Preamble, Fundamental Rights & Duties, Directive Principles (DPSP), President, Prime Minister, Parliament, Supreme Court, High Courts, and Panchayati Raj.
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTPolity
The first legislature of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir was called the:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Praja Sabha)
The first legislature of Jammu and Kashmir was established in 1934 by Maharaja Hari Singh and was called the Praja Sabha.
Q2
General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTPolity
What is the official language of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Urdu)
Urdu was traditionally the sole official language of Jammu and Kashmir since 1889. Although the J&K Official Languages Act, 2020 added Kashmiri, Dogri, Hindi, and English as official languages, Urdu remains the standard correct answer in classical state competitive exams.
Q3
General EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank with a suitable article:
The Sun rises in the east and sets in ___ west.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (the)
Directions (east, west, north, south) take the definite article 'the' when preceded by a preposition. Therefore, 'sets in the west'.
Q4
Knowledge of ComputersE-Governance
What does "Smart Governance" involve?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Integrating IT to improve service delivery and decision-making)
Smart Governance (Simple, Moral, Accountable, Responsive, and Transparent) involves using Information and Communication Technology (ICT) to make government services and decision-making more efficient.
Q5
Knowledge of ComputersE-Governance
The "UMANG" app allows citizens to access:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Government services and information)
UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance) is a multi-platform government app designed to provide single-point access to various central and state government services.
Q6
Cyber Law, IT Act & Digital ForensicsLegal Amendments
Which section of Reserve Bank of India has been amended after the commencement of information technology act 2000 to include electronic fund transfer services like NEFT, RTGS etc?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Section 58 (2))
Section 58(2) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, was amended by the IT Act, 2000, to authorize regulations for electronic fund transfers.
Q7
Organic ChemistryIndian Polity
How many types of Fundamental rights are provided by Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (6)
Originally, the Indian Constitution provided seven fundamental rights, but the Right to Property was deleted by the 44th Amendment in 1978. Currently, there are six fundamental rights.
Q8
Organic ChemistryIndian Polity
What is the maximum number of Members in Lok Sabha?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (552)
As per the Constitution of India, the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is 552 (530 representing States, 20 representing Union Territories, and 2 nominated from the Anglo-Indian community, which has since been abolished).
Q9
Organic ChemistryIndian Polity
By which name/names is our country mentioned in the Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bharat and India)
Article 1 of the Constitution of India states: 'India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.' Thus, both India and Bharat are the official names mentioned.
Q10
Organic ChemistryIndian Polity
Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the abolition of untouchability?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Article 17)
Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form, making it a punishable offense.
Q11
Organic ChemistryIndian Polity
At present how many Fundamental Duties are in the Constitution of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (11)
Originally, 10 Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. The 86th Constitutional Amendment in 2002 added the 11th duty, making the current total 11.
Q12
Organic ChemistryJ&K History & Polity
On which date J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 came into force?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (31 October 2019)
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, which reconstituted the state into two Union Territories (J&K and Ladakh), was passed on August 5, 2019, and officially came into force on October 31, 2019.
Q13
Organic ChemistryArticles
Fill in the blank: "________ unit means a measurement."
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a)
The word 'unit' begins with a consonant sound /juː/ (like 'Y-o-u'), so the indefinite article 'a' is used before it.
Q14
Physical ChemistryE-Governance
Which term refers to the use of IT to engage citizens in the decision-making process?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Participatory Governance)
Participatory Governance (enabled through IT/E-democracy) refers to direct involvement of citizens in public administration and decision-making processes using digital tools.
Q15
Physical ChemistryIndian Constitution
Which Article of the Indian Constitution states the directive principles of state policy on 'Promotion of international peace and security'?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Article 51)
Article 51 of the Indian Constitution directs the State to endeavor to promote international peace and security, maintain just and honorable relations between nations, and foster respect for international law.
Q16
Physical ChemistryJ&K Polity
As per the J&K Reorganization Act 2019, the UT of Ladakh comprises of which of the following territories of the state of J&K?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Kargil and Leh Districts)
Under the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Ladakh comprises the districts of Kargil and Leh.
Q17
Analytical & Instrumental ChemistryArticles
Fill in the blanks: ________ children recited ________ poem in ________ honour of ________ Prime Minister.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (the, a, the, the)
The complete sentence is: 'The children recited a poem in the honour of the Prime Minister.' (Note: the printed question text had only three blanks, but the options had four article items. It is resolved by placing 'the' before children, 'a' before poem, 'the' before honour, and 'the' before Prime Minister).
Q18
General EnglishArticles
Sarah was excited to visit _____ Eiffel Tower during her trip to Paris.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (the, No article)
'The' is used before unique geographical monuments (the Eiffel Tower). Names of cities (Paris) do not take an article.
Q19
General EnglishArticles
Eating _____ orange and _____ banana together may cause digestive issues because they have different digestion rates.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (an, a)
'an' is used before 'orange' because it starts with a vowel sound. 'a' is used before 'banana' because it starts with a consonant sound.
Q20
General Knowledge & AwarenessPolity
Which language is primarily used for delivering judgments and legal documentation in the Supreme Court of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (English)
Article 348(1) of the Constitution of India provides that all proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be in the English language.
Q21
General EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank using suitable articles. When no article is required, select no article among the given options. John decided to enroll in _____ MBA program at _____ University to enhance his business skills.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (an, a)
Use 'an' before 'MBA' because it begins with a vowel sound (/ɛm/). Use 'a' before 'University' because it begins with a consonant sound (/juː/).
Q22
General EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank using suitable articles. When no article is required, select no article among the given options. I work at _____ company in New York. _____ company is called Global Tech Solutions.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a, the)
'a' is used for the first mention of a non-specific singular countable noun ('a company'). 'the' is used for the second mention because the company has now been specified.
Q23
General Awareness & Current AffairsIndian Polity
Who was the first Home Minister of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel)
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel served as the first Home Minister and Deputy Prime Minister of independent India from 1947 to 1950.
Q24
General Awareness & Current AffairsIndian Constitution
The right to move freely throughout the territory of India comes under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 19)
The right to move freely throughout the territory of India is guaranteed under Article 19(1)(d) as a Fundamental Right.
Q25
General Awareness & Current AffairsIndian Polity
The first woman Governor of a state in free India was
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sarojini Naidu)
Sarojini Naidu was the first woman to become the Governor of an Indian state (United Provinces, now Uttar Pradesh) in independent India, from 1947 to 1949.
Q26
General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K History & Polity
Who became the first Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir after the title change from Prime Minister?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Ghulam Mohammad Sadiq)
Ghulam Mohammad Sadiq served as the last Prime Minister of Jammu and Kashmir and became the first Chief Minister of the state in 1965 after the designations were changed by the 6th Amendment.
Q27
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Constitution
The concept of the concurrent list in the Indian Constitution was adopted from the
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Australian Constitution)
The concept of the Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution was adopted from the Constitution of Australia.
Q28
📚 Social ScienceIndian Constitution
'Equal pay for equal work' has been ensured in the Indian Constitution as which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Directive Principle of State Policy)
Article 39(d) under the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) of the Indian Constitution ensures equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
Q29
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
Which Article of the Constitution of India details the procedure for amending the Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 368)
Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution of India grants power to Parliament to amend the Constitution and details the procedure for doing so.
Q30
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution are borrowed from the constitution of which country?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ireland)
The Directive Principles of State Policy, enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, are borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland (which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution).
Q31
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (the Upper House of Parliament)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The Vice-President of India)
According to Article 64 of the Indian Constitution, the Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
Q32
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
The Right to Education was added as a Fundamental Right under Article 21A by which Constitutional Amendment Act?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (86th Amendment Act)
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, inserted Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for children between the ages of 6 and 14 a Fundamental Right.
Q33
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
How many Schedules were originally present in the Constitution of India when it was adopted in 1949?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (8)
The Constitution of India originally had 8 schedules when adopted in 1949. Currently, there are 12 schedules in the Indian Constitution.
Q34
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
Who appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The President of India)
Under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal.
Q35
General EnglishIndian Polity & Constitution
Which Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Right to Equality?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Article 14)
Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
Q36
General EnglishIndian Polity & Constitution
What is the minimum age required to contest elections for the Lok Sabha in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (25 years)
Article 84(b) of the Constitution of India provides that the minimum age to be eligible for election as a member of the Lok Sabha is 25 years.
Q37
General EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank with the appropriate article: 'She is ________ MBA graduate.'
💡Correct Answer: Option B (an)
Even though 'M' is a consonant letter, the word 'MBA' starts with a vowel sound /em/. Hence, the article 'an' is appropriate.
Q38
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceNational Green Tribunal & Constitution
Among the following, which all articles in the Indian constitution are related to National Green Tribunal? a. Article 24 b. Article 21 c. Article 48 A d. Article 51-A(g)
💡Correct Answer: Option C (b, c, and d)
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under the NGT Act 2010 drawing inspiration from Article 21 (Right to a healthy environment), Article 48A (Duty of the State to protect the environment and forests), and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental duty of citizens to protect nature). Article 24 pertains to the prohibition of child labour in factories.
Q39
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceBIS Standards for Effluents
Identify the guiding standard for industrial effluent from the following:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (IS 2490-1974)
IS 2490 (1974 / 1981) provides the Indian Standard tolerance limits for industrial effluents discharged into inland surface waters.
Q40
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEIA Public Hearing Exemptions
Consider the following projects and choose the best option for which the Public hearing is not required in the EIA? i. Strengthening and widening of highways. ii. Modernization of existing irrigation projects.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both i and ii)
Under the EIA Notification 2006 (and its amendments), public hearing is exempt for projects involving highway expansion/widening without substantial additional land acquisition, as well as the modernization of existing irrigation projects without changing command area boundaries.
Q41
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEPA 1986 Penalties
What sanctions apply when the Environment Protection Act is violated?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Fine & Imprisonment)
Under Section 15 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, non-compliance or contravention is punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years, or with fine up to ₹1,00,000, or with both, plus additional daily fines for continuing offenses.
Q42
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceStockholm Conference & EPA History
The Environment Protection Act 1986 was enacted following the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held at
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Stockholm)
India enacted the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 under Article 253 of the Constitution to implement the decisions taken at the landmark United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held at Stockholm in June 1972.
Q43
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceRiver Basin Authorities & NGRBA
National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) is responsible for ________ duties.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Developmental and regulatory)
The National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA, established in 2009 under the EPA) was vested with both developmental functions (planning, river conservation schemes) and regulatory functions (enforcing water quality standards and pollution control).
Q44
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceAir (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act 1981
Consider the following pairs from the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981: 1. Section 21 | a. Power of State Government to supersede State Board 2. Section 47 | b. Power of State Government to make rules 3. Section 53 | c. Restrictions on use of certain industrial plants 4. Section 54 | d. Power of Central Government to make rules Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b)
Under the Air Act, 1981: Section 21 deals with restrictions on the use of certain industrial plants (1-c); Section 47 provides the power of the State Government to supersede the State Board (2-a); Section 53 gives power to the Central Government to make rules (3-d); and Section 54 gives power to the State Government to make rules (4-b).
Q45
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceBasel Convention on Hazardous Wastes
Which of the following convention governs the Hazardous waste management?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Basel Convention)
The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal (1989) is the international treaty specifically governing hazardous waste management and minimizing its transboundary shipments.
Q46
📜 Environmental Law & GovernancePrecautionary Principle & Jurisprudence
The "Precautionary Principle" enshrined in the Environment (Protection) Act emphasizes:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Taking preventive measures when an activity could harm the environment)
The Precautionary Principle states that where there are threats of serious or irreversible environmental damage, lack of full scientific certainty shall not be used as a reason for postponing cost-effective preventive measures.
Q47
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceCoastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) & EPA
The amendments to the Environment (Protection) Act in 1991 extended its provisions to cover:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Coastal areas and regulation of hazardous substances)
In February 1991, under the Environment (Protection) Act, the Ministry issued the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification, regulating developmental activities along coastal areas and strengthening hazardous substances rules.
Q48
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceEIA Categorization (Category A & B)
The EIA notification categorizes projects into two broad categories based on their potential environmental impacts. These categories are:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Category A and Category B)
The EIA Notification 2006 classifies all developmental projects into Category A (projects appraised at the Central Level by MoEFCC) and Category B (projects appraised at the State Level by SEIAA).
Q49
📜 Environmental Law & GovernancePollution Control Boards Functions
The central and state pollution control boards were established under these acts to:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Implement and enforce pollution control measures)
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) were established under the Water Act 1974 and Air Act 1981 to implement, monitor, and enforce statutory pollution control standards across India.
Q50
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceWater Act 1974 Consent Provisions
Under the Water Act, 1974, no person can discharge any pollutant into a water body without obtaining:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Consent from the State Pollution Control Board)
Under Section 25 and 26 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, no industry or person can establish or operate any outlet to discharge trade effluent or sewage without the prior Consent to Establish (CTE) and Consent to Operate (CTO) from the State Pollution Control Board (SPCB).
Q51
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceAir Act 1981 Powers
The Air Act, 1981, empowers the central and state boards to take measures for:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Preventing and controlling air pollution)
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 empowers environmental boards to declare air pollution control areas, set emission standards, inspect industrial plants, and take all necessary measures for the prevention, control, and abatement of air pollution.
Q52
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceBhopal Gas Tragedy & EPA 1986
When EPA came into force?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (After Bhopal Gas tragedy)
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted by the Parliament of India in the immediate aftermath of the catastrophic December 1984 Bhopal Gas Tragedy (Union Carbide pesticide plant toxic methyl isocyanate gas leak).
Q53
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceBiological Diversity Act 2002
Consider the following statements: a. Biodiversity Act passed in year 2002. b. Biodiversity Act passed in year 2010. c. Biodiversity Act passed in year 1996. d. Biodiversity Act passed in year 1977. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (ONLY- a)
The Biological Diversity Act was enacted by the Parliament of India in the year 2002 to preserve biological diversity, ensure sustainable use of its components, and secure equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources.
