JKSSB Plant Protection Operator / Field Assistant-II / Lab Assistant 2025 Solved Question Paper

Question 1

The minimum germination percentage required for certified seed of wheat is:

Accepted Answer

Option B: 85%. According to the Indian Minimum Seed Certification Standards (IMSCS), certified seed of wheat (Triticum aestivum) must have a minimum germination capacity of 85% and minimum physical purity of 98%.

Question 2

Which of the following is considered the first generation seed in seed certification?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Breeder seed. In the seed multiplication chain, Breeder seed (tagged with a golden yellow tag) is the direct progeny of nucleus seed produced under the supervision of the originating plant breeder, representing the first generation in official seed certification.

Question 3

The process of pollen viability testing commonly uses:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Acetocarmine stain. Acetocarmine (or Alexander's stain / FDA) is the classic nuclear cytological stain used to assess pollen viability; viable pollen grains possessing intact chromatin stain deep pink/red, whereas abortive pollen grains remain shriveled and unstained.

Question 4

Consider the following statements about seed certification:
i. Breeder seed is produced by plant breeder or sponsoring institution
ii. Foundation seed can be used for commercial cultivation
iii. Certified seed maintains 95% genetic purity
iv. Truthfully labeled seed has the highest purity standards
Which of the above statements are correct?

Accepted Answer

Option A: i and iii only. Statements i and iii are correct. Breeder seed is exclusively produced by the plant breeder or agricultural university (i), and certified seed maintains high genetic purity standards (typically 95-99% depending on crop species, iii). Foundation seed is meant for producing certified seed rather than commercial crop production (ii is false), and breeder seed (not truthfully labeled seed) has the highest purity (iv is false).

Question 5

Arrange the following in order of seed production hierarchy (highest to lowest purity):
I. Certified seed
II. Foundation seed
III. Breeder seed
IV. Truthfully labeled seed
Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option A: III, II, I, IV. The seed certification purity hierarchy in Indian seed technology from highest to lowest is: Breeder seed (100% genetic purity) -> Foundation seed (99.5%) -> Certified seed (98-99%) -> Truthfully labeled (TL) seed (Option A: III -> II -> I -> IV).

Question 6

The binomial system of nomenclature was proposed by:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Linnaeus. Carl Linnaeus (Carolus Linnaeus), known as the father of modern taxonomy, introduced the formal binomial system of nomenclature in his seminal work Species Plantarum (1753) and Systema Naturae (1758).

Question 7

The organ of the insect used for detecting smell is:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Antennae. Insect antennae bear high concentrations of microscopic olfactory sensilla (chemoreceptors) that detect airborne chemical pheromones, plant volatiles, and food odors.

Question 8

The ideal preservative solution for soft-bodied insects in museums is:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Ethanol 70%. Soft-bodied insects (such as aphids, thrips, termites, and larvae) are preserved wet in 70% to 75% ethyl alcohol (ethanol), which prevents bacterial decomposition while keeping tissues pliable for microscopic examination.

Question 9

Which of the following statements are true about binomial nomenclature?
i. It consists of genus and species names.
ii. It is governed by international rules.
iii. The first letter of the species is always capitalized.

Accepted Answer

Option A: i and ii only. Statements i and ii are correct. A binomial name consists of the generic name and specific epithet (i), and is governed by international codes (ICBN/ICN, ICZN, ii). Statement iii is false because the species name is always written in lowercase.

Question 10

Match the following entomological tools with their functions:
i. Aspirator
ii. Sweep net
iii. Killing jar
iv. Net trap
1. Capturing flying insects
2. Collecting insects from foliage
3. Instant killing of soft-bodied insects
4. Sucking small insects from surfaces
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1. Entomological collection tool functions:
- Aspirator (i) -> Sucking small insects from surfaces (4)
- Sweep net (ii) -> Collecting insects from foliage (2)
- Killing jar (iii) -> Instant killing of soft-bodied insects using ethyl acetate or cyanide (3)
- Net trap (iv) -> Capturing flying insects (1)
Thus, Option A (i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1) is the correct match.

Question 11

The resolving power of light microscope is approximately:

Accepted Answer

Option B: 0.2 μm. Due to the diffraction limit of visible light wavelength ($d = \frac{0.61\lambda}{NA}$), the theoretical limit of resolution for a standard optical compound light microscope using blue/white light and oil immersion lens (NA = 1.4) is approximately 0.2 μm (200 nm).

Question 12

Which phase of cell cycle is longest?

Accepted Answer

Option A: G1 phase. The G1 (Gap 1 / post-mitotic growth) phase of interphase is the longest and most variable phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle, occupying approximately 40-50% (8 to 12 hours in a 24-hour cycle) of the total cell cycle duration.

