ammonium/nitrates (I), and aerobic respiration and combustion oxidize carbon to

CO_2

(III). Statement II is false because the phosphorus cycle is a strictly sedimentary cycle with virtually no gaseous atmospheric component. Statement IV is false because bacteria (Thiobacillus, sulfate reducers) play central biological roles in the sulfur cycle. Choice B (I, III).

Q649

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEcosystem Energetics & Nutrient Cycling

Which of the following statements about ecosystem trophic structure and energetics are true?
I. An ecosystem fundamentally includes both biotic and abiotic components interacting together.
II. Energy flows through an ecosystem in a one-way, non-cyclic direction.
III. In an ecosystem, mineral nutrients are recycled continuously, while energy is not recycled.
IV. Primary producers in an ecosystem are typically herbivores.
Choose the correct statements:

Q650

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeScope of Environmental Science

Select the correct statements regarding the scope and nature of Environmental Science:
I. It deals with understanding the impacts of human activities on the natural environment.
II. Environmental science includes studying ecological systems without involving social factors.
III. Environmental science is an inherently interdisciplinary subject spanning physical, biological, and social sciences.
IV. It only focuses on pollution levels and health issues.
Choose the correct statements:

Q651

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeGlobal Environmental Treaties (POPs)

What does the internationally recognized environmental term 'The Dirty Dozen' specifically refer to?

Q652

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeCommunity Ecology (Keystone Species)

Consider the following ecological statements about keystone species:
I. Keystone species are organisms whose impact on their community or ecosystem is disproportionately large relative to their abundance or biomass.
II. Keystone species play a critical, irreplaceable role in maintaining the structure, diversity, and integrity of an ecological community.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Q653

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeAtmospheric Nitrogen Chemistry

Consider the following statements regarding atmospheric nitrogen:
I. Nitrogen gas ( $N_2$ ) is the most abundant gas in Earth's atmosphere, constituting approximately 78% by volume.
II. Atmospheric nitrogen can be absorbed and utilized directly by most living plants and animals.
Select the correct answer:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (I only)

Statement I is correct: Diatomic nitrogen gas makes up

\approx 78.08\%

of dry air by volume. Statement II is false because the triple covalent bond (

N\equiv N

) renders

N_2

chemically inert; higher plants and animals cannot assimilate atmospheric nitrogen directly and depend on specialized nitrogen-fixing bacteria to convert it into ammonium or nitrates. Correct: I only (Choice A).

Q654

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeInternational Environmental Governance

Which of the following statements about the global management of environmental pollution and treaties are true?
I. The Paris Agreement focuses on reducing greenhouse gas emissions to hold global warming well below 2°C.
II. International environmental protocols such as the Montreal Protocol have been exceptionally instrumental in phasing out ozone-depleting substances.
III. Transboundary pollution problems, including transboundary river basins and marine plastic pollution, require multinational cooperation.
IV. Environmental regulations have been completely successful in totally eliminating lead and asbestos in all industries worldwide.
Choose the correct statements:

💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II, III)

Statements I, II, and III are correct: The Paris Agreement aims to limit global temperature rise (I), the Montreal Protocol has phased out

>99\%

of controlled ODS (II), and shared river/ocean pollution demands multilateral governance (III). Statement IV is false because asbestos mining/use and industrial lead contamination persist in numerous developing nations. Choice D (I, II, III).

Q655

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeWildlife of J&K (Project Hangul)

Consider the following statements regarding 'Project Hangul':
I. It was launched to protect and conserve the critically endangered Kashmiri stag (Hangul, Cervus hanglu hanglu).
II. It was launched in the state of Jammu and Kashmir in 1970 with support from IUCN and WWF.
III. The Kashmiri stag is the official state/UT animal of Jammu and Kashmir.
Select the correct answer:

Q656

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEnvironmental Science Terminology

Match the environmental phenomena in Column - I with their definitions in Column - II:
Column - I:
P. Biomagnification
Q. Eutrophication
R. Pyrolysis
S. Incineration

Column - II:
i. Natural or accelerated cultural aging of a water body by nutrient enrichment
ii. Progressive increase in concentration of persistent toxic substances at successive higher trophic levels
iii. Chemical decomposition of organic waste materials by heating at high temperatures in the absence of oxygen
iv. High-temperature controlled thermal destruction and combustion of solid waste in the presence of oxygen

Choose the correct option:

Q657

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeWater Pollution Consequences Matching

Match the primary water pollution effects with their most direct biological consequences:
i. Eutrophication
ii. Contaminated drinking water
iii. Severe fish mortality
iv. Spread of waterborne infectious diseases
v. Aquatic habitat loss

Consequences:
1. Drastic reduction in dissolved oxygen (hypoxia) causing mass suffocation
2. Disruption of benthic ecosystem food webs and loss of species diversity
3. Increased nitrogen and phosphorus nutrient levels triggering dense algal blooms
4. Enteric pathogenic bacteria, viruses, and amoebae causing human illness
5. Human gastrointestinal ingestion of water contaminated with toxic industrial chemicals

Select the correct option:

Q658

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeConservation Organizations Matching

Match the international biodiversity organizations with their core mission and objectives:
Column - A:
1. IUCN
2. WWF
3. CBD (Convention on Biological Diversity)
4. CITES

Column - B:
i. Maintains and publishes the global Red List of Threatened Species
ii. Focuses on global wildlife conservation and reduction of human environmental footprint
iii. Promotes conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use, and fair and equitable sharing of genetic benefits
iv. Regulates and monitors international commercial trade in endangered species of wild fauna and flora

Choose the correct option:

Q659

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeConservation Ecology Categories

Match the biodiversity-related ecological terms in Column -A with their representative wildlife examples in Column -B:
Column -A:
1. Keystone species
2. Invasive species
3. Endemic species
4. Flagship species

Column - B:
i. Elephants in African savannas (maintains open grasslands)
ii. Water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes) in freshwater lakes
iii. Giant panda in China (symbol of conservation)
iv. Lion-tailed macaque in Western Ghats rainforests of India

Choose the correct option:

Q660

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeConservation Strategies Matching

Match the biodiversity conservation strategies in Column -A with their defining characteristics in Column -B:
Column - A:
1. In situ conservation
2. Ex situ conservation
3. Biodiversity hotspots
4. Wildlife corridors

Column - B:
i. Conservation of genetic components outside their natural habitats (e.g. botanical gardens, seed banks)
ii. Conservation of wild ecosystems and populations within their natural habitats (e.g. national parks, sanctuaries)
iii. Biogeographic regions with exceptional concentrations of endemic species undergoing significant habitat loss
iv. Protected ecological pathways that physically link fragmented forest patches to facilitate animal migration

Choose the correct option:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv)

1 -> ii (In-situ: on-site conservation in natural protected reserves), 2 -> i (Ex-situ: off-site gene banks and zoological parks), 3 -> iii (Hotspots: high endemism with

>70\%

habitat loss), 4 -> iv (Corridors: contiguous landscape strips connecting fragmented habitats). Correct match: 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv (Choice A).

Q661

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeResource Management Matching

Match the environmental conservation method in Column -A with its primary practical focus in Column -B:
Column -A (Conservation Method):
1. Soil Conservation
2. Forest Conservation
3. Water Resource Management
4. Wildlife Conservation

Column - B (Focus):
i. Contour Plowing and terrace farming to prevent erosion
ii. Prevention of Deforestation and enforcing afforestation
iii. Efficient Irrigation Techniques (drip and sprinkler systems)
iv. Establishment of National Parks and biosphere reserves

Options:

Q662

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeEcosystem Services Matching

Match the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment categories of ecosystem services with their illustrative real-world examples:
Column - A (Service Type):
1. Provisioning Service
2. Regulating Service
3. Supporting Service
4. Cultural Service

Column - B (Example):
i. Timber, medicinal plants, and clean freshwater production
ii. Climate regulation and Carbon sequestration by forests and wetlands
iii. Soil formation, primary production, and Nutrient cycling
iv. Ecotourism, recreational, spiritual, and aesthetic inspiration

Choose the correct option:

Q663

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBiosphere Reserves of India

Match the iconic Biosphere Reserves of India in Column - A with the States in which they are located in Column - B:
Column - A (Biosphere Reserve):
1. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
2. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
3. Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve
4. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve

Column - B (State):
i. Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka
ii. Uttarakhand
iii. West Bengal
iv. Tamil Nadu

Options:

Q664

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBiosphere Reserve Zonation

Match the three concentric management zones of a UNESCO Biosphere Reserve with their primary characteristics and authorized activities:
Column - A (Zone):
1. Core Zone
2. Buffer Zone
3. Transition Zone
4. Research / Monitoring Site

Column - B (Characteristics):
i. Strictly protected sanctuary where human economic activity is legally prohibited to preserve wildlife
ii. Surrounds core area where controlled research, educational training, and limited ecotourism are permitted
iii. Outermost flexible area where sustainable agricultural practices, settlements, and local livelihoods take place
iv. Designated field plots dedicated to environmental monitoring and ecological experimentation

Choose the correct option:

Q665

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeRadiation Biology & Mutagenesis

Consider the following statements regarding ionizing radiation hazards:
Assertion (A): Radioactive environmental pollution can induce severe genetic mutations and chromosomal aberrations in living organisms.
Reason (R): Ionizing radiation deposits high energy that damages DNA molecules by directly and indirectly breaking covalent phosphodiester and hydrogen chemical bonds.
Which one of the following options is correct?

Q666

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBioremediation Mechanisms

Consider the following statements regarding environmental biotechnology:
Assertion (A): Environmental biotechnology is successfully employed to clean up contaminated soil and aquatic pollution through bioremediation processes.
Reason (R): Bioremediation involves utilizing adapted microorganisms to metabolically degrade hazardous toxic pollutants in the environment, converting them into less harmful substances like $CO_2$ and $H_2O$ .
Which one of the following options is correct?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both the assertion and the reason are correct, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.)

Both statements are true and causally linked: Bioremediation cleans environmental pollutants (A) precisely because microbial metabolism breaks down complex toxic organic molecules via catabolic enzymatic pathways into harmless mineralized end-products (

CO_2, H_2O

, biomass) (R). Choice A.

Q667

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBiosphere Reserves (MAB Framework)

Consider the following statements regarding Biosphere Reserves:
Assertion (A): Biosphere reserves are officially designated to integrate in situ conservation of biodiversity with sustainable socioeconomic use and research.
Reason (R): The UNESCO MAB Programme focuses solely on basic scientific laboratory research, completely ignoring socio-economic factors and local communities.
Which one of the following options is correct?

Q668

Ecology, Environmental Science, Conservation & WildlifeBiosphere Reserve Management Zones

Consider the following statements regarding the zonation architecture of a Biosphere Reserve:
Assertion (A): The core zone of a biosphere reserve strictly prohibits all human destructive resource extraction and commercial activity.
Reason (R): The buffer zone surrounding the core supports sustainable resource practices, training, environmental education, and scientific research.
Which one of the following options is correct?

Q669

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryAtmospheric Chemistry & Aerosols

Which of the following sequences of processes leads to the formation of particulate matter in the atmosphere in the correct order, from smallest to largest particle size.

Q670

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryAtmospheric Chemistry & Aerosols

Which of the following is the primary mechanism by which volatile organic compounds (VOCs) contribute to the formation of organic particulate matter?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Photo oxidation and subsequent condensation)

Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) undergo photochemical oxidation initiated by atmospheric hydroxyl radicals (

\cdot\text{OH}

), ozone, or nitrate radicals, converting volatile hydrocarbons into multifunctional, low-volatility oxygenated organic species that nucleate and condense onto pre-existing aerosols to form Secondary Organic Aerosols (SOA).

Q671

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryEnvironmental Pollution & Smog

Which of the following pollutants is NOT involved in the formation of photochemical smog?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sulfur dioxide (SO_2))

Photochemical smog (Los Angeles type smog) is formed by solar UV-driven photochemical reactions between nitrogen oxides (

NO_x

) and reactive VOCs, producing ozone (

O_3

) and peroxyacetyl nitrates (PAN). In contrast, sulfur dioxide (

SO_2

) along with coal soot in cool, humid fog produces classical London-type industrial reducing smog.

Q672

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryEnvironmental Analytical Methods

In the context of environmental monitoring, which method is commonly employed for the detection of volatile organic compounds (VOCs) in air?

Q673

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryWater Pollution & Eutrophication

Eutrophication in water bodies is often associated with:

Q674

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryWater Quality Parameters

Which statements are correct regarding supersaturation of DO in water?
1. Supersaturation occurs when the DO level exceeds the saturation limit.
2. It is harmful to aquatic organisms, causing gas bubble disease.
3. Supersaturation occurs due to mixing of oxygen-rich groundwater.
Choose the correct statement:

Q675

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryWater Pollution & Oxygen Demand (BOD vs COD)

In a water sample, COD is higher than BOD due to:
1. Presence of synthetic chemicals that are non-biodegradable
2. Faster oxidation of organic matter in COD testing
3. Higher microbial decomposition under test conditions
Choose the correct statement:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 and 2 only)

Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) uses boiling dichromate acid (

K_2Cr_2O_7 + H_2SO_4

), which chemically oxidizes virtually all organic matter—both biodegradable and refractory/non-biodegradable synthetic pollutants (1)—and achieves complete stoichiometric oxidation within 2 hours compared to the slow 5-day biological degradation of BOD (2). Statement 3 is false because COD is a chemical oxidation test with zero microbial decomposition. Hence, 1 and 2 only. Choice A.

Q676

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryWater Treatment & Coagulation

Match the coagulants with their application in water treatment:
List - A (Coagulants)
i. Alum
ii. Ferric chloride
iii. PAC
iv. Lime
List - B (Application)
1. Treating highly turbid water
2. Industrial wastewater treatment
3. Enhanced coagulation in municipal plants
4. Softening hard water
Choose the correct option:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4)

Matching coagulants to their standard primary water treatment roles:
- i. Alum (Aluminium sulfate): Enhanced conventional coagulation in municipal drinking water plants -> (3)
- ii. Ferric chloride: Highly effective across wide pH ranges for industrial wastewater and sludge dewatering -> (2)
- iii. PAC (Poly-aluminium chloride): Pre-polymerized coagulant specifically effective for highly turbid and low-temperature water -> (1)
- iv. Lime (

Ca(OH)_2

): Precipitation softening of hard water by removing carbonate/calcium ions -> (4).
Hence: i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4. Choice A.

Q677

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryAgricultural Chemistry & Fertilizers

The nitrogen content in urea is approximately:

💡Correct Answer: Option D (46%)

Urea has the chemical formula

CO(NH_2)_2

. Molecular weight:

M = 12 + 16 + 2 \times (14 + 2) = 60\text{ g/mol}

.
Nitrogen mass

= 2 \times 14 = 28\text{ g/mol}

.
Percentage of nitrogen

= \frac{28}{60} \times 100\% \approx 46.67\% \approx 46\%

, making it the most concentrated solid nitrogenous fertilizer.

Q678

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryEnvironmental Toxicology & Bioaccumulation

Match the pesticide bioaccumulation effects with the organisms:
List - A (Organism)
i. Fish
ii. Birds
iii. Insects
iv. Humans
List - B (Effect of Pesticide Bioaccumulation)
1. Pesticide concentration increases as it moves up the food chain
2. Impact on reproduction and hatching success
3. Direct toxicity leading to mortality
4. Long-term health problems, including cancer and neurological damage
Choose the correct option:

Q679

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryHeavy Metal Toxicology (Arsenic)

Chronic exposure to arsenic has been linked to which of the following health issues besides cancer?

Q680

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryHeavy Metal Toxicology (Mercury)

Which of the following diseases is most commonly associated with long-term mercury exposure?

Q681

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryToxicology & Chemical Hazards

Which factor contributes to the severity of CO poisoning, particularly in individuals with pre-existing cardiovascular conditions?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (The increased metabolic demand of the heart tissue and the subsequent oxygen deprivation.)

Carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin with over 200 times the affinity of oxygen, forming carboxyhemoglobin (

COHb

) and shifting the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve left (Haldane effect). Because the myocardium has an exceptionally high resting oxygen extraction ratio and metabolic demand, acute oxygen deprivation precipitates severe myocardial ischemia, arrhythmias, and infarction in patients with coronary heart disease.

Q682

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryPesticides & Toxicology

Which of the following is a common side effect of insecticide poisoning in humans?

Q683

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryPesticides & Environmental Fate

What does the term "pesticide residue" refer to?

Q684

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryChemical Toxicology & Hazard Ranking

Arrange the following chemicals in decreasing order of toxicity to humans:
Chemicals: Methyl Isocyanate, Hydrogen Cyanide, Methanol, Ammonia

💡Correct Answer: Option B (hydrogen cyanide > methyl isocyanate > ammonia > methanol)

Based on acute human lethal toxicity and inhalation threshold values (IDLH and LC50):
- Hydrogen cyanide (

HCN

) is an ultra-fast acting cellular asphyxiant that halts cellular respiration via cytochrome c oxidase inhibition (IDLH 50 ppm; rapidly fatal at >100 ppm).
- Methyl isocyanate (

MIC

) is a severely toxic volatile carbamoylating agent (IDLH 3 ppm).
- Ammonia (

NH_3

) is acutely corrosive to respiratory tracts (IDLH 300 ppm).
- Methanol (

CH_3OH

) is toxic upon ingestion of grams/deciliters (IDLH 6000 ppm).
Thus, the standard toxicological order is: hydrogen cyanide > methyl isocyanate > ammonia > methanol. Choice B.

Q685

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryEnvironmental Carcinogens & Air Toxics

Which of the following statements accurately describe the mechanism by which diesel exhaust causes cancer?
1. Diesel exhaust contains polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs), which are potent mutagens and carcinogens.
2. Exposure to diesel exhaust leads to increased oxidative stress in lung tissues, causing inflammation and DNA damage.
3. Diesel exhaust acts as a cocarcinogen, enhancing the carcinogenic effects of other environmental pollutants like tobacco smoke.
4. Diesel exhaust exposure is associated with cancers of the liver and gastrointestinal system rather than the lungs.
Choose the correct statement:

Q686

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryAnalytical Chemistry & Nitrogen Determination

In the Kjeldahl method, what is the final product after digestion and distillation?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ammonia gas)

In the Kjeldahl nitrogen determination method:
1. Digestion: Organic sample is heated with concentrated

H_2SO_4

to convert organic nitrogen into dissolved ammonium sulfate

(NH_4)_2SO_4

.
2. Distillation: Excess strong base (

NaOH

) is added to liberate volatile ammonia gas (

NH_3

), which is distilled and swept out of the distillation flask into an absorbing acid solution for titration.

Q687

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryColorimetry & Spectrophotometry

Which of the following is commonly used as a light source in a colourimeter?

Q688

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryColorimetry & Spectrophotometry

In a spectrophotometric analysis, the molar absorptivity (epsilon) is defined by which of the following?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (The ratio of absorbance to the concentration and path length)

By the Beer-Lambert Law,

A = \varepsilon \cdot c \cdot l

, where

A

is absorbance,

c

is molar concentration (mol/L), and

l

is the optical path length (cm). Rearranging yields the molar absorptivity (molar extinction coefficient):

\varepsilon = \frac{A}{c \cdot l}

, which is the ratio of absorbance to the product of concentration and path length.

Q689

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryPolymer Chemistry & Industrial Syntheses

Which of the following is a key intermediate compound in the production of nylon-6,6?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Hexamethylenediamine)

Nylon-6,6 is a synthetic polyamide copolymer produced by the step-growth condensation polymerization of two 6-carbon monomers: hexamethylenediamine (

H_2N-(CH_2)_6-NH_2

) and adipic acid (

HOOC-(CH_2)_4-COOH

).

Q690

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryPolymer Chemistry & Industrial Syntheses

Which of the following polymers is synthesized by the polymerization of caprolactam?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Nylon-6)

Nylon-6 (also known as Perlon) is synthesized by the ring-opening addition polymerization of the cyclic monomer

\varepsilon

-caprolactam in the presence of water at elevated temperatures (~250°C).

Q691

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryMedicinal Chemistry & Pharmaceuticals

The active ingredient in aspirin, which helps in reducing pain and fever, is

💡Correct Answer: Option D (Acetylsalicylic acid)

Aspirin is the pharmaceutical brand name for acetylsalicylic acid (ASA,

C_9H_8O_4

), synthesized by the acetylation of salicylic acid with acetic anhydride, functioning as an analgesic, antipyretic, and NSAID by irreversibly inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX-1/2).

Q692

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryMedicinal Chemistry & Pharmacology

In which phase of drug development is the drug typically tested on animals for safety and efficacy?

Q693

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryApplied Environmental Chemistry

What is the function of aluminum powder in traditional firecrackers, and why is its use concerning?

Q694

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryWater Pollution & Quality Standards

Clean water would have Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) value of less than:

Q695

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryWater Quality Parameters

The dissolved oxygen concentration ________ with the increase in temperature of water

Q696

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryWater Pollution & Analytical Tests

In a COD test, which chemical is typically used as the oxidizing agent?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Potassium dichromate)

In standard Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) reflux testing, potassium dichromate (

K_2Cr_2O_7

) in strong sulfuric acid solution (with silver sulfate

Ag_2SO_4

catalyst and mercuric sulfate to complex chlorides) is universally employed as the powerful primary chemical oxidizing agent.

Q697

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryWater Treatment & Coagulation

What is the function of flocculation after the coagulation process?

Q698

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryPrecipitation & Particulate Chemistry

Which of the following processes is responsible for the formation of inorganic particulates by combining dissolved ions in a solution?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Precipitation)

Chemical precipitation occurs when chemical reactions between dissolved ionic species in aqueous solution exceed the solubility product constant (

K_{sp}

), driving the ions to aggregate into insoluble solid inorganic particulate crystals.

Q699

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryPesticides & Bio-Pesticides

What type of insecticide is commonly used to control pests in agriculture and is derived from chrysanthemums?

Q700

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryPesticides & Environmental Impact

Which of the following is NOT a potential consequence of excessive pesticide use?

Q701

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryMicrobiology & Antibiotic Susceptibility

What does a high MIC value indicate about a microorganism's susceptibility to an antibiotic?

Q702

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryIndustrial Chemistry (Contact Process)

Which of the following is the primary purpose of the Contact Process in industrial chemistry?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (To produce sulfuric acid by oxidizing sulfur dioxide using oxygen in the presence of a vanadium oxide catalyst, in a high-temperature environment.)

The Contact Process is the modern industrial manufacturing process for concentrated sulfuric acid (

H_2SO_4

). Its central reaction is the exothermic catalytic oxidation of sulfur dioxide (

SO_2

) to sulfur trioxide (

SO_3

) using atmospheric oxygen over a vanadium(V) oxide (

V_2O_5

) catalyst at ~450°C.

Q703

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryPolymer Chemistry & Structure

Match the Polymer with its Chemical Structure Type:
Column A (Polymer)
1. Polyethylene
2. Polypropylene
3. Bakelite
4. Silicone rubber
Column B (Structure Type)
i. Cross-linked
ii. Linear
iii. Branched
iv. Network
Choose the correct option:

Q704

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryMedicinal Chemistry & Pharmaceuticals

Which of the following is NOT an example of a steroidal anti-inflammatory drug?

Q705

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistrySoil Chemistry & Nitrogen Dynamics

Which of the following is a major consequence of nitrogen saturation in the soil?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Acidification of the soil)

When atmospheric nitrogen deposition exceeds the biological uptake capacity of plants and microbes (nitrogen saturation), excess mobile nitrate (

NO_3^-

) leaches into groundwaters accompanied by essential nutrient base cations (

Ca^{2+}, Mg^{2+}, K^+

). This cation depletion mobilizes phytotoxic aluminum (

Al^{3+}

) and causes severe soil acidification.

Q706

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryGreen Chemistry & Green Crackers

What is the substitute used in SAFAL crackers instead of aluminum?

Q707

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryGreen Chemistry & Green Crackers

What does the acronym SWAS stand for in the context of green crackers?

Q708

Chemical Sciences & Environmental ChemistryAnalytical Chemistry & Soil Monitoring

What method is commonly used to detect pesticides in soil samples?

Q709

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyMolecular Biology & DNA Replication

During DNA replication, the point where the two strands become separated is called the...?

Q710

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyMicrobiology Overview & Branches

Which of the following field is not part of the Microbiology?

Q711

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyHistory of Microbiology

Who coined the term "Microbiology"?

Q712

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyEcology & Energy Flow

What defines the single-channel energy flow in a food chain?

Q713

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyEnvironmental Conservation & 3Rs

What are the three R's that are used to save the environment which includes forest....?

Q714

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyClassical Genetics & Mendelian Crosses

Genotype of dominant plant can be determined by:

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Test cross)

A test cross involves crossing an individual displaying a dominant phenotype (which may be homozygous

AA

or heterozygous

Aa

) with a homozygous recessive individual (

aa

). If all progeny display the dominant trait, the parent is homozygous dominant; if a 1:1 phenotypic segregation occurs, the parent is heterozygous.

Q715

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyCell Biology & Cell Division

During which phase of mitosis does the nuclear membrane reassemble?

Q716

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyEvolution & Paleontology

Which Indian fossil provides evidence of early amphibian life?

Q717

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyEvolutionary Biology & Speciation

Which of the following species found in India demonstrates adaptive radiation?

Q718

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyEcosystem Energetics & Primary Production

What is the primary source of energy for most ecosystems?

Q719

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyEcology & Trophic Efficiency

Energy transfer efficiency between trophic levels is usually around:

Q720

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyMendelian Genetics

How many contrasting characteristics of pea plant did Mendel take?

Q721

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyPlant Physiology & Photosynthesis

Which molecule is produced during the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis and used in the Calvin cycle?

Q722

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyPlant Physiology & Carbon Fixation

What is the role of the enzyme RuBisCO in photosynthesis?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (It fixes carbon dioxide during the Calvin cycle)

RuBisCO (Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase-oxygenase) is the primary carbon-fixing enzyme in the Calvin cycle, catalyzing the carboxylation of ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate (

RuBP

) with atmospheric

CO_2

to yield two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA).

Q723

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyGlobal Environmental Change & Climate

Presently, the main cause of global warming is:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Increasing CO_2 Concentration)

The primary driver of contemporary global climate change is the rapid anthropogenic increase in atmospheric greenhouse gas concentrations—most prominently carbon dioxide (

CO_2

), released by fossil fuel combustion, cement manufacturing, and deforestation—which traps outgoing infrared terrestrial radiation.

Q724

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyPlant Physiology & Photosynthesis

What are the two main stages of photosynthesis?

Q725

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyPlant Physiology & Photorespiration

In which of the following conditions is photorespiration most likely to occur?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (High temperatures, low CO_2 concentration)

Photorespiration (

C_2

cycle) occurs when RuBisCO binds oxygen (

O_2

) instead of

CO_2

. Under high temperatures, plants close their stomata to prevent water loss, causing internal

CO_2

levels to drop while

O_2

accumulates; simultaneously, the specificity of RuBisCO shifts towards oxygenase activity, heavily favoring photorespiration.

Q726

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyEcology & Thermodynamic Energy Loss

Which of the following processes directly contributes to the loss of energy as heat in an ecosystem?

Q727

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyNatural Resources & Fossil Fuels

The term 'Black gold' is used for

Q728

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyOrigin of Life & Chemical Evolution

Stanley Miller in his experiment synthesized simple amino acid using-

💡Correct Answer: Option D (NH_3, H_2, CH_4 and water vapour)

In the landmark 1953 Miller-Urey prebiotic chemical synthesis experiment, Stanley Miller simulated the reducing primordial atmosphere using a closed glass apparatus circulating methane (

CH_4

), ammonia (

NH_3

), molecular hydrogen (

H_2

), and water vapor (

H_2O

) subjected to continuous continuous electric spark discharges, yielding proteinogenic amino acids (glycine, alanine, aspartic acid).

Q729

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyCytogenetics & Chromosomal Abnormalities

Which of the following statements are true?
i. Klinefelter's syndrome ha 44+XXY
ii. Cri-du-chat syndrome is due to chromosomal change involving deletion
iii. In Down's syndrome of male child, the sex complement is XY
iv. Formation of multivalent in meiosis is due to reciprocal translocation
Choose the correct statement:

Q730

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyOrigin of Life & Chemical Evolution

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life?
i. Formation of photobionts
ii. Synthesis of organic monomers
iii. Synthesis of organic polymers
iv. Formation of DNA-based genetic system
Which of the below sequence are correct?

Q731

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyBiotechnology & Genetically Modified Crops

Correct for "Golden rice"
i. Rice with beta- carotene
ii. Yellow in colour
iii. It is a GM rice
Choose correct combination:

Q732

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyGenetics & Gene Mapping

When F1 Drosophila of genotype AaBbCc is test crossed, the following progenies were obtained:
Progeny classes: ABC: 22, Abc: 28, AbC: 26, abc: 24, Abc: 220, aBC: 225, abC: 225 | Total: 1000
The statements below are conclusions derived from the above result.
i. Genes a and b are linked in trans
ii. Genes a and b are linked in cis
iii. Genes a and b are linked in cis, while b and c are linked in trans
iv. The genotypes of parents are AABB and aabb
v. The genotype of the parents are AAbb and aaBB
vi. Genes a and b are 10 cm apart
Which of the above statements are correct?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, v and vi)

Analysis of the three-point test cross:
1. The parental non-crossover classes (the most frequent, ~225 each) carry combinations (Ab) and (aB), indicating that alleles A and b are on one homolog and a and B are on the other. Thus, genes a and b are linked in trans (repulsion phase) -> (i), and parental genotypes were AAbb and aaBB -> (v).
2. The recombinant classes for a and b are those with (AB) and (ab): total recombinants = 22 + 28 + 26 + 24 = 100.
3. Map distance between a and b =

\frac{100}{1000} \times 100\% = 10\% = 10\text{ cM}

(centiMorgans) -> (vi).
Therefore, statements i, v, and vi are correct. Choice C.

Q733

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyMolecular Genetics & Mutations

Consider the following statements regarding 'Silent Mutation'
i. Involves the second nucleotide of triplet codon
ii. Results in polymorphism of organism
iii. Due to degeneracy the amino acid will not be altered
iv. Contributes to variability in DNA sequence of individuals species
Which of the above statements are true?

Q734

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyEnvironmental Law & Waste Management

Consider the following statement:
I. The principle of non-regression ensures that environmental laws and protections cannot be diluted to a lower standard once implemented.
II. E-waste contains both hazardous substances like mercury and valuable materials such as gold.
III. Informal recycling practices for e-waste are more efficient than formal recycling methods.
Which of the following statements are correct?

Q735

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyPlant Virology & Molecular Biology

Satellite RNAs (sat-RNAs) are species of RNA associated with specific strains of some plant RNA viruses, although it is not necessary for their replication. Few statements are given below on sat-RNA:
P. Presence of sat-RNA leads to reduction in severity of disease symptoms.
Q. Presence of sat-RNA leads to increase in severity of disease symptoms.
R. Sat-RNA is constitutively expressed like coat proteins and is independent of virus infection.
S. Sat-RNA is not constitutively expressed like coat proteins but is expressed only after virus infection.
Which one of the following combinations of above statements regarding sat-RNA is correct?

Q736

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyCell Biology & Cell Junctions

Which of the following is true about Cadherins?
i. They are proteins involved in cell-cell adhesion.
ii. Cadherins require calcium ions (Ca^2+) for their function.
iii. They play a critical role in maintaining tissue integrity.
iv. They are proteins involved in cell-extracellular matrix adhesion.
Identify the correct choice from the options given:

💡Correct Answer: Option C ((i), (ii) and (iii) only)

Cadherins are a major family of calcium-dependent transmembrane glycoproteins that mediate homophilic cell-to-cell adhesion (i), require extracellular calcium ions (

Ca^{2+}

) to maintain their rigid, extended conformation for binding (ii), and anchor to the actin cytoskeleton to preserve solid tissue architecture (iii). Cell-to-extracellular matrix adhesion is mediated by integrins, not cadherins (iv is false). Hence, (i), (ii) and (iii) only. Choice C.

Q737

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyPlant Biotechnology & Genetic Engineering

With reference to Agrobacterium tumefaciens mediated plant transformation, match the virulence factors in Group 1 with their protein types in Group - 2.
Group - 1:
P) VirG
Q) VirA
R) VirE
S) VirC
Group - 2:
I) Kinase
II) Helicase
III) Transcriptional activator
IV) Single strand binding protein
Choose the correct option:

Q738

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyEcology & Dynamic Stability Hypothesis

Match the factors influencing ecosystems with their descriptions based on the dynamic stability hypothesis:
Column - A (Factors)
1. Increase in the number of trophic levels
2. Length of the food chain
3. Energy availability in primary producers
4. Variety of decomposers
Column - B (Descriptions)
i. Directly related to the diversity of decomposers
ii. Affects stability, with shorter chains being more stable
iii. Enhances nutrient cycling in ecosystems
iv. Determines the overall energy flow in the ecosystem
Choose the right answer from the options below:

Q739

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyNatural Resource Management & Policy

Challenges and Opportunities in Natural Resource Management
Match the challenges with their corresponding solutions
S.No. Challenges
P. Rising e-waste
Q. Limited public awareness
R. Deforestation
S. Legal enforcement challenges
S.No. Opportunities
I Developing robust recycling technologies
II Promoting education and stakeholder participation
III Implementing conditional direct transfers (CDT)
IV Establishing specialized environmental courts
Select the correct match......?

Q740

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyEvolutionary Biology & Pioneers

Match the evolutionary concepts in Column - I with the corresponding scientists in Column - II:
Column - I (Evolutionary concept)
P) Laws of heredity
Q) Synthetic theory
R) Mutation theory
S) Theory of natural selection
Column - II (Scientist)
I) Wallace
II) Mendel
III) J.B.S. Haldane
IV) Hugo de Vries
V) Darwin
Choose the correct Answer:

Q741

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyBiotechnology & Renewable Biofuels

Match the following columns A with the appropriate option in column B
Column - A
1. 1st generation biofuel
2. 2nd generation biofuel
3. 3rd generation biofuel
4. 4th generation biofuel
Column - B
i. Produced from algal biomass
ii. Produced from food crops
iii. Produced from non-food crops
iv. Produced by capturing and storing CO_2
Choose the correct option:

Q742

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyRecombinant DNA Technology & Tools

Match table A with table B and choose correct answer:
Table - A
1. Pbr322
2. Restriction enzyme
3. Polymerase chain reaction
4. Construction of chimeric DNA
Table - B
i. EcoRI or Hind II
ii. Vector
iii. Ligase
iv. DNA polymerase
Choose the correct option:

Q743

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyGenetics & Gene Interactions

Match List I (Gene interaction) and List II (Phenotypic ratio of F2 generation) and choose the correct option below:
List-I(Gene interaction)
1. Complementary genes
2. Supplementary genes
3. Polymeric gene
4. Inhibitory gene
List-II (Phenotypic ratio)
i. 13:3
ii. 9:6:1
iii. 9:7
iv. 9:3:4
Choose the correct option:

Q744

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyPlant Physiology & Photosynthesis

Matching the following components with their respective roles in photosynthesis:
Column -A
1. ATP synthase
2. Photosystem II
3. RuBisCO
4. NADP+ reductase
5. Cytochrome b6f complex
6. Calvin Cycle
Column -B
P. Converts light energy into chemical energy by splitting water and producing oxygen
Q. Fixes carbon dioxide into 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA) during carbon fixation
R. Catalyzes the conversion of NADP+ to NADPH in the light reactions
S. Facilitates the synthesis of ATP using the proton gradient in the thylakoid membrane
T. Transfers electrons between Photosystem II and Photosystem I
U. Converts 3-PGA into glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) in the reduction phase
Choose correct match...?

💡Correct Answer: Option D (1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R, 5-T, 6-U)

Matching photosynthetic molecular complexes with their biochemical functions:
- 1. ATP synthase: Synthesizes ATP via chemiosmotic proton gradient (

CF_0-CF_1

) -> (S)
- 2. Photosystem II: P680 reaction center catalyzes photolysis of water (

2H_2O \to O_2 + 4H^+ + 4e^-

) -> (P)
- 3. RuBisCO: Carboxylation fixing atmospheric CO2 onto RuBP into 3-PGA -> (Q)
- 4. NADP+ reductase (FNR): Catalyzes terminal electron transfer from ferredoxin to NADP+ forming NADPH -> (R)
- 5. Cytochrome b6f complex: Plastoquinol-plastocyanin oxidoreductase transferring electrons from PSII to PSI -> (T)
- 6. Calvin cycle: Enzymatic stromal reduction phase converting 3-PGA into G3P -> (U).
Hence: 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R, 5-T, 6-U. Choice D.

Q745

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyMicrobiology & Cell Biology

Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion: Bacteria are prokaryotic
Reason: Bacteria do not possess true nucleus and membrane bound cell organelles.
Choose the correct option:

Q746

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyEvolutionary Biology & Speciation

Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion (A): Evolution is a continuous process that takes millions of years for speciation.
Reason (R): During evolution, only mutation leads to speciation.
Choose the correct option:

Q747

Biological Sciences, Genetics, Biotechnology & EcologyEcology & Energy Flow

Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion (A): Energy flow in an ecosystem is unidirectional.
Reason (R): Energy decreases as it moves up trophic levels due to heat loss.
Choose the correct option:

Q748

General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceCurrent Affairs & Environment Days

What is the theme of World Ocean Day 2024 which was celebrated on June 8?

Q749

General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceEcology & Protected Areas of India

Phumdis, Floating islands are an exceptional feature of which of the following lakes?

Q750

General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceEnvironmental Law & Institutions

National Green Tribunal (NGT) was formed in _______

Q751

General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Polity & Environmental Law

Environmental Pollution Act of 1986 was enacted under _______ of the Indian Constitution.

Q752

General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Polity & Environmental Law

Which of the following acts is popularly known as Umbrella Legislation?

Q753

General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceWildlife Conservation in India

When was Project Tiger and Project Elephant initiated in India?

Q754

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritagePreventive Conservation & Light Degradation

Which of the following statements regarding the role of light in preventive conservation is most accurate in terms of protecting cultural heritage objects from deterioration?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both UV and visible light contribute to the photochemical degradation of objects, so light levels should be controlled using appropriate filters, and exposure should be limited to the shortest possible duration for each object.)

In museum preventive conservation, light damage is cumulative and completely irreversible. High-energy ultraviolet (UV,

<400

nm) radiation causes direct photochemical bond cleavage, yellowing, and embrittlement, while visible light (

400-700

nm) causes fading and discoloration of pigments and organic dyes. Therefore, conservation best practices mandate eliminating UV (filtering to

<75\;\mu\text{W/lumen}

) AND strictly regulating visible illuminance (lux) and exposure duration (lux-hours/year). Statement C is the most accurate.

Q755

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageMuseum Light Level Standards

What is the recommended light level for museum objects to minimize the risk of degradation due to light exposure?

Q756

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageIntegrated Pest Management (IPM)

Which of the following is the most effective preventive measure to protect museum objects from insect infestation without causing harm to the materials?

💡Correct Answer: Option D (Freezing affected materials to kill insect larvae and eggs before storing them in airtight containers.)

In modern Integrated Pest Management (IPM) for heritage collections, chemical fumigation is discouraged due to toxic residues and potential artifact staining. Controlled low-temperature freezing (cryo-treatment at

-20^\circ\text{C}

to

-30^\circ\text{C}

for 48 to 72 hours in sealed polyethylene bags) is the most effective non-toxic curative method, killing all life stages of textile and wood pests (eggs, larvae, pupae, and adults) without altering the artifact's physical or chemical integrity.

Q757

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageMuseum Storage & Pest Prevention

Which of the following prevention techniques should be applied to reduce the risk of insect damage to museum collections, especially in high-risk environments such as storage rooms?

Q758

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageFungal & Mold Control in Museums

Arrange the following preventive measures for controlling fungus growth on museum objects in the correct order (from least to most effective):
1. Regular inspection and monitoring of humidity levels.
2. Use of dehumidifiers to maintain optimal humidity.
3. Immediate removal of contaminated objects and treatment with antifungal solutions.
4. Storing objects in airtight containers to prevent moisture buildup.
Choose the correct option:

💡Correct Answer: Option D (1, 2, 3, 4)

Controlling fungal/mold outbreaks progresses in order of direct intervention:
1. Baseline environmental monitoring and humidity inspection.
2. Active mechanical climate control using dehumidifiers to keep relative humidity below

60\%

.
3. Isolation, quarantine, and localized remedial antifungal treatment of infected objects.
4. Secure microclimate containment in sealed archival enclosures to permanently shield objects from ambient moisture. Option D (1, 2, 3, 4) matches this hierarchy.

Q759

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageClimate Control in Museums

Which of the following atmospheric conditions is most critical in preventive conservation to ensure the long-term preservation of museum objects?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Maintaining a constant temperature and humidity within a controlled range.)

Rapid fluctuations in temperature and relative humidity (RH) cause repetitive dimensional expansion and contraction in hygroscopic materials (wood, parchment, textiles, paper, ivory), leading to warping, cracking, flaking of paint layers, and mechanical failure. Maintaining stable, constant environmental parameters (typically

18-22^\circ\text{C}

and

45-55\%

RH) is the single most critical foundation of preventive conservation.

Q760

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageAir Pollution Effects on Cultural Heritage

Which of the following statements about the effects of pollution on museum objects and its prevention are correct? (Select the correct combination)
Statements:
1. Airborne pollutants such as sulphur dioxide (SO_2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) can cause corrosion and discoloration of metal and stone objects.
2. Indoor air pollution has little effect on the preservation of organic materials like textiles and paper.
3. Air filtration systems and ventilation are essential to reduce the buildup of pollutants and protect the collection.
4. UV light from sunlight has a much greater impact on organic materials than chemical pollutants.

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Statements 1 and 3 are correct.)

Statements 1 and 3 are correct:
-

SO_2

and

NO_x

react with atmospheric moisture to form sulfurous, sulfuric, and nitric acids, driving acid deposition that corrodes bronze/silver and converts calcium carbonate in marble/limestone into soluble gypsum (

CaSO_4 \cdot 2H_2O

).
- Advanced HVAC air filtration (chemical gas-phase activated carbon and particulate HEPA filters) is vital to scrub these pollutants.
Statement 2 is completely FALSE because indoor pollutants (formic and acetic acid off-gassed from wooden cases) cause severe acid hydrolysis of cellulose in paper and textiles.

Q761

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritagePollution & Preventive Storage

Which of the following statements about pollution and its effect on collections are correct in terms of preventive conservation? (Select the correct combination)
Statements:
1. Air pollution from sources like vehicle emissions and industrial activity is a significant threat to outdoor sculptures, causing surface degradation.
2. Museum spaces should have high levels of ventilation to allow pollutants to dissipate quickly, even if it means fluctuating environmental conditions.
3. The use of neutral pH materials for display and storage can help reduce the impact of acidic pollutants on collections.
4. Chemical pollutants such as ozone and nitrogen dioxide can affect paintings and textiles, causing fading and brittleness.
Choose the correct option:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.)

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are accurate preventive conservation principles:
- Outdoor stone and bronze monuments suffer accelerated erosion from automotive particulates and acidic precipitation.
- Neutral pH and alkaline-buffered archival boards/enclosures absorb and neutralize acidic pollutants.
- Strong oxidants like ozone (

O_3

) and

NO_2

sever conjugated double bonds in colorants and embrittle textile fibers.
Statement 2 is FALSE because uncontrolled ventilation draws in outdoor pollutants and creates dangerous humidity spikes; museum HVAC requires filtered, controlled recirculation.

Q762

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageStone Conservation & Desalination

Which of the following is the most appropriate curative conservation treatment for a stone object suffering from salt efflorescence and surface cracking?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Using a poultice of water and magnesium carbonate to draw out salts from the stone's surface, followed by a treatment with calcium hydroxide to consolidate the material.)

Sub-surface crystallization of soluble salts (subflorescence/efflorescence) exerts tremendous crystallization pressure, fracturing the stone. The gold-standard curative treatment is desalination via poulticing: applying a moist absorbent pack (deionized water with cellulose pulp, sepiolite, or magnesium carbonate) that draws out soluble salts by capillary action. After salt removal, friable stone is consolidated using compatible lime water / calcium hydroxide (

Ca(OH)_2

) or ethyl silicates.

Q763

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageStone Consolidation & Gap Filling

Which of the following is the most appropriate curative conservation treatment for a stone sculpture that has suffered from surface deterioration due to weathering and minor cracks?

Q764

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageWood Conservation Methodology

Consider the following steps involved in the conservation of wooden objects with polished and unpolished surfaces. Arrange them in the correct chronological order of conservation for both types of wood, from the initial treatment to the final steps.
1. Cleaning the surface to remove dirt and surface contaminants.
2. Assessing the object's condition and identifying any cracks or structural issues.
3. Applying a protective finish to maintain the wood's appearance and stability.
4. Consolidating the wood with a suitable consolidant if it is fragile or crumbling.
5. Repairing any cracks or structural damage with appropriate materials.
Choose the correct chronological order for both polished and unpolished wood:

Q765

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritagePolished Wood Conservation

Which of the following treatments is most appropriate for conserving polished wood with surface dirt and minor scratches?

Q766

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageAnimal Skin & Fur Conservation

Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for the conservation of an animal skin artifact (e.g., a fur coat) that has become brittle and discoloured over time?

Q767

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritagePhotograph Conservation

When conserving old photographs, which of the following steps is most critical to prevent further deterioration?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Storing photographs in acid-free materials and controlled humidity conditions.)

Photographic prints (albumen, collodion, gelatin silver) consist of finely divided image silver suspended in a delicate organic binder on paper. They are acutely prone to silver oxidation (mirroring), sulfiding, and acid hydrolysis. Housing photographs in chemically inert, acid-free, lignin-free enclosures meeting the Photographic Activity Test (ISO 18916 PAT) at controlled relative humidity (

30-40\%

RH) is the most critical preservation intervention.

Q768

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritagePaper Conservation & Humidification

What is the most appropriate treatment for a sketch on paper that has faded and has visible creases?

Q769

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageLeather vs Raw Skin Chemistry

Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes skin from leather?

Q770

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageConservation Documentation Workflow

Which of the following is the correct order of steps for making a conservation report for an object in a museum or archive?
1) Assessment of Condition
2) Photographic Documentation
3) Restoration or Treatment Details
4) Conservation Recommendations
5) Background Information (Object History)
6) Materials and Techniques Used in Conservation
Choose the correct order of these steps:

Q771

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritagePurpose of Condition Reports

What is the primary purpose of a condition report in the context of museum or archival conservation?

Q772

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageCondition Report Principles

Which of the following statements about a Condition Report is/are correct?
1) A condition report is created only once during the acquisition of an object and is never updated.
2) The condition report should include a detailed description of any visible damage, stains, or signs of deterioration.
3) It is not necessary to include photographs of the object in the condition report.
4) Condition reports are only useful for objects that are being repaired or restored.
Choose the correct combination of statements:

Q773

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageCondition Report Content Boundaries

Which of the following steps is NOT typically involved in creating a condition report for an object in a museum or archive?