Q54
📜 Environmental Law & GovernanceWater Act 1974 Sections
Which section of Water Act 1974 deals with Compulsory acquisition of land for the State Board?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Section 56 of Water Act 1974)
Section 56 of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 provides for the compulsory acquisition of land for the State Pollution Control Board under the provisions of the Land Acquisition Act.
Q55
Environmental Pollution & ControlCPCB Constitution & Water Act
In constitution of central board for prevention and control of water pollution how many persons are nominated by government, which represents the companies or corporation owned, controlled or managed by central government.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (3)
Under Section 3(2)(c) of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, the Central Government nominates not more than three persons to represent corporations/companies owned, controlled, or managed by the Central Government.
Q56
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringKigali Amendment on HFCs
With reference to the Kigali Agreement, consider the following statement: 1. It was introduced as an amendment to the Montreal Protocol 2. It aims for the phase-down of HFCs 3. It came into force in September 2019 Which of the following are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1 and 2 only)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The Kigali Amendment (2016) amended the Montreal Protocol to legally phase down hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). Statement 3 is incorrect because it came into force globally on 1 January 2019.
Q57
Water Quality & Wastewater Engineering42nd Constitutional Amendment & Environment
Which amendment explicitly incorporated Article 48-A and 51-A (g) into the Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (42nd Amendment Act, 1976)
The landmark 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 inserted Article 48A (Directive Principle directing the State to protect and improve the environment) and Article 51A(g) (Fundamental Duty of citizens).
Q58
Water Quality & Wastewater EngineeringAir (Amendment) Act 1987 & Noise
Noise pollution has been inserted as pollution in the Air Act in:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1987)
Noise was formally included in the definition of 'air pollutant' under Section 2(a) of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act through the Air (Amendment) Act of 1987.
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, was amended in 1988 to include a new chapter specifically dealing with
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Conservation of coastal areas)
The 1988 Amendment to the Water Act strengthened enforcement powers, specifically introducing Section 33A granting the Board power to give binding directions for closure, prohibition, or regulation of industries.
Q60
General Knowledge & Current AffairsConstitutional History & 1947 Act
Which of the following statements about the Indian Independence Act of 1947 is false?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (This Act leads to the establishment of the Constituent Assembly of India.)
Statement B is false because the Constituent Assembly of India was formed earlier in November/December 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946, NOT under the Indian Independence Act of 1947.
Q61
General Knowledge & Current AffairsFundamental Duties & Amendments
Which constitutional amendment added the Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (42nd Amendment Act, 1976)
Fundamental Duties (Article 51A in Part IVA) were incorporated into the Indian Constitution on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee via the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
Q62
General Knowledge & Current AffairsEmergency Provisions & Fundamental Rights
Which Article of the Indian constitution describes the effect of a national emergency on fundamental rights?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Articles 358 and 359)
Articles 358 (automatic suspension of Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Article 19) and 359 (suspension of the enforcement of other fundamental rights except Articles 20 and 21) describe the effect of a National Emergency on fundamental rights.
Q63
General Knowledge & Current AffairsRepresentation in Parliament: Rajya Sabha
According to the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act 2019, how many members of councils of state are from Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (4)
Under Section 8 and the First Schedule of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir is allocated 4 seats in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
Q64
General EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank using suitable articles. When no article is required, select no article among the given options. The young man is in search of ________ employment because he is in ________ great financial crisis.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (No article, a)
'Employment' is an uncountable abstract noun used in a general sense (requiring no article), while 'crisis' is a countable singular noun modified by 'great' (requiring 'a').
Q65
Knowledge of ComputersE-Governance & Digital India
Where is AADHAAR data stored?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Central Identities Data Repository maintained by UIDAI.)
Under the Aadhaar Act 2016, all biometric and demographic Aadhaar data is stored in the Central Identities Data Repository (CIDR) managed by UIDAI.
Q66
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionFirst in India: Women Leaders
Who was the first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sucheta Kriplani)
Sucheta Kripalani became the first female Chief Minister of an Indian state when she took office as Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh in October 1963.
Q67
📜 History & PolityFirst Cabinet of Independent India
The first Education Minister of Independent India was
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Abul Kalam Azad)
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad was the first Education Minister of Independent India, serving from 1947 to 1958. His birthday on November 11 is celebrated as National Education Day.
Q68
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionConstitutional vs Non-Constitutional Bodies
Which of the following is NOT a Constitutional body?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (NITI Aayog)
NITI Aayog is a non-constitutional, extra-constitutional body established via an executive cabinet resolution on January 1, 2015. The Finance Commission (Art. 280), NCST (Art. 338A), and Election Commission (Art. 324) are Constitutional bodies.
Q69
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionCitizenship in India
Which type of Citizenship is provided by the Constitution of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Single Citizenship)
Unlike federal countries like the USA, the Constitution of India provides for Single Citizenship (Indian citizenship only) across all States and Union Territories to promote national unity.
Q70
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionConstitution Adoption & Samvidhan Divas
On which day is Constitution Day celebrated every year in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (26 November)
Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) is celebrated in India on 26 November every year to commemorate the formal adoption of the Constitution by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949.
Q71
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionFederal System of India
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian Federal System?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Single-tier Government)
India has a multi-tier governmental system (Union, State, and Local Panchayati/Municipal levels). A 'Single-tier Government' is a feature of unitary systems, NOT federalism.
Q72
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Rights & 44th Amendment
Which of the following is NOT related to fundamental rights?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Right to property)
The Right to Property was repealed as a Fundamental Right by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, and converted into a legal/constitutional right under Article 300A in Part XII.
Q73
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionWrits in the Indian Constitution
Which of the following writs provides a remedy for a person who has been unlawfully held in prison?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Habeas Corpus)
The writ of Habeas Corpus (meaning 'to have the body of') is issued by the Supreme Court (Art. 32) or High Courts (Art. 226) to set free a person who has been unlawfully or illegally detained.
Q74
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionPanchayati Raj System
How many tiers are there in a Panchayati Raj structure in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Three)
Under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, India adopted a 3-tier Panchayati Raj system: Gram Panchayat (village level), Panchayat Samiti (block level), and Zilla Parishad (district level).
Q75
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionElection Commission & Model Code of Conduct
Who implements the Model Code of Conduct for elections in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Election Commission)
The Election Commission of India (ECI) enforces and monitors the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) to ensure free and fair elections.
Q76
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionRepresentation of the People Act
When was the Representation of the People Act first passed?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1951)
The Representation of the People Act was first passed in 1950 (and the complementary RPA for conduct of elections in 1951) by the Provisional Parliament of India.
Q77
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionState Legislatures: Bicameral States
In which of the following states there is a bicameral legislature?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Bihar)
Six Indian states currently have a Bicameral Legislature (having both Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council): Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana, and Uttar Pradesh.
Q78
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionParliament of India
Upper House of the Indian Parliament is also known as ________?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rajya Sabha)
The Rajya Sabha (Council of States) is the permanent Upper House of the Indian Parliament, while the Lok Sabha is the Lower House.
Q79
📜 Indian Polity & ConstitutionJoint Sitting of Parliament
Who presides over the joint sitting of Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Speaker of the Lok Sabha)
Under Article 118(4) of the Indian Constitution, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament.
Q80
General Awareness with special ref to J&KArticles & Determiners
I saw ______ good deal of him during ______ war.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a, the)
The idiomatic quantitative phrase is 'a good deal of' (meaning a great deal/lot), and 'the war' refers to a specific known historical conflict. Correct: "I saw a good deal of him during the war."
Q81
General EnglishArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blanks with correct options. He formed _____ close friendship with _____ group.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a, the)
'a close friendship' (singular countable indefinite relationship) with 'the group' (specific group of people). Correct: "He formed a close friendship with the group."
Q82
General Awareness with special ref to J&KZero Article / No Article
_____ light comes from the sun
💡Correct Answer: Option D (no article)
Uncountable abstract/general physical nouns used in a generic universal statement take no article: "Light comes from the sun."
Q83
General EnglishArticles (A vs An)
Fill in the blank using suitable articles: Sudha is studying in Canadian University. From there, it will take hour for her to reach the airport.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a, an)
'Canadian' begins with a consonant sound (/k/), taking article 'a'. 'Hour' begins with a silent 'h' and vowel sound (/aʊər/), taking article 'an'. Correct: "a Canadian University... an hour".
Q84
General Awareness & ScienceFundamental Rights: Right to Education (Art 21A)
Article 21A of the Indian Constitution provides Right to
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Education)
Article 21A, inserted into Part III of the Constitution by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act (2002), establishes free and compulsory education as a Fundamental Right for all children aged 6 to 14 years.
Q85
General Awareness & SciencePanchayati Raj 3-Tier System
The system of Panchayati Raj involves:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Village, Block and District levels)
Under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 (Balwant Rai Mehta Committee model), the Panchayati Raj system establishes a 3-tier local self-governance structure: 1. Gram Panchayat (Village level), 2. Panchayat Samiti (Block/Intermediate level), and 3. Zilla Parishad (District level).
Q86
Basic EnglishArticles
There is _____ fish, in _____ bottle.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (a, the)
'A fish' (first mention of non-specific fish) in 'the bottle' (specific container context): "There is a fish in the bottle."
Q87
Basic EnglishArticles: Definite Article with Nationalities
_____ Indians are very good in maths.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The)
Definite article 'The' is used before a plural nationality or demographic noun ('The Indians') to designate the people of that nationality as a whole.
Q88
General Awareness & ScienceFundamental Duties (Part IVA)
Fundamental duties are mentioned in
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Part-IVA)
Fundamental Duties are enshrined in Part-IVA (Article 51A) of the Constitution of India, incorporated by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
Q89
Basic EnglishArticles: Definite vs Indefinite
Choose the most appropriate article for the given sentence: Singing is an art, and ________ art comes through practice
💡Correct Answer: Option B (the)
When referring back to a previously introduced specific noun ('an art'), the definite article 'the' is used: "Singing is an art, and the art comes through practice."
Q90
Basic EnglishArticles: Consonant Sounds
Which article should be used: "Isha lives alone in ________ one-bedroom apartment."
💡Correct Answer: Option B (a)
Indefinite article 'a' is used before 'one-bedroom' because the word 'one' phonetically begins with the consonant glide sound /w/ ("won"), not a vowel sound.
Q91
Basic EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank using suitable articles. When no article is required, select no article among the given options: I went to ______ hometown last year and remained there for ______ week.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (No article, a)
In idiomatic English, 'went to hometown' functions without an article when referring to one's own home territory, followed by indefinite singular time duration 'for a week'.
Q92
General Awareness & ScienceFundamental Rights during Emergency (Arts 20 & 21)
Which fundamental rights cannot be suspended even during an emergency?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Right to Life and Personal Liberty)
By virtue of the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (1978), Article 20 (Protection in respect of conviction for offences) and Article 21 (Protection of Life and Personal Liberty) cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency.
Q93
General Awareness & ScienceSwaran Singh Committee & Fundamental Duties
Which of the following committee suggested incorporating Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Swaran Singh Committee)
The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee (1976) recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties, resulting in the enactment of Part IVA (Article 51A) by the 42nd Amendment.
Q94
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&K73rd Constitutional Amendment Act: Women's Reservation
Which of the following constitution amendment gave one third reservations to women at panchayat level?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (73rd)
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 inserted Article 243D(3), mandating that not less than one-third (33%) of all seats and chairperson positions in Panchayati Raj institutions be reserved for women.
Q95
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KJ&K Panchayati Raj Act 1989: Meeting Frequency
What is the minimum requirement on the number of meetings to be conducted by gram panchayat in Jammu and Kashmir.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (At least once a month)
Under the Jammu and Kashmir Panchayati Raj Act, 1989, a Halqa Panchayat / Gram Panchayat is legally mandated to meet at least once a month for administrative business.
Q96
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KP20 Parliamentary Forum
Consider the following statements: 1. P20 is a congregation of Presidents of G20 nations. 2. The P20 group was set up during the G20 Presidency of Canada in 2010. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (2 only)
Statement 1 is false: P20 is the Parliamentary Speakers' Summit (congregation of Speakers/Presiding Officers of Parliaments, not heads of state). Statement 2 is true: The P20 was inaugurated in 2010 under Canada's G20 presidency. Thus, 2 only is correct.
Q97
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KConstitutional Provisions for UT of J&K (Art 239A)
After the reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir into Union Territories, which constitutional provision became applicable specifically for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Article 239A)
Under Section 13 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the constitutional provisions of Article 239A (which originally created a Legislative Assembly and Council of Ministers for the UT of Puducherry) were made applicable to the UT of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q98
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsArticles: Dual Appositive Nouns
Fill in the blanks using suitable articles: Mr. Agnihotri, who is _____ producer and _____ financier of _____ Nike company was present there.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (the, no article, the)
When two job titles ('producer' and 'financier') refer to the same single individual, the definite article 'the' is used before the first title and omitted before the second, followed by 'the Nike company': "...the producer and financier of the Nike company..."
Q99
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsArticles: Indefinite and Definite
Fill in the blanks using suitable articles: _____ recent survey indicates that _____ number of drug addicts is growing day by day.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (A, the)
Indefinite singular noun phrase 'A recent survey' introduces a non-specific study, followed by the fixed phrase 'the number of': "A recent survey indicates that the number of drug addicts..."
Q100
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KJ&K Panchayati Raj Act 1989: Halqa Majlis
What does the term 'Halqa Majlis' in the J&K Panchayat Raj Act 1989 refer to?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Voters of Halqa Panchayat)
Under the J&K Panchayati Raj Act, 1989, 'Halqa Majlis' (Gram Sabha) is the general body consisting of all registered adult Voters/electors residing within the Halqa Panchayat area.
Q101
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KJ&K Panchayati Raj Act Chapters
Chapter V of Jammu and Kashmir Panchayati Raj Act 1989 deals with the
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Conduct of Business)
Chapter V of the Jammu and Kashmir Panchayati Raj Act, 1989 is titled and specifically governs the 'Conduct of Business' of the Halqa Panchayat.