Question 13

Crossing over occurs during:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Prophase I. Genetic crossing over (homologous recombination between non-sister chromatids) takes place specifically during the Pachytene sub-stage of Prophase I in meiotic division.

Question 14

The site of photosynthesis in plant cell is:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Chloroplast. Photosynthesis occurs inside chloroplasts, double-membraned plant organelles containing light-harvesting thylakoid discs (for light reactions) embedded in a biochemical stroma matrix (for dark reactions/Calvin cycle).

Question 15

Which plant growth regulator promotes cell division?

Accepted Answer

Option C: Cytokinin. Cytokinins (such as zeatin and kinetin) are phytohormones that actively promote cytokinesis (cell division), shoot organogenesis, delay leaf senescence, and release lateral buds from apical dominance.

Question 16

The light reaction of photosynthesis occurs in:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Thylakoid. The light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis (photolysis of water, electron transport through photosystems, and ATP/NADPH synthesis) are embedded in the thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts.

Question 17

Fluorescence microscopy is used to study:

Accepted Answer

Option D: All of the above. Fluorescence microscopy utilizes fluorophores and antibody immunofluorescence to image living cells (using GFP tags), fixed dead specimens, and specific labeled biomolecules (DNA, proteins, organelles) with high specificity (All of the above).

Question 18

Which organelle is known as powerhouse of cell?

Accepted Answer

Option B: Mitochondria. Mitochondria are universally designated as the 'powerhouses of the cell' because they generate the bulk of cellular chemical energy in the form of ATP via aerobic cellular respiration and oxidative phosphorylation.

Question 19

Which of the following are true about light microscopy?
i. Uses visible light for illumination
ii. Resolution is limited to about 200 nm
iii. Suitable for viewing viruses
iv. Involves glass lenses
Options:

Accepted Answer

Option A: i, ii and iv only. Statements i, ii, and iv are true. Light microscopes use visible light (i), have resolution diffraction-limited to ~200 nm (ii), and focus beams with glass lenses (iv). Viruses range from 20-300 nm and are generally too small to be resolved by conventional light microscopy (iii is false; electron microscopy is required).

Question 20

Match hormone with function:
i. Ethylene
ii. Abscisic acid
iii. Gibberellin
iv. Auxin
1. Stimulates seed germination
2. Promotes fruit ripening
3. Induces dormancy
4. Promotes root initiation
Options:

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4. Phytohormone function pairings:
- Ethylene (i) -> Promotes fruit ripening (2)
- Abscisic acid (ii) -> Induces dormancy and stomatal closure (3)
- Gibberellin (iii) -> Stimulates seed germination and stem elongation (1)
- Auxin (iv) -> Promotes root initiation (adventitious rooting) and apical dominance (4)
Thus, Option A (i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4) is correct.

Question 21

Which of the following are involved in light reactions of photosynthesis?
i. NADP+ reduction
ii. ATP formation
iii. Carbon fixation
iv. Photolysis of water
Options:

Accepted Answer

Option A: i, ii, and iv only. The light reactions of photosynthesis involve the photolysis of water ($2H_2O -> 4H^+ + 4e^- + O_2$), photophosphorylation to generate ATP, and non-cyclic electron flow reducing NADP+ to NADPH (i, ii, iv). Carbon fixation (iii) occurs downstream in the dark reaction (Calvin cycle) within the stroma.

Question 22

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Gibberellins promote seed germination.
Reason (R): They break seed dormancy by promoting amylase production.
Options:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Both A and R are true; R explains A. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and R correctly explains A. During seed imbibition, the embryo releases gibberellins which diffuse to the aleurone layer to induce the de novo transcription and synthesis of hydrolytic enzymes (specifically alpha-amylase) that digest endosperm starch into maltose to nourish the growing embryo.

Question 23

Arrange the following steps of light absorption and electron flow in photosynthesis:
i. Photon absorption by PSII
ii. Electron transport chain
iii. Water splitting
iv. NADP+ reduction
Options:

Accepted Answer

Option B: i, iii, ii, iv. In Z-scheme non-cyclic photophosphorylation, photons are absorbed by antenna pigments of Photosystem II (i), which excites P680; the electron deficit is filled by the oxygen-evolving complex splitting water (iii); high-energy electrons traverse the cytochrome b6f electron transport chain (ii) to PSI, culminating in the reduction of NADP+ to NADPH by ferredoxin-NADP+ reductase (iv).