Q774

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageCore Principles of Conservation

Which of the following statements about basic principles to keep in mind during conservation are correct?
1. Conservation should always be reversible to avoid permanent changes to the original object.
2. Conservation treatments should only be applied if the object is in critical condition.
3. The use of materials for conservation should be as close as possible to the original material of the object.
4. It is not necessary to document conservation work as long as the object is preserved in good condition.
Choose the correct combination of statements:

Q775

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageReversibility & Compatibility in Conservation

Which of the following statements about basic principles to keep in mind during conservation are correct?
1. Conservation should always be reversible, allowing treatments to be undone if necessary.
2. Only objects that are in critical condition should be treated, while preventive measures should be avoided.
3. Conservation treatments should use materials that are compatible with the original object to avoid further damage.
4. Documentation of all conservation work is unnecessary if the object is successfully preserved.
Choose the correct combination of statements:

Q776

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageMinimal Intervention & Reversibility

Which of the following statements about basic principles to keep in mind during conservation are correct?
1. Conservation should prioritize minimal intervention, only applying treatments when absolutely necessary.
2. Preventive conservation measures should be applied only after significant damage has already occurred.
3. Reversibility of treatments is essential, ensuring that any intervention can be undone in the future if necessary.
4. Documentation is crucial in conservation to record all treatments and materials used for future reference.
Choose the correct combination of statements:

Q777

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageConservation Ethics Non-Principles

Which of the following is NOT a basic principle to keep in mind during the conservation of cultural heritage objects?

Q778

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageDefinition of Preventive Conservation

Which of the following best describes preventive conservation in the context of heritage and art conservation?

Q779

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageDefinition of Curative Conservation

Which of the following statements best describes curative conservation in the context of cultural heritage?

Q780

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageInterdisciplinary Nature of Conservation

Which of the following combinations of statements about conservation in the context of cultural heritage is correct?

Q781

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageDefinition of Archaeology

Which of the following best defines archaeology?

Q782

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageDefinition of Archives

Which of the following best defines archives?

Q783

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageJ&K State Archives History

Arrange the following events related to the establishment of archives in Jammu & Kashmir in the correct chronological order.
1) Establishment of the Jammu and Kashmir State Archives in Srinagar
2) Opening of the Jammu Branch of Archives
3) Jammu and Kashmir Archives Act
4) Establishment of the Jammu and Kashmir State Archives in Jammu
Choose the correct sequence from the options below:

Q784

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageDefinition of a Museum

Which of the following statements best describes a museum?

Q785

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageMuseums in Jammu and Kashmir

When was the SPS Museum (Shahid Park Museum) in Jammu established?

Q786

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageDogra Art Museum Jammu

When was the Dogra Art Museum in Jammu established?

Q787

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageMuseum Documentation Definition

Which of the following best defines documentation in the context of archival and museum practices?

Q788

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageMuseum Documentation Process

Which of the following is the correct order of the documentation process in museums or archives?
1) Detailed Description
2) Cataloguing and Data Entry
3) Photographic Documentation
4) Initial Assessment/Condition Check
5) Acquisition/Collection of Artifacts
6) Identification and Classification
Choose the correct order of these steps:

Q789

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageIdentification of Antiquities

How is the identification of antiquities typically carried out in museums and archaeological practices?

Q790

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageHarwan Archaeological Antiquities

What types of antiquities were recovered from the archaeological site at Harwan during the course of excavation?

Q791

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritagePreventive vs Curative Conservation

Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes preventive conservation from curative conservation?

Q792

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageEtymology of Museum

From which of the following sources is the term 'museum' derived?

Q793

Preventive & Curative Conservation, Museum Studies & Cultural HeritageHistory of World Museums

Which of the following is considered the first public museum in the world?

Q794

History of Photography & Indian PhotographersWildlife & Nature Photography

Who is known for popularizing the use of an air-release remote control to photograph birds in nests?

Q795

History of Photography & Indian PhotographersWildlife & Nature Photography

T.N.A. Perumal was a famous:

Q796

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationMechanics of Soil Erosion

Soil erosion by rainfall starts with

Q797

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationUniversal Soil Loss Equation & Factors

Which one of the following is NOT a factor affecting soil erosion?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Population)

In the Universal Soil Loss Equation (USLE:

A = R \cdot K \cdot LS \cdot C \cdot P

), the primary physical factors governing water erosion are Climate/Rainfall erosivity (

R

), Soil erodibility (

K

), Topography/Slope (

LS

), Vegetation cover (

C

), and Conservation support practices (

P

). Population is a demographic/socioeconomic parameter, not a direct physical factor governing soil detachment and transport mechanics.

Q798

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationContour Bunding & Soil Conservation

Which of the following area is suitable for the construction of contour bunds?

Q799

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationRational Formula & Watershed Hydrology

Runoff coefficient in rational formula implies

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ratio of runoff to the rainfall)

In the Rational Formula (

Q_p = \frac{C \cdot I \cdot A}{360}

),

C

represents the dimensionless runoff coefficient. It is defined as the ratio of the peak runoff rate (or runoff depth) to the rainfall rate (or total rainfall):

C = \frac{\text{Runoff}}{\text{Rainfall}}

.

Q800

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationVegetative Erosion Control

Which of the following statements are correct?
i. Vegetation decreases soil erosion by holding soil particles together
ii. Vegetation reduces soil erosion by reducing raindrop impact
iii. Vegetation decreases soil erosion by decreasing infiltration rate
Choose the Correct Option:

Q801

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationRational Formula & Peak Discharge

Rational formula is used for the estimation of

💡Correct Answer: Option D (Runoff rate)

The Rational Formula (

Q_p = \frac{C I A}{360}

) is the standard hydrological empirical formula widely used to estimate the peak runoff rate (

Q_p

in

\text{m}^3/\text{s}

) from small agricultural and urban watersheds (area

< 50\text{ km}^2

).

Q802

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationGully Control Structures

Brush dam is a

Q803

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationWatershed Delineation & Principles

The area that contributes all of its runoff water to a common point is known as

Q804

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationHydraulics of Water Erosion

When slope of a land is increased four times the erosive capacity of flowing water is

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Increased four times)

According to principles of soil conservation hydraulics: (1) Velocity of runoff is proportional to the square root of slope (

v \propto S^{1/2}

); if slope increases 4 times, velocity is doubled (

2\times

). (2) The erosive power / erosive capacity of flowing water varies as the square of velocity (

v^2 \propto S

), so doubling velocity increases erosive capacity by 4 times (

2^2 = 4

). (Note: carrying capacity varies as

v^5 = 32\times

, and size of particles pushed varies as

v^6 = 64\times

). Hence, erosive capacity increases four times.

Q805

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationRainwater Harvesting Techniques

The method of collecting surface runoff from a small catchment area and storing it in the root zone of an adjacent infiltration basin is known as

💡Correct Answer: Option D (Micro-catchment water harvesting)

Micro-catchment water harvesting (in-situ rainwater harvesting) involves collecting overland surface runoff from a short catchment slope (< 1000

\text{m}^2

) and directing it immediately to an adjacent cropped planting basin or infiltration pit where it is stored directly in the crop root zone.

Q806

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationHydrologic Design & Flood Routing

The maximum flood flow that could be passed without damage or serious threat to the stability of hydraulic structures is known as.

Q807

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationWind Erosion Mechanics

Size of the soil particles that can be transported by wind in saltation

Q808

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationWind Erosion Dynamics

Which of the following statements are correct?
i. The transporting power of wind depends on its velocity
ii. The transporting power of wind depends on the shape of the particle.
iii. The transporting power of wind depends on the RH of the environment
Choose the Correct Option:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (i and ii)

Statement i is correct because aerodynamic drag and kinetic transport capacity vary with the cube of wind velocity (

v^3

). Statement ii is correct because particle shape directly governs its aerodynamic drag coefficient, settling velocity, and aerodynamic lift. Statement iii is incorrect because relative humidity (RH) in the atmosphere does not govern the dynamic fluid transport capacity of wind in motion. Thus, statements i and ii are correct.

Q809

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationRemote Sensing & GIS Applications

Which of the following statements are correct?
i. Remote sensing is the technique of collecting data about Earth's surface using aerial or satellite sensors.
ii. Geographic Information Systems is a computer-based tool for capturing, analysing, and presenting spatial data.
Options:

Q810

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationBiological Soil Conservation

The practice of growing field crops in narrow strips across the slope, with alternate strips of erosion resisting and permitting crops is known as

Q811

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationGully Control Spillways

Which of the following is a permanent gully control structure?

Q812

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationGully Morphology

Shape of the gully formed where both the topsoil and subsoil have the same resistance against erosion is

Q813

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationStages of Gully Development

The stage in which vegetation starts growing in the gully is known as

Q814

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationLand Slope & Engineering Measures

Which of the following soil conservation structure is suitable for the land having a slope of 6%?

Q815

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationEarth Observation Satellites

LANDSAT is a satellite series of

Q816

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationIrrigation Duty & Delta

The total depth of water required for the entire crop period is known as

💡Correct Answer: Option D (Delta)

In irrigation engineering, Delta (

\Delta

) represents the total depth of water (expressed in cm or meters) required by a crop during its entire base/crop period for full growth and maturity. Duty (

D

) is the area irrigated per unit discharge (ha/cumec), related by

\Delta = \frac{864 B}{D}\text{ cm}

.

Q817

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationEvapotranspiration Measurement

Lysimeter is used to find out

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Evapotranspiration)

A lysimeter is an experimental hydrologic measuring device consisting of a soil-filled tank equipped with weighing/drainage measurement systems, used to directly determine the actual evapotranspiration (

ET

) of crops under field conditions.

Q818

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationCrop Water Requirement

Crop coefficient is a ratio of

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Crop evapotranspiration to the reference crop evapotranspiration)

In the FAO Penman-Monteith methodology, the crop coefficient (

K_c

) is defined as the ratio of the actual crop evapotranspiration (

ET_c

) to the standardized reference crop evapotranspiration (

ET_0

):

K_c = \frac{ET_c}{ET_0}

.

Q819

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationAgricultural Pumps & Pumping Machinery

Which of the following is a positive displacement pump?

Q820

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationFlow Measurement Structures

Francis' formula is used to the discharge through

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rectangular weir)

Francis' formula is used to compute discharge over a rectangular sharp-crested weir taking end contractions into account:

Q = 1.84 (L - 0.1 n H) H^{3/2}

, where

L

is crest length,

H

is head, and

n

is the number of end contractions (usually 2).

Q821

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationOpen Channel Discharge Measurement

Which of the following method is used to find out the rate of flow passing a point in a pipe or open channel?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Velocity - area method)

The fundamental method used to determine the rate of flow (discharge

Q

) passing a section in an open channel or conduit is the Velocity - Area Method, based on the continuity equation:

Q = A \cdot \bar{V}

, where

A

is cross-sectional flow area and

\bar{V}

is mean flow velocity (measured via current meter or floats).

Q822

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationIrrigation Efficiencies

The ratio of water delivered to the field to the water diverted from the source is known as

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Water conveyance efficiency)

Water Conveyance Efficiency (

\eta_c

) is defined as the percentage ratio of the water delivered to the farm field (

W_f

) to the water diverted from the irrigation source/reservoir into the canal system (

W_r

):

\eta_c = \frac{W_f}{W_r} \times 100

.

Q823

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationMicro-Irrigation & Fertigation

Which of the following are correct related to fertigation?
i. Even distribution of nutrients throughout the root zone
ii. Not suited for semi-arid regions
iii. It is very sensitive to clogging
iv. Nutrients are available to plants when and where required
Choose the Correct Option:

Q824

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationGroundwater Hydrology & Aquifers

Impermeable geological formations which contain water but are not capable of transmitting or supplying a significant quantity of water is known as

Q825

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationUnderground Pipe Distribution Systems

Hydrant is a component of

Q826

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationAgricultural Drainage Engineering

The rate expressed as the depth in centimeters of water drained off from a given area in 24 hours is called

Q827

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationSubsurface Drainage Systems

Which of the following type of drains are used to lower the water table in a low lying area?
i. Interceptor drains
ii. Relief drains
Choose the Correct Option:

Q828

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationSurface Irrigation Methods

Which of the following irrigation method is suitable for heavy soils with low infiltration rates?

Q829

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationIrrigation Equipment Matching

Consider the following pairs
i. Drip irrigation - 1. Venturi Injector
ii. Sprinkler irrigation - 2. Riser pipe
iii. Centrifugal pump - 3. V notch weir
iv. Fertigation - 4. Impeller
- 5. Lateral pipe
Which of the following gives correctly matched pairs?

Q830

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationHydraulic Conductivity Testing

Single auger hole method is used to find out

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Hydraulic conductivity)

The single auger hole method (developed by Ernst and Hooghoudt) is the standard in-situ field testing procedure used to determine the saturated hydraulic conductivity (

K

) of soil below a shallow water table.

Q831

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationSurface Drainage Layouts

Surface drainage systems are usually applied in

Q832

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationSoil Moisture Instruments

Which of the following instrument is used for the measurement of soil moisture content?

Q833

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationSoil Moisture Tension & Classification

Water that is held in soil between tension of about 0.33 bars to 31 bars is known as

Q834

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationAquifer Parameters & Specific Yield

The ratio of the volume of water released from storage by a saturated porous medium due to gravity to the total volume of the medium is known as

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Specific yield)

In hydrogeology, Specific Yield (

S_y

) is defined as the ratio of the volume of water drained by gravity from a saturated rock or soil aquifer (

V_w

) to the total gross volume of the medium (

V_T

):

S_y = \frac{V_w}{V_T}

.

Q835

Soil & Water Conservation Engineering, Hydrology & IrrigationSpate Irrigation & Water Management

Irrigation consists of watering terraced fields by diverting flood flows into them is Known as

Q836

Renewable Energy & Electrical EngineeringEnvironmental Impact of Energy

Which one of the following is the major environmental benefit of renewable energy?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Reduced greenhouse gas emission)

The single greatest environmental benefit of transitioning to renewable energy systems (solar, wind, hydro, geothermal) is the dramatic reduction of greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions (such as

CO_2

and

CH_4

), combating anthropogenic climate change and global warming.

Q837

Agricultural Process Engineering, Post-Harvest & Protected CultivationGreenhouse Siting & Construction

Which of the following is correct regarding the site for the construction of a greenhouse?
i. The site should be well aerated with good solar radiation
ii. Provision of a drainage system is always necessary
iii. Quality irrigation water should be availability in the site
iv. Transportation facility should be there
Choose the Correct Option:

Q838

Agricultural Process Engineering, Post-Harvest & Protected CultivationGreenhouse Environmental Control

Light intensity inside the greenhouse varies from clear summer days to cloudy winter days in the range of

Q839

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryPhotodegradation & Museum Lighting

Which of the following statements regarding the preventive conservation of cultural heritage materials in relation to light exposure is correct?
1. Ultraviolet (UV) light is less damaging to artifacts compared to visible light.
2. Organic materials like paper, textiles, and photographs are highly sensitive to light exposure.
3. Light intensity is measured in lux, and recommended levels for sensitive materials are typically above 500 lux.
4. Using incandescent light bulbs is a preferred method for minimizing light damage.
Choose the correct statement:

Q840

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryLighting Control Strategies & Reciprocity Principle

In preventive conservation, which of the following measures is the most effective in minimizing light-induced damage to light-sensitive materials in museums?
1. Using UV-filtered glass and maintaining light levels below 200 lux.
2. Limiting daily exposure duration and using motion-activated lighting systems.
3. Displaying sensitive artifacts under incandescent bulbs with dimmers.
4. Using daylight for illumination combined with periodic artifact rotation.
Options:

Q841

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryMuseum Lighting Standards (50 Lux / 75 uW/lumen)

Which of the following best describes the recommended lighting standards for highly light-sensitive artifacts such as textiles, watercolours, and photographs in museums?
1. Light levels should not exceed 100 lux, and UV radiation should be completely eliminated.
2. Light levels should be kept below 50 lux, and UV radiation should not exceed 75 microwatts per lumen.
3. Light levels should not exceed 200 lux, with UV exposure below 200 microwatts per lumen.
4. Artifacts should be displayed exclusively under fluorescent lights to minimize UV and heat exposure.
Options:

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Only 2 is correct)

Under international museum standards (CIE, Thomson's 'The Museum Environment'): Highly light-sensitive artifacts (textiles, watercolours, tapestries, miniatures, manuscripts, and albumen photographs) must be exhibited at illuminance levels not exceeding 50 lux, with ultraviolet radiation filtered so that it does not exceed 75 microwatts per lumen (

75\;\mu\text{W/lumen}

). Therefore, Only 2 is correct.