Q102
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KThree-Tier Panchayati Raj System
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of India 1992 provides for a ________ tier system of Panchayati Raj in each state.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Three (03))
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 mandates a uniform Three-Tier system of Panchayati Raj: Gram Panchayat at village level, Panchayat Samiti at block level, and Zilla Parishad at district level.
Q103
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KDuration of Panchayats (Article 243E)
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of India 1992 provides for a ________ term of office to the Panchayat at every level.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Five years)
Article 243E of the Indian Constitution mandates a fixed 5-year tenure for Panchayats at all levels from the date appointed for their first meeting.
Q104
General Awareness with special ref to UT of J&KLok Sabha Seat Distribution across States
Arrange the following states according to their Lok Sabha parliamentary constituency seats in descending order: a) West Bengal (42) b) Maharashtra (48) c) Bihar (40) d) Tamil Nadu (39)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (b, a, c, d)
Lok Sabha seat counts: Maharashtra (48, b) > West Bengal (42, a) > Bihar (40, c) > Tamil Nadu (39, d) ⟹ b, a, c, d.
Q105
General Science44th Amendment Act & Article 300A
The Right to Property was converted from a Fundamental Right into a Constitutional Legal Right by which Constitutional Amendment?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (44th)
The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 repealed Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31, transforming the Right to Property into a legal/constitutional right under Article 300A in Part XII.
Q106
Computer (Characteristics & Applications)Concepts of E-Governance
The use of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) to improve the ability of government to address the needs of society and deliver citizen services is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (E-Governance)
E-Governance (Electronic Governance) is the application of IT by government agencies to deliver public services, enhance transparency, and empower citizens.
Q107
Specialisation (Sociology, Social Work & Child Development)Right to Equality: Article 17
Which category of Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Indian Constitution incorporates the 'Abolition of Untouchability' under Article 17?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Right to Equality (Articles 14–18))
Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability and prohibition of its practice) is part of the 'Right to Equality' grouping under Articles 14 to 18 of the Indian Constitution.
Q108
Basic EnglishArticles: Compound Noun Usage
Fill in the blanks with suitable articles: "She is wearing a black and ______ white saree at the party hosted by the Manager and ______ Executive Director of our hotel."
💡Correct Answer: Option D (None of these (no article, no article))
Because it is a single two-tone saree ("a black and white saree") and a single person holding both titles ("the Manager and Executive Director"), no second article is used in either blank.
Q109
General Awareness & ScienceConstitution Day (26 November)
When is Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) observed in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (November 26)
Constitution Day is celebrated on November 26 each year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949.
Q110
Basic ReasoningPanchayati Raj: Constitutional Status
According to the Constitution of India (73rd Constitutional Amendment Act), a Gram Panchayat is defined as a/an
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Institution of local self-government)
Under Article 243B and Part IX of the Constitution, Panchayats are constitutional institutions of local self-government established for rural areas.
Q111
Basic EnglishClassification of Article 370
With respect to the erstwhile State of Jammu & Kashmir, Part XXI of the Constitution of India classified Article 370 under which heading?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Temporary Provisions)
Part XXI of the Constitution of India is titled 'Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions', and Article 370 was explicitly titled 'Temporary provisions with respect to the State of Jammu and Kashmir'.
Q112
Basic EnglishAdoption of J&K Constitution (1956)
In which year was the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir formally adopted by its Constituent Assembly?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1956)
The Constituent Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir adopted the State Constitution on 17 November 1956, and it came into full force on 26 January 1957.
Q113
Basic EnglishWrits: Mandamus (Articles 32 & 226)
Which constitutional writ issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts commands a public official or authority to perform a mandatory statutory duty that they have failed or refused to perform?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Mandamus)
The writ of Mandamus (Latin for 'We Command') is an order issued to compel a public official, body, or tribunal to perform an obligatory public duty.
Q114
General Awareness & ScienceArticle 35A
Which now-repealed constitutional provision empowered the Jammu and Kashmir State Legislature to define 'Permanent Residents' and confer special rights and privileges regarding employment and property?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 35A)
Article 35A (inserted into the Indian Constitution via the 1954 Presidential Order) empowered the J&K legislature to define permanent residents and grant them exclusive rights.
Q115
General English & ComprehensionConstitutional Amendments
What was the primary objective of the 2nd Amendment of the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Remove the upper population limit for a parliamentary constituency)
The Constitution (Second Amendment) Act, 1952, amended Article 81(1)(b) to remove the upper population limit of 7,50,000 for representation by a single member in the Lok Sabha.
Q116
General English & ComprehensionFundamental Rights & Union of States
Match Column -X (article in the Indian Constitution) with their objectives in Column -Y:
| Column - X | Column - Y | | :--- | :--- | | 1. Article 1 | I. Guarantees equal opportunity in public employment | | 2. Article 14 | II. Guarantees equality before the law | | 3. Article 16 | III. Defines India as a Union of States |
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1-III, 2-II, 3-I)
1. Article 1 defines India, that is Bharat, as a Union of States (III) 2. Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws (II) 3. Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (I). Hence, the correct matching is 1-III, 2-II, 3-I.
Q117
General English & ComprehensionConstitutional History & Article 370
Which constitutional provision allowed Jammu and Kashmir to have its own flag before 2019?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Article 370)
Article 370 of the Constitution of India granted special autonomous status to the State of Jammu and Kashmir, allowing it to adopt its own Constitution (under Section 144 of the J&K Constitution) and separate state flag until August 2019.
Q118
General English & ComprehensionJ&K UT Administration & Governors
Who is the first Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Girish Chandra Murmu)
Girish Chandra Murmu (GC Murmu), an IAS officer of the Gujarat cadre, was sworn in as the first Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir on October 31, 2019.
Q119
General English & ComprehensionJ&K Constitutional History & Integration
Why was the Jammu & Kashmir Constitution abrogated in 2019?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
The abrogation of Article 370 and the J&K Constitution was undertaken to foster complete national integration, eliminate discriminatory residency/domicile barriers, extend fundamental central laws, and accelerate socio-economic development and investments across the region.
Q120
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KConstitutional Amendments of J&K
Which constitutional amendment replaced the position of Sadr-e-Riyasat with the title of Governor in Jammu and Kashmir?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (6th Amendment)
The Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir (Sixth Amendment) Act, 1965, amended the state constitution to replace the designation of 'Sadr-e-Riyasat' with 'Governor' and 'Prime Minister (Wazir-e-Azam)' with 'Chief Minister'.
Q121
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KJ&K Governance & Legislative Assembly Powers
Who among the following will aid and advise the Lieutenant Governor of Jammu & Kashmir on matters that the assembly has powers to legislate?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The Council of Ministers)
According to Section 53 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, there shall be a Council of Ministers consisting of not more than 10% of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly, with the Chief Minister at the head, to aid and advise the Lieutenant Governor on matters where the Assembly has legislative power.
Q122
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KJ&K Constitution Key Articles
Which article of the Jammu & Kashmir Constitution (before 2019) defined the relationship between the state and the Union of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Article 3)
Article 3 of the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir irrevocably declared: 'The State of Jammu and Kashmir is and shall be an integral part of the Union of India.'
Q123
General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blanks: ______ weather was rainy, and we made ______ bet whether you would come.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The, a)
Weather' in this specific situation refers to the specific prevailing weather of that day, taking the definite article 'The'. 'Made a bet' is a standard English idiomatic collocated phrase. Hence: 'The weather was rainy, and we made a bet...
Fill in the blanks: I saw ______ old woman yesterday.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (an)
The word 'old' begins with a vowel sound (/oʊ/), hence the indefinite article 'an' is used: 'I saw an old woman yesterday.'
Q125
Basic Concepts of ComputersE-Governance & Digital Applications
A mobile application launched by the Union Government to provide speedy redressal of consumer grievances is:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Smart Consumer App)
The 'Smart Consumer App' was launched by the Department of Consumer Affairs to empower consumers to scan product barcodes, verify MRP/standards, and directly register grievances with the National Consumer Helpline.
Q126
Basic Concepts of ComputersDigital India & E-Governance
Consider the following statements: The vision of Digital India launched by the Government of India is centred on: I. Creating transportation infrastructure in states II. Digital Empowerment of Every Citizen
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (II only)
The three core vision areas of the Digital India programme are: (1) Digital Infrastructure as a Core Utility to Every Citizen, (2) Governance and Services on Demand, and (3) Digital Empowerment of Citizens. Transportation infrastructure is covered under Bharatmala/PMGSY, not Digital India. Hence, II only is correct.
Q127
Basic EnglishArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article. She achieved _____ unique position in _____ organization through hard work.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a, the)
'Unique' starts with a consonant 'y' sound (/juː/), taking indefinite article 'a'. 'Organization' refers to the specific company/entity, taking definite article 'the': 'a unique position in the organization'.
Q128
Basic EnglishArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article. _____ engineer presented _____ innovative solution during the conference.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (An, an)
Both 'engineer' and 'innovative' begin with vowel sounds (/e/ and /ɪ/), requiring the indefinite article 'An' and 'an': 'An engineer presented an innovative solution...'.
Q129
Basic EnglishArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article. _____ European country announced _____ new policy to combat climate change.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a, a)
'European' begins with a consonant 'y' sound (/jʊərəˈpiːən/), so it takes 'A'. 'New policy' takes indefinite article 'a': 'A European country announced a new policy...'.
Q130
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KArticles & Determiners
Select the sentence where the determiner is used correctly.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (He had several opportunities to improve.)
Option C correctly pairs 'several' with the plural countable noun 'opportunities'. (In A, 'many dogs'; in B & D, 'advice' and 'information' are uncountable and do not take 'a').
Q131
General Knowledge with special ref to J&KArticles & Determiners
Select the sentence where the determiner is NOT used correctly.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A information about the event was shared with us.)
'Information' is an uncountable noun and cannot be preceded by the singular indefinite article 'A'. One must say 'Information' or 'A piece of information'. Hence, Option D is incorrect.
Q132
General Awareness & Current AffairsBritish Governor-Generals & Policies
The Doctrine of Lapse, a policy used by the British East India Company to annex Indian states, was introduced by which Governor-General of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lord Dalhousie)
The Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by Governor-General Lord Dalhousie (1848-1856), leading to the annexation of Satara, Jaitpur, Sambalpur, Baghat, Udaipur, Jhansi, and Nagpur.
Q133
Basic Electrical Concepts & DC CircuitsArticles & Determiners
Fill in the blank using a suitable article: _____ unique artist often develops _____ signature style that distinguishes them and their work from their peers.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A, a)
'Unique' begins with a consonant 'y' sound (/juː/), taking indefinite article 'A'. 'Signature style' takes indefinite article 'a': 'A unique artist often develops a signature style...'.
Q134
Radiation Physics & Atomic StructureSubatomic Particles & Rest Mass
A Muon is a sub atomic particle which has a mass 207 times that of the mass of electron. What is the approximate mass of the muon in units of MeV?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (106 MeV)
Electron rest mass energy mec2≈0.511 MeV. Mass of Muon=207×0.511 MeV≈105.78 MeV≈106 MeV.
Q135
First Aid, Basic Pharmacology, Inventory & Municipal Administration74th Constitutional Amendment Act
The Ward Committee in a Municipal Corporation is formed under which of the following laws?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act)
Article 243S of the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act 1992 mandates the constitution of Wards Committees in all municipal areas having a population of 300,000 or more.
Q136
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyFreedom Movement Chronology
The Quit India Movement was launched in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1942)
Mahatma Gandhi launched the Quit India Movement (August Kranti) on August 8, 1942 at the Bombay session of the AICC.
Q137
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyINC History
The first session of the Indian National Congress was held in which city?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Bombay)
The first session of the INC was held in Bombay at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in December 1885, presided over by W.C. Bonnerjee.
Q138
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyJallianwala Bagh 1919
The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (1919)
The Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred on 13 April 1919 in Amritsar, Punjab under British General Reginald Dyer.
Q139
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetySwadeshi Movement Origins
The Swadeshi Movement was launched in response to which event?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Partition of Bengal)
The Swadeshi and Boycott Movement was launched in 1905 to protest the Partition of Bengal by Lord Curzon.
Q140
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyNational Slogans
Who is known for the slogan "Swaraj is my birthright"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bal Gangadhar Tilak)
Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak coined the famous nationalist slogan: 'Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it'.
Q141
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyPartition of India 1947
Who was appointed to draw the boundary line between India and Pakistan in 1947?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Sir Cyril Radcliffe)
Sir Cyril Radcliffe was appointed Chairman of the Boundary Commissions to demarcate the international borders (Radcliffe Line) between India and Pakistan.
Q142
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyViceroys of India
Who was the last British Viceroy of India at the time of partition of India?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Lord Mountbatten)
Lord Louis Mountbatten served as the last British Viceroy of India (March–August 1947) and first Governor-General of independent India.
Q143
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyEarth Latitudes
What is the latitude of the Equator?
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($0^\circ$)
The Equator is the reference line of 0∘ latitude dividing the Earth into the Northern and Southern Hemispheres.
Q144
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyPrime Meridian
The Prime Meridian passes through which city?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (London)
The Prime Meridian (0∘ longitude) passes through the Royal Observatory at Greenwich in London, United Kingdom.
Q145
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyPoles Latitude
The South Pole is located at which latitude?
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($90^\circ\text{ S}$)
The South Pole is the southernmost point on Earth located at 90∘ S latitude.
Q146
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyAgricultural Systems
Which type of farming involves the growing of crops for sale in the market, rather than for personal consumption?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Commercial farming)
Commercial farming is the agricultural system where crops and livestock are raised on a large scale primarily for sale and profit in markets.
Q147
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetySubsistence Agriculture
Which of the following is a characteristic of subsistence farming?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Primarily for personal consumption)
Subsistence farming is small-scale farming where farmers grow food crops to meet the immediate survival needs of their own family.