Question 24

Match plant hormone with its discovery source:
i. Auxin
ii. Gibberellin
iii. Cytokinin
iv. Ethylene
1. Germinating seeds / Coleoptile
2. Rice seedlings
3. Coconut milk
4. Ripening fruits
Options:

Accepted Answer

Option D: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4. Historical discoveries of plant hormones:
- Auxin (i) -> Oat/Canary grass coleoptiles and germinating seeds (Went & Darwin) (1)
- Gibberellin (ii) -> 'Bakanae' foolish seedling disease of rice infected by Gibberella fujikuroi (Kurosawa) (2)
- Cytokinin (iii) -> Coconut milk / yeast extract promoting cell division (Skoog & Miller) (3)
- Ethylene (iv) -> Volatile gas emitted by ripening oranges/fruits (Cousins) (4)
Thus, Option D (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4) is correct.

Question 25

Consider the following statement:
Assertion (A): Mitochondria contain their own DNA.
Reason (R): Mitochondria are involved in protein synthesis.
Options:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Both A and R are true; R does not explain A. Both Assertion and Reason are biologically true, but R is not the correct evolutionary explanation of A. Mitochondria contain their own circular DNA (mtDNA) due to their endosymbiotic bacterial origin, and they synthesize a subset of their own inner membrane proteins using mitochondrial 70S ribosomes.

Question 26

IPM stands for:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Integrated Pest Management. IPM stands for Integrated Pest Management, an ecosystem-based strategy that focuses on long-term prevention of pests and their damage through a combination of techniques such as biological control, habitat manipulation, cultural practices, and use of resistant varieties.

Question 27

Economic Threshold Level (ETL) refers to:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Minimum pest density for control. Economic Threshold Level (ETL) is defined as the pest population density at which control measures should be initiated to prevent an increasing pest population from reaching the Economic Injury Level (EIL), representing the practical action threshold for pest management intervention.

Question 28

Which formulation has highest concentration of active ingredient?

Accepted Answer

Option D: ULV (Ultra Low Volume). Ultra Low Volume (ULV) formulations are technical-grade liquids containing very high concentrations of active ingredient (typically 90% to 100% a.i.) applied undiluted in extremely fine mist droplets.

Question 29

The first step in IPM is:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Monitoring and identification. Regular scouting, systematic field monitoring, and accurate pest and natural enemy identification form the foundational first step of any sound Integrated Pest Management program.

Question 30

Systemic insecticides are absorbed through:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Both leaf and root. Systemic insecticides (e.g. imidacloprid, thiamethoxam) are taken up by plant tissues through both the foliage (cuticular penetration) and the root system (soil application), translocating through xylem vessels throughout the plant.

Question 31

Which pesticide formulation is suitable for aerial application?

Accepted Answer

Option B: ULV. Ultra Low Volume (ULV) formulations are specifically formulated for aerial spraying via aircraft or helicopters, utilizing concentrated liquid sprays applied at less than 5 liters per hectare without requiring bulky water carrier volumes.

Question 32

Which organization regulates pesticide registration in India?

Accepted Answer

Option C: CIBRC. The Central Insecticides Board & Registration Committee (CIBRC), functioning under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare pursuant to the Insecticides Act, 1968, regulates the registration, manufacture, sale, and import of pesticides in India.

Question 33

Pre-harvest interval (PHI) refers to:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Time between spray and harvest. The Pre-Harvest Interval (PHI) is the mandatory statutory waiting period (in days) required between the last application of a pesticide and the safe harvesting of the edible agricultural commodity, ensuring chemical residues fall below Maximum Residue Limits (MRL).

Question 34

Resistance management in pests can be achieved by:

Accepted Answer

Option D: All of the above. Pesticide resistance management (IRM) is achieved by rotating chemical classes with distinct modes of action (MOA), planting non-Bt refuge crops, reducing unnecessary blanket chemical applications, and integrating non-chemical biocontrols (All of the above).

Question 35

Select the correct IPM principles:
i. Monitoring and surveillance
ii. Threshold-based interventions
iii. Blanket pesticide spraying
Options:

Accepted Answer

Option A: i and ii only. Core principles of IPM encompass routine pest monitoring and agro-ecosystem surveillance (i) and intervention only when pest densities exceed economic threshold levels (ii). Blanket calendar-based pesticide spraying (iii) violates IPM principles.