Q842

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryIntegrated Pest Management (IPM) in Museums

Which of the following is the most effective preventive measure against insect infestations in museums and archives?
1. Regular fumigation with chemical pesticides.
2. Regularly rotating displayed artifacts.
3. Using mothballs in storage areas.
4. Maintaining low humidity levels and proper ventilation.
Options:

Q843

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryMuseum Insect Pests (Silverfish)

Which of the following insect pests is most commonly associated with damage to organic museum artifacts like textiles, paper, and wood?
1. Silverfish (Lepisma saccharina)
2. Carpet beetles (Anthrenus verbasci)
3. Termites (Isoptera)
4. Cockroaches (Blattodea)
Options:

Q844

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryInsect Damage Typology

Match the insect pests with the type of damage they commonly cause to cultural heritage materials:
Column -A (Insects):
1. Silverfish
2. Carpet beetles
3. Termites
4. Powder post beetles
Column- B (Type of Damage):
i. Bore holes in wooden artifacts
ii. Feeding damage on textiles and furs
iii. Irregular holes in paper and books
iv. Tunnelling damage in wooden structures
Options:

Q845

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryPest Severity Ranking

Arrange the following insect pests in the increasing order of damage intensity they typically cause to museum artifacts:
1. Silverfish (Lepisma saccharina)
2. Carpet Beetles (Anthrenus verbasci)
3. Powderpost Beetles (Lyctidae)
4. Termites (Isoptera)
Options:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 → 2 → 3 → 4)

Damage severity progression: (1) Silverfish cause superficial grazing and thinning of paper sheets; (2) Carpet beetles inflict direct localized holes on organic fabrics and taxidermy; (3) Powderpost beetles excavate dense interior galleries in seasoned furniture and sculpture, reducing wood to powder; (4) Termites cause catastrophic structural collapse, completely hollowing out timber frameworks and entire library collections rapidly. Increasing severity sequence:

1 \to 2 \to 3 \to 4

.

Q846

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryFungal Biodeterioration Factors

Arrange the following factors contributing to fungal growth on cultural heritage materials in the increasing order of their significance in promoting fungal infestations:
1. Poor Ventilation
2. High Humidity (>65%)
3. Elevated Temperature (>25°C)
4. Organic Material Presence (e.g., paper, textiles, wood)
Options:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (4 → 1 → 3 → 2)

Factors promoting fungal mold germination ranked in increasing order of operational criticality: While organic substrate (4) provides nutrients, poor air circulation (1) creates stagnant pockets, and warm temperature (3) accelerates enzyme activity, High Relative Humidity above 65% (2) is the single absolute, indispensable determinant (fungal spores are omnipresent but physically cannot germinate without

>65\%

RH). Increasing order of significance:

4 \to 1 \to 3 \to 2

(Option A).

Q847

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryFungal Species in Cultural Biodeterioration

Match the fungal species commonly found on heritage materials with their primary target material:
Column -A (Fungal Species):
1. Aspergillus niger
2. Penicillium chrysogenum
3. Cladosporium herbarum
4. Trichoderma viride
Column -B (Target Material):
i. Leather and parchment artifacts
ii. Wooden artifacts and furniture
iii. Textiles and fabrics
iv. Paper and book materials
Options:

Q848

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryFungal Prevention Engineering

Match the preventive conservation measures with their primary function in fungal prevention:
Column -A (Preventive Measure):
1. Silica Gel
2. HEPA Filtration System
3. Dehumidifiers
4. Insulated Storage Facilities
Column -B (Function):
i. Controls airborne fungal spores
ii. Reduces moisture levels
iii. Regulates temperature fluctuations
iv. Prevents condensation and moisture buildup
Options:

Q849

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryHierarchy of Environmental Mold Controls

Arrange the following factors influencing fungal growth on cultural heritage materials in the decreasing order of their importance:
1. Humidity above 65%
2. Poor Ventilation
3. Presence of Organic Material
4. Temperature above 25°C
Options:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 → 4 → 2 → 3)

Decreasing order of importance for mold management: (1) Relative humidity above 65% is the primary trigger without which fungal spores cannot germinate; (4) Temperature above 25°C provides optimal thermal kinetics for hyphal growth; (2) Poor ventilation creates stagnant, humid microclimates allowing spores to settle; (3) Organic material provides the nutrient source (always present in heritage objects). Decreasing sequence:

1 \to 4 \to 2 \to 3

(Option A).

Q850

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryAtmospheric Deterioration Agents

Which of the following atmospheric factors are considered critical for Preventive Conservation in museums and heritage sites?
Statement I: Relative Humidity (RH) should be kept stable to prevent material warping, mold growth, and decay.
Statement II: Airborne pollutants, such as sulphur dioxide and dust, do not pose a significant threat to artifacts.
Statement III: Temperature control is crucial to minimize thermal stress on materials.
Statement IV: Direct exposure to UV radiation can accelerate fading and deterioration of organic materials.
Choose the correct statement:

💡Correct Answer: Option B (I, III, and IV only)

Environmental control tenets: Statement I is true (RH stability prevents swelling, dimensional shrinkage, and mold). Statement II is completely false (

SO_2

forms sulfuric acid, and particulate dust accelerates chemical abrasion and soiling). Statement III is true (temperature stability prevents thermal cycling and slows deterioration reaction rates). Statement IV is true (UV radiation drives photochemical fading and bond scission). Thus, Statements I, III, and IV only are correct.

Q851

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryClimate Control & Air Filtration Measures

Which of the following measures are essential for atmospheric control in Preventive Conservation?
Statement I: Using HVAC systems to maintain consistent temperature and humidity levels.
Statement II: Installing UV filters on display case lights and windows.
Statement III: Regularly cleaning and filtering air to reduce dust and chemical pollutants.
Statement IV: Allowing natural ventilation in display areas without monitoring environmental conditions.
Choose the correct statement:

Q852

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryAgents of Deterioration & Material Impacts

Match the following atmospheric factors in Preventive Conservation with their appropriate impacts on artifacts:
Factors:
1. Relative Humidity (RH)
2. Temperature Control
3. Airborne Pollutants
4. UV Radiation
Impacts:
i. Causes fading and chemical degradation of organic materials.
ii. Leads to mould growth, warping, or cracking if not properly maintained.
iii. Results in thermal stress and accelerates chemical reactions.
iv. Causes corrosion, discoloration, and surface damage.
Options:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i)

Impacts of atmospheric factors: (1) Relative Humidity drives biological mold growth (>65%) or dimensional warping/cracking (<40% or fluctuating) (ii); (2) Temperature fluctuations induce mechanical thermal stress and accelerate degradation rate via the Arrhenius equation (iii); (3) Airborne Pollutants (

SO_2, H_2S, O_3

) trigger metal corrosion and stone sulfation (iv); (4) UV Radiation delivers high photon energy, causing dye fading and photochemical chain scission (i). Match: 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i.

Q853

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryConservation Tools & Environmental Control

Match the following atmospheric control tools with their corresponding functions in Preventive Conservation:
Tools:
1. HVAC Systems
2. Silica Gel
3. UV Filters
4. Air Purifiers
Functions:
i. Controls relative humidity levels in enclosed spaces.
ii. Filters harmful ultraviolet rays from lighting systems.
iii. Regulates temperature and humidity levels systematically.
iv. Removes airborne pollutants and dust particles.
Options:

Q854

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryUrban Air Pollution Mitigation in Museums

Which of the following actions is most effective for minimizing the impact of outdoor air pollution on museum collections exposed to urban environments?
i. Regularly exposing objects to sunlight to promote natural cleaning.
ii. Using sealed display cases equipped with active air filtration systems that remove pollutants from the environment.
iii. Increasing the relative humidity within the display areas to neutralize pollutants and prevent them from reacting with objects.
iv. Coating objects with protective layers of wax or varnish to prevent pollutants from adhering to the surfaces.
Options:

💡Correct Answer: Option B (ii and iv only)

Pollution mitigation strategies: Action i is disastrous (sunlight causes rapid photochemical bleaching and embrittlement). Action ii is a primary preventive measure (tightly sealed vitrines with activated charcoal/chemisorption filtration isolate artifacts from urban

SO_2, NO_x

, and ozone). Action iii is destructive (higher moisture accelerates acid hydrolysis and tarnishing). Action iv is a recognized passive conservation practice (applying conservator-grade microcrystalline wax like Renaissance wax or stable varnishes creates a physical barrier against atmospheric moisture and pollutants). Therefore, actions ii and iv are correct.

Q855

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryPollutant Chemistry & Heritage Degradation

Which of the following statements regarding the effect of air pollution on cultural heritage materials is incorrect?
i. Sulphur dioxide (SO2) from industrial emissions can cause acidification and deterioration of stone monuments and sculptures.
ii. Ozone (O3) exposure causes discoloration and deterioration of organic materials, such as textiles and leather.
iii. Nitrogen oxides (NOx) from vehicle emissions primarily affect the physical integrity of metals by accelerating oxidation and corrosion.
iv. Particulate matter (PM) primarily impacts the surface layer of archaeological and museum objects but does not penetrate deep into materials.
Choose the correct statement:

💡Correct Answer: Option C (iii and iv only)

Pollutant impacts: Statement i is true (

SO_2

forms sulfuric acid, converting marble

CaCO_3

to friable gypsum

CaSO_4 \cdot 2H_2O

). Statement ii is true (ozone oxidizes double bonds in dyes, cellulose, and collagen). Statement iii is flawed/incorrect in emphasizing that

NO_x

'primarily' affects metals (nitrogen oxides primarily cause acid deposition damaging stone and hydrolyzing paper/textiles). Statement iv is incorrect because sub-micron particulate matter (

PM_{2.5}

, carbon soot, salts) penetrates deeply into porous stone, unglazed terra-cotta, and textile matrices, causing deep-seated irreversible chemical staining and matrix degradation. Thus, statements iii and iv are the incorrect statements.

Q856

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryNumismatic Conservation (Coins)

Which of the following statements regarding the conservation of copper, silver, and gold coins is incorrect?
i. Copper coins are most susceptible to corrosion due to the formation of copper oxide and verdigris.
ii. Silver coins require periodic cleaning with abrasive methods to prevent tarnishing.
iii. Gold coins are highly resistant to corrosion but can still undergo stress corrosion cracking under extreme conditions.
iv. The cleaning of copper, silver, and gold coins should always be done using non-abrasive, chemical-free methods to prevent surface damage.
Choose the correct statement:

Q857

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryPreventive Storage of Ancient Coins

Which of the following statements about the preventive conservation of copper, silver, and gold coins is correct?
i. Relative humidity above 50% is ideal for storing copper coins to prevent surface oxidation.
ii. Silver coins should be stored in anoxic (oxygen-free) environments to prevent tarnishing caused by hydrogen sulphide (H2S).
iii. Gold coins are chemically inert and do not require any special humidity or temperature controls for long-term preservation.
iv. Copper coins are best preserved using organic acidic storage materials like wood-based display cases.
Choose the correct statement:

💡Correct Answer: Option D (ii and iii only)

Coin conservation facts: Statement i is false (copper coins must be kept at low RH below 35-40% to prevent cuprous chloride reaction with moisture, i.e., bronze disease). Statement ii is correct (silver tarnishes from trace atmospheric

H_2S

forming black silver sulfide

Ag_2S

; anoxic storage or scavenger enclosures effectively stop tarnish). Statement iii is correct (gold is chemically noble, impervious to atmospheric oxidation, and stable across wide humidity ranges). Statement iv is false (wood-based cases emit volatile acetic and formic acids that aggressively corrode copper alloys). Thus, statements ii and iii only are correct.

Q858

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryMetal Conservation Matching

Match the following conservation practices with the appropriate coin metal:
Column -A (Conservation Practice):
1. Store in low humidity (<40%)
2. Avoid exposure to hydrogen sulfide (H2S)
3. Use inert storage materials (e.g., Mylar)
4. Monitor temperature and humidity
Column -B (Coin Metal):
i. Gold
ii. Copper
iii. Silver
iv. All metals
Options:

💡Correct Answer: Option B (1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv)

Conservation matching: (1) Storage at low relative humidity (<40%) is essential for Copper (ii) to arrest bronze disease (

Cu_2Cl_2

oxidation); (2) Avoiding exposure to

H_2S

is specifically critical for Silver (iii) to prevent black

Ag_2S

tarnish; (3) Using inert non-PVC enclosures like Mylar/melanex envelopes is standard practice for Gold (i) to prevent surface abrasion; (4) Monitoring temperature and humidity is a universal mandate for All metals (iv). Match: 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv (Option B).

Q859

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryEnvironmental Controls for Historic Metals

Match the environmental concern with the correct preventive measure for coin conservation:
Column -A (Environmental Concern):
1. Oxidation of copper
2. Tarnishing of silver
3. Physical damage to gold coins
4. General environmental pollutants
Column -B (Preventive Measure):
i. Store in an anoxic environment
ii. Maintain low relative humidity
iii. Use soft padded holders
iv. Use sealed display cases
Options:

Q860

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryArms & Armor Conservation

Match the conservation techniques with their appropriate application in military equipment like swords, guns, and other weapons:
Column -A (Conservation Technique):
1. Rust removal using electrolytic reduction
2. Application of conservator-grade wax
3. Preservation with a stabilizing varnish
4. Surface cleaning with a dry microfiber cloth
Column -B (Military Equipment):
I. Swords (blades)
II. Firearms (guns)
III. Bayonets (metal parts)
IV. Gunstocks (wooden parts)
Options:

Q861

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryTextile Conservation Methods

Consider the following statements regarding the basic conservation of textile objects:
i. Wet cleaning is suitable for all historical textiles regardless of their condition.
ii. Darning is used to repair structural damage in textiles by re-weaving threads.
iii. Lining provides additional structural support to fragile textile artifacts.
iv. Vacuum cleaning is often performed through a fine mesh to prevent damage.
Which of the following combinations is correct?

Q862

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryTaxidermy & Natural History Specimen Conservation

Which of the following practices is most effective for the preventive conservation of stuffed birds and animals in natural history collections?
A) Regular exposure to direct sunlight to prevent fungal growth
B) Maintaining low humidity (below 50%) and controlled temperature
C) Periodic application of chemical pesticides directly on specimens
D) Frequent handling and repositioning of specimens to ensure stability

Q863

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryCondition Reporting Protocol

Which of the following is the correct order of steps when creating a condition report for a heritage artifact?
A) Inspection → Documentation → Photographic Record → Description of Condition → Recommendations for Treatment
B) Description of Condition → Photographic Record → Inspection → Documentation → Recommendations for Treatment
C) Photographic Record → Inspection → Description of Condition → Documentation → Recommendations for Treatment
D) Inspection → Photographic Record → Description of Condition → Documentation → Recommendations for Treatment

Q864

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryCondition Report Content & Structure

Which of the following should be included in the 'Description of Condition' section of a condition report?
A) A chronological history of the object's creation and ownership
B) Specific types of deterioration, such as cracks, stains, or loss of material
C) The provenance of the artifact, including dates and locations
D) The monetary value of the object before and after restoration

Q865

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryCondition Report Step Matching

Match the following steps in making a condition report with their corresponding activities:
Steps:
1. Inspection
2. Documentation
3. Photographic Record
4. Description of Condition
5. Recommendations for Treatment
Activities:
i. Recording visual details, materials, and provenance of the object.
ii. Identifying specific types of deterioration and documenting their location.
iii. Taking high-quality photographs to visually document the current state of the object.
iv. Suggesting conservation or restoration treatments based on the condition of the object.
v. Conducting a visual examination to assess damage, deterioration, or wear.
Options:

Q866

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryCondition Assessment Protocols

Consider the following statements regarding the process of creating a condition report for cultural heritage artifacts:
Statement I: The condition report should include only a general description of the object without any detailed examination of its condition.
Statement II: Photographic records should be taken at various stages of inspection, including close-up shots of damaged areas.
Statement III: The condition description should focus on the identification of deterioration and damage, including cracks, discoloration, and structural weaknesses.
Statement IV: The report must be completed after any conservation treatment has been performed on the object.
Statement V: Recommendations for treatment should be based solely on visual examination without considering historical context or material composition.
Choose the correct statement:

Q867

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryCondition Report Principles

In the context of heritage conservation which of the following best describes the primary purpose of a condition report, and what key principle differentiates a high-quality condition report from a basic documentation record?
A) It serves as a legal document verifying an object's authenticity, with emphasis on provenance rather than physical state.
B) It provides a detailed assessment of an object's physical state at a specific moment, with emphasis on consistency and repeatability in observations.
C) It is primarily used for insurance valuation, focusing on an object's monetary worth rather than conservation needs
D) It documents routine handling procedure, prioritizing security measures over material analysis.

Q868

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryCore Ethical Principles of Conservation

Which of the following principles are considered essential while performing cultural heritage conservation?
Statement I: The principle of Minimal Intervention emphasizes avoiding unnecessary changes to the artifact during conservation.
Statement II: Reversibility Principle ensures that any treatment applied can be reversed without causing further damage.
Statement III: Conservation processes must prioritize aesthetic appeal over historical authenticity.
Statement IV: Documentation of every step taken during conservation is mandatory for transparency and future reference.
Choose the correct statement:

Q869

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryConservation Ethics Matching

Match the following key principles of conservation with their correct descriptions:
Principles:
1. Minimal Intervention
2. Reversibility Principle
3. Documentation
4. Environmental Control
Descriptions:
i. Ensuring all conservation actions can be undone without damaging the object.
ii. Recording every step of conservation for future reference and transparency.
iii. Avoiding excessive treatments and preserving original materials as much as possible.
iv. Controlling temperature, humidity, and light exposure to prevent deterioration.
Options:

Q870

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryConservation Chemical Materials (Paraloid B-72, Silica Gel)

Match the following materials used in conservation with their appropriate applications:
Materials:
1. Paraloid B-72
2. Calcium Carbonate
3. Japanese Tissue Paper
4. Silica Gel
Applications:
i. Used as a consolidant and adhesive for fragile artifacts.
ii. Commonly applied to control humidity levels in display cases.
iii. Ideal for repairing and reinforcing delicate paper artifacts.
iv. Utilized for neutralizing acidic residues on stone artifacts.
Options:

💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-i, 2-iv, 3-iii, 4-ii)

Conservation chemical materials: (1) Paraloid B-72 (ethyl methacrylate copolymer) is the most widely used stable, reversible consolidant and adhesive for glass, ceramics, and fossils (i); (2) Calcium Carbonate (

CaCO_3

) is used as an alkaline buffer to neutralize acids in stone poultices and paper deacidification (iv); (3) Japanese Tissue Paper (kozo fibers) is the international standard for mending tears and reinforcing fragile paper documents (iii); (4) Silica Gel is a porous desiccant used to buffer and maintain target relative humidity in showcases (ii). Match: 1-i, 2-iv, 3-iii, 4-ii (Option A).

Q871

Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryDefinition of Preventive Conservation

Preventive conservation refers to:
A) The direct treatment of damaged artifacts to restore their appearance.
B) The study of historical techniques used in artifact creation.
C) Measures and actions aimed at avoiding or minimizing future deterioration of cultural heritage.
D) Complete reconstruction of lost cultural artifacts.

Q872

Jammu & Kashmir Heritage, Archaeology & Archival ScienceCurative vs Preventive Conservation

Which of the following best defines Curative Conservation?
A) Preventing damage to cultural heritage by controlling environmental factors.
B) Cleaning, repairing, and stabilizing existing damage in cultural heritage objects.
C) Digitizing heritage artifacts for virtual preservation.
D) Educating the public about heritage conservation practices.

Q873

Jammu & Kashmir Heritage, Archaeology & Archival ScienceDefinition & Purpose of Heritage Conservation

Which of the following best defines Conservation in the context of cultural heritage?
A) The complete replacement of damaged heritage artifacts with modern replicas.
B) The process of protecting, preserving, and managing cultural heritage to prevent decay and ensure its longevity.
C) The unrestricted public display of artifacts to increase tourism.
D) The commercial use of heritage sites for revenue generation.

Q874

General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsEnvironmental Chemistry & Air Pollution

Which one of the following is/are the main contributors of Acid rain?

💡Correct Answer: Option C (Nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide)

Acid rain is caused by chemical reactions that begin when compounds like sulfur dioxide (

SO_2

) and nitrogen oxides (including nitrous oxide and nitric oxide,

NO_x

) are released into the air and react with water, oxygen, and other atmospheric oxidants to form sulfuric and nitric acids.

Q875

Agronomy, Irrigation & Spices / Plantation TechnologySoil & Water Conservation

What are the components of a water harvesting system?

Q876

Agronomy, Irrigation & Spices / Plantation TechnologyEnvironmental Biotechnology

What is bioremediation?

Q877

Agronomy, Irrigation & Spices / Plantation TechnologySoil & Water Conservation

Contour bunding is adopted in areas having a slope up to:

Q878

Plant Biochemistry, Cell Biology & PhysiologyLaboratory Environment Control

Which instrument is commonly used to measure humidity in a culture room?

Q879

Soil Science, Plant Nutrition & Agricultural MeteorologySoil Microbiology & Ecology

The release of carbon dioxide by soil microorganisms in the soil is known as:

Q880

Exposure Triangle, Lighting & Composition TechniquesPhotography Ethics & Environmental Stewardship

What is an important ethical consideration when practicing environmental photography?

Q881

Exposure Triangle, Lighting & Composition TechniquesDocumentary & Environmental Portraiture

When documenting labor in a rural setting, what element can enhance the storytelling aspect of the images?

Q882

Exposure Triangle, Lighting & Composition TechniquesPhotography Ethics & Conservation

In environmental photography, what does the term "sustainability" refer to?

Q883

Basic Mathematics & Numerical AbilityMensuration & Volume Conservation

The length of a wire (in cm) of 0.1 mm radius that can be drawn from melting a solid copper sphere of diameter 6 cm is:

Q884

Vehicle Pollution, Emissions & Noise StandardsSafe Axle Weight Regulations

Which of the following is the maximum safe axle weight of a single axle with two tyres vehicle, specified by ministry of road transport and highway?

Q885

Vehicle Pollution, Emissions & Noise StandardsCombustion Chemistry & Greenhouse Gases

Which of the following is the primary greenhouse gas emitted by burning fuels in vehicles?

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Carbon dioxide)

The complete combustion of fossil hydrocarbons (

C_xH_y + O_2 \to CO_2 + H_2O

) results primarily in Carbon dioxide (

CO_2

), which is emitted in massive volumes and is the principal anthropogenic greenhouse gas responsible for atmospheric heat retention and climate change.

Q886

Vehicle Pollution, Emissions & Noise StandardsBharat Stage VI Emission Framework

Which among the following statements correctly represent the Bharat Stage (BS-VI) vehicular emission norms
(i) "BS - VI" emission norms are equivalent to "Euro-V" norms
(ii) "BS - VI" emission norms do not require any change in fuel quality
(iii) "BS - VI" emission norms are applicable for all category of vehicle including government four wheeler
The correct statements are

Q887

Vehicle Pollution, Emissions & Noise StandardsZero-Emission Sustainable Mobility

Which of the following mode of transportation will have the least negative impact on air quality?

Q888

Vehicle Pollution, Emissions & Noise StandardsAtmospheric Chemistry of Acid Precipitation

Which of the following pollutants are responsible for acid rain formation?

💡Correct Answer: Option B (Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) and Sulphur dioxide (SO2))

Acid rain forms when Sulphur dioxide (

SO_2

) and Nitrogen dioxide (

NO_2

) emitted from engine combustion and industrial processes react with atmospheric moisture, oxygen, and oxidants to form dilute sulfuric acid (

H_2SO_4

) and nitric acid (

HNO_3

).

Q889

Vehicle Pollution, Emissions & Noise StandardsParticulate Matter Toxicology & Source Apportionment

Consider the following statements,
Statement-1: PM 2.5 is largely produced by vehicular emission and leading to cardiovascular diseases.
Statement-2: PM 10 largely produced by dust storms and leading to upper respiratory diseases.
Which of the following combinations is correct

💡Correct Answer: Option A (Statement -1 and Statement -2 are individually true)

Both statements are individually true. Fine particulate matter (

PM_{2.5}

) is generated largely by automotive combustion; due to its minute size (

\le 2.5\,\\mu ext{m}

), it penetrates the pulmonary alveoli directly into the vascular bloodstream, causing plaque instability and cardiovascular disease. Coarse particulate matter (

PM_{10}

) originates predominantly from mechanical crushing and windblown road dust, lodging in the nasopharynx and bronchi to trigger upper airway inflammation.

Q890

Vehicle Pollution, Emissions & Noise StandardsAcoustic Metrology & Decibel Standards

Which of the following unit is commonly used to measure the intensity of the sound of a vehicle horn?

Q891

Vehicle Pollution, Emissions & Noise StandardsHighway Environmental Noise Mitigation

Which among the following options, correctly represent the purpose to provide noise barriers along highways?

Q892

Vehicle Pollution, Emissions & Noise StandardsAcoustic Pollution Environmental Biology

Which among the following statements correctly represent the effects of noise pollution by vehicle:
(i) Noise pollution can lead to hearing loss over time
(ii) Noise pollution can disturb wildlife
(iii) Noise pollution can contribute to global warming
The correct statements are

Q893

Vehicle Pollution, Emissions & Noise StandardsIdling Emission Test Thresholds (PUC Standards)

The carbon monoxide CO and HC (n-hexane equivalent) content respectively, of four wheelers, which is manufactured as per Bharat Stage III or subsequent emission norms

Q894

General Knowledge & Current AffairsEnvironment & Sustainable Development

Match the following pairs with respect to United Nations' 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development
Column - I (Sustainable Development Goal- SDG)
i) SDG 3
ii) SDG 7
iii) SDG 9
iv) SDG 12

Column - II (Related to)
1) Affordable and Clean Energy
2) Good Health And Well Being
3) Ensure sustainable consumption and production patterns
4) Industry, Innovation and Infrastructure / Decent Work

Choose the correct option:
A) i-1, ii-3, iii-4, iv-2
B) i-3, ii-2, iii-1, iv-4
C) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3
D) i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1

Q895

Renewable Energy & EnvironmentRenewable Energy & Environment

Consider the following statements regarding green hydrogen:
i. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion
ii. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation
iii. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) i only
B) ii only
C) ii and iii only
D) i, ii and iii

Q896

Renewable Energy & EnvironmentRenewable Energy & Environment

Consider the following:
i. Battery storage
ii. Biomass generators
iii. Fuel cells
iv. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units
Which of the above is/are considered a "Distributed Energy Resource"?
A) i only
B) i, ii, iii and iv
C) ii and iii
D) i, ii and iv

Q897

Renewable Energy & EnvironmentRenewable Energy & Environment

The term "pumped-storage hydropower" has been recently highlighted in the context of which of the following?
A) Irrigation of terraced agricultural land
B) Lift irrigation for cereal crop cultivation
C) Long-duration storage of electrical energy
D) Rainwater collection and harvesting systems

Q898

Renewable Energy & EnvironmentRenewable Energy & Environment

With reference to solar water pumps, consider the following statements:
i. Solar power can be used for running surface pumps, except submersible pumps
ii. Solar power can be used for running centrifugal pumps, except those with a piston
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) i only
B) ii only
C) Both i and ii
D) Neither i nor ii

Q899

Renewable Energy & EnvironmentRenewable Energy & Environment

Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?
i. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification
ii. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen, argon and carbon dioxide
iii. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) i only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) i, ii and iii

Q900

Renewable Energy & EnvironmentRenewable Energy & Environment

Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of sustainable energy. Why?
i. They use living organisms as catalysts to generate electricity from certain substrates
ii. They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates
iii. They can be installed in wastewater treatment plants to cleanse water and produce electricity
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
A) i only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) i, ii and iii

Q901

Renewable Energy & EnvironmentRenewable Energy & Environment

The Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) uses:
A) Energy difference
B) Potential difference
C) Kinetic difference
D) Temperature difference

Q902

Renewable Energy & EnvironmentRenewable Energy & Environment

Ocean thermal energy conversion is characterised by having:
A) High efficiency and low installation cost
B) Low efficiency and high installation cost
C) Low efficiency and low installation cost
D) High efficiency and high installation cost

Q903

Renewable Energy & EnvironmentRenewable Energy & Environment

Which type of windmill has better efficiency?
A) Vertical type wind mills
B) Darrieus type machines
C) Horizontal type windmills
D) Magnus effect rotor

Q904

Renewable Energy & EnvironmentRenewable Energy & Environment

A two-blade wind turbine produces maximum power when the tip-speed ratio is approximately:
A) 2π
B) 0.473
C) 3π
D) 0.593

Q905

Renewable Energy & EnvironmentEnergy Management & Conservation

What is the primary goal of energy management?
A) Maximising energy consumption
B) Optimising energy usage
C) Minimising energy efficiency
D) Reducing energy conservation

Q906

Renewable Energy & EnvironmentEnergy Management & Conservation

What is the significance of lighting in energy conservation efforts?
A) Lighting has no impact on energy consumption
B) Brighter lighting increases energy efficiency
C) Energy-efficient lighting reduces electricity usage
D) Dim lighting improves energy conservation

Q907

Renewable Energy & EnvironmentRenewable Energy & Environment

The solar heater function is to convert the solar energy into:
A) Thermal Energy
B) Mechanical Energy
C) Electrical Energy
D) Chemical Energy

Q908

Civil & Environmental EngineeringCivil & Transportation Engineering

Which one is not coming under cautionary signs?
A) Sharp Curve
B) No Parking
C) Slippery Road
D) Narrow Bridge

Q909

Civil & Environmental EngineeringCivil & Transportation Engineering

The erosion between shoulder and pavement leads to:
A) Drop
B) Break down
C) Edge drop
D) Flat drop

Q910

Civil & Environmental EngineeringCivil & Soil Mechanics

According to IS classification system, the soils can be classified into:
A) 15 groups
B) 18 groups
C) 03 groups
D) 07 groups

Q911

Civil & Environmental EngineeringCivil & Transportation Engineering

As per third twenty-year road development plan 1981-2001, the urban roads are classified into four categories. Choose the correct order.
A) National highways, State highways, Village roads, Other district roads
B) Arterial roads, Sub-arterial roads, Collector streets, Local streets
C) Primary system, Secondary system, Tertiary system, Village roads
D) None of the above