Q148
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyHorticulture
Which type of farming involves the growing of fruits, vegetables, and flowers, primarily for market sale?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Horticulture)
Horticulture is the specialized branch of agriculture focused on the intensive cultivation of fruits (pomology), vegetables (olericulture), and ornamental flowers (floriculture).
Q149
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyPlantation Agriculture
Which of the following is an example of plantation farming?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Growing coffee, tea, or rubber on large estates)
Plantation agriculture involves large commercial estates dedicated to the single-crop monoculture of cash crops like tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, and oil palm.
Q150
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyFederalism in Indian Polity
What is the primary characteristic of a federal system of Government?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Power is divided between central and regional governments)
Federalism is a constitutional governance structure in which sovereign powers are constitutionally divided between a National/Central government and sub-national State/Regional governments.
Q151
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetySectors of Economy
Which of the following is a characteristic of the primary sector of the economy?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Extraction of raw materials from nature)
The Primary Sector comprises economic activities that directly harvest and extract natural resources (agriculture, forestry, fishing, mining).
Q152
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetySecondary Economic Sector
Which of the following industries falls under the secondary sector?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Textile manufacturing)
The Secondary Sector processes and manufactures industrial goods from raw materials (e.g. textile mills, automotive factories, construction).
Q153
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyTertiary Sector
Which sector is responsible for the production of services rather than goods?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Tertiary sector)
The Tertiary Sector (service sector) produces intangible commercial, transport, educational, banking, and healthcare services.
Q154
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetySoils of India
Which type of soil is best for cotton cultivation in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Black soil)
Black soil (Regur soil / Black Cotton Soil) of the Deccan lava plateau is rich in clay, moisture-retentive, and ideal for growing cotton.
Q155
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetySoil Characteristics
Which of the following is a characteristic of saline soil?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (High salinity and poor drainage)
Saline soils (Usara soils) contain high concentrations of soluble salts (sodium, magnesium, calcium chlorides/sulfates) and exhibit poor internal drainage.
Q156
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyAnalogies Reasoning
Book is to Reading as Fork is to
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Eating)
Functional object analogy: A book is an instrument used for reading; a fork is an instrument used for eating.
Q157
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyAnalogies Reasoning
Clock is to Time as Thermometer is to
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Temperature)
Measurement instrument analogy: A clock measures time; a thermometer measures temperature.
Q158
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyLetter Coding
If in a certain code, "APPLE" is written as "BQQMF", how is "MANGO" written in that code?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (NBOHP)
Letter shift coding: Each letter is shifted +1 forward (A−>B,P−>Q,P−>Q,L−>M,E−>F). Thus M(+1)−>N,A(+1)−>B,N(+1)−>O,G(+1)−>H,O(+1)−>P⟹ NBOHP.
Q159
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyDirection Sense
A person walks 10 meters to the North, then 5 meters to the East, then 10 meters to the South, and finally 5 meters to the East. In which direction is the person now from the starting point?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (East)
Vertical displacement: +10m North−10m South=0m. Horizontal displacement: +5m East+5m East=+10m East. The person is directly East of origin.
Q160
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyDisplacement Reasoning
If a person walks 10 meters East, then 5 meters North, then 10 meters West, and finally 5 meters South, where is he now in relation to his starting point?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (At the same point)
East 10m, North 5m, West 10m (returns to starting longitude), South 5m (returns to starting latitude). Net displacement is zero (At the same point).
Q161
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyDirection and Cardinal Points
A person starts walking from a point. He walks 10 meters North, then turns to his left and walks 20 meters. Then, he turns right and walks 10 meters again. In which direction is he from the starting point?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (North-west)
North 10m (+y), Left (West) 20m (-x), Right (North) 10m (+y). Net position is +20m North and 20m West⟹ North-West.
Q162
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyBlood Relations
If A is the father of B, and B is the brother of C, then how is A related to C?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Father)
Since B and C are siblings, the father of B (A) is also the Father of C.
Q163
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyBlood Relations Puzzle
A woman is looking at a picture. A man asks, "Who are you looking at?" The woman replies, "Brothers and sisters, I have none. But the father of the person in the picture is my father's son." who is in the picture?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Her son)
The speaker has no siblings, so 'my father's son' is herself (or in this phrasing, her son / herself). 'The father/parent of person in picture is myself' ⟹ The person in picture is Her son.
Q164
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyBlood Relations
A man says to a woman, "Your mother is my daughter." How is the woman related to the man?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Grand daughter)
If the woman's mother is the man's daughter, the woman is the man's Granddaughter.
Q165
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyFamily Relations
Pointing to a woman, A says, "She is the wife of my brother's son." How is the woman related to A?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Daughter-in-Law)
A's 'brother's son' is A's nephew. The wife of A's nephew is culturally/legally addressed as A's Daughter-in-Law (Bahu / Niece-in-law).
Q166
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyCommunication Skills
Active listening involves
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Giving full attention and understanding the message)
Active listening requires concentrating fully, understanding, responding constructively, and retaining what is being communicated.
Q167
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyWorkplace Safety Principles
Why is workplace safety important?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Workplace safety programs prevent occupational injuries, ensure legal regulatory compliance, boost morale, and optimize overall productivity (All of the above).
Q168
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetySafety Non-compliance Costs
Which of the following can result from ignoring workplace safety?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Higher insurance costs)
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetySafety Culture
A workplace safety culture focuses on
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Protecting workers from harm)
A robust organizational safety culture prioritizes proactively identifying hazards and protecting all employees from physical and psychological harm.
Q170
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyOccupational Hazard Definition
What is an occupational hazard?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A condition that could cause harm or injury in the workplace)
An occupational hazard is any workplace condition, substance, or activity with the inherent potential to cause harm, illness, or injury to workers.
Q171
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyChemical Hazards
Which of the following is a chemical hazard?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Welding fumes)
Welding fumes contain toxic metallic particulate oxides and gases, classifying directly as a chemical occupational hazard.
Q172
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyErgonomics
Ergonomic hazards are primarily associated with
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Poor posture or repetitive motion)
Ergonomic hazards stem from biomechanical physical stressors such as repetitive motions, awkward body postures, and poorly designed workstations.
Q173
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyQuality Standards (ISO 9000)
What is the main purpose of the ISO 9000 series of standards?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To ensure product quality and customer satisfaction)
ISO 9000 is an international quality management standard establishing frameworks to ensure organizations consistently meet customer requirements and deliver quality products.
Q174
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyStandardization Bodies
What does BIS stand for?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Bureau of Indian Standards)
BIS stands for the Bureau of Indian Standards, the National Standards Body of India established under the BIS Act 2016.
Q175
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyFactories Act 1948 Purpose
The primary purpose of the Factories Act , 1948 is to
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ensure health, safety, and welfare of workers in factories)
The Factories Act 1948 was enacted to consolidate and amend the law regulating occupational health, machine safety, and working welfare of labor in manufacturing factories.
Q176
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyOvertime Provisions
According to the Factories Act, 1948, overtime wages should be paid at
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Double the ordinary rate of wages)
Under Section 59 of the Factories Act 1948, whenever a worker works for more than 9 hours in any day or more than 48 hours in any week, overtime wages must be paid at double the ordinary rate of wages.
Q177
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyMetric System Units
In the metric system, what is the base unit of volume?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Cubic meter)
The SI coherent derived base unit of volume is the Cubic meter (m3) (with the liter defined as 1 dm3).
Q178
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyVolume Conversion
A liquid has a volume of 0.5 liters. What is the equivalent volume in milliliters?
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyFirst in India Awards
Who was the first Indian to win the 'Miss World' title?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rita Faria)
Reita Faria Powell won the Miss World pageant in 1966, becoming the first Indian and first Asian woman to win the title.
Q181
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyAir Pollutants
Which of the following is NOT a common air pollutant?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Carbon dioxide)
Carbon dioxide (CO2) is a natural greenhouse gas constituent of the atmosphere (not traditionally classified as a toxic criterion air pollutant like SO2,NOx, or CFCs).
Q182
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyPrimary vs Secondary Pollutants
What is the term used for pollutants that are produced naturally, such as volcanic ash and pollen?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Primary pollutants)
Primary pollutants are substances emitted directly from an identifiable source into the atmosphere, including natural sources like volcanic ash and bioaerosols/pollen.
Q183
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyGreenhouse Effect
Which of these pollutants contributes to the greenhouse effect?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Carbon dioxide (CO2), Methane (CH4), and Nitrous oxide (N2O) are all potent greenhouse gases trapping terrestrial infrared radiation.
Q184
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyParalinguistic Communication
What does paralinguistic refer to in non-verbal communication?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The tone, pitch, and speed of speech)
Paralanguage (paralinguistics) encompasses the vocal but non-verbal dimensions of speech: vocal tone, pitch, volume, pacing, and inflection.
Q185
Indian History, Polity, Reasoning & Industrial SafetyNon-Verbal vs Verbal Communication
Which of the following is NOT an example of non-verbal communication?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Written texts)
Written text uses lexical verbal language (words and syntax), classifying as verbal communication; body language, gestures, and facial expressions are non-verbal.
Q186
General English & Reading ComprehensionArticles
Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article. Today he is at _______ zenith of his career.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (the)
The definite article 'the' is used before unique pinnacle positions or superlatives: 'at the zenith of his career'.
Q187
General English & Reading ComprehensionArticles (Vowel Sounds)
Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article. _______ honest man lodged _______ FIR when he saw someone committing fraud in the marketplace
💡Correct Answer: Option B (An, an)
'Honest' begins with a vowel sound (/ɒ/), requiring 'An'. 'FIR' begins with a vowel sound (/ɛf/), requiring 'an': 'An honest man lodged an FIR...'.
Q188
General English & Reading ComprehensionArticles
Fill in the blank with the correct article. If no article is required, select no article. We visited _______ museum during our trip to _______ city.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (the, the)
Specific context requires definite articles: 'We visited the museum during our trip to the city'.
Q189
General English & GrammarArticles
Find the suitable articles for the following statement: He is _______ man whom I met yesterday.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (the)
The definite article 'the' is used before a noun modified by a defining relative clause ('the man whom I met yesterday').
Q190
General English & GrammarArticles
Find the suitable articles for the following statement: _______ dog that bit me ran away
💡Correct Answer: Option C (the)
The relative clause 'that bit me' specifies the dog, requiring the definite article 'The'.
Q191
General English & GrammarArticles Rules
The Statement is given along with the articles; the word is underlined Statement 1 : The USA is the richest country in the world Statement 2 : An gold is a precious metal Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect)
Statement 1 correctly uses 'The USA' (acronym country of united states). Statement 2 is incorrect because 'gold' is an uncountable material noun and does not take indefinite article 'An'.
Q192
Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsPCI Constitution
Pharmacy council of India is constituted by the central government on every
💡Correct Answer: Option C (5 years)
Under Section 3 of the Pharmacy Act 1948, the Central Council (Pharmacy Council of India / PCI) is reconstituted by the Central Government every 5 years.
Q193
Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsMTP Amendment 2021
The 2021 amendment to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act introduced provisions for:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Allowing unmarried women to seek MTP for contraceptive failure)
The MTP Amendment Act 2021 replaced 'married woman or her husband' with 'any woman or her partner', legally allowing unmarried single women access to safe MTP for contraceptive failure.
Q194
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIndian Constitution Fundamental Rights
Which article of the Indian constitution guarantee the right to equality?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 14)
Article 14 of the Constitution of India guarantees that 'The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India'.
Q195
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryFundamental Rights Article 19
The right to move freely throughout the territory of India comes under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Article 19)
Article 19(1)(d) of the Indian Constitution guarantees to all citizens the fundamental right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
Q196
Indian National Movement & Modern HistoryConstitutional Acts 1919
The 'Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms' were introduced in which year?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1919)
The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (enacted as the Government of India Act 1919) introduced provincial dyarchy.
Which section of the Reserve Bank of India has been amended after the commencement of the Information Technology Act, 2000 to include electronic fund transfer services like RTGS, NEFT, etc.?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Section 58 (2))
The Third Schedule of the IT Act, 2000 amended Section 58(2) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 to empower RBI to regulate electronic fund transfers (NEFT, RTGS).
Q198
Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRInternet Governance Issues
Which of the following is a key concern in Internet governance?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Global Internet governance policy debates revolve around Net Neutrality, data privacy rights, cross-border cybersecurity, intellectual property, and censorship (All of the above).
Q199
Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Acts & Regulatory AffairsDTAB Constitution
DTAB has ______ Ex-officio members
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Eight)
Under Section 5 of the D&C Act 1940, the Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) consists of 18 members in total, out of which exactly 8 are Ex-Officio Members (including DGHS, DCGI, CDL Director, CRI Kasauli Director, IVRI Director, Central Drug Research Institute Director, President MCI, and President PCI).
Q200
Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Acts & Regulatory AffairsPCI Reconstitution
The Pharmacy Council of India is reconstituted by the Central Government every ______
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Five years)
Under Section 3 of the Pharmacy Act 1948, the Pharmacy Council of India is reconstituted by the Central Government every five years.
Q201
Pharmacognosy, Phytochemistry & General AwarenessIndian Constitution Article 33
Which among the following authorities decides, how far the fundamental rights can apply to the members of the armed forces in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Parliament of India)
Under Article 33 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament of India alone has the exclusive constitutional power to restrict or abrogate the application of Fundamental Rights to members of the Armed Forces and Police forces.
Q202
General English & Basic MathematicsArticles
Fill in the blank using a suitable article: While reading ______ biography of ______ influential leader, I discovered many lessons applicable to modern-day challenges.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (the, an)
The definite article 'the' specifies the particular biography being read, and 'an' precedes the vowel-sound adjective 'influential' ('the, an').
Q203
Computer Science, Operating Systems & MS Officee-Governance & IT
How does information technology contribute to transparency in governance?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (By facilitating the easy access and dissemination of information to the public)
IT and e-Governance enhance democratic accountability and transparency by enabling open, digitized public access to official records, portals, and online citizen services.