Question 36

Match the pesticide formulations with their types:
i. EC (Emulsifiable Concentrate)
ii. WP (Wettable Powder)
iii. SC (Suspension Concentrate)
iv. GR (Granules)
1. Mixed with water, forms emulsion
2. Applied as dry powder in suspension
3. Fine solid particles in liquid
4. Applied as solid without water
Options:

Accepted Answer

Option A: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4. Pesticide formulation matches:
- EC (Emulsifiable Concentrate) (i) -> Mixed with water, forms milky oil-in-water emulsion (1)
- WP (Wettable Powder) (ii) -> Dry powder forming a suspension when mixed with water (2)
- SC (Suspension Concentrate) (iii) -> Stable suspension of fine insoluble solid active ingredient in a liquid (3)
- GR (Granules) (iv) -> Ready-to-use coarse solid particles applied directly to soil without water (4)
Thus, Option A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4) is correct.

Question 37

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Pesticides in baited pellet form are applied dry.
Reason (R): These formulations require mixing in large volumes of water.
Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option B: A is true, R is false. Assertion (A) is true; baited pellets (e.g. rodenticides, slug baits) are applied dry directly to target foraging zones. Reason (R) is false because baited pellets are ready-to-use formulations that dissolve or spoil if mixed with water.

Question 38

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Excessive pesticide use leads to resistance in pests.
Reason (R): Pesticide rotation reduces the chance of resistance buildup.
Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation. Both statements are factually true. Excessive, repeated spraying exerts intense directional selection pressure favoring rare resistant genotypes (A). Rotating insecticide classes with different modes of action eliminates survivors and curbs resistance buildup (R). However, R is a management solution, not the biological cause of A.

Question 39

Arrange the following in order for IPM implementation:
I. Monitoring pest population
II. Identifying pest threshold
III. Choosing control method
IV. Evaluating effectiveness
Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option A: I -> II -> III -> IV. The proper sequential cycle for implementing Integrated Pest Management is:
1. Regular scouting and monitoring of pest populations (I)
2. Comparing counts against the Economic Threshold Level (II)
3. Selecting the most targeted, least disruptive control tactic (III)
4. Post-treatment evaluation of control effectiveness (IV).
Thus, I -> II -> III -> IV (Option A) is correct.

Question 40

Match the pest control method with example:
i. Mechanical control
ii. Biological control
iii. Chemical control
iv. Cultural control
1. Synthetic pesticides
2. Crop rotation
3. Traps and barriers
4. Parasitoids and predators
Options:

Accepted Answer

Option C: i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2. Pest control classification matches:
- Mechanical control (i) -> Pheromone traps, light traps, and physical barriers (3)
- Biological control (ii) -> Releasing parasitoids (Trichogramma) and predators (ladybird beetles) (4)
- Chemical control (iii) -> Application of synthetic insecticides (1)
- Cultural control (iv) -> Agronomic practices like crop rotation, intercropping, and sanitation (2)
Thus, Option C (i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2) is correct.

Question 41

The economic threshold for cotton bollworm is:

Accepted Answer

Option A: 1 larva per plant. For cotton bollworm (Helicoverpa armigera), the economic threshold level (ETL) is generally considered to be 1 larva per plant (or 5% damaged bolls/squares in cotton field monitoring).

Question 42

Complete metamorphosis includes:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Egg -> Larva -> Pupa -> Adult. Complete metamorphosis (holometabolism) in insects consists of four distinct developmental stages: Egg -> Larva -> Pupa -> Adult (seen in Lepidoptera, Coleoptera, Diptera, and Hymenoptera).

Question 43

The scientific name of rice stem borer is:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Both (A) and (B). Both Scirpophaga incertulas (yellow stem borer) and Chilo suppressalis (striped stem borer) are major rice stem borers worldwide. Nilaparvata lugens is the brown planthopper.

Question 44

Which insect is a predator of aphids?

Accepted Answer

Option D: All of the above. Coccinellids (ladybird beetles like Coccinella septempunctata), Chrysopa (green lacewings), and Syrphid fly larvae (hoverfly maggots) are all voracious natural predators of aphids.

Question 45

The mouthparts of aphids are:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Piercing-sucking type. Aphids belong to the order Hemiptera (suborder Sternorrhyncha) and possess piercing-sucking mouthparts equipped with stylets to pierce plant epidermal tissues and suck phloem sap.

Question 46

Bt toxin is effective against:

Accepted Answer

Option D: All of the above. Endotoxins produced by Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains show insecticidal activity across multiple orders: Cry1 against Lepidoptera, Cry3 against Coleoptera, and Cry4 against Diptera.

Question 47

Select the correct statements about cotton bollworm:
i. Scientific name is Helicoverpa armigera
ii. Economic threshold is 2 larvae per plant
iii. It undergoes incomplete metamorphosis
Options:

Accepted Answer

Option A: i and ii only. Statement i is correct (scientific name is Helicoverpa armigera). Statement ii is accepted in standard agronomic test benchmarks as an economic threshold benchmark range (1-2 larvae per plant). Statement iii is false because Helicoverpa armigera belongs to Lepidoptera and exhibits complete metamorphosis (egg, caterpillar, pupa, adult moth). Thus, statement i and ii only is correct.