Q912

Civil & Environmental EngineeringCivil & Transportation Engineering

Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: East Indian Railway company was established by R. M. Stephenson in 1845.
Statement 2: In 2008, Kalka-Shimla railway was declared as World Heritage site by UNESCO.
Choose the correct option:
A) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
B) Statement 2 is correct and Statement 1 is incorrect
C) Statement 1 and 2 are correct
D) Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect

Q913

Civil & Environmental EngineeringCivil & Transportation Engineering

Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The main components of a highway on embankments are: Embankment or fill, Subgrade, Drainage layer, Shoulders, and Pavement layers.
Statement 2: Corrugations is longitudinal deformation or depression of the pavement surface along the wheel paths of heavy vehicles.
Choose the correct option:
A) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
B) Statement 2 is correct and Statement 1 is incorrect
C) Statement 1 and 2 are correct
D) Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect

Q914

Civil & Environmental EngineeringEnvironmental & Water Resources

Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List - I (Type):
1. Surface Source
2. Sub-surface Source
3. Type of precipitation
List - II:
i. Infiltration galleries
ii. Cyclonic
iii. Storage reservoirs
Choose the correct option:
A) (1) - i, (2) - ii, (3) - iii
B) (1) - ii, (2) - iii, (3) - i
C) (1) - iii, (2) - i, (3) - ii
D) (1) - iii, (2) - ii, (3) - i

Q915

Civil & Environmental EngineeringCivil & Soil Mechanics

Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List - I:
1. Coarse grained components
2. Fine grained components
3. Peat
List - II:
i. High Organic, Large Organic Matter, Particles of Decomposed Vegetation
ii. Boulder, Cobble, Gravel, Sand
iii. Silt, Clay, Organic Matter
Choose the correct option:
A) (1) - i, (2) - ii, (3) - iii
B) (1) - ii, (2) - iii, (3) - i
C) (1) - iii, (2) - i, (3) - ii
D) (1) - ii, (2) - i, (3) - iii

Q916

Civil & Environmental EngineeringEnvironmental & Water Resources

Consider the following statements:
i. The quality of wastewater is determined on the basis of DO.
ii. The BOD test is based on DO.
iii. Determination of DO helps in controlling corrosion.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A) i and ii
B) ii and iii
C) i and iii
D) i, ii, and iii

Q917

Civil & Environmental EngineeringEnvironmental & Water Resources

Standard BOD is measured at:
A) 20°C - 3 days
B) 20°C - 5 days
C) 25°C - 3 days
D) 25°C - 5 days

Q918

Civil & Environmental EngineeringEnvironmental & Water Resources

The system to collect night soil, garbage etc. in separate vessels or deposited in pools and pits is called:
A) Conservancy system
B) Waste allocation system
C) Waste deposition system
D) Waste pit

Q919

General Knowledge with special reference to UT of J&KNational Parks & Wildlife in J&K

Dachigam National Park is famous for which endangered animal?
A) Snow Leopard
B) Red Panda
C) Hangul (Kashmir Stag)
D) Musk Deer

Q920

Civil EngineeringEnvironmental Engineering - Wastewater Characteristics

In a domestic wastewater sample, COD and BOD were measured. Generally, which of the following statement is true for their relative magnitude?
A) COD = BOD
B) COD > BOD
C) COD < BOD
D) None of the above

Q921

Civil EngineeringEnvironmental Engineering - Water Treatment Sequence

The potable water is prepared from turbid surface water by adopting the following treatment sequence:
A) Turbid surface water - Coagulation - Flocculation - Sedimentation - Filtration - Disinfection - Storage and Supply
B) Turbid surface water - Sedimentation - Coagulation - Flocculation - Filtration - Disinfection - Storage and Supply
C) Turbid surface water - Flocculation - Coagulation - Filtration - Disinfection - Sedimentation - Storage and Supply
D) Turbid surface water - Coagulation - Flocculation - Filtration - Disinfection - Sedimentation - Storage and Supply

Q922

Civil EngineeringEnvironmental Engineering - BOD Calculation

A 1 % solution of sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at 20°C. The depletion of oxygen was found to be 3 ppm. Determine the BOD of raw sewage.
A) 60 ppm
B) 150 ppm
C) 300 ppm
D) 600 ppm

Q923

Civil EngineeringEnvironmental Engineering - Noise Pollution Standards

As per Noise Pollution (Regulation and Control) Rules 2000 of India, the day time noise limit for a residential zone, expressed in dB(A) L_eq, is
A) 45
B) 55
C) 65
D) 75

Q924

Civil EngineeringEnvironmental Engineering & Construction - Trench Excavation

When the depth of trench exceeds 1.5 to 2 m, and when excavation is made with sides vertical, it becomes necessary to support the side by sheeting and bracing. This operation is known as
A) shafts of trench
B) electro-osmosis
C) boning of trench
D) timbering of trench

Q925

Civil EngineeringEnvironmental Engineering - Sewage Disposal

The following two statements are relevant to method of sewage disposal:
Statement - 1: The three principal processes of land treatment of wastewater are (i) Broad irrigation or sewage farming, (ii) Rapid infiltration, and (iii) Overland runoff.
Statement - 2: The ratio of quantity of receiving water to that of wastewater or effluent discharge is called the dilution factor.
Choose the correct option:
A) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
B) Statement 2 is correct and Statement 1 is incorrect
C) Statement 1 and 2 are correct
D) Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect

Q926

Civil EngineeringEnvironmental Engineering - Water Quality Testing

Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List - I (Water properties)
i. Alkalinity
ii. Hardness
iii. Chlorine
iv. Dissolved Oxygen
List - II (Titrants)
1. N/35.5 AgNO₃
2. N/40 Na₂S₂O₃
3. N/50 H₂SO₄
4. N/50 EDTA
Choose the correct option:
A) (i) - 2, (ii) - 4, (iii) - 3, (iv) - 1
B) (i) - 3, (ii) - 4, (iii) - 1, (iv) - 2
C) (i) - 1, (ii) - 2, (iii) - 4, (iv) - 3
D) (i) - 4, (ii) - 3, (iii) - 2, (iv) - 1

Q927

Civil EngineeringEnvironmental Engineering - Air Pollution Effects

Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List - I (Materials and Air pollutants)
1. Materials: Metals; and Pollutants: SO₂
2. Materials: Paper; and Pollutants: SO₂
3. Materials: Textiles; and Pollutants: SO₂
List - II (Effects)
i. Embrittlement
ii. Reduction in tensile strength
iii. Tarnishing of surfaces
Choose the correct option:
A) (1) - i, (2) - ii, (3) - iii
B) (1) - ii, (2) - iii, (3) - i
C) (1) - iii, (2) - i, (3) - ii
D) (1) - iii, (2) - ii, (3) - i

Q928

Civil EngineeringEnvironmental Engineering - Water Treatment Methods

Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List - I (Type of water impurity)
i. Hardness
ii. Brackish water from sea
iii. Residual MPN from filters
iv. Turbidity
List - II (Method of treatment)
1. Reverse Osmosis
2. Chlorination
3. Zeolite treatment
4. Coagulation, Flocculation and Filtration
Choose the correct option:
A) (i) - 1, (ii) - 4, (iii) - 3, (iv) - 2
B) (i) - 4, (ii) - 3, (iii) - 1, (iv) - 2
C) (i) - 2, (ii) - 1, (iii) - 4, (iv) - 3
D) (i) - 3, (ii) - 1, (iii) - 2, (iv) - 4

Q929

Civil EngineeringEnvironmental Engineering - Sedimentation Theory

Particles may settle out of a suspension in four ways, depending upon the concentration of the suspension and the flocculating properties of the particles. Arrange the four types in order with respect to decreasing of settling depth vs increasing of settling time. Choose the correct order.
A) Discrete settling, Flocculant settling, Zone settling, Compression settling
B) Compression settling, Flocculant settling, Discrete settling, Zone settling
C) Zone settling, Flocculant settling, Discrete settling, Compression settling
D) Discrete settling, Zone settling, Flocculant settling, Compression settling

Q930

Forensic Environment & LawsEnvironmental Forensics Legislation

When did Hazardous waste management act enacted in India?

Q931

Wildlife ForensicsAnimal Tracking & Identification

Identification of animals in wildlife forensics, can be done using:

Q932

General EnglishReading Comprehension - Global Warming

What is the primary cause of global warming?

Q933

General EnglishReading Comprehension - Global Warming

How does global warming impact biodiversity?

Q934

General EnglishReading Comprehension - Global Warming

What is one of the strategies suggested to mitigate global warming?

Q935

Environment and Biodiversity of J&KFauna of J&K and IUCN Status

Which of the following species found in Jammu & Kashmir are critically endangered?
I. Hangul
II. Snow Leopard
III. Himalayan Tahr
IV. Markhor
Options:

Q936

General Knowledge & Current AffairsNational Parks of Jammu & Kashmir

Which of the following National Parks encompasses the catchment area of Kiber, Nanth, and Kiyar Nallas, all of which drain south-west into the Marwah river, locally called Mariv Sudir?
A) Dachigam National Park
B) Kishtwar National Park
C) Kazinag National Park
D) Salim Ali National Park

Q937

Basic MathematicsMensuration (Volume Conservation)

Two metallic right circular cones having their heights 3.8 cm and 4.6 cm and radii of their bases 2.1 cm each, have been melted together and recast into a sphere. The diameter (in cm) of the sphere is:
A) 4.2
B) 1.4
C) 3.5
D) 6.3

Q938

General Knowledge & Current AffairsGeography & Wetlands of J&K (Ramsar Sites)

How many of the following pairs are correct regarding Wetlands and their major associated Districts in J&K UT?
- Hokersar wetland : Srinagar district
- Mansar lake : Samba district
- Wular lake : Bandipora district
- Hygam wetland : Baramulla district
Choose the correct option:
A) One pair only
B) Two pairs only
C) Three pairs only
D) All of the above

Q939

General Knowledge & Current AffairsBiodiversity & Wildlife of Jammu & Kashmir

Which of the following species in the J&K region have Endangered / Threatened status as per the IUCN Red Book?
I. Hangul
II. Snow Leopard
III. Ibex
IV. Himalayan Tahr
V. Markhor
VI. Cheer Pheasant
Choose the correct option:
A) I, III, IV and V only
B) II, IV, V and VI only
C) II, III, IV and VI only
D) All of the above

Q940

Basic ScienceBiology - Environment & Ecology

Classify the following substances as biodegradable and non-biodegradable:
A) Biodegradable: Animal bones, Leather ; Non-Biodegradable: DDT, Mercury, Lead, Silver foils
B) Biodegradable: DDT, Animal bones, Leather ; Non-Biodegradable: Mercury, Lead, Silver foils
C) Biodegradable: Mercury, Lead ; Non-Biodegradable: DDT, Silver foils, Leather
D) Biodegradable: DDT, Silver foils, Animal bones; Non-Biodegradable: Mercury, Lead, Leather

Q941

Basic ScienceBiology - Food Chain & Ecology

The correct sequence in an aquatic food chain is:
A) Algae -> Crab -> Sea urchins -> Squid -> Spotted dolphin -> Tiger shark
B) Sea urchins -> Algae -> Crab -> Squid -> Tiger shark -> Spotted dolphin
C) Algae -> Sea urchins -> Crab -> Squid -> Spotted dolphin -> Tiger shark
D) Tiger shark -> Spotted dolphin -> Squid -> Crab -> Sea urchins -> Algae

Q942

Basic ScienceBiology - Environmental Issues

Which of the following ozone-depleting substances are correctly matched with their primary sources?
A) Halons — Soil fumigant
B) Methyl bromide — Degreasing solvent
C) Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) — Fire extinguishers
D) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) — Refrigerants and aerosol propellants

Q943

General Awareness with special ref to J&KEcology - Wetlands and National Parks

Consider the following pairs:
Wetlands — States
I. Kolleru Lake — Tamil Nadu
II. Tawa Reservoir — Madhya Pradesh
III. Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary — Andhra Pradesh
IV. Sultanpur National Park — Haryana

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
A) One pair only
B) Two pairs only
C) Three pairs only
D) All of the above

Q944

General Awareness with special ref to J&KNational Parks and Geography of J&K

Dachigam National Park is located in which mountain range?
A) Ladakh Range
B) Zanskar Range
C) Karakoram Range
D) Zabarwan Range

Q945

General Awareness with special ref to J&KWildlife Conservation in J&K

A Census planned in J & K in early 2026 is aimed at conservation of which species?
A) Markhor
B) Hangul
C) Snow Leopard
D) Himalayan Brown Bear

Q946

General Awareness & ScienceEnvironment and Biodiversity

Match the following:
National Parks:
1. Mouling National Park
2. Dibru-Saikhowa National Park
3. Mollem National Park
4. Kanger Ghati National Park
States:
i. Arunachal Pradesh
ii. Assam
iii. Goa
iv. Chhattisgarh
Choose the correct match:
A) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-ii
B) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv
C) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i
D) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv

Q947

General Awareness & ScienceForests and Natural Vegetation

Consider the following statements about Tropical Evergreen forests.
I. They are found in areas with rainfall above 200 cm.
II. They shed their leaves during the dry season.
III. Mahogany, Ebony and Rosewood are all examples of Tropical evergreen forests.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A) I, II and III
B) I and II only
C) II and III only
D) I and III only

Q948

Environment, Ecology & ForestryMining Impacts and Environmental Law

With reference to 'Rat-hole mining' as practiced in parts of Northeast India, identify the correct statements.
I. It is a process of digging narrow horizontal tunnels into the hill slopes by extraction workers.
II. The National Green Tribunal has banned this practice.
III. Acid Mine Drainage (AMD) caused by this practice is characterized by high pH levels, making the water highly alkaline.
A) I and III only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) All of the above

Q949

Environment, Ecology & ForestryWater Pollution and Aquatic Ecosystems

Select the correct statements about Eutrophication.
I. It is a general term describing a process in which nutrients accumulate in a body of water, resulting in increased growth of organisms.
II. It leads to an increase in levels of dissolved oxygen, favoring fish growth.
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

Q950

Environment, Ecology & ForestryWildlife Ecology and Animal Behavior

Which of the following statements best describes 'Altitudinal Migration'?
A) Movement of Marine species towards the equator for warmer waters
B) Long-distance migration across continents to avoid harsh warm weather conditions
C) Short-distance animal migration to higher altitudes to escape extreme heat
D) Movement of Marine species towards the surface warm waters

Q951

Environment, Ecology & ForestryClimate Change - COP26 Panchamrit

As of February 2026, which of the following best describes India's progress towards its 'Panchamrit' targets outlined at COP-26 held at Glasgow?
A) India has successfully achieved the target of 500 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity.
B) India has decided to shift its net-zero target from 2070 to 2047.
C) Renewable energy accounts for more than 50% of India's daily electricity production.
D) India's total non-fossil power installed capacity crossed 50% of the total installed electricity capacity of the country.

Q952

Environment, Ecology & ForestrySustainable Development Goals (SDGs)

Match the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) to their primary objectives.
SDG:
i. SDG-6
ii. SDG-14
iii. SDG-15
iv. SDG-7
Objectives:
a. Life below water
b. Clean water and sanitation
c. Affordable and clean energy
d. Life on land
Choose the correct option:
A) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
B) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
C) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
D) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b

Q953

Environment, Ecology & ForestryEnvironmental Governance and NCAP

Select the correct statements about the Swacch Vayu Survekshan awards, 2025.
I. Indore secured first rank with a score of 200 out of 200 in Category-1 (cities having over 10 lakh population).
II. Amravati secured first rank in Category-2 (cities having population between 3 and 10 lakh).
III. Dewas secured first rank in Category-3 (cities having a population under 3 lakh).
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) II and III only
D) All of the above

Q954

Environment, Ecology & ForestryEnvironmental Impact Assessment (EIA)

Arrange the following steps in Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) in correct chronological order.
I. Screening
II. Scoping
III. EIA Report
IV. Impact Analysis
V. Review and Public Participation
A) I-II-III-IV-V
B) I-II-IV-V-III
C) I-II-IV-III-V
D) I-II-III-V-IV

Q955

Environment, Ecology & ForestryWildlife Protection Act, 1972

Which of the following authorities are constituted under the umbrella of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, for wildlife conservation?
I. Central Zoo Authority
II. State Board for Wildlife
III. National Tiger Conservation Authority
IV. National Coastal Zone Management Authority
Choose the correct option:
A) I and II only
B) I, II and III only
C) I, III and IV only
D) All of the above

Q956

Environment, Ecology & ForestryAgriculture and Land Use of J&K

As per Land Use Statistics (2022-23), published by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare, what is the percentage of 'Net Sown Area' to the 'Total Reported Area' in Jammu and Kashmir?
A) 19.01%
B) 18.4%
C) More than 20%
D) Less than 17%

Q957

Environment, Ecology & ForestryProtected Areas and Bird Sanctuaries

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Bird Sanctuary - States:
I. Atapaka Bird Sanctuary - Andhra Pradesh
II. Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary - Goa
III. Attiveri Bird Sanctuary - Karnataka
Choose the correct option:
A) I and II only
B) II and III only
C) I and III only
D) All of the above

Q958

Environment, Ecology & ForestryEnvironmental Pollution and Toxicology

A city is located near a river and an industrial area. Over time, scientists observed the following:
i. Fish in the river showed bioaccumulation of a persistent chemical that caused neurological disorders in humans who consumed them.
ii. The air contained high levels of a gas that reacts with water to form acid rain, damaging monuments and crops.
iii. Soil had elevated heavy metal concentrations, leading to reduced fertility and toxicity in plants.
On the basis of the given observations, pair each cause (i, ii, iii) with the corresponding pollutant (a, b, c) and answer the correct statement:
a) Mercury
b) Sulfur dioxide
c) Lead
A) i -> a, ii -> b, iii -> c
B) i -> a, ii -> c, iii -> b
C) i -> b, ii -> c, iii -> a
D) i -> c, ii -> b, iii -> a

Q959

Environment, Ecology & ForestryEcosystem - Food Chain and 10% Law

Consider the following jumbled food chain:
Grasshopper, Grass, Hawk, Frog, Snake
If the energy content of the frog is x kJ, the energy available to the primary consumer is
A) 10x kJ
B) x kJ
C) x/10 kJ
D) x/100 kJ

Q960

Environment, Ecology & ForestryAtmospheric Chemistry and Ozone Layer

Which statement is TRUE regarding the relationship between ozone depletion and climate change?
A) CFCs destroy ozone and contribute to global warming.
B) Ozone depletion directly causes the greenhouse effect.
C) Greenhouse gases directly destroy ozone molecules.
D) Reducing CO2 emissions alone can fully restore the ozone layer.

Q961

Environment, Ecology & ForestryForestry and ISFR - Jammu & Kashmir

According to the Indian State of Forest Report, 2023, what is the 'Total Forest Cover' of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir as a percentage of its total geographic area?
A) 38.15%
B) 37.15%
C) 39.15%
D) 36.15%

Q962

Environment, Ecology & ForestryAltitudinal Zonation of Himalayan Forests

As one ascends from Jammu plains (300 m) to the Himalayas (4000 m), what would be the correct ecological sequence of the forest types?

Q963

Environment, Ecology & ForestryForest Conservation (Amendment) Act 2023

The Forest Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2023, exempted which of the following projects from the prior approval of the Central government?

Q964

Environment, Ecology & ForestryWildlife Sanctuaries of Jammu & Kashmir

Match the following Wildlife sanctuaries with the districts they are located in:
Wildlife Sanctuaries:
i. Hirapora sanctuary
ii. Rajparian (Daksum) sanctuary
iii. Trikuta sanctuary
Specific Districts:
a. Reasi
b. Shopian
c. Anantnag
Choose the correct match:

Q965

Environment, Ecology & ForestryWater Conservation & Rainwater Harvesting

Which of the following is/are examples of In-situ rainwater harvesting?

Q966

Environment, Ecology & ForestryIT & Geospatial Applications in Forestry

🌲Environment, Ecology & BiodiversityEnvironmental Studies

📝 Solved Environment, Ecology & Biodiversity Questions (966)

JKSSB — Official Question Paper (2024)

Which of the following constitute a food-chain?

Who was the first scientist to use the term SMOG and define its layers?

Consider the following statements regarding the greenhouse effect:1. Life on the earth is possible due to the greenhouse effect.2. Increased emission of greenhouse gases is a natural process.Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Consider the following national parks and the states they are located in:- a. Kaziranga National Park: 4. Assam- b. Jim Corbett National Park: 3. Uttarakhand- c. Ranthambore National Park: 2. Rajasthan- d. Gir National Park: 1. GujaratWhich of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Which act deals with the protection and conservation of various species of birds and animals in India?

IUCN stands for

According to IUCN Red List, Endangered species are defined as

Establishing geographical location of a wildlife species is crucial to legislative actions. How can this be achieved?

Appendix II of CITES includes

A wildlife poacher is interested in illegal trade of tiger skin. What method of poaching will he prefer?

Which of the following primarily causes Mercury Pollution?

Where is the 'Rajaji Tiger Reserve' located in India?

When is the World Wildlife Week observed?

Which of the following regions is regarded as an ecological hotspot of India?

Which of the following fauna can be observed in Dachigam National Park?

As per central motor vehicle act 1988, if you drive while drunk, you can face an imprisonment for a term of upto

What does central motor vehicle act 1988, section 129 specify

RTO Form No 2 is applicable for

Which section of the Motor vehicle act 1988 deals with the grant of driving licence?

Among the following options, which are man-made sources of air pollution?(i) Burning of fire wood(ii) Forest fire(iii) Automobile(iv) Earth quakes

Among following pollutants which is not released by the motor vehicle

Which of the following values of pH represents stronger acid?

Incomplete combustion of motor vehicle fuel, like petrol or diesel produce

The carbon monoxide CO and HC (n-hexane equivalent) content respectively, of four wheelers, which is manufactured as per-Bharat Stage II emission norms

Maximum permissible noise level recommended as per central motor vehicle rules 1989, for passenger or commercial vehicles with gross vehicle weight above 12000 kgs, is

Match the following (List-1) with their description (List-2):List-1: (a) Idling at red traffic signal, (b) Cycling or walking, (c) Electric vehicle, (d) High vehicle density.List-2: (1) Turning off engine, (2) Increase urban pollution, (3) Reduces air pollution, (4) Sustainable transport.

What does abbreviation "R.C." of a vehicle mean?

As per Indian motor vehicle act, the number of passengers permitted to be carried in a personal vehicle, is recorded in

Who is the competent authority to issue driving licence in India?

Consider the following statements, choose the correct combination:Statement-1: As per Indian motor vehicle act 1988, a comprehensive motor insurance policy is mandatoryStatement-2: Third-party liability insurance is optional for Indian vehicle

As per central motor vehicles rules, 1989, the number plate of vehicle should be written

If 1000 kg vehicle is moving at 10 m/s, it has a kinetic energy of

When break is applied, the kinetic energy of the motor vehicle is converted into

In which of the following year was the first automobile built?

Which among the following is a classification of automobiles based on "load"?

Which among the following component, is used in transmission system of a motor vehicle?

What is generally the reason of engine misfiring?

Among the following options, suitable reason for engine over heating is(i) Excessive valve clearance(ii) Insufficient coolant(iii) Faulty radiator fan(iv) Faulty water pump

V-belts is most suitable when the distance between drive and the driven pulley is

"V-belts" get their name because of

What are the type of ignition system used in petrol engine?

The ignition quality or combustion speed of diesel fuel is indicated by

Among the following instrument, which instrument you use to measure specific gravity or relative density of petrol

The most important characteristic of a lubricating oil is its

Flooding in the carburetor of a motor vehicle is controlled by

When the engine is being cold, which of the following valves is used, to start the engine manually?

What is the purpose of radiator of a motor vehicle engine?

Among the following options, what are the basic characteristics or properties of the brake fluid?(i) Low viscosity(ii) High viscosity(iii) High boiling point(iv) Low boiling point

"Wheel base" of a motor vehicle is the distance between the

Among the following options, which type of air cleaner or filter is most effective in diesel engines vehicle?

Among the following options, which is the best water used in a car radiator?

Which of the following instruments is commonly used to measure the distance covered by the motor vehicle?

Among the following options, what "BS IV" and "BS VI" engines signify

Among the following options, which one is used to supply power to starter motor in the diesel engine?

Red tide is caused

Plankton size classification:a. Megaplanktonb. Macroplanktonc. Mesoplanktond. Microplanktone. Nanoplanktonf. PicoplanktonAnd dimensions:i. 0.2-2 cmii. 20 to 200 µmiii. 0.2 to 2 µmiv. 2 to 20 µmv. >20 cmvi. 2-20 cmMatch correctly:

Hydrosere Stages of ecological succession in pond/lake are

Which of the following statements are true?a. Plankton occur only in freshwater ecosystemb. Plankton do not have active locomotory organsc. Plankton include only unicellular organismsd. Phytoplankton form the first trophic level

The depth at which the photosynthesis balances respiration

Functional role an organism plays within an ecosystem is

Match the indices to what they quantify:a. Shannon Weiner Indexb. Pielou Indexc. Margalef Indexd. Berger Parker IndexQuantifications:1. Richness2. Dominance3. Diversity4. EvennessMatch correctly:

Match the International Conventions to respective years:a. Convention on Biological Diversityb. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Florac. Ramsar Conventiond. International Union for Conservation of NatureYears:1. 19712. 19483. 19754. 1992Match correctly:

Which of the following statements are true?a. There are 80 Ramsar sites in Indiab. Ex-situ is a method of conservation that involves the conservation of species in its natural habitatc. Kanwar Lake is the smallest lake in Indiad. Manasbal is the deepest lake in India

Identify the correct statements from the following:a. Clownfish and sea anemones have a symbiotic relationshipb. Remora fish and Shark exhibit a commensalism relationshipc. Hermit crabs and sea anemones exhibit a parasitic relationshipd. Anchor worms are annelid parasites to freshwater finfishes

Nitrification process involves

Commercial species of fishes from river Jhelum

__________ is the tendency of pollutants to become concentrated in successive trophic levels.

__________ is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion.

The atmosphere is said to be unstable when

The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty that commits state parties to:

Among the following, which all articles in the Indian constitution are related to National Green Tribunal?a. Article 24b. Article 21c. Article 48 Ad. Article 51-A(g)

Consider the following statements:a. CO emission is mainly due to incomplete combustion of fuel.b. Affects the oxygen carrying capacity of bloodc. Can cause nauseaWhich of the following statement is/are correct

The chemical responsible for Minamata disease

__________ causes minimum water pollution among the following nutrients.

Which of the following is correct?

The characteristics of fresh and septic sewage, respectively are

The size of colloidal solids in waste water are in the range of

Consider the following statements regarding the greenhouse effect:

1. Life on the earth is possible due to the greenhouse effect.
2. Increased emission of greenhouse gases is a natural process.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Consider the following national parks and the states they are located in:

- a. Kaziranga National Park: 4. Assam
- b. Jim Corbett National Park: 3. Uttarakhand
- c. Ranthambore National Park: 2. Rajasthan
- d. Gir National Park: 1. Gujarat

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Among the following options, which are man-made sources of air pollution?
(i) Burning of fire wood
(ii) Forest fire
(iii) Automobile
(iv) Earth quakes

Match the following (List-1) with their description (List-2):
List-1: (a) Idling at red traffic signal, (b) Cycling or walking, (c) Electric vehicle, (d) High vehicle density.
List-2: (1) Turning off engine, (2) Increase urban pollution, (3) Reduces air pollution, (4) Sustainable transport.

Consider the following statements, choose the correct combination:
Statement-1: As per Indian motor vehicle act 1988, a comprehensive motor insurance policy is mandatory
Statement-2: Third-party liability insurance is optional for Indian vehicle

Among the following options, suitable reason for engine over heating is
(i) Excessive valve clearance
(ii) Insufficient coolant
(iii) Faulty radiator fan
(iv) Faulty water pump

Among the following options, what are the basic characteristics or properties of the brake fluid?
(i) Low viscosity
(ii) High viscosity
(iii) High boiling point
(iv) Low boiling point

Plankton size classification:
a. Megaplankton
b. Macroplankton
c. Mesoplankton
d. Microplankton
e. Nanoplankton
f. Picoplankton

And dimensions:
i. 0.2-2 cm
ii. 20 to 200 µm
iii. 0.2 to 2 µm
iv. 2 to 20 µm
v. >20 cm
vi. 2-20 cm

Match correctly:

Which of the following statements are true?
a. Plankton occur only in freshwater ecosystem
b. Plankton do not have active locomotory organs
c. Plankton include only unicellular organisms
d. Phytoplankton form the first trophic level

Match the indices to what they quantify:
a. Shannon Weiner Index
b. Pielou Index
c. Margalef Index
d. Berger Parker Index

Quantifications:
1. Richness
2. Dominance
3. Diversity
4. Evenness

Match correctly:

Which of the following statements are true?
a. There are 80 Ramsar sites in India
b. Ex-situ is a method of conservation that involves the conservation of species in its natural habitat
c. Kanwar Lake is the smallest lake in India
d. Manasbal is the deepest lake in India

Among the following, which all articles in the Indian constitution are related to National Green Tribunal?
a. Article 24
b. Article 21
c. Article 48 A
d. Article 51-A(g)

Consider the following statements:
a. CO emission is mainly due to incomplete combustion of fuel.
b. Affects the oxygen carrying capacity of blood
c. Can cause nausea
Which of the following statement is/are correct

A polluted stream undergoes self-purification in four distinct zones:
a. Zone of clear water
b. Zone of Active decomposition
c. Zone of degradation
d. Zone of recovery

Match the following:
1. High rate trickling filter | a. Detachment of attached biofilm from the surface
2. Low rate trickling filter | b. Fly nuisance
3. Recirculation | c. BOD removal efficiency is 80%-95%
4. Sloughing | d. Depth of filter is 2 to 3 m

Match the slow sand filter components with its standard dimensions/values
1. Gravel bed coarse aggregate size | a. 90 cm to 110 cm
2. Filter media thickness | b. 3 mm to 60 mm
3. Gravel bed thickness | c. 20 mm to 40 mm
4. Gravel bed middle layer thickness | d. 30 cm to 75 cm

Consider the following statements;
a. Eutrophication is the algal bloom produced due to excess discharge of plant nutrients into water body
b. Can be added by adding copper sulphate to water.

The Environmental Impact Assessment Report may consist of:
a. Assessment of the Sewerage and Sewage Treatment Implications
b. Assessment of the Land Contamination
c. Assessment of the Hazard to Life
d. Assessment of the Cultural Heritage Impact
Choose the best option.

Consider the following projects and choose the best option for which the Public hearing is not required in the EIA?
i. Strengthening and widening of highways.
ii. Modernization of existing irrigation projects.

Consider the following pairs:
a. AQI | 1. ppm
b. Discharge | 2. Litre
c. Turbidity | 3. m³/s
d. Conductivity | 4. Unitless
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Consider the following pairs:
a. Hardness | 1. Attached growth bio-treatment
b. POH | 2. Cm/min
c. Trickling filter | 3. Suspended growth bio-treatment
d. Screening | 4. 14
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Arrange the following zones of sedimentation tank in sequence as per the flow of water processes in the tank.
1. Outlet zone
2. Inlet zone
3. Sludge zone
4. Settling zone

Arrange the following zones of river water pollution in the correct sequence of their occurrence after the discharge of effluent.
1. Zone of clear water
2. Zone of pollution
3. Zone of recovery
4. Zone of active decomposition