Q204
Atmospheric Physics, Air Pollution & Climate ChangeAerosol Particle Dynamics Forces
Which of the following forces is negligible in particle dynamics?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Repulsion forces)
In atmospheric aerosol and particulate dynamics, the dominant governing forces are Gravity, Fluid Drag/Resistance, and Buoyancy; intermolecular Electrostatic Repulsion forces between macroscopic aerosol particles are negligible.
Q205
Water Quality, Aquatic Chemistry & Wastewater EngineeringParticle Size Classification in Water
Size ranges of dissolved, colloidal and suspended substances are: i. 10−5 to 10−6μm ii. 10−3 to 1μm iii. 10−5 to 10−1 mm iv. 10−8 to 10−6 mm v. 1 to 102μm vi. 10−3 to 10 mm Choose the Correct Option for [Dissolved, Colloidal, Suspended]:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (iv, ii, v)
In environmental water classification: Dissolved solids = <10−3μextm (<1extnm=10−8ext−−10−6extmm⟹ iv), Colloidal particles = 10−3μextmextto1μextm (1 nm to 1 μextm⟹ ii), Suspended solids = >1μextm (1extto100μextm⟹ v). Correct: iv, ii, v.
In elected members of Pharmacy Council of India six members are elected by:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (UGC)
Under Section 3(a) of the Pharmacy Act, 1948, six members are elected by the University Grants Commission (UGC), among whom at least one must be a teacher of pharmacy/pharmaceutical chemistry.
Q207
Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Regulatory Acts & Forensic PharmacyMTP Amendment for Unmarried Women
Under the 2021 amendment to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, which of the following is true regarding abortion for unmarried women?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Unmarried women are now allowed to seek an abortion under the same conditions as married women, up to 24 weeks of pregnancy.)
The MTP Amendment Act 2021 replaced 'married woman and her husband' with 'woman and her partner', extending safe legal abortion access to unmarried single women facing contraceptive failure under the same legal protections up to 24 weeks (upheld by Supreme Court in 2022).
Q208
General Knowledge, Physiology & Current AffairsIndian Polity (Article 370)
What did Article 370 of the Indian Constitution deal with?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The special status of Jammu and Kashmir)
Article 370 of the Constitution of India conferred temporary Special Autonomous Status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir, modified by Parliament in August 2019.
Q209
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTParts of Indian Constitution
Match the following Pairs: Part of the Indian Constitution: i) Part IV ii) Part IV A iii) Part XVII iv) Part XVIII
Subject mentioned in the part: 1) Fundamental Duties 2) Emergency Provisions 3) Directive Principles 4) Official Languages
Choose the Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2)
Constitutional Parts: i -> 3 (Part IV: Directive Principles of State Policy, Articles 36–51), ii -> 1 (Part IVA: Fundamental Duties, Article 51A), iii -> 4 (Part XVII: Official Languages, Articles 343–351), iv -> 2 (Part XVIII: Emergency Provisions, Articles 352–360). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2.
Q210
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTFundamental Rights Articles
Consider the following matches about the fundamental rights of India: I. Right to Equality - Article 14-18 II. Right to Freedom of Religion - Article 25-28 III. Cultural and Educational Rights - Articles 23 -24 IV. Right to Constitutional Remedies - Articles 29 - 30 Which among the above is /are correct matches?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Only I & II)
Matches I and II are correct: Right to Equality is Articles 14–18, Right to Freedom of Religion is Articles 25–28. (Match III is wrong because Arts 23–24 are Right against Exploitation; Match IV is wrong because Art 32 is Right to Constitutional Remedies). Correct: Only I & II.
Q211
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTFundamental Duties Article 51A
Consider the following statements: I. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence. II. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood among all people of India. III. To develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform. IV. To ensure equal pay for equal work for both men and women. Which of the above are Fundamental Duties under Article 51 A?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Only I, II and III)
Statements I, II, and III are Fundamental Duties enshrined in Article 51A [clauses (i), (e), and (h)]. Statement IV ('equal pay for equal work') is a Directive Principle of State Policy under Article 39(d), not a Fundamental Duty. Correct: Only I, II and III.
Q212
Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentPanchayati Raj & Community Development
Who appointed Balwant Rai Mehta for examining community development programme in 1957?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Jawaharlal Nehru)
The Government of India under Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru (via the Committee on Plan Projects) appointed the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee in January 1957 to examine and evaluate the working of the Community Development Programme (1952) and National Extension Service.
Q213
Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentConstitutional Provisions (73rd Amendment)
Which of the following amendments to constitution of India grants a constitutional status of Panchayat Raj system?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (73rd amendment)
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 inserted Part IX (Articles 243 to 243-O) and the 11th Schedule into the Constitution of India, conferring constitutional status and a three-tier structure upon Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Q214
Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentUrban Local Governance (74th Amendment)
Which of these is not a category for Urban Local Bodies in the country post 74th Amendment?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Reserved area community (Reserved areas for high society))
The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 created a three-tier classification of Urban Local Bodies (ULBs): 1. Nagar Panchayat (for transitional areas), 2. Municipal Council / Nagar Palika (for smaller urban areas), and 3. Municipal Corporation / Mahanagar Nigam (for large urban areas). 'Reserved area community' is NOT a legal category.
Any changes made to the original booking (dates, room type, or guest count) is called an:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Amendment)
In hotel reservation terminology, any modification to an existing confirmed booking—such as change in arrival/departure dates, number of rooms, room category, or guest details—is officially designated as an Amendment (Reservation Amendment).
Q216
General English & ComprehensionArticles
Fill in the blank with appropriate article: "I go to Srinagar by ....................Vande Bharat Express."
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The)
Definite article 'The' is mandatory before the proper names of specific trains, ships, and recognized transport routes (e.g. 'the Vande Bharat Express', 'the Rajdhani Express').
Q217
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTIndian Polity (Fundamental Duties)
The Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen under Article 51A include: 1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem 2. To develop the scientific temper 3. Respect for the Government 4. To protect Wildlife Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2 and 4)
Under Article 51A of the Constitution of India, Fundamental Duties include respecting the Constitution, Flag and Anthem [51A(a)], protecting forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife [51A(g)], and developing scientific temper and humanism [51A(h)]. 'Respect for the Government' is NOT a fundamental duty. Correct: 1, 2 and 4 (Choice B).
Q218
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTIndian Polity (Preamble)
Which of the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution is/are correct? I) The Preamble is considered part of the Constitution but is not legally enforceable. II) The word "Socialist" and "Secular" were added to the Preamble by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978. III) The Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution. Choose the correct statements:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I and III only)
Statements I and III are correct: The Preamble is non-justiciable/not enforceable in a court of law (I), and the Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) ruled that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution (III). Statement II is false because 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' were added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 (not the 44th). Correct: I and III only.
Q219
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTConstitutional Bodies (Attorney General)
Which of the following statement(s) is/are NOT correct about the Attorney General of India? I. The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney General of India. II. He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the country. III. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. IV. He has a fixed tenure. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I and IV)
Under Article 76: Statement I is NOT correct (must be qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court, not High Court). Statement IV is NOT correct (holds office during the pleasure of the President, with no fixed tenure specified in the Constitution). Statements II and III are correct [Articles 76(3) and 88]. Correct answer for NOT correct: I and IV (Choice A).
Q220
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Governance & Legislation (RTI Act)
In which year did the Right to Information (RTI) Act come into force in Jammu & Kashmir (under the State Act)?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (2009)
The Jammu and Kashmir Right to Information Act was enacted and came into full force in the former state in 2009 (J&K RTI Act, 2009). Following the J&K Reorganisation Act 2019, the Central RTI Act, 2005 replaced it on 31 October 2019.
Q221
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Constitutional History (Article 370)
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Jammu & Kashmir was granted special status under Article 370 of the Indian Constitution. Reason (R): Article 370 allowed J&K to have its own constitution and autonomy over all matters except defense, foreign affairs, finance, and communications. Which statement is are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.)
Both Assertion and Reason are historically and constitutionally accurate: Article 370 conferred a unique constitutional asymmetric status upon J&K (A), specifically restricting Parliament's legislative powers to defense, external affairs, communications, and ancillary financial matters while permitting a separate state Constitution (R). Choice A.
Q222
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Polity (Election Commission)
Who registers and recognizes political parties as national or state parties in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Election Commission of India)
The Election Commission of India (ECI), under the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, officially registers and accords recognition to National and State political parties.
Q223
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Polity (Fundamental Rights)
How many Fundamental Rights are currently guaranteed to Indian citizens under Part III of the Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (6)
The Indian Constitution currently guarantees Six Fundamental Rights: 1. Right to Equality, 2. Right to Freedom, 3. Right against Exploitation, 4. Right to Freedom of Religion, 5. Cultural and Educational Rights, and 6. Right to Constitutional Remedies. (Right to Property was deleted as a fundamental right by the 44th Amendment in 1978).
Q224
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Polity (Right to Equality)
According to the Indian Constitution, which of the following is NOT included within the Right to Equality (Articles 14 to 18)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Absolute equality)
The Right to Equality guarantees Equality before law (Art 14), Non-discrimination (Art 15), Equality of opportunity in public employment (Art 16), and Abolition of untouchability (Art 17). 'Absolute equality' does not exist as reasonable classifications and affirmative actions are constitutional.
Q225
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Polity (Swaran Singh Committee)
Which of the following committees suggested the incorporation of Fundamental Duties into the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Swaran Singh Committee)
The Sardar Swaran Singh Committee, constituted in 1976 by the Government of India, recommended the inclusion of a dedicated chapter on Fundamental Duties in the Constitution.
Q226
General Awareness & Current Affairs (National & J&K)Indian Polity (42nd Amendment)
The Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Indian Constitution by which Constitutional Amendment?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (42nd Constitutional Amendment)
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 inserted Part IVA and Article 51A into the Constitution of India, introducing 10 Fundamental Duties (an 11th duty was added later by the 86th Amendment in 2002).
Q227
Indian Polity, History & GeographyIndian Freedom Struggle (Poona Pact)
The Poona Pact (1932) was an historic agreement between:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Gandhi and Ambedkar)
The Poona Pact was signed on 24 September 1932 at Yerwada Central Jail in Pune between Mahatma Gandhi (represented by Madan Mohan Malaviya) and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, reserving seats for the Depressed Classes in provincial legislatures within the general electorate.
Q228
Indian Polity, History & GeographyModern Indian History (Partition of Bengal)
Name the Viceroy of India at the time of the Partition of Bengal in 1905:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Lord Curzon)
Lord Curzon was the Viceroy and Governor-General of India who ordered the controversial Partition of Bengal in October 1905.
Q229
Indian Polity, History & GeographyModern Indian History (Annulment of Partition)
In which year was the partition of Bengal cancelled/annulled by the British Crown?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1911)
The Partition of Bengal was annulled by King George V at the historic Delhi Durbar in December 1911, and the capital of British India was simultaneously shifted from Calcutta to Delhi.
Q230
Indian Polity, History & GeographyNon-Cooperation Movement 1920
In which of the following years was the Non-Cooperation Movement launched under Mahatma Gandhi's leadership?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1920)
The Non-Cooperation Movement was formally launched by the Indian National Congress under Mahatma Gandhi's leadership on 1 August 1920.
Q231
Indian Polity, History & GeographyKhilafat & Non-Cooperation Movement
Which among the following movements was combined with the Non-Cooperation Movement under Gandhiji's leadership?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Khilafat Movement)
Gandhiji united the Khilafat Movement (led by the Ali brothers—Maulana Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali) with the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920 to foster Hindu-Muslim unity against British imperial rule.
Q232
Indian Polity, History & GeographyElection Commission of India
Who formally recognizes political parties and allots election symbols in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Election Commission of India)
Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, the Election Commission of India (ECI) registers and recognizes National and State political parties.
Q233
Indian Polity, History & GeographyAgriculture (Green Revolution)
The Green Revolution in India was primarily related to a monumental increase in:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Wheat production)
The Green Revolution in India (spearheaded by Dr. M.S. Swaminathan in the mid-1960s with semi-dwarf HYV seeds) produced a dramatic surge in Wheat Production (often termed the Wheat Revolution), particularly across Punjab, Haryana, and Western UP.
Q234
Indian Polity, History & GeographyAgricultural Institutions (NAFED)
NAFED (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd) is connected with:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Agricultural marketing)
NAFED (established in 1958) is the apex organization of marketing cooperatives for agricultural produce in India, promoting Agricultural Marketing and procurement of crops at Minimum Support Price (MSP).
Q235
Indian Polity, History & GeographyGeography Latitudes & Longitudes
The 0-degree Meridian passing through Greenwich, England is known as the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Prime Meridian)
The Prime Meridian is the reference line of 0∘ longitude internationally adopted at Greenwich, London, from which all other longitudes (east and west) are measured.
Q236
Indian Polity, History & GeographyIndian Standard Time (IST)
The local time at 82° 30' E longitude, standardized throughout India, is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Indian Standard Time (IST))
Indian Standard Time (IST) is calculated based on the standard meridian of 82∘30′ E longitude passing through Mirzapur near Prayagraj (Uttar Pradesh), running 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of GMT (+5:30).
Q237
Indian Polity, History & GeographyGeography (Tropic of Cancer)
Identify the parallel of latitude known as the Tropic of Cancer:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (23° 30'N)
The Tropic of Cancer is the parallel of latitude located at 23∘30′ N (23.5∘ N) of the Equator.
Q238
Indian Polity, History & GeographyAgriculture (Plantation Crops)
Which of the following is NOT a plantation crop?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Wheat)
Tea, coffee, rubber, coconut, and oil palm are commercial plantation crops grown on large estates. Wheat is an extensive food grain cereal crop (Rabi crop).
Q239
Indian Polity, History & GeographyIndian Polity (Fundamental Rights)
How many Fundamental Rights are currently guaranteed in the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (6)
Originally there were 7 Fundamental Rights, but the Right to Property (Article 31) was omitted by the 44th Amendment in 1978, leaving currently 6 Fundamental Rights (Articles 12 to 35).
Q240
Indian Polity, History & GeographyRight to Equality (Articles 14-18)
According to the Indian Constitution, which of the following rights is NOT included in the Right to Equality (Articles 14-18)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Absolute equality)
Right to Equality includes: Equality before Law (Art 14), Prohibition of discrimination (Art 15), Equality of opportunity in public employment (Art 16), and Abolition of untouchability (Art 17). The concept of 'Absolute equality' does not exist in constitutional jurisprudence because reasonable classification is permitted.
Q241
Indian Polity, History & GeographyFundamental Duties (Swaran Singh Committee)
Which of the following committees suggested the incorporation of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Swaran Singh Committee)
The Swaran Singh Committee (set up in 1976) recommended the inclusion of a separate chapter on Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India.
Q242
Indian Polity, History & GeographyConstitutional Amendments (42nd Amendment)
The Fundamental Duties were included in the Indian Constitution by which of the following Constitutional Amendments?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (42nd Constitutional Amendment)
Fundamental Duties were added to Part IV-A of the Constitution under Article 51A by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
Q243
Indian Polity, History & GeographyPhysical Geography (Seasons)
The axial tilting of the Earth (23.5∘) as it revolves around the Sun is responsible for the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Change in seasons)
The tilt of the Earth's axis of rotation relative to its orbital plane together with its revolution around the Sun causes the varying angle of solar rays throughout the year, producing the Change in Seasons.
Q244
Indian Polity, History & GeographySolar System (Mars)
Which planet of the solar system is referred to as the "Red Planet"?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Mars)
Mars is known as the 'Red Planet' due to the widespread presence of iron oxide (rust) on its surface regolith.
Q245
Indian Polity, History & GeographySolar System (Venus)
Which planet is often referred to as "Earth's twin" due to its similar size, mass, and bulk composition?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Venus)
Venus is referred to as 'Earth's twin' or 'sister planet' because of its similar size, mass, density, and volume to Earth.
Q246
Indian Polity, History & GeographySectors of Economy (Secondary Sector)
The ________ sector covers economic activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing associated with industrial activity:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Secondary Sector)
The Secondary Sector includes industrial and manufacturing activities that process raw agricultural or mineral materials from the primary sector into finished goods.
Q247
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsJ&K Polity & Assembly
In the present Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Assembly (post-2023 amendment), how many members can be nominated by the Lieutenant Governor?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (5)
Under the J&K Reorganisation (Amendment) Act, 2023, the Lieutenant Governor is empowered to nominate up to 5 members: 2 women, 2 Kashmiri Migrants (including one woman), and 1 displaced person from Pakistan-occupied Jammu and Kashmir (PoJK). Choice D.
Q248
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsJ&K Constitutional History (1952 Agreement)
The 1952 Agreement between Jammu and Kashmir and the Union of India (Delhi Agreement) was signed by:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Jawaharlal Nehru and Sheikh Abdullah)
The historic Delhi Agreement of July 1952, delineating constitutional relations and autonomy arrangements between J&K and the Indian Union, was negotiated and concluded between Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Prime Minister of J&K Sheikh Mohammad Abdullah.
Q249
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsConstitutional Law (Article 35A)
Article 35A of the Indian Constitution, which was applicable only to Jammu and Kashmir, was concerned with:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Prohibition of land sale to non-residents)
Article 35A empowered the J&K State Legislature to define 'Permanent Residents' and confer special rights and privileges upon them, including the exclusive right to purchase immovable property (prohibiting land acquisition by non-residents) and state government employment.
Q250
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsConstituent Assembly & Article 370
Who was primarily responsible for drafting Article 370 of the Indian Constitution in the Constituent Assembly?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar)
Narasimha Gopalaswami Ayyangar (former Prime Minister of J&K and Minister without Portfolio in Nehru's Cabinet) drafted and piloted Article 306A (which became Article 370) in the Constituent Assembly of India in 1949.
Q251
General English & Reading ComprehensionArticles
Fill in the blanks with suitable options: "On ________ cold December evening, ________ doorbell wouldn't stop ringing at my house."
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a, the)
We use indefinite article 'a' before an unspecific descriptive singular time reference ('On a cold December evening') and definite article 'the' before a specific unique object in the household ('the doorbell'). Choice A.
Q252
Computer Applications, IT & e-GovernanceSoftware Classifications
Which type of software can be easily modified and distributed by editing the program's source code? I. Shareware II. Freeware III. Open source software IV. Utility software Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (III only)
Open Source Software (such as Linux, Apache, Python) provides users with the legal rights and accessible source code to inspect, modify, enhance, and freely redistribute the program. Freeware and Shareware are distributed in compiled binary format without source code access. Correct: III only (Choice C).
Q253
Computer Applications, IT & e-GovernanceComputer Hardware Ports
The digital video interface port that connects flat panel LCD monitors to the computer's high-end video graphic card is named as:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (DVI port)
Digital Visual Interface (DVI port) is a dedicated video display interface designed to transmit uncompressed digital video signals from a graphics card to flat-panel LCD displays.
Q254
Computer Applications, IT & e-GovernanceNetwork Security & Firewalls
Consider the following statements on 'firewall' used on computer systems: I. It controls and monitors the data traffic flow between inside and outside network II. It protects and secures the inside network from any outside unauthorized network intrusions III. It can be implemented in software or hardware or a combination of both. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II and III)
All three statements are correct: A firewall filters incoming and outgoing network packet traffic based on defined security rules (I), establishes a barrier protecting internal private networks from unauthorized external threats (II), and can be deployed as dedicated hardware appliances, host software, or hybrid combinations (III) ⟹ I, II and III. Choice D.
Q255
Computer Applications, IT & e-GovernanceDigital India Initiatives (BharatNet)
What was the earlier official project name of BharatNet?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (National Optic Fiber Network (NOFN))
BharatNet was originally launched in October 2011 as the National Optical Fibre Network (NOFN) to connect all 250,000 Gram Panchayats with high-speed broadband, rebranded as BharatNet in 2015.
Q256
Computer Applications, IT & e-Governancee-Governance & PPP Models
Consider the following statement: Statement (I): The long-term sustainability of e-governance projects depends on financial viability, especially if they are to be implemented in the Public-Private Partnership (PPP) mode. Statement (II): PPP models in e-governance often involve significant upfront investments by private partners, requiring a robust revenue model to ensure project continuity. Which of the following statement is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I))
Both statements are true and causally explanatory: Under PPP arrangements in e-governance (like passport seva or CSCs), private concessionaires invest heavy initial capital, so the project's long-term commercial sustainability is strictly dependent upon generating steady transaction fees and financial viability. Choice A.
Q257
Computer Applications, IT & e-Governancem-Governance (Mobile Seva)
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Mobile Seva' initiative of the Government of India: I. It aims to provide government services to people through mobile phones and tablets. II. It enables a government department to integrate web and mobile-based services seamlessly. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both I and II)
Both statements are correct: Mobile Seva (developed by MeitY and C-DAC) is an innovative national m-Governance initiative that delivers public services directly to citizens via mobile applications, SMS, and IVRS (I) and provides centralized gateway APIs for departments to integrate web and mobile services (II). Choice A.
Q258
Computer Applications, IT & e-GovernanceSystem Software (Compilers)
What is the main function of a computer language compiler?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To convert high-level language into machine code)
A Compiler is a specialized system translator program that translates high-level source code (written in C, C++, Java) entirely into low-level object machine code that the CPU can directly execute.
Q259
Computer Applications, IT & e-GovernanceMS Office Shortcuts (PowerPoint)
Which of the following shortcut keys in MS PowerPoint is used to start a slide show from the very beginning?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (F5)
In Microsoft PowerPoint, pressing function key F5 starts the presentation from Slide 1 (the beginning). Shift + F5 starts the slide show from the currently selected slide.
Q260
Computer Applications, IT & e-GovernanceCyber Security & Sniffing
The process of monitoring and capturing all data packets that are passing through a computer network is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Sniffing)
Packet Sniffing (or network packet analysis) is the technique of intercepting, monitoring, and logging raw data packets transmitted across a network using software sniffers like Wireshark.
Q261
Computer Applications, IT & e-GovernanceWeb Browsers & Security Features
Match the following web browser features with their correct descriptions: Column - X: 1. Incognito Mode 2. Automatic File Compression 3. Bookmarking 4. Built-in Antivirus protection
Column - Y: I. Saves favourite websites for easy access II. Browses without saving history or cookies III. Managed by download managers, not browsers IV. Provided by antivirus software, not browsers
Choose the Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1-II, 2-III, 3-I, 4-IV)
1 -> II (Incognito/Private mode browses without recording local browsing history, cache, or cookies), 2 -> III (Automatic file compression is managed by external download utilities), 3 -> I (Bookmarking stores quick shortcut links to favorite webpages), 4 -> IV (Comprehensive malware defense is provided by dedicated antivirus software). Correct match: 1-II, 2-III, 3-I, 4-IV (Choice B).
Q262
Computer Applications, IT & e-GovernanceInternet History (Email & Ray Tomlinson)
Which of the following statements is historically correct regarding e-mail?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The email was invented in 1971 by Ray Tomlinson)
Statement A is historically correct: Raymond Samuel Tomlinson developed the first ARPANET networked email system in 1971, also introducing the '@' symbol to separate the username from the machine host name. Choice A.
Q263
Computer Applications, IT & e-GovernanceEmail Protocols (POP3, IMAP, SMTP)
Match the following email protocols with their primary technical descriptions: Column - X: 1. POP3 2. IMAP 3. SMTP
Column - Y: I. Used for sending emails from a client to a server or between servers II. Used for retrieving and synchronising emails across multiple devices in real-time III. Used for downloading emails to a local device for offline access
Choose the Correct Option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-III, 2-II, 3-I)
1 -> III (POP3 downloads emails from server to local storage and typically deletes them from the server), 2 -> II (IMAP keeps messages on server and synchronizes folders dynamically across multiple devices), 3 -> I (SMTP handles outgoing mail transmission). Correct match: 1-III, 2-II, 3-I (Choice A).
Q264
General EnglishArticles & Error Spotting
Spot the error in the following sentence: (A) Some people say that (B) her husband is in the jail (C) and so she lives alone. (D) No error.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (her husband is in the jail)
Part (B) contains an error. Institutional nouns like prison, jail, school, hospital, and church do not take the definite article 'the' when visited or inhabited for their primary purpose ('in jail' as a prisoner). Choice B.
Q265
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Constitution (8th Schedule)
The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India lists ________ languages as officially recognized by the Government of India:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (22)
The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution currently lists 22 officially recognized languages (originally 14, expanded via the 21st, 71st, and 92nd Constitutional Amendments).
Q266
General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceConstitutional History (Article 370)
Which article of the Indian Constitution ensured the special asymmetric status of Jammu and Kashmir prior to August 2019?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Article 370)
Article 370 of the Indian Constitution conferred temporary special status on Jammu and Kashmir from 1949 until its effective abrogation on 5 August 2019.
Which of the following statements about the global management of environmental pollution and treaties are true? I. The Paris Agreement focuses on reducing greenhouse gas emissions to hold global warming well below 2°C. II. International environmental protocols such as the Montreal Protocol have been exceptionally instrumental in phasing out ozone-depleting substances. III. Transboundary pollution problems, including transboundary river basins and marine plastic pollution, require multinational cooperation. IV. Environmental regulations have been completely successful in totally eliminating lead and asbestos in all industries worldwide. Choose the correct statements:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (I, II, III)
Statements I, II, and III are correct: The Paris Agreement aims to limit global temperature rise (I), the Montreal Protocol has phased out >99% of controlled ODS (II), and shared river/ocean pollution demands multilateral governance (III). Statement IV is false because asbestos mining/use and industrial lead contamination persist in numerous developing nations. Choice D (I, II, III).
The penumbra for proton beams ________ as the depth increases.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Increases)
As protons penetrate matter, they undergo continuous small-angle Coulomb scattering events off atomic nuclei (multiple Coulomb scattering). This cumulative lateral deflection increases with depth, causing the lateral beam edge penumbra to progressively widen as the beam approaches the Bragg peak.
The 2.2 MeV betas from ^90 Sr will travel about ________ in tissue and ________ in air.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1 cm ; 8m)
The maximum range of high-energy beta particles in unit-density tissue is given approximately by the empirical rule Rtissue≈2Emax cm=22.2=1.1 cm≈1 cm. Since the density of air is approximately 1/800 that of tissue, the range in air is roughly Rair≈1 cm×800=800 cm=8 meters.
Q270
General English & ComprehensionArticles & Determiners
Choose the correct option to fill in the blank: _____ Mount Everest is the highest mountain in the world
💡Correct Answer: Option D (No Article)
In standard English grammar, names of individual mountain peaks (e.g., Mount Everest, Mount Kilimanjaro, Mont Blanc) do not take the definite article 'the', unlike mountain ranges (e.g., the Himalayas, the Alps).
Q271
General English & ComprehensionArticles & Error Detection
Select one of the following options, the sentence of which is written with incorrect article usage.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I met an European tourist yesterday.)
The word 'European' begins with a consonant glide sound /j/ ('yoo-roh-pee-an'). Therefore, it takes the indefinite article 'a', NOT 'an' ('a European tourist'). Sentence B contains incorrect article usage.
Q272
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Polity & Environmental Law
Environmental Pollution Act of 1986 was enacted under _______ of the Indian Constitution.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Article 253)
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted by Parliament under Article 253 of the Constitution of India, which empowers the Union to make laws for implementing international treaties and agreements (specifically the 1972 UN Stockholm Conference on Human Environment).
Q273
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Polity & Environmental Law
Which of the following acts is popularly known as Umbrella Legislation?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Environment (Protection) Act, 1986)
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is widely termed 'Umbrella Legislation' because it provides a comprehensive overarching legislative framework coordinating disparate regulatory agencies and prior sectoral pollution laws (Air Act, Water Act).
Q274
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Polity & Elections
In which state, Electronic Voting Machine (EVMs) were first used in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Kerala)
Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) were first introduced and used experimentally in India in May 1982 in the by-election to the Paravur Assembly constituency in Ernakulam district, Kerala.
Q275
General Awareness, Science & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Polity & Governance
National Food Security Act (NFSA) was passed in _______
💡Correct Answer: Option A (2013)
The National Food Security Act (NFSA) was enacted by Parliament on September 10, 2013, legally entitling up to 75% of rural and 50% of urban populations to receive subsidized foodgrains under the Targeted Public Distribution System.
Q276
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsConstitutional Provisions & Article 370
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Article 370 was a temporary provision in the Indian Constitution that granted special status to Jammu and Kashmir. Reason (R): The abrogation of Article 370 in 2019 required an amendment to the Indian Constitution through a one-third majority in Parliament. Which of the above statement are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A is true, but R is false.)
Assertion (A) is true: Article 370 was placed under Part XXI ('Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions') of the Indian Constitution. Reason (R) is false: The abrogation in August 2019 was executed via Presidential Orders (C.O. 272 and C.O. 273) and statutory resolutions passed by simple majority, not through a constitutional amendment requiring a non-existent 'one-third majority'.
Q277
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsArticles of the Indian Constitution
Match the column of the article of the Indian Constitution listed in Column -X with their objectives in Column -Y: Column - X: 1. Article 21 2. Article 9 3. Article 4
Column - Y: I. No dual citizenship II. Protection of life and liberty III. Laws of State Reorganization
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-II, 2-I, 3-III)
Article 21 guarantees Protection of life and personal liberty (II). Article 9 specifies that persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign State cease to be citizens of India (No dual citizenship - I). Article 4 pertains to laws made under Articles 2 and 3 for the reorganization of states not being considered amendments under Article 368 (III). Hence, 1-II, 2-I, 3-III.
Q278
General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsConstitution of Jammu and Kashmir
When was the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir adopted?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (November 17, 1956)
The Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir was formally adopted by the J&K Constituent Assembly on November 17, 1956, and subsequently came into force on January 26, 1957.
Q279
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsConstitution of India & Press Freedom
Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees freedom of speech and expression, including freedom of the press? A) Article 14 B) Article 19(1)(a) C) Article 21 D) Article 32
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Article 19(1)(a))
Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India guarantees to all citizens the fundamental right to 'freedom of speech and expression', which the Supreme Court has consistently held includes the freedom of the press (Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras, Indian Express Newspapers case).
Q280
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsArticle 19(2) Constitutional Restrictions
Which of the following is NOT a ground for reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(2)? A) Sovereignty and integrity of India B) Public order C) Economic stability D) Decency or morality
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Economic stability)
Under Article 19(2) of the Indian Constitution, the eight specified grounds for imposing reasonable restrictions are: 1. Sovereignty and integrity of India 2. Security of the State 3. Friendly relations with foreign States 4. Public order 5. Decency or morality 6. Contempt of court 7. Defamation 8. Incitement to an offence. 'Economic stability' is NOT a constitutional ground for restricting free speech.
Q281
Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsMedia Laws & Constitutional Focus
Match the following laws with their primary focus: 1. Official Secrets Act, 1923 2. Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 3. Article 19(1)(a) 4. Defamation Law Focus: i. Regulates freedom of speech and expression ii. Protects classified government information iii. Ensures respect for judicial authority iv. Protects individuals from false attacks on reputation Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv)
Matching: - Official Secrets Act, 1923: Protects classified state security documents (1-ii). - Contempt of Courts Act, 1971: Upholds dignity and authority of the judiciary (2-iii). - Article 19(1)(a): Guarantees free speech and expression (3-i). - Defamation Law: Protects individuals from reputation damage (4-iv).
Q282
Basic English & ComprehensionSpotting Errors (Articles)
Find the error in one part of the given sentence: In a history of Indian (1)/ rulers, Harshavardhan's regime of (2)/ a few years is one of the best periods. (3)/ No error (4)
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1)
Error is in part (1). The definite article 'the' must be used instead of the indefinite article 'a' when referring to a specific, unique historical account: 'In the history of Indian rulers...'.
Q283
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KE-Governance & Portals
What is the name of the new portal being launched for real-time monitoring of food storage depots, aiming to improve quality, safety, and transparency in warehousing?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Depot Darpan)
'Depot Darpan' is the real-time digitized warehouse management and monitoring portal launched by the Food Corporation of India (FCI) to ensure end-to-end transparency, stock safety, and reduce storage losses.
Q284
General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KIndian Polity & State Formation
Maharashtra and Gujarat Day are celebrated annually to mark the establishment of these states. On which date and in which year were the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat officially formed?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (May 1, 1960)
Under the Bombay Reorganisation Act, 1960, the bilingual State of Bombay was officially bifurcated into the Marathi-speaking state of Maharashtra and Gujarati-speaking state of Gujarat on 1 May 1960.
Q285
Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingInternet Governance: IRTF & IETF
IRTF stands for
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Internet Research Task Force)
IRTF stands for 'Internet Research Task Force'. Operating in parallel with the IETF under the Internet Society (ISOC), the IRTF focuses on longer-term, forward-looking research topics related to Internet protocols, applications, architecture, and technology via specialized Research Groups.
Q286
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Polity & Municipalities
Which of the following statements regarding Article 243T of the Indian Constitution, inserted by the 74th Amendment Act, are correct? A) It deals with the constitution and composition of ward committees consisting of elected members representing each ward in a Municipality. B) It provides for the reservation of seats in every municipality for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes. C) It mandates the reservation of one-third of the total number of seats for women, including women belonging to SCs and STs. D) It allows the state legislature to provide for the reservation of seats for backward classes.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It provides for the reservation of seats in every municipality for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.)
Article 243T of the Indian Constitution (introduced by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992) explicitly provides for the reservation of seats in every Municipality for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in proportion to their population (Clause 1), as well as reservation for women (Clause 3). Primary subject-heading of Article 243T is 'Reservation of seats'.
Q287
Computer Science & ITE-Governance & Digital India
Which of the following demonstrates the application of Information Technology in India to enhance public services? A) Integration of blockchain technology in banking operations. B) Implementation of the Aadhaar biometric identification system C) Use of low-level programming languages in government applications D) Deployment of Sewa Kendra at every district Headquarter.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Implementation of the Aadhaar biometric identification system)
The Aadhaar biometric identification system (spearheaded by UIDAI) represents the world's largest digital identity program, leveraging cloud databases, multimodal biometrics (fingerprints and iris scans), and digital APIs to deliver transparent Direct Benefit Transfers (DBT) and public services across India.
Q288
Basic EnglishArticles
Choose the correct article to complete the sentence. _____ Earth revolves around the Sun. A) A B) An C) The D) None of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The)
The definite article 'The' is used before unique celestial bodies and planets, such as 'the Earth', 'the Sun', and 'the Moon'.
Q289
Basic EnglishArticles
Choose the correct article to complete the sentence. She adopted _____ dog from the shelter. A) A B) An C) The D) None of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (A)
The indefinite article 'A' is used before a singular countable noun that begins with a consonant sound ('dog').
Q290
General Awareness & ScienceModern Indian History & Constitutional Acts
The Indian Councils Act of 1909 is also known as A) Morley-Minto Reforms B) Government of India Act C) Rowlatt Act D) Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Morley-Minto Reforms)
The Indian Councils Act 1909 is widely known as the Morley-Minto Reforms after John Morley (Secretary of State for India) and Lord Minto (Viceroy of India). It introduced separate electorates for Muslims.
Q291
General Knowledge with special reference to UT of J&KConstitutional Status & J&K Reorganisation
Article 370, which gave special status to Jammu and Kashmir, was abrogated on A) 15th August 2019 B) 26th January 2019 C) 5th August 2019 D) 1st October 2019
💡Correct Answer: Option C (5th August 2019)
On 5th August 2019, the Government of India revoked the special constitutional status of Jammu and Kashmir under Article 370 and subsequently bifurcated the state into two Union Territories: Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.
Q292
General Knowledge with special reference to UT of J&KConstitutional History of J&K
Article 35A was inserted into the Constitution by A) The Constituent Assembly B) Presidential Order of 1954 C) Parliament Act D) Supreme Court Verdict
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Presidential Order of 1954)
Article 35A was incorporated into the Indian Constitution through the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954, issued by President Dr. Rajendra Prasad under Article 370(1) on the recommendation of the J&K Constituent Assembly.
Soil which contains finest grain particles A) Fine sand B) Sand C) Clay D) Silt
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Clay)
As per the Indian Standard Soil Classification System (IS 1498): Gravel (> 4.75 mm), Sand (0.075 mm to 4.75 mm), Silt (0.002 mm to 0.075 mm), and Clay (< 0.002 mm or < 2 μm). Clay has the finest particle size.
Q294
Civil EngineeringGeotechnical & Highway Engineering - Particle Size Distribution
The coefficient of uniformity is defined as A) Cu = D₃₀ / D₁₀ B) Cu = D₆₀ / D₁₀ C) Cu = [D₃₀]² / D₁₀ D) Cu = D₃₀ / (D₁₀ * D₆₀)
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cu = D₆₀ / D₁₀)
The Coefficient of Uniformity (C_u) is defined as the ratio of D₆₀ (particle size such that 60% of soil particles are finer) to D₁₀ (effective size such that 10% are finer): C_u = D₆₀ / D₁₀. (Coefficient of curvature is C_c = [D₃₀]² / (D₆₀ * D₁₀)).
Q295
Forensic Physics & Modern PhysicsMicroscopic Dimensions & Particle Scales
Arrange the following in ascending order of their size:\nI. Electron\nII. Red blood cells\nIII. Proton\nIV. A cell\nChoose the correct options:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (I<III<II<IV)
In ascending order of physical dimension: Electron (< 10^-18 m) < Proton (~10^-15 m) < Red Blood Cell (~6-8 micrometers) < Typical large biological cell (~10-100 micrometers). Thus, I < III < II < IV.
Q296
General EnglishArticles (Zero Article & Definite Article)
Fill in the blank using suitable articles. When no article is required, select no article among the given options. Karan speaks _____ Spanish. He believes, honesty is _____ best policy.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (no article, the)
No article is used before the names of languages (Spanish). The definite article 'the' is required before superlative adjectives ('the best policy'). Therefore, 'no article, the' is correct.
Q297
Indian Polity & DemographyCensus of India Administration
Which body is responsible for conducting the census in India?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ministry of Home Affairs)
The decennial population Census in India is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, functioning under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
Q298
General EnglishArticles
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles: _ rich should help _ poor. A) No article, no article B) The, a C) No article, the D) The, the
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The, the)
When an adjective is used to represent an entire class or group of people as a plural collective noun, it takes the definite article 'the' ('The rich' = wealthy people in general; 'the poor' = impoverished people in general). Hence: 'The rich should help the poor.'
Q299
General EnglishArticles
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles: _ juice in this jug is bitter, but _ juice is generally good for health. A) No article, no article B) The, the C) The, no article D) No article, the
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The, no article)
1. 'The juice in this jug' refers to a specific, definite quantity of juice in a particular jug, requiring the definite article 'The'. 2. '...juice is generally good for health' refers to juice as an uncountable noun in a general sense, taking no article. Hence, 'The, no article'.
Q300
General EnglishArticles
Identify the correct sentence(s) regarding the use of article 'The': I. The higher you climb, the colder it gets. II. He is the most hardworking of the two brothers. III. The gold is a precious metal. Choose the correct option: A) only I B) I and II C) I and III D) All are correct
💡Correct Answer: Option A (only I)
- Sentence I is correct: uses parallel comparative structure ('The higher..., the colder...'). - Sentence II is incorrect: when comparing between two entities, the comparative degree is used ('He is the MORE hardworking of the two brothers', not 'most'). - Sentence III is incorrect: material nouns used in a general sense do not take 'the' ('Gold is a precious metal'). Hence, only I is correct.
Q301
General EnglishArticles
Identify the correct use of articles with plural nouns: I. Lions are fierce animals. II. Lions of Gir forest are famous worldwide. III. The lions we saw at the zoo were sleeping. Choose the correct option: A) only II B) Only I and III C) Only II and III D) All are correct
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Only I and III)
- Sentence I is correct: plural nouns in general statements take no article ('Lions are fierce animals'). - Sentence II is incorrect: when a plural noun is modified and made specific by a prepositional phrase ('of Gir forest'), the definite article 'the' is mandatory ('The lions of Gir forest are famous worldwide'). - Sentence III is correct: 'The lions we saw at the zoo' refers to specific lions identified by a relative clause, correctly taking 'The'. Therefore, only I and III are correct.
Q302
General EnglishDeterminers & Articles
Fill in the blanks with the most suitable determiners/articles: I have _ friends who live in _ Netherlands, but I haven't visited them in years. A) a few / no article B) few / the C) a few / the D) little / the
💡Correct Answer: Option C (a few / the)
1. 'Friends' is a plural countable noun used in a positive sense ('some friends exist'), requiring 'a few'. 2. Countries with plural geographical names or unions take the definite article 'the' ('the Netherlands', 'the United States', 'the Philippines'). Hence, 'a few / the'.
Q303
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Polity (High Courts of India)
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Description / Capitals: I. Judicial Capital of Arunachal Pradesh - Itanagar II. Judicial Capital of Goa - Panaji III. Judicial Capital of Madhya Pradesh - Jabalpur Choose the correct match: A) I only B) I and II only C) III only D) I and III only
💡Correct Answer: Option C (III only)
- Madhya Pradesh has its administrative capital at Bhopal, while its Principal Seat of High Court (Judicial Capital) is at Jabalpur. Hence, Pair III is correctly matched. - Arunachal Pradesh does not have an independent High Court; it falls under the jurisdiction of the Gauhati High Court (Principal Seat in Guwahati, Assam; Itanagar is merely a permanent bench). - Goa does not have its own High Court; it falls under the jurisdiction of the Bombay High Court (Principal Seat in Mumbai, Maharashtra; Panaji is a bench). Therefore, only III represents a true state Judicial Capital seat distinct from the state capital.
Q304
General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Polity (Reorganisation of States)
Chronologically arrange the following states based on their elevation to the status of a state under the Constitution of India: I. Himachal Pradesh II. Nagaland III. Arunachal Pradesh IV. Statehood to Sikkim Choose the correct option: A) I - II - IV - III B) II - I - III - IV C) II - I - IV - III D) I - II - III - IV
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II - I - IV - III)
Chronology of Indian statehood elevation: II. Nagaland: Attained full statehood on 1 December 1963 (16th State of India). I. Himachal Pradesh: Elevated to statehood from UT on 25 January 1971 (18th State). IV. Sikkim: Integrated and made the 22nd state of India via the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act on 16 May 1975. III. Arunachal Pradesh: Conferred statehood on 20 February 1987 (24th State). Chronological order: II - I - IV - III.
Q305
General EnglishArticles
Choose the sentence in which the use of articles is grammatically and contextually correct. A) She is a expert in medieval literature and teaches at the university in Delhi. B) He was appointed the head of department after an extensive review process. C) An honest administrator is essential for a effective governance. D) The committee reached a unanimous decision after the long discussion.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The committee reached a unanimous decision after the long discussion.)
In option D, "a unanimous decision" correctly uses "a" before the consonant sound /juː/ in "unanimous". In A, "a expert" is wrong (should be "an expert"). In C, "a effective" is wrong (should be "an effective").
Q306
Basic EnglishArticles
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles: He waited for ____ hour before meeting ____ university professor. A) a, the B) an, the C) an, a D) the, the
💡Correct Answer: Option C (an, a)
"Hour" begins with a vowel sound (/aʊər/), requiring the indefinite article "an". "University" begins with the consonant glide /juː/, requiring the indefinite article "a". Thus, "an, a".
Q307
Basic EnglishArticles
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles: He is ____ NCC cadet who dreams of becoming ____ officer in ____ Indian Army. A) a, an, the B) an, an, the C) a, a, the D) an, the, the
💡Correct Answer: Option B (an, an, the)
"NCC" is pronounced with an initial vowel sound (/ɛn/), so it takes "an". "Officer" begins with a vowel sound (/ɒ/), taking "an". "Indian Army" is a unique national defense body, taking the definite article "the". Sequence: "an, an, the".
Q308
Basic EnglishArticles
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate articles: ____ cheetah is ____ fastest land animal and can reach ____ incredible speed within seconds. A) a, the, an B) No article, a, an C) the, a, an D) the, the, an
💡Correct Answer: Option D (the, the, an)
"The cheetah" represents the entire animal species. "The fastest" uses the definite article with the superlative degree adjective. "An incredible speed" uses the indefinite article "an" before the vowel-sounding adjective. Sequence: "the, the, an".
Q309
General Awareness & ScienceCurrent Affairs and Polity
Identify the correct statements about the SIR (Special Intensive Revision) exercise, being conducted in some Indian states. I. It is conducted to update and verify the electoral rolls. II. It helps remove duplicate and ineligible voters from the voter list. III. It is being supervised by the Delimitation Commission of India, in exercise of its powers under Article-324 of the Indian Constitution. Choose the correct option: A) I only B) I and II only C) II and III only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option B (I and II only)
Statements I and II are correct as Special Intensive Revision (SIR) is carried out to verify rolls and purge duplicate/ineligible names. Statement III is incorrect because voter roll preparation and revision under Article 324 is exclusively supervised by the Election Commission of India (ECI), not the Delimitation Commission.
Q310
General Awareness & ScienceModern Indian History - Governor Generals
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Governor Generals: I. Lord Wellesley II. Lord William Bentinck III. Lord Charles Metcalfe IV. Lord Ripon Acts/Policies/Titles: Subsidiary Alliance Abolition of Sati Act, 1829 Liberator of the Press Father of Local Self-Government Choose the correct option: A) I and II only B) I, II and IV only C) II, III and IV only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
All pairs are correctly matched: I. Lord Wellesley introduced the Subsidiary Alliance policy (1798); II. Lord William Bentinck abolished Sati via Regulation XVII in 1829; III. Lord Charles Metcalfe removed restrictions on the press via the Press Act of 1835 ('Liberator of the Press'); IV. Lord Ripon issued the Local Self-Government resolution of 1882 ('Father of Local Self-Government').
Q311
General Awareness & ScienceGovernment Schemes and Governance
Which ministry is responsible for the implementation of the Swachh Bharat Mission - Grameen? A) Ministry of Rural Development B) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare C) Ministry of Jal Shakti D) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ministry of Jal Shakti)
Swachh Bharat Mission (Grameen) is implemented by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation under the Ministry of Jal Shakti. (The urban counterpart, SBM-Urban, is implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs).
Q312
General Awareness & ScienceIndian Polity - Reorganisation of States
Arrange the following states in the chronological order of their formation. I. Uttarakhand II. Gujarat III. Haryana IV. Mizoram Choose the correct option: A) III - II - I - IV B) II - III - I - IV C) III - II - IV - I D) II - III - IV - I
💡Correct Answer: Option D (II - III - IV - I)
State formation chronology: Gujarat was formed on May 1, 1960 (from Bombay state); Haryana was formed on November 1, 1966 (from Punjab); Mizoram achieved full statehood on February 20, 1987; Uttarakhand (initially Uttaranchal) was formed on November 9, 2000 (from Uttar Pradesh). Hence, the order is II - III - IV - I.
Q313
Basic EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank with the appropriate article: I am going to _____ concert tomorrow. A) a B) on C) an D) None of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option A (a)
'Concert' begins with a consonant sound (/k/), so the indefinite article 'a' is appropriate when referring to an unspecified concert for the first time.
Q314
Basic EnglishArticles
Fill in the blank with the appropriate article: At _____ equator, sunrise occurs at the same time each day. A) a B) the C) an D) None of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option B (the)
Equator' is a unique geographical feature (there is only one equator on Earth), so the definite article 'the' is mandatory: 'At the equator...
Q315
Environment, Ecology & ForestryEnvironmental Governance and NCAP
Select the correct statements about the Swacch Vayu Survekshan awards, 2025. I. Indore secured first rank with a score of 200 out of 200 in Category-1 (cities having over 10 lakh population). II. Amravati secured first rank in Category-2 (cities having population between 3 and 10 lakh). III. Dewas secured first rank in Category-3 (cities having a population under 3 lakh). A) I only B) I and II only C) II and III only D) All of the above
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change's Swachh Vayu Survekshan (National Clean Air Programme), the first ranks across the three population categories were achieved by Indore (Category 1: >10 lakh), Amravati (Category 2: 3-10 lakh), and Dewas (Category 3: <3 lakh). All three statements are correct.
Q316
Indian Polity & ConstitutionDirective Principles of State Policy
Match the following: Directive Principles: i. Organisation of village panchayats ii. Uniform Civil Code for citizens iii. Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive iv. Promotion of International peace Constitutional Articles: a. Article 44 b. Article 40 c. Article 51 d. Article 50 Choose the correct match:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c)
Under Part IV of the Indian Constitution (Directive Principles of State Policy): - Article 40: Organisation of village panchayats (i-b) - Article 44: Uniform Civil Code for the citizens (ii-a) - Article 50: Separation of judiciary from the executive (iii-d) - Article 51: Promotion of international peace and security (iv-c) Thus, the correct match is i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c.
Q317
Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Rights & Constitutional Amendments
The Right to elementary education was made a Fundamental right under Article-21A through which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (86th Amendment Act)
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A into the Constitution, providing free and compulsory education to all children aged 6 to 14 years as a Fundamental Right. It also amended Article 45 (DPSP) and added clause (k) to Article 51A (Fundamental Duties).
Q318
Indian Polity & ConstitutionFundamental Duties
Consider the following statements about the Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A) and select the INCORRECT statements- I. These Duties were part of the original Constitution adopted in 1950. II. These Duties can always be enforced through Writ jurisdiction in the court of law. III. Promoting Scientific temper and spirit of enquiry is one of the Fundamental Duties.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (I and II only)
Statements I and II are incorrect: - Statement I is INCORRECT: Fundamental Duties were not part of the original 1950 Constitution; they were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee. - Statement II is INCORRECT: Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable; unlike Fundamental Rights, they cannot be enforced directly through writ jurisdiction in the courts. - Statement III is CORRECT: Article 51A(h) states that it is the duty of every citizen to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform. Hence, statements I and II are incorrect.
Q319
Indian Polity & ConstitutionTypes of Democracy
Which of the following statements are correct about Direct democracy and Indirect democracy? I. In Indirect democracy, people themselves vote on every legislation. II. Recall, Initiative and Plebiscite are the instruments of Direct democracy. III. Gram sabhas in the villages are the classic example of the functioning of Direct democracy in India. IV. Direct democracy is also known as Representative democracy, where people elect their representative leaders to make laws.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (II and III only)
- Statement I is FALSE: In direct democracy (not indirect), citizens directly vote on legislation. In indirect democracy, elected representatives vote on laws. - Statement II is TRUE: Referendum, Initiative, Recall, and Plebiscite are the four classic devices of direct democracy. - Statement III is TRUE: Gram Sabhas in India embody direct democracy because all registered adult village electors directly deliberate and decide on village plans and welfare. - Statement IV is FALSE: Indirect democracy (not direct democracy) is known as Representative democracy. Therefore, statements II and III only are correct.
Q320
Indian Polity & ConstitutionElectoral System & Representation of the People Acts
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched- Provisions | Legal/Constitutional Sources I. Conduct of elections of President and Vice President | Representation of the People Act, 1950 II. Disqualifications for contesting elections | Representation of the People Act, 1951 III. Lowering the voting age from 21 to 18 years | 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988
💡Correct Answer: Option C (II and III only)
- Pair I is INCORRECTLY matched: Elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President are regulated by the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952 (not RPA 1950, which deals with seat allocation and electoral rolls). - Pair II is CORRECTLY matched: Disqualifications for contesting elections (criminal conviction, corrupt practices) are prescribed under Sections 8 to 11A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. - Pair III is CORRECTLY matched: The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 amended Article 326 to reduce the minimum voting age from 21 to 18 years. Hence, pairs II and III only are correctly matched.
Q321
Indian Polity & ConstitutionElection Commission of India & Party Symbols
Who has the final authority to issue symbols to the political parties and solve disputes between the factions of a party claiming the same symbol?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Election Commission of India)
Under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 (specifically Paragraph 15), the Election Commission of India (ECI) has the sole and final authority to allot symbols to political parties and to adjudicate disputes between rival sections or factions of a recognized political party claiming the same name and election symbol.
Q322
Indian Polity & ConstitutionPresidential Elections in India
Identify the INCORRECT statements about the Presidential Elections in India- I. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha do not participate in the election of the President, but participate in the impeachment process. II. Elected members of the State Legislative Councils also vote in the Election of the President, if the state has a bicameral legislature. III. According to Article 55(3) of the Indian Constitution, the Presidential Election is conducted by the secret ballot. IV. The value of each MLA's vote is the same across all states to ensure the principle of "One member, One vote".
💡Correct Answer: Option D (II and IV only)
Statements II and IV are INCORRECT: - Statement I is CORRECT: Under Article 54, nominated MPs do not vote in the presidential election; however, under Article 61, nominated MPs do participate in presidential impeachment. - Statement II is INCORRECT: Members of State Legislative Councils (MLCs)—whether elected or nominated—do NOT participate in presidential elections. - Statement III is CORRECT: Article 55(3) mandates proportional representation with single transferable vote and voting by secret ballot. - Statement IV is INCORRECT: The value of an MLA's vote is NOT equal across all states; it is calculated using the formula: (State Population) / (Total Elected MLAs × 1000), meaning MLAs from different states have vastly different vote values (e.g., UP MLA vote value is 208, whereas Sikkim MLA vote value is 7). Therefore, the incorrect statements are II and IV.
Q323
Indian Polity & ConstitutionEighth Schedule Languages
Identify the correct statements about the languages in Schedule Eighth of the Indian Constitution- I. Rajasthani is one of the 22 languages currently included in the Eighth Schedule. II. The languages - Bodo, Dogri and Maithili were added in the Schedule by the 71st Constitutional Amendment Act.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Neither I nor II)
Both statements are false: - Statement I is FALSE: Rajasthani is NOT among the 22 languages recognized in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. - Statement II is FALSE: The 71st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali. The languages Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali (BDMS) were added by the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003. Hence, Neither I nor II is correct.
Q324
Indian Polity & ConstitutionOfficial Language & Linguistic Minorities
Which of the following statements are correct? I. Article 343 of the Indian Constitution designates Hindi in the Devanagari script as the official language of the Union. II. According to Article 350-B of the Indian Constitution, a special officer for Linguistic Minorities is appointed by the President of India.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both I and II)
Both statements are correct: - Statement I is CORRECT: Article 343(1) of the Indian Constitution states: 'The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script.' - Statement II is CORRECT: Article 350-B(1) (inserted by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956) provides that 'There shall be a Special Officer for linguistic minorities to be appointed by the President.'
The Forest Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2023, exempted which of the following projects from the prior approval of the Central government?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Under Section 1A inserted by the Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023 (Van Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan Adhiniyam), prior central forest clearance is exempted for: - Strategic linear projects of national importance within 100 km of international borders, LAC, or LoC. - Security-related infrastructure projects up to 10 hectares. - Defence projects, camps for paramilitary forces, and specified public utility projects up to 5 hectares in Left-Wing Extremism (LWE) affected districts. Since all these categories are explicitly exempted, 'All of the above' is correct.
Q326
Knowledge of Computer ApplicationsE-Governance & IT Integration
A government launches a system where: - Citizens apply for documents online - Applications are automatically verified using databases - SMS/email updates are sent automatically - Officials approve requests digitally - Data is stored centrally and accessed across departments Which of the following best explains the real contribution of Information Technology (IT) in this system?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (IT integrates communication, data processing, storage, and automation)
The workflow illustrates the multifaceted nature of Information Technology: it does not merely digitize paper or provide an internet form, but seamlessly integrates telecommunications (SMS/email updates), automated data processing and verification, centralized enterprise databases, and digital workflow automation into a cohesive government service delivery ecosystem.
About Indian Polity, Constitution & Governance Questions for JKSSB & JKPSC
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