Question 48

Parasitoids differ from parasites mainly in:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Killing the host. A parasitoid is distinguished from a true parasite primarily because the parasitoid larva ultimately kills its host as a necessary part of its development, whereas a true parasite rarely kills its host.

Question 49

The most important natural enemy of cotton bollworm is:

Accepted Answer

Option D: All of the above. Key natural enemies of cotton bollworm (Helicoverpa armigera) include Trichogramma chilonis (egg parasitoid), Chrysoperla carnea (larval predator), and Campoletis chlorideae (larval parasitoid). Thus, all of the above are important natural enemies.

Question 50

Match insects with their larval names:
i. Butterfly
ii. Beetle
iii. Fly
iv. Grasshopper
1. Nymph
2. Grub
3. Maggot
4. Caterpillar
Options:

Accepted Answer

Option C: i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1. Correct matches of insects and their immature stages:
- Butterfly (i) -> Caterpillar (4)
- Beetle (ii) -> Grub (2)
- Fly (iii) -> Maggot (3)
- Grasshopper (iv) -> Nymph (1)
Therefore, the correct code is i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1 (Option C).

Question 51

The pest status is determined by:

Accepted Answer

Option D: All of the above. Whether an insect organism attains pest status depends on its population density exceeding equilibrium levels, the extent of economic damage it inflicts on the crop, and disrupted ecological balance (such as loss of natural enemies).

Question 52

Mass production of biocontrol agents requires:

Accepted Answer

Option D: All of the above. Successful mass rearing of biological control agents requires laboratory rearing facilities, appropriate artificial semi-synthetic diets (or natural/factitious host cultures like Corcyra cephalonica) to sustain continuous colonies.

Question 53

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Bt toxin is effective against lepidopteran pests.
Reason (R): Bt toxin specifically targets the gut of caterpillars.
Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation. Bt delta-endotoxin crystal proteins are highly effective against lepidopteran larvae (Assertion A). This is because the alkaline pH of the caterpillar midgut dissolves the crystals, activating endotoxins that bind specific midgut epithelial receptors and lyse the cells (Reason R, correct explanation).

Question 54

The term 'phytophagous' refers to:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Plant feeding. The term 'phytophagous' (from Greek phyton = plant, phagein = to eat) describes herbivorous animals and insects that feed specifically on living plants or plant tissues.

Question 55

Arrange the following biocontrol implementation steps:
I. Mass production of bioagent
II. Field release
III. Laboratory testing
IV. Monitoring effectiveness
Choose the correct option:

Accepted Answer

Option A: III -> I -> II -> IV. The standard sequence of biocontrol program implementation is: Laboratory evaluation and host-specificity testing (III) -> Mass production/multiplication of the bioagent (I) -> Field inundative/inoculative release (II) -> Monitoring post-release effectiveness (IV).

Question 56

The number of wings in honey bee is:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Four. Honey bees belong to the order Hymenoptera and have four wings (two pairs: a forewing pair and a hindwing pair hooked together by hamuli).

Question 57

The life span of worker bee during active season is:

Accepted Answer

Option B: 4-6 weeks. During the active foraging honey-flow season (spring and summer), the life span of an adult worker honey bee is approximately 4 to 6 weeks due to intense physical labor and wing wear.

Question 58

Queen bee is developed from:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Fertilized egg with royal jelly. A queen bee develops from a diploid fertilized egg whose larva is exclusively and continuously fed royal jelly throughout its entire larval developmental duration.

Question 59

The process of bee colony division is called:

Accepted Answer

Option A: Swarming. Swarming is the natural mode of colony reproduction and division where the old queen leaves the overcrowded hive with a large portion of worker bees to establish a new colony.

Question 60

Bee space maintained in hive is:

Accepted Answer

Option B: 6-8 mm. Bee space discovered by L.L. Langstroth is the critical gap between 6 and 9 mm (most commonly 6 to 8 mm, or 7.5 mm) within the hive that bees neither bridge with comb nor seal with propolis.

Question 61

The scientific name of Indian honey bee is:

Accepted Answer

Option B: Apis cerana. The Indian hive bee is scientifically named Apis cerana (subspecies Apis cerana indica). Apis mellifera is the European bee, Apis dorsata is the rock bee, and Apis florea is the little bee.

Question 62

Propolis is collected by bees from:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Plant resins. Propolis (bee glue) is a resinous mixture that honey bees collect from tree buds, sap flows, and plant resins, used as a sealant to fill cracks and sterilize the hive.

Question 63

Which of the following are correct in modern beekeeping?
i. Apis dorsata is commonly domesticated.
ii. Apis mellifera is preferred for commercial beekeeping.
iii. Brood frames should not be disturbed frequently.
iv. Beekeeping helps in pollination and increased crop yield.
Options:

Accepted Answer

Option A: ii, iii, and iv only. Apis dorsata (giant rock bee) is a ferocious wild bee that builds single open combs in high places and cannot be domesticated (statement i is false). Statements ii, iii, and iv are correct modern apiculture practices. Thus, Option A (ii, iii, and iv only) is correct.

Question 64

Drone congregation area is located:

Accepted Answer

Option C: Away from hive. Drone Congregation Areas (DCAs) are specific aerial mating territories located high in the air, typically hundreds of meters to several kilometers away from the parent hive, preventing inbreeding.

Plant Protection Operator / Field Assistant-II / Lab Assistant2025

📝 Solved Questions with Detailed Explanations100% Free • No Login Required

JKSSB — Plant Protection Operator / Field Assistant-II / Lab Assistant (2025)

The minimum germination percentage required for certified seed of wheat is:

Which of the following is considered the first generation seed in seed certification?

The process of pollen viability testing commonly uses:

Arrange the following in order of seed production hierarchy (highest to lowest purity):I. Certified seedII. Foundation seedIII. Breeder seedIV. Truthfully labeled seedChoose the correct option:

The binomial system of nomenclature was proposed by:

The organ of the insect used for detecting smell is:

The ideal preservative solution for soft-bodied insects in museums is:

Which of the following statements are true about binomial nomenclature?i. It consists of genus and species names.ii. It is governed by international rules.iii. The first letter of the species is always capitalized.

The resolving power of light microscope is approximately:

Which phase of cell cycle is longest?

Crossing over occurs during:

The site of photosynthesis in plant cell is:

Which plant growth regulator promotes cell division?

The light reaction of photosynthesis occurs in:

Fluorescence microscopy is used to study:

Which organelle is known as powerhouse of cell?

Which of the following are true about light microscopy?i. Uses visible light for illuminationii. Resolution is limited to about 200 nmiii. Suitable for viewing virusesiv. Involves glass lensesOptions:

Match hormone with function:i. Ethyleneii. Abscisic acidiii. Gibberelliniv. Auxin1. Stimulates seed germination2. Promotes fruit ripening3. Induces dormancy4. Promotes root initiationOptions:

Which of the following are involved in light reactions of photosynthesis?i. NADP+ reductionii. ATP formationiii. Carbon fixationiv. Photolysis of waterOptions:

Consider the following statements:Assertion (A): Gibberellins promote seed germination.Reason (R): They break seed dormancy by promoting amylase production.Options:

Arrange the following steps of light absorption and electron flow in photosynthesis:i. Photon absorption by PSIIii. Electron transport chainiii. Water splittingiv. NADP+ reductionOptions:

Match plant hormone with its discovery source:i. Auxinii. Gibberelliniii. Cytokininiv. Ethylene1. Germinating seeds / Coleoptile2. Rice seedlings3. Coconut milk4. Ripening fruitsOptions:

Consider the following statement:Assertion (A): Mitochondria contain their own DNA.Reason (R): Mitochondria are involved in protein synthesis.Options:

IPM stands for:

Economic Threshold Level (ETL) refers to:

Which formulation has highest concentration of active ingredient?

The first step in IPM is:

Systemic insecticides are absorbed through:

Which pesticide formulation is suitable for aerial application?

Which organization regulates pesticide registration in India?

Pre-harvest interval (PHI) refers to:

Resistance management in pests can be achieved by:

Select the correct IPM principles:i. Monitoring and surveillanceii. Threshold-based interventionsiii. Blanket pesticide sprayingOptions:

Consider the following statements:Assertion (A): Pesticides in baited pellet form are applied dry.Reason (R): These formulations require mixing in large volumes of water.Choose the correct option:

Consider the following statements:Assertion (A): Excessive pesticide use leads to resistance in pests.Reason (R): Pesticide rotation reduces the chance of resistance buildup.Choose the correct option:

Arrange the following in order for IPM implementation:I. Monitoring pest populationII. Identifying pest thresholdIII. Choosing control methodIV. Evaluating effectivenessChoose the correct option:

Match the pest control method with example:i. Mechanical controlii. Biological controliii. Chemical controliv. Cultural control1. Synthetic pesticides2. Crop rotation3. Traps and barriers4. Parasitoids and predatorsOptions:

The economic threshold for cotton bollworm is:

Complete metamorphosis includes:

The scientific name of rice stem borer is:

Which insect is a predator of aphids?

The mouthparts of aphids are:

Bt toxin is effective against:

Select the correct statements about cotton bollworm:i. Scientific name is Helicoverpa armigeraii. Economic threshold is 2 larvae per plantiii. It undergoes incomplete metamorphosisOptions:

Parasitoids differ from parasites mainly in:

The most important natural enemy of cotton bollworm is:

Match insects with their larval names:i. Butterflyii. Beetleiii. Flyiv. Grasshopper1. Nymph2. Grub3. Maggot4. CaterpillarOptions:

The pest status is determined by:

Mass production of biocontrol agents requires:

Consider the following statements:Assertion (A): Bt toxin is effective against lepidopteran pests.Reason (R): Bt toxin specifically targets the gut of caterpillars.Choose the correct option:

The term 'phytophagous' refers to:

Arrange the following biocontrol implementation steps:I. Mass production of bioagentII. Field releaseIII. Laboratory testingIV. Monitoring effectivenessChoose the correct option:

The number of wings in honey bee is:

The life span of worker bee during active season is:

Queen bee is developed from:

The process of bee colony division is called:

Bee space maintained in hive is:

The scientific name of Indian honey bee is:

Propolis is collected by bees from:

Which of the following are correct in modern beekeeping?i. Apis dorsata is commonly domesticated.ii. Apis mellifera is preferred for commercial beekeeping.iii. Brood frames should not be disturbed frequently.iv. Beekeeping helps in pollination and increased crop yield.Options:

Drone congregation area is located:

Match the bee species with their characteristics:i. Apis cerana indicaii. Apis dorsataiii. Apis melliferaiv. Apis florea1. Not suitable for domestication2. Giant honey bee3. High honey yield, imported species4. Smallest bee, open nestingOptions:

The causal organism of late blight of potato is:

Powdery mildew appears as:

Which disease is caused by bacteria?

The causal organism of wheat rust is:

Match the media with their uses:i. Potato dextrose agarii. Nutrient agariii. MacConkey agariv. Blood agar1. Fungal isolation2. Bacterial isolation3. Selective bacterial medium4. Enriched bacterial mediumOptions:

Arrange the following steps of Koch's postulates in correct order:I. Re-isolation of the pathogenII. Isolation in pure cultureIII. Inoculation into a healthy hostIV. Observation of same symptomsOptions:

Crown gall is caused by:

Which medium is used for fungal isolation?

The sexual spores of fungi are called:

Select the bacterial diseases:i. Fire blightii. Crown galliii. Powdery mildewOptions:

Bordeaux mixture contains:

Which disease spreads through seed?

Match the fungal structures with their functions:i. Conidiaii. Ascosporesiii. Hyphaeiv. Sporangia1. Thread-like structures2. Spore-bearing structures3. Asexual spores4. Sexual sporesOptions:

Arrange the disease development stages:I. Symptom expressionII. Pathogen establishmentIII. Initial infectionIV. Spore germinationOptions:

Which stain is used for fungal identification?

Arrange the following in order of seed production hierarchy (highest to lowest purity):
I. Certified seed
II. Foundation seed
III. Breeder seed
IV. Truthfully labeled seed
Choose the correct option:

Which of the following statements are true about binomial nomenclature?
i. It consists of genus and species names.
ii. It is governed by international rules.
iii. The first letter of the species is always capitalized.

Which of the following are true about light microscopy?
i. Uses visible light for illumination
ii. Resolution is limited to about 200 nm
iii. Suitable for viewing viruses
iv. Involves glass lenses
Options:

Match hormone with function:
i. Ethylene
ii. Abscisic acid
iii. Gibberellin
iv. Auxin
1. Stimulates seed germination
2. Promotes fruit ripening
3. Induces dormancy
4. Promotes root initiation
Options:

Which of the following are involved in light reactions of photosynthesis?
i. NADP+ reduction
ii. ATP formation
iii. Carbon fixation
iv. Photolysis of water
Options:

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Gibberellins promote seed germination.
Reason (R): They break seed dormancy by promoting amylase production.
Options:

Arrange the following steps of light absorption and electron flow in photosynthesis:
i. Photon absorption by PSII
ii. Electron transport chain
iii. Water splitting
iv. NADP+ reduction
Options:

Match plant hormone with its discovery source:
i. Auxin
ii. Gibberellin
iii. Cytokinin
iv. Ethylene
1. Germinating seeds / Coleoptile
2. Rice seedlings
3. Coconut milk
4. Ripening fruits
Options:

Consider the following statement:
Assertion (A): Mitochondria contain their own DNA.
Reason (R): Mitochondria are involved in protein synthesis.
Options:

Select the correct IPM principles:
i. Monitoring and surveillance
ii. Threshold-based interventions
iii. Blanket pesticide spraying
Options:

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Pesticides in baited pellet form are applied dry.
Reason (R): These formulations require mixing in large volumes of water.
Choose the correct option:

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Excessive pesticide use leads to resistance in pests.
Reason (R): Pesticide rotation reduces the chance of resistance buildup.
Choose the correct option:

Arrange the following in order for IPM implementation:
I. Monitoring pest population
II. Identifying pest threshold
III. Choosing control method
IV. Evaluating effectiveness
Choose the correct option:

Match the pest control method with example:
i. Mechanical control
ii. Biological control
iii. Chemical control
iv. Cultural control
1. Synthetic pesticides
2. Crop rotation
3. Traps and barriers
4. Parasitoids and predators
Options:

Select the correct statements about cotton bollworm:
i. Scientific name is Helicoverpa armigera
ii. Economic threshold is 2 larvae per plant
iii. It undergoes incomplete metamorphosis
Options:

Match insects with their larval names:
i. Butterfly
ii. Beetle
iii. Fly
iv. Grasshopper
1. Nymph
2. Grub
3. Maggot
4. Caterpillar
Options:

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Bt toxin is effective against lepidopteran pests.
Reason (R): Bt toxin specifically targets the gut of caterpillars.
Choose the correct option:

Arrange the following biocontrol implementation steps:
I. Mass production of bioagent
II. Field release
III. Laboratory testing
IV. Monitoring effectiveness
Choose the correct option:

Which of the following are correct in modern beekeeping?
i. Apis dorsata is commonly domesticated.
ii. Apis mellifera is preferred for commercial beekeeping.
iii. Brood frames should not be disturbed frequently.
iv. Beekeeping helps in pollination and increased crop yield.
Options:

Match the bee species with their characteristics:
i. Apis cerana indica
ii. Apis dorsata
iii. Apis mellifera
iv. Apis florea
1. Not suitable for domestication
2. Giant honey bee
3. High honey yield, imported species
4. Smallest bee, open nesting
Options:

Match the media with their uses:
i. Potato dextrose agar
ii. Nutrient agar
iii. MacConkey agar
iv. Blood agar
1. Fungal isolation
2. Bacterial isolation
3. Selective bacterial medium
4. Enriched bacterial medium
Options:

Arrange the following steps of Koch's postulates in correct order:
I. Re-isolation of the pathogen
II. Isolation in pure culture
III. Inoculation into a healthy host
IV. Observation of same symptoms
Options:

Select the bacterial diseases:
i. Fire blight
ii. Crown gall
iii. Powdery mildew
Options:

Match the fungal structures with their functions:
i. Conidia
ii. Ascospores
iii. Hyphae
iv. Sporangia
1. Thread-like structures
2. Spore-bearing structures
3. Asexual spores
4. Sexual spores
Options:

Arrange the disease development stages:
I. Symptom expression
II. Pathogen establishment
III. Initial infection
IV. Spore germination
Options:

Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Ergot disease affects the inflorescence of cereals.
Reason (R): The fungus replaces the grain with dark sclerotia.
Choose the correct option:

Which of the following are correct regarding composting for mushroom cultivation?
i. Wheat straw is used as the main substrate.
ii. Gypsum is added to improve structure.
iii. Pasteurization is done at 90°C for 1 hour.
iv. Composting is necessary for white button mushroom.
Options:

Arrange the stages in mushroom cultivation in correct order:
I. Casing
II. Spawning
III. Composting
IV. Harvesting
Options:

Match fungicide with its group:
i. Mancozeb
ii. Carbendazim
iii. Hexaconazole
iv. Metalaxyl
1. Triazole
2. Dithiocarbamate
3. Benzimidazole
4. Phenylamide
Options:

Which of the following are correct regarding biofungicides?
i. Trichoderma spp are commonly used as biofungicides.
ii. Biofungicides work through antibiosis, competition, and mycoparasitism.
iii. They are systemic in action.
iv. They are effective even under high disease pressure.
Options:

Arrange the correct sequence for effective spraying:
I. Calibration of sprayer
II. Mixing fungicide in water
III. Identification of target pest
IV. Checking nozzle function
Options:

Arrange the resistance management strategies:
I. Use recommended doses
II. Rotate different fungicide groups
III. Monitor resistance development
IV. Integrate with other control methods
Choose the correct option: