💡Correct Answer: Option D (Which does not change in total during a given period despite changes in output)
Fixed costs are those expenses that remain constant in total amount over a specific range of activity/output during a given period, regardless of volume changes.
Q2
Accountancy & Book KeepingCost Accounting
Calculate the Prime Cost from the following information:
- Direct material purchased: Rs. 1,00,000 - Direct material consumed: Rs. 90,000 - Direct labour: Rs. 60,000 - Direct expenses: Rs. 20,000 - Manufacturing overheads: Rs. 30,000
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rs. 1,70,000)
Prime Cost is the sum of direct costs: Prime Cost = Direct Materials Consumed + Direct Labour + Direct Expenses = Rs. 90,000 + Rs. 60,000 + Rs. 20,000 = Rs. 1,70,000. (Note: Purchased material is not used directly, only consumed material is counted).
Q3
Accountancy & Book KeepingLedger
Suppliers' personal accounts are seen in the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Purchases Ledger)
The Purchases Ledger (or Creditors Ledger) contains the personal accounts of all suppliers from whom goods have been purchased on credit.
Q4
Accountancy & Book KeepingBasic Accounting
Bookkeeping is regarded as the _____ step of accounting.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (First)
Bookkeeping is the recording phase of accounting and constitutes the first step in the accounting process, which is followed by classifying, summarizing, and interpreting.
Q5
Accountancy & Book KeepingAccounting Equation
Which of the following is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (asset = liability + equity)
The fundamental accounting equation is Assets = Liabilities + Capital (Owner's Equity). This represents the balance sheet structure.
Q6
Accountancy & Book KeepingAccounting Concepts
Which concept suggests the exclusion of human resources in the balance sheet?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Money Measurement Concept)
The Money Measurement Concept states that only transactions and events that can be expressed in terms of money should be recorded. Since human resource value cannot be reliably quantified in money, it is excluded from the balance sheet.
Q7
Accountancy & Book KeepingVouchers
Which of the following procedures should an accountant follow while preparing a voucher?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
An accountant preparing a voucher must verify details on supporting bills, check authorization signatures, and determine the correct voucher type (receipt, payment, journal). Thus, all procedures are correct.
Q8
Accountancy & Book KeepingSource Documents
Which of the following business documents is proof of payment for a business transaction?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Receipt)
A Receipt is a written acknowledgment that a specified sum of money has been received, serving as proof of payment.
Q9
Accountancy & Book KeepingBank Reconciliation
In a bank statement, cash deposited by the customer is shown as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (credit)
For the bank, customer deposits are liabilities. Hence, when cash is deposited, the bank credits the customer's account (indicating the bank owes this money back to the customer).
Q10
Accountancy & Book KeepingBank Reconciliation
What is "Deposit in transit" in bank reconciliation?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Added to Bank Balance)
Deposits in transit are funds received and recorded by the company in its cash book but not yet processed and recorded by the bank. In bank reconciliation, these are added to the bank statement balance.
Q11
Accountancy & Book KeepingBank Reconciliation
What type of cheque is that which is issued by a firm but not yet presented to the bank?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Outstanding cheques)
An outstanding cheque (also known as an unpresented cheque) is a cheque that has been written and issued by the firm but has not yet been presented to the bank for payment.
Q12
Accountancy & Book KeepingPFMS
The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) was earlier known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Central Plan Schemes Monitoring System (CPSMS))
The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) was initially launched as a pilot program called the Central Plan Schemes Monitoring System (CPSMS) in 2009 to track funds released under plan schemes.
Q13
Accountancy & Book KeepingSingle Entry System
A statement of financial position produced from incomplete accounting records is commonly known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Statement of affairs)
Under the single entry system (incomplete records), a Statement of Affairs is prepared to estimate the financial position of a business and calculate opening and closing capital.
Q14
Accountancy & Book KeepingPartnership Accounts
What happens when interest on drawings is charged to a partner?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Debited to partner's capital a/c)
Interest on drawings is charged to partners as it is an expense for them. It is debited to the partner's Capital or Current Account, reducing their overall equity balance.
Q15
Accountancy & Book KeepingPartnership Accounts
M and N are two partners sharing profits and losses in a 3:2 ratio. They admit P as a new partner with a 1/5th share. What will be the new profit-sharing ratio?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (12:8:5)
Let total profit = 1. P's share = 1/5. Remaining share = 1 - 1/5 = 4/5. M's new share = 3/5 4/5 = 12/25. N's new share = 2/5 4/5 = 8/25. P's share = 1/5 = 5/25. The new profit-sharing ratio is 12:8:5.
Q16
Accountancy & Book KeepingLedger
The method of transferring items from a journal into their respective ledger accounts is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Posting)
Posting is the process of transferring debits and credits from the journal or other books of original entry to the respective ledger accounts.
Q17
Accountancy & Book KeepingAuditing
When an audit is undertaken to check the financial controls and irregularities in the organization, it is which type of audit?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Internal audit)
An internal audit is conducted within an organization to evaluate risk management, internal controls, and check for any financial irregularities/frauds.
Q18
Accountancy & Book KeepingRatio Analysis
Current Ratio is calculated as:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Current assets / Current liabilities)
Current Ratio is a liquidity ratio that measures a company's ability to cover its short-term obligations. It is calculated as Current Assets divided by Current Liabilities.
Q19
Accountancy & Book KeepingBank Reconciliation
A bank passbook is a copy of:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The customer account in the bank's ledger)
A bank passbook (or bank statement) is a copy of the customer's ledger account maintained in the books of the bank.
Q20
Accountancy & Book KeepingTrial Balance
A trial balance helps to check the accuracy of the:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ledger)
A trial balance is prepared to verify the arithmetical accuracy of postings in the ledger accounts. If the trial balance agrees, it indicates that the ledger accounts are arithmetically correct.
Q21
Accountancy & Book KeepingSingle Entry System
Which of the following entities generally prepare their books of accounts under the single entry system?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Sole traders)
Sole traders and small partnership businesses usually keep their accounts under the single entry system because of its simplicity and lower costs. Companies are legally required to maintain double-entry records.
Q22
Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation
GST is a consumption of goods and service tax based on:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Destination)
GST is a destination-based tax on consumption of goods and services, meaning the tax revenue goes to the consuming state rather than the producing state.
Q23
Accountancy & Book KeepingLeverage
What does financial leverage measure?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The sensibility of EPS w.r.t % change in the EBIT level)
Financial leverage measures the sensitivity of Earnings Per Share (EPS) in response to a percentage change in Earnings Before Interest and Taxes (EBIT).
Q24
Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation
A Finance Bill becomes the Finance Act when it is passed by:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Both House of Parliament and signed by President.)
A Finance Bill becomes the Finance Act after it is passed by both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) and receives the formal assent (signature) of the President of India.
Q25
Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation
Income which accrues or arises outside India & is also received outside India is taxable in the case of:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Resident and Ordinary Resident)
Under Indian income tax law, global income (income accruing/arising and received outside India) is taxable only for individuals who are Resident and Ordinarily Resident (ROR).
Q26
Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation (GST)
Which of the following is/are included in the definition of "Goods" as defined under section 2(52) of the CGST Act, 2017?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Actionable claim)
Section 2(52) of the CGST Act, 2017 defines 'goods' to exclude money and securities but specifically includes actionable claims, growing crops, grass, etc.
Q27
Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation
The amount payable at the time of closure or opting out of the National Pension Scheme referred to in section 80CCD shall be exempt to the extent of _____ of the total amount payable.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (40%)
Under the Income Tax Act, at the time of closure or exit from the NPS, the exemption was initially set to 40% of the total amount payable under Section 10(12A). Although it was later raised to 60%, the question features the legacy 40% value in the options which was marked as the key by JKSSB.
Q28
Accountancy & Book KeepingPartnership Accounts
Goodwill of a firm of X and Y is valued at Rs. 30,000. It is appearing in the books at Rs. 12,000. Z is admitted for a 1/4th share. What amount is Z supposed to bring for goodwill?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (7,500)
The new partner Z must bring goodwill equivalent to their share in the current valued goodwill. Valued Goodwill = Rs. 30,000. Z's share = 1/4 of Rs. 30,000 = Rs. 7,500.
Q29
Accountancy & Book KeepingTaxation
Assertion (A): If the interest is payable outside India, tax must be deducted at source. Reason (R): If tax has not been deducted at source, the amount paid as interest will not be allowed as a deduction in computing business income.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).)
Both are correct. Section 40(a)(i) mandates that if interest is payable outside India, tax must be deducted at source (TDS). If tax is not deducted, the interest expense is disallowed as a deduction, making R the correct explanation of A.
Q30
Accountancy & Book KeepingCost Accounting
From the following information, find out the number of units that must be sold by the firm to earn a profit of Rs. 1,80,000 per year:
- Sales price: Rs. 25 per unit - Variable manufacturing costs: Rs. 12 per unit - Variable selling costs: Rs. 3 per unit - Fixed factory overheads: Rs. 5,00,000 - Fixed selling costs: Rs. 3,00,000
💡Correct Answer: Option C (98,000 units)
Contribution per unit = Selling Price - Total Variable Cost = 25 - (12 + 3) = Rs. 10. Total Fixed Cost = 5,00,000 + 3,00,000 = Rs. 8,00,000. Required Sales Units = (Fixed Costs + Target Profit) / Contribution per unit = (8,00,000 + 1,80,000) / 10 = 9,80,000 / 10 = 98,000 units.
Q31
Elementary MathematicsPartnership
Gautam started a business with a sum of Rs. 60,000/- .Jatin joined him 8 months later with a sum of Rs. 35,000/-. At what respective ratio will the two share the profit after two years?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (18:7)
Gautam invested for 24 months. Jatin invested for 24 - 8 = 16 months. Ratio of profit share = (60000 24) : (35000 16) = (60 24) : (35 16) = 1440 : 560 = 144 : 56 = 18:7.
Q32
🔢 MathPartnership
A, B and C enter into a partnership with a capital in which A's contribution is Rs. 10,000. If out of a total profit of Rs. 1000, A gets Rs. 500 and B gets Rs. 300, then C's capital is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (4000)
Total profit = 1000. A's profit = 500, B's profit = 300. C's profit = 1000 - (500 + 300) = 200. Profit ratio is A:B:C = 500:300:200 = 5:3:2. Since capital ratio equals profit ratio, A's capital (5 parts) = 10,000 => 1 part = 2,000. C's capital (2 parts) = 2 * 2,000 = Rs. 4,000.
Q33
🔢 MathPartnership
If A and B invest in a business in the ratio 7: 6. If 9% of the total profit goes to a flood relief fund and A's share is Rs. 1421, then the total profit is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rs. 2900)
Let total profit be P. Profit after relief fund = 0.91P. A's share = (7 / 13) * 0.91P = 0.49P. Given A's share = 1421 => 0.49P = 1421 => P = 1421 / 0.49 = Rs. 2900.
Q34
🛡️ Occupational Health & SafetyWorkplace Safety Audits
Safety audits help in:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Enhancing occupational health and safety standards)
Safety audits systematically review workplace operations, identify potential hazards, evaluate legal compliance, and enhance occupational health and safety (OHS) performance standards.
Safety audits in industrial units primarily focus on
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Ensuring compliance with safety regulations and protocols)
Industrial safety audits systematically verify whether workplace facilities, machinery, and procedures comply with statutory occupational health and safety regulations and internal hazard prevention protocols.
What explains the financial position of the reporting entity at the end of the accounting period?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Balance sheet)
A Balance Sheet is a financial statement that summarizes an entity's assets, liabilities, and shareholders' equity at a specific point in time to disclose its exact financial position.
What is written evidence in support of a business transaction?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Voucher)
A Voucher is a written document or receipt that acts as documentary evidence in support of an entry recorded in the books of accounts.
Q38
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementClassification of Assets
Trademarks, Copyrights and Patents are classified under ________ assets.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (intangible)
Trademarks, Copyrights, Patents, and Goodwill are Non-Physical / Intangible Fixed Assets because they lack physical substance but confer valuable legal rights.
Q39
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementWorking Capital Management
Current assets minus current liabilities is equal to
💡Correct Answer: Option D (working capital)
Working Capital (specifically Net Working Capital) is the difference between an enterprise's Current Assets and Current Liabilities (Working Capital=Current Assets−Current Liabilities).
Q40
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementTypes of Accounts
Which of the following comes under nominal account?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Commission account)
Nominal Accounts relate to expenses, losses, incomes, and gains (e.g., Commission, Rent, Salaries). Bank is a Personal Account, Furniture is a Real Account.
Q41
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementDebit and Credit Notes
What is the name of the statement sent along with the purchase return?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Debit note)
When goods are returned to a supplier (purchase return), the buyer sends a Debit Note informing the supplier that their account has been debited by the returned amount.
Q42
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementInventory vs Fixed Assets
Which of the following is not an inventory?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Machines)
Inventory includes raw materials, work-in-progress, and finished goods intended for sale. Machines are capital Fixed Assets used for production, not inventory.
The account which shows the classified summary of transactions of a cash book in a non-trading concern is known as
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Receipt and Payment A/c)
In Non-Profit / Non-Trading Organisations, the Receipt and Payment Account is a classified summary of all cash and bank receipts and payments during an accounting period.
Q44
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementBills of Exchange: Inland vs Foreign
Which of the following does not have the features of foreign bills?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (A bill drawn in India and made payable in India)
Under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a bill drawn in India and made payable in India (or drawn on a person resident in India) is an Inland Bill, not a Foreign Bill.
Q45
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementRectification of Errors
Which of the following is not an error of principle?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Cash received from Meena posted to Sharin.)
Posting cash received from Meena to Sharin is an Error of Commission (posting to wrong personal account). An Error of Principle occurs when fundamental capital/revenue accounting rules are violated.
Q46
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementTrial Balance
Which of the following is used for checking the arithmetical accuracy of the account books?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Trial balance)
A Trial Balance is a statement prepared with the debit and credit balances of ledger accounts to verify the arithmetical accuracy of double-entry postings.
When assets are subtracted from liabilities it will be equal to?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Capital)
According to the fundamental accounting equation: Assets−Liabilities=Capital (Owner’s Equity).
Q48
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementCash and Cash Equivalents
A current asset that can be transferred into cash within three months is known as:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Cash equivalent)
Cash Equivalents are short-term, highly liquid investments that are readily convertible to known amounts of cash and subject to an insignificant risk of changes in value (typically maturity ≤3 months).
Q49
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementCorporate Finance & Capital Structure
In the situation of bankruptcy, a stock which is recorded above common stock and below debt account is
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Preferred Stock)
Preferred Stock (Preference Shares) ranks senior to Common Equity Stock for dividend payments and claims upon liquidation/bankruptcy, but is subordinate to debt/bond liabilities.
Q50
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementIncome and Expenditure Account
The amount of 'Subscription received from members' by a Non-profit organisation is shown in which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Credit side of Income and Expenditure Account)
Subscription received is the primary recurring revenue income for a Non-Profit Organisation and is credited to the Credit side (Income side) of the Income and Expenditure Account.
Q51
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementBills of Exchange & Days of Grace
What are the three additional days known as that a drawer gives to the drawee for payment?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Days of grace)
Under Section 22 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, three extra days allowed to the drawee for payment beyond the nominal maturity date are legally called 'Days of Grace'.
Q52
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementCapital vs Revenue Expenditure
Which of the following is revenue expenditure for an office equipment dealer? i) Sales promotion costs ii) Warehouse extension costs iii) Purchase of office equipment for resale iv) Purchase of delivery vehicle for sales department
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i and iii)
For an office equipment dealer, office equipment purchased for resale is trading stock/inventory (revenue expenditure), and sales promotion is an operational selling expense (revenue expenditure). Items (ii) and (iv) are capital expenditures.
Q53
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementCapital vs Revenue Expenditure
Amount spent on increasing the seating capacity in a cinema hall is a
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Capital expenditure)
Expenditure incurred to increase the seating capacity of a cinema hall enhances its future revenue-earning capacity and is therefore treated as Capital Expenditure.
Total amount of depreciation of an asset cannot exceed its
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Depreciable value)
The total cumulative depreciation charged over an asset's useful working life cannot exceed its Depreciable Value (which is Cost minus estimated Residual/Scrap Value).
Q55
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementInventory Valuation: FIFO vs LIFO
In periods of inflation, the impact of change in the method of valuation of inventories from LIFO method to FIFO method will cause:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Increase in profit and decrease in the cost of goods sold)
During inflation, FIFO assigns older (cheaper) costs to Cost of Goods Sold (COGS), resulting in a lower COGS and consequently higher reported net profit and higher closing inventory valuation.
Q56
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementDue Date Calculation of Bills
Due date of a bill of exchange drawn on 30th January 2011 for one month will be
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3rd March 2011)
One month from January 30 in a non-leap year (2011) matures on the last day of February, which is February 28. Adding 3 days of grace yields March 3, 2011.
________ is the last step of accounting as a process of information.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Communication of information)
Accounting is the process of identifying, measuring, recording, classifying, summarizing, analyzing, interpreting, and finally Communicating financial information to users.
The overriding purpose of financial accounting is to summarize financial activity in business in the
💡Correct Answer: Option D (all of the above)
Financial accounting aims to summarize and present an enterprise's complete financial performance and status through the full set of financial statements: Profit & Loss Statement, Balance Sheet, and Cash Flow Statement.
Q59
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementTrade and Cash Discounts
Discounts received are
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Buyer of goods granted discount by seller)
Discounts Received represent financial concessions or cash discounts granted to a buyer of goods by the creditor/seller upon prompt payment.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The time it takes a company to buy goods, sell them and receive cash from the sale of said goods.)
The operating cycle is the duration required for a business to acquire inventory, produce and sell products, and collect cash receivables from customers.
According to the going concern concept, a business entity should assumed to have
💡Correct Answer: Option B (An indefinite life)
The Going Concern Concept assumes that a business will continue its operations for an indefinite period into the foreseeable future and has neither the intention nor necessity of liquidation.
Which of these items will appear on the credit side in the ledger account?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Received a Discount)
Discount Received is an income/gain and has a credit balance, appearing on the credit side of the nominal ledger account.
Q63
📊 Accountancy & Financial ManagementJournal Entries for Abnormal Losses
Stolen merchandise should be debited to:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Loss by theft account)
Loss of stock by theft is an abnormal business loss; the journal entry is: Debit 'Loss by Theft Account' and Credit 'Purchases Account'.
Q64
Accountancy & Financial ManagementNumber Series: Even Differences
Complete the numerical series: 13, 15, 19, 25, 33, ____
💡Correct Answer: Option C (43)
Consecutive differences: 15−13=2, 19−15=4, 25−19=6, 33−25=8. The next difference is +10⟹33+10=43.
Q65
Accountancy & Financial ManagementLetter Series Triplet Shifts
Fill the blank space in the letter series: MAV, NBW, OCX, ____, QEZ
💡Correct Answer: Option A (PDY)
Tri-letter shift: 1st letter: M, N, O, P, Q → P. 2nd letter: A, B, C, D, E → D. 3rd letter: V, W, X, Y, Z → Y. Missing term is PDY.
Q66
Accountancy & Financial ManagementProblems on Trains: Speed Conversion
Two trains A and B traveling at constant speeds cross an electric pole in 20 s and 30 s respectively. The length of train A is 240 m and that of train B is 300 m. What is the difference in the speeds of the two trains in km/h?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (7.2)
Speed of Train A =20 s240 m=12 m/s. Speed of Train B =30 s300 m=10 m/s. Difference =12−10=2 m/s=2×518=536=7.2 km/h.
Anurag is the brother of Samridhi. Joya is the sister of Naina. Samridhi is the daughter of Sarad's father. Naina is the daughter of Rahul, and Joya is the mother of Anurag. Mayank is Naina's only sister's husband. How is Sarad related to Rahul?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Grandson)
Joya is the mother of Anurag, Samridhi, and Sarad. Naina and Joya are daughters of Rahul. Therefore, Sarad is the Grandson (daughter's son / maternal grandson) of Rahul.
Select the correct set of mathematical signs to satisfy the equation: 1678246=108
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($\times - + \div$)
Applying Option C (×−+÷): 16×7−8+(24÷6)=112−8+4=104+4=108.
Q69
Accountancy & Financial ManagementDirection Sense & Shortest Distance
Sandeep walks 15 km North from his home, turns left and walks 6 km, turns left and walks 10 km, and then turns right and walks 4 km to his destination. Find the shortest straight-line distance between his home and the endpoint.
💡Correct Answer: Option C ($5\sqrt{5}\text{ km}$)
Coordinates from origin (0,0): 1. North 15 km to (0, 15) 2. Left (West) 6 km to (-6, 15) 3. Left (South) 10 km to (-6, 5) 4. Right (West) 4 km to (-10, 5) Shortest distance =(−10)2+52=100+25=125=55 km.
Which Venn diagram best represents the relationship among: Women, Cricketer, Singer?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Three mutually overlapping/intersecting circles)
A Woman can be both a Cricketer and a Singer; some Cricketers are Singers, and vice versa. The relationship is accurately depicted by three mutually overlapping intersecting circles.
Q71
Accountancy & Financial ManagementCoding-Decoding: Opposite Letter Pairs
In a certain code DISTANCE is written as WRHGZMXV. How is HUMANITY written in that code?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (SFNZMRGB)
Opposite letter pair coding (sum of positions =27): D-W, I-R, S-H, T-G, A-Z, N-M, C-X, E-V. For HUMANITY: H → S, U → F, M → N, A → Z, N → M, I → R, T → G, Y → B ⟹ SFNZMRGB.
Q72
Accountancy & Financial ManagementAlphanumeric Series
Complete the Letter-Number Series: FP22, HQ25, JR28, ____
💡Correct Answer: Option B (LS31)
Stepwise logic: - 1st letter: F(+2)=H(+2)=J(+2)=L - 2nd letter: P(+1)=Q(+1)=R(+1)=S - Number: 22(+3)=25(+3)=28(+3)=31 The next term is LS31.
Q73
Accountancy & Financial ManagementSyllogisms: Undistributed Middle Term
Statements: I. All bacteria are microorganisms. II. All pathogens are microorganisms. Conclusions: I. Some pathogens are bacteria. II. All pathogens are not bacteria.
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Neither conclusions I nor II are true)
Both premises are universal affirmative (All A are M, All B are M) sharing an undistributed middle term (microorganisms). No definite relationship can be established between pathogens and bacteria. Neither conclusion follows.
Q74
Accountancy & Financial ManagementRanking and Order Test
Sidharth ranks twenty-fifth (25th) from the bottom and ninth (9th) from the top in a class. How many students are there in the class?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (33)
Total students formula N=Rank from Top+Rank from Bottom−1=9+25−1=33.
Q75
Accountancy & Financial ManagementAlpha-Numeric-Symbol Sequence Test
Refer to the series: Q USD 7 & F # 6 T 8 N ! H 3 @ K T * 9 7 % V 4 6 How many symbols are immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3)
Looking for pattern [Letter] [Symbol] [Number]: 1. Q 7(LetterQ,Symbol, Number 7) 2. F # 6 (Letter F, Symbol #, Number 6) 3. T 9 (Letter T, Symbol , Number 9) Total qualifying occurrences = 3.
Correct the following equation by interchanging two mathematical signs: 92×52+(62−4)÷8=208
💡Correct Answer: Option B ($+ \quad \times$)
Interchanging + and ×: 92+52×(62−4)÷8=81+25×(32÷8)=81+25×4=81+100=181 (or balanced to 208 under operator swap).
Q77
Accountancy & Financial ManagementFictitious Word Substitution Coding
If 'Apple' is known as 'Mango', 'Mango' is known as 'Banana', 'Banana' is known as 'Papaya' and 'Papaya' is known as 'Litchi', then what would be the name of the Indian National Fruit?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Banana)
The National Fruit of India is the Mango. According to the substitution code, 'Mango' is called 'Banana'.
A girl is facing South (180∘). She turns 90∘ clockwise, then another 45∘ clockwise, and then 270∘ anti-clockwise. Which direction is she facing now?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (North East)
Initial angle: South =180∘. Clockwise rotation =+90∘+45∘=+135∘. Total clockwise angle =180∘+135∘=315∘ (North-West). Anti-clockwise turn =315∘−270∘=45∘, which corresponds to North-East.
Pointing to a man in the photograph, a woman said, "He is the only grandson of my father's father-in-law and my mother is the only child of my grandfather." How is this man related to that woman?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Brother)
Woman's father's father-in-law is her maternal grandfather. Her mother is the only child of that grandfather. The only grandson of that grandfather is her mother's son, who is the woman's Brother.
Q80
Accountancy & Financial ManagementSpeed, Time & Distance: Early-Late Problems
A man rides on a motorbike at 18 km/h and reaches his office 6 minutes late. The next day he increases his speed to 27 km/h and reaches the office 10 minutes early. How far is the office from his house in km?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (14.4)
Total time difference =6 min late−(−10 min early)=16 minutes=6016 hours. Distance D=∣S1−S2∣S1×S2×Δt=27−1818×27×6016=9486×154=54×154=15216=14.4 km.
An Archaeologist is a scientist who studies Archaeology (antiquities/artifacts); an Ornithologist is a zoological scientist who studies Birds (Ornithology).
In MS Excel, the Accounting number format displays negative numbers enclosed in
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Parentheses (e.g. `(100)`))
The standard Accounting Number Format aligns currency symbols and encloses negative numeric values in Parentheses `( )` instead of a minus sign.
Q85
General Intelligence & ReasoningPartnership & Ratio
A and B invest in a business in the ratio 3 : 2. If 5% of the total profit goes to charity and A's share is Rs. 912, the total profit is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rs. 1600)
Let total profit be P. After 5% charity, distributable profit =0.95P. Ratio of A to B is 3:2, so A's fraction is 53: A’s share=53×0.95P=0.57P=912 P=0.57912=5791200=1600 Rs.
Q86
Basic Electrical Concepts & DC CircuitsDepreciation & Percentages
A bike was bought for Rs 45,000 at a certain discount, and its value depreciates by 8% annually. At the end of the third year, it was written-off at its depreciated value, which is 45% of the bike's original undiscounted price. What is the original undiscounted price of the bike?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (77869)
Depreciated value after 3 years: V3=45000×(1−0.08)3=45000×(0.92)3=45000×0.778688=35040.96 Rs Given V3=0.45×Poriginal: Poriginal=0.4535040.96≈77,868.8≈77,869 Rs.
Q87
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeICD-10 Coding Purpose
International Classification of Diseases, ICD-10 coding is used for:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Identifying diseases and conditions)
WHO's International Classification of Diseases (ICD-10) is the global alphanumeric standard for coding and classifying clinical diagnoses, diseases, and health conditions.
Q88
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeMedical Record Indexing
In a hospital, medical indexing helps to:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Group patients with similar conditions)
Medical indexing (disease, operative, and physician indices) organizes patient charts by standardized diagnostic codes, enabling retrospective research, quality audits, and case grouping.
Q89
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeICD-11 Global Standard
Which version of International Classification of Diseases, ICD is currently in use globally?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (ICD-11)
ICD-11 was officially adopted by the 72nd World Health Assembly and came into global operational effect on January 1, 2022 (while ICD-10 remains widely transitioned).
Q90
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeScope of ICD Classification
International Classification of Diseases, ICD is used to classify which of the following?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
The ICD classifies the entire spectrum of human health encounters: morbidity (diseases, injuries), mortality (underlying causes of death), and health-related social determinants.
Q91
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeICD-11 Additions
Which of the following is a newly added condition in International Classification of Diseases, ICD-11?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Gaming disorder)
Gaming Disorder (persistent pattern of digital gaming behavior causing severe functional impairment) was officially recognized and added as a new mental health condition in ICD-11 (Code 6C51).
Q92
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeICD-11 Diagnostic Codes
A patient is diagnosed with a mental health condition that is classified in International Classification of Diseases, ICD-11 under the code 6A80. What is the condition?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Autism spectrum disorder)
In ICD-11 Chapter 06 (Mental, behavioural or neurodevelopmental disorders), category 6A80 represents Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD).
Q93
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeMR Deficiency Checks
A deficiency check helps to:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Medical record quantitative and qualitative deficiency checks ensure complete physician documentation, signatures, reports, and consistent clinical quality (All of the above).
Q94
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeBasic Probability
A bag contains 5 red balls, 7 green balls, and 8 blue balls. What is the probability of picking a green ball?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (7/20)
Total balls =5+7+8=20. Number of favorable green balls =7. Probability P(Green)=7/20.
Q95
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeSum of Natural Numbers
The sum of the first 50 natural numbers is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1275)
Sum of first n natural numbers =2n(n+1)=250×51=25×51=1275.
Q96
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeProfit and Loss
A trader marks his goods at 40% above cost price and gives a discount of 20%. What is the profit percentage?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (12%)
Let CP=100. Marked Price MP=140. Selling Price SP=140×(1−0.20)=140×0.80=112. Profit %=112−100=12%.
Q97
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeSpeed Distance Time
A train is running at 60 km/hr. How far will it travel in 2.5 hours?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (150 km)
Distance=Speed×Time=60 km/h×2.5 h=150 km.
Q98
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeRatios and Proportions
The ratio of two numbers is 2:3, and their sum is 50. What are the numbers?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (20 and 30)
Let the numbers be 2x and 3x. 2x+3x=50⟹5x=50⟹x=10. The numbers are 2(10)=20 and 3(10)=30.
Q99
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeMensuration Triangle
Find the area of a triangle with a base of 10 cm and a height of 12 cm.
💡Correct Answer: Option A ($60\text{ cm}^2$)
Area=21×base×height=21×10×12=60 cm2.
Q100
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeLetter Series Reasoning
Find the missing term in the series: SCD, TEF, UGH, _______, WKL
💡Correct Answer: Option C (VIJ)
First letters: S, T, U, [V], W (+1). Second letters: C, E, G, [I], K (+2). Third letters: D, F, H, [J], L (+2). Missing cluster is VIJ.
Q101
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeDirection and Shadows Reasoning
One morning Ajay and Vijay were talking to each other face to face at a crossing. If Vijay's shadow was exactly to the left of Ajay, which direction was Ajay facing?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (North)
In the morning, the Sun is in the East, so shadows fall towards the West. If the shadow is to the left of Ajay, Ajay's left is West. Facing North puts West to the left. Therefore, Ajay was facing North.
Q102
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeDirection Sense Test
Rasik walked 20m towards North. Then he turned right and walked 30m. Then he turns right and walks 35m. Then he turns left and walks 15m. Finally, he turns left and walks 15m. In which direction and how many meters is he from the starting position?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (45m East)
North +20m, East +30m, South -35m (net: -15m South, +30m East), East +15m (net: -15m South, +45m East), North +15m (net: 0m North-South, +45m East). Final position: 45m East of origin.
Q103
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeAge Problems
The total of the ages of Amar, Akbar and Anthony is 80 years. What was the total of their ages three years ago?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (71 years)
Three years ago, each of the 3 individuals was 3 years younger: Total age =80−(3×3)=80−9=71 years.
Q104
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeLinear Equations Word Problem
Two bus tickets from city A to B and three tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 77 but three tickets from city A to B and two tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 73. What are the fares for cities B and C from A?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Rs. 13, Rs. 17)
Let fare to B be x and to C be y. Equations: (1) 2x+3y=77, (2) 3x+2y=73. Multiplying (1) by 3 and (2) by 2: 6x+9y=231 and 6x+4y=146. Subtracting: 5y=85⟹y=17. Then 2x+3(17)=77⟹2x+51=77⟹2x=26⟹x=13. Fares are Rs. 13 and Rs. 17.
Q105
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeHospital Inpatient Utilization
What does the bed occupancy rate measure in a hospital?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The percentage of occupied beds during a specific period)
Bed Occupancy Rate (BOR) quantifies the percentage of hospital inpatient beds occupied over a specified observation interval.
Q106
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeNosocomial Infection Rate
What does the infection rate in hospital statistics indicate?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The rate of hospital-acquired infections among patients)
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeReadmission Rate Quality Indicator
What is the significance of hospital readmission rates?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It measures the effectiveness of patient discharge processes and follow-up care.)
The 30-day unplanned hospital readmission rate is a key quality and patient safety indicator reflecting the adequacy of inpatient treatment, post-discharge planning, and outpatient continuity of care.
Q108
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeTurnover Interval Metric
How is the turnover interval in hospital statistics calculated?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Time taken to fill a bed after a patient is discharged)
Turnover Interval (TI) measures the average duration (in days) that an inpatient bed remains empty between the discharge of one patient and the admission of the next: TI=DischargesVacant Bed Days.
Q109
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeHospital Death Rates Calculation
If a hospital reports 120 admissions, 110 discharges, and 10 deaths in a month, what is the gross death rate?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (8.3%)
Gross Death Rate =Total Discharges (including Deaths)Total Inpatient Deaths×100%=110+1010×100%=12010×100%=8.33%.
Q110
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeDaily Census Reporting
In hospital statistics, what does a daily census report typically include?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The total number of inpatients on a specific day)
The daily inpatient census report records the total number of inpatients present in the hospital at midnight, factoring in daily admissions, discharges, deaths, and transfers.
Q111
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeALOS Calculation
A hospital had 500 patient-days in a month with 100 admissions. What is the average length of stay?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (5 days)
Average Length of Stay (ALOS) =Total Admissions/DischargesTotal Patient-Days=100500=5 days.
Q112
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeObstetric Hospital Statistics
What is the live birth rate used to measure in hospital statistics?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The total number of live births in a hospital)
The hospital live birth rate quantifies the total number of live births delivered in the facility per unit time, essential for maternal-neonatal health reporting.
Q113
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeSurgical Site Infection Surveillance
Why is it essential to calculate the surgical site infection rate in a hospital?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To measure hospital-acquired infections related to surgery)
Calculating Surgical Site Infection (SSI) rates is vital for infection control surveillance, measuring aseptic operating theater standards, and minimizing post-operative morbidity.
Q114
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeRTI Act 2005 & Medical Confidentiality
Under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, which of the following statements about medical records is correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Medical records are confidential, and RTI requests for patient records can be denied unless the patient consents or the request is for a public interest matter.)
Under Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act 2005, personal medical records are exempt third-party confidential information and cannot be disclosed unless the patient consents or a larger public interest justifies disclosure.
Q115
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeControlled Substance Documentation
Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, what is a healthcare provider's legal obligation regarding the recording and prescription of controlled substances?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The healthcare provider must document the prescription of controlled substances, including the quantity and the patient's reason for prescription.)
Statutory drug schedules mandate detailed recording of all controlled substances in a dedicated register, including date, patient name/diagnosis, drug formulation, quantity dispensed, and prescriber signature.
Q116
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeMedical Records Indexing Functions
What is the role of indexing in medical records?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To systematically arrange and retrieve records based on specific criteria)
Medical indexing creates structured lookup files (Disease Index, Operation Index, Physician Index) that allow rapid systematic retrieval of patient charts based on diagnosis, surgical procedure, or clinician.
Q117
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudePrincipal Diagnosis Definition
What does the principal diagnosis refer to in coding?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (The condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for admission)
In ICD coding guidelines, the Principal Diagnosis is defined as 'the condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admission of the patient to the hospital'.
Q118
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeICD Alphabetic Index
What is the significance of the alphabetic index in International Classification of Diseases, ICD coding?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (It helps in locating specific diagnostic codes quickly.)
The ICD Alphabetic Index (Volume 2/Index) provides an alphabetical guide of clinical disease terms, syndromes, and eponymous conditions to quickly locate their corresponding tabular codes.
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Assigning a higher-level code than justified by documentation)
Upcoding is the fraudulent practice of assigning a higher diagnostic or procedural billing code than supported by clinical documentation to obtain higher insurance reimbursement.
Q120
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeMR Quantitative Deficiency Analysis
During a deficiency check, which of the following is commonly reviewed?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Signature of the attending physician)
Quantitative deficiency analysis in MRD checks for missing physician signatures, incomplete discharge summaries, unsigned operative notes, and missing informed consent forms.
Q121
ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeMRD Productivity Aptitude
A technician processes 12 charts per hour. How many charts can they process in 8 hours if they take a 1-hour lunch break?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (84)
Effective working hours =8−1=7 hours. Total charts processed =12 charts/hour×7 hours=84 charts.
The Cocktail Party Effect (selective auditory auditory attention in a noisy environment) was experimentally discovered and demonstrated by Colin Cherry in 1953 using dichotic listening tasks.
Q123
Cinematography Fundamentals, History of Photography & OpticsMaster Photojournalism
A 1984 portrait taken by American photojournalist Steve McCurry that was later published as the cover photograph for the June 1985 issue of National Geographic:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Afghan Girl)
Steve McCurry's 1984 photograph of Sharbat Gula, titled 'Afghan Girl', taken in the Nasir Bagh refugee camp in Pakistan, became the world-famous June 1985 cover of National Geographic.
Q124
Medical Records Management & Hospital Information Systems (HMIS)Audit Trails & Forensic Logs
What is the role of "audit trails" in the context of medical record retention?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To track changes, access, and actions performed on medical records for accountability)
An Audit Trail is a chronological, tamper-proof electronic log that records every view, creation, edit, print, or deletion of a patient record along with the exact user ID and timestamp for forensic accountability.
Q125
Information Sources, Reference Services & BibliometricsJournal Impact Factor
What does "impact factor" indicate in journal selection?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Level of influence and quality based on citations)
The Journal Impact Factor (JIF, developed by Eugene Garfield and published in Clarivate's Journal Citation Reports) measures the average citation frequency of articles published in that journal, reflecting its scholarly influence.
Q126
Library Automation, Digital Libraries, Networking & ICT ApplicationsOpen Journal Systems (OJS)
Which of the following are features of 'Open Journal System'? i) License to access content. ii) Access restricted to limited group. iii) Online submission. iv) Subscription module with delayed open access options. Codes:
💡Correct Answer: Option C ((iii) and (iv) are correct.)
Open Journal Systems (OJS by Public Knowledge Project) features online manuscript submission, automated peer-review workflows, and flexible publishing subscription modules with delayed open access options (iii and iv).
Q127
Information Sources, Reference Services & BibliometricsCitation Databases for Journal Impact
Which sources would you consult to know the "Impact Factor" of Journal publications? i) Web of Science ii) Science Direct iii) SCOPUS iv) EBSCO Codes:
💡Correct Answer: Option C ((i) and (iii))
To evaluate journal citation metrics and citation rankings: Journal Impact Factor is published in Clarivate's Web of Science / JCR (i), and CiteScore/SJR metrics are published in Elsevier's Scopus (iii). Correct: (i) and (iii).
Under which program does FSSAI provide a platform for food businesses to verify compliance with food safety standards?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (FSSAI Food Safety Auditing Program)
Under the FSSAI (Food Safety Auditing) Regulations 2018, FSSAI established the Food Safety Auditing Program by recognizing third-party auditing agencies to inspect and verify food safety compliance of FBOs.
Consider the following statements : Which of the following statements are true regarding the "FSSAI Food Safety Auditing" process? 1. Audits are conducted by third-party agencies approved by FSSAI 2. Food safety audits are only required for food manufacturers, not for food outlets 3. Food safety audits focus on compliance with FSSAI regulations regarding food handling, storage, and hygiene 4. Non-compliance with audit findings can lead to penalties, including cancellation of FSSAI licenses Which of the given statements is/are correct :
💡Correct Answer: Option A (1, 3 and 4 are correct)
Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct: Audits are conducted by FSSAI-recognized third-party auditing agencies (1), verify hygiene and sanitary handling (3), and non-compliance can trigger regulatory improvement notices or license suspension (4). Statement 2 is false as audits apply to high-risk catering and retail outlets as well.
Q130
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyTypes of Research Methodology
Consider the following statements about research: i. Descriptive research aims to portray the characteristics of a particular group or situation. ii. Analytical research involves the critical evaluation of available data from primary and secondary sources. iii. Conceptual research is primarily concerned with the practical application of theories. iv. Empirical research relies on observation and experimentation to gather data. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, ii, and iv only)
Statements i, ii, and iv are correct: Descriptive research describes phenomena (i), Analytical research critically evaluates facts (ii), and Empirical research relies on direct experience/data (iv). Statement iii is false because Conceptual research relates to abstract ideas/philosophical theory development, not practical applications (which is Applied research). Correct: i, ii, and iv only.
Q131
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyEvolution of Journalism Mediums
Arrange the following in the correct sequence based on their emergence: i. Print Journalism ii. Radio Journalism iii. Television Journalism iv. Digital Journalism Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, iii, iv)
Chronological evolution of mass journalism mediums: i. Print Journalism (15th–17th century) −> ii. Radio Broadcast Journalism (1920s) −> iii. Television Broadcast Journalism (1940s–1950s) −> iv. Digital / Online Journalism (1990s–present). Correct sequence: i, ii, iii, iv.
Q132
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyCommunication Research Methods
Consider the following statements about communication research methods: i. The experimental method is considered the most objective because it uses control procedures to rule out alternative explanations. ii. Historical research relies heavily on direct observation rather than documents and records. iii. Content analysis is a qualitative technique that does not require quantification of materials. iv. In survey research, the validity of findings depends on how well the sample represents the population. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i and iv)
Statements i and iv are correct: Experimental design uses control groups and manipulation to establish internal validity (i), and Survey research generalizability depends strictly on sample representativeness (iv). (Statement ii is false as historical research relies on primary documents; iii is false as content analysis involves systematic quantitative coding). Correct: i and iv.
Q133
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyScales of Measurement (Ratio Scale)
Which level of measurement allows for the classification, ranking, and comparison of intervals with a true zero point?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ratio)
In statistical scales of measurement (Stevens' Taxonomy): Ratio Scale is the highest level of measurement featuring mutually exclusive categories, inherent ranking/order, equal intervals, and an absolute, non-arbitrary True Zero Point (e.g., height, weight, broadcasting duration).
Q134
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyInteractive Digital Communication
What distinguishes 'interactive communication' in the digital age from traditional mass communication?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It involves immediate and real-time feedback)
Traditional mass communication (print, radio, TV) is predominantly one-to-many and linear with delayed feedback, whereas Digital Interactive Communication is characterized by bi-directional, synchronous, and immediate real-time feedback and user participation.
Q135
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyApplied Research Characteristics
Which of the following is a characteristic of "Applied Research"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It focuses on solving specific practical problems.)
Applied Research is designed specifically to apply existing scientific theories and empirical methodologies toward solving concrete, immediate real-world problems and practical challenges.
Q136
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyIndian Media Milestones Chronology
Arrange the following media development milestones in India in chronological order: i. Establishment of Press Trust of India (PTI) ii. Launch of Doordarshan iii. Introduction of Private FM Radio iv. Digital news revolution (Online journalism growth) Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, iii, iv)
Milestones: i. Press Trust of India (PTI) registered = 1947 (operational 1949) −> ii. Launch of Television / Doordarshan = 15 September 1959 −> iii. Phase-I Private FM Radio privatization = 1999/2001 −> iv. Digital news websites revolution = 2000s–2010s. Correct sequence: i, ii, iii, iv.
Q137
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyOld Media vs New Media
What is one of the key differences between old media and new media?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Old media is primarily print, radio, and TV, while new media includes blogs, vlogs, and online communities)
Old media refers to traditional analogue broadcast and print institutions (newspapers, magazines, terrestrial radio, linear TV), whereas New Media encompasses digital, networked, interactive computer-mediated platforms (blogs, vlogs, podcasts, social networks). Choice C.
Q138
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyOnline Journalism (Hyperlinking)
What is the main advantage of hyperlinking in online media?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (It allows users to access additional information with a single click)
Hyperlinking creates non-linear digital narratives by embedding clickable web links that allow readers to instantly cross-reference primary sources, related articles, background context, and multimedia evidence with a single click.
Q139
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyDigital Journalism Milestones
Arrange the following milestones in digital journalism in chronological order: i. Emergence of blogs as a journalistic tool ii. Rise of social media as a news source iii. Launch of YouTube iv. Growth of digital-only news websites Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i, iii, ii, iv)
Chronological digital milestones: i. Emergence of Weblogs / Citizen Blogs = late 1990s–2001 −> iii. Launch of YouTube = February 2005 −> ii. Rise of Twitter/Facebook as breaking news sources = 2008–2010 −> iv. Proliferation of pure digital-only native newsrooms (Vox, Buzzfeed, Scroll, Wire) = 2012–2015. Correct sequence: i, iii, ii, iv.
Q140
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyResearch Process Steps
Arrange the following steps in the research process in the correct sequence: i. Formulating hypotheses. ii. Collecting and organizing data iii. Defining and redefining problems. iv. Testing conclusions against hypotheses. v. Making deductions and reaching conclusions. Correct Sequence:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (iii, i, ii, v, iv)
Clifford Woody's scientific research sequence: iii. Defining the research problem −> i. Formulating hypotheses −> ii. Collecting and organizing data −> v. Analyzing data, making deductions, and reaching conclusions −> iv. Testing conclusions against hypotheses. Correct sequence: iii, i, ii, v, iv.
Q141
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyExperimental Research Design Steps
Arrange the following steps in the experimental method in the correct sequence: i. Formulate a hypothesis. ii. Manipulate the independent variable. iii. Observe the effect on the dependent variable. iv. Establish causal links between variables. Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i, ii, iii, iv)
Experimental scientific protocol: i. Formulate a directional testable hypothesis −> ii. Systematically manipulate the Independent Variable (IV) −> iii. Measure and observe the resultant effect on the Dependent Variable (DV) −> iv. Statistically establish causal relationships. Correct sequence: i, ii, iii, iv.
Q142
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyLevels of Measurement Matching
Match the following levels of measurement with their characteristics: i. Nominal ii. Ordinal iii. Interval iv. Ratio
Characteristics: 1. Ordered categories with meaningful intervals. 2. Classification without any order or ranking. 3. Ordered categories with equal intervals and a true zero point. 4. Ordered categories without equal intervals.
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3)
i -> 2 (Nominal: categorical naming without rank), ii -> 4 (Ordinal: rank ordered without equal intervals), iii -> 1 (Interval: meaningful equal numerical intervals without absolute zero), iv -> 3 (Ratio: equal intervals with absolute true zero). Correct match: i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3.
Q143
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyMedia Convergence Definition
Which of the following best describes "media convergence" in the context of new media?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (The blending of text, visuals, and sound to create multimedia content)
Media Convergence (as defined by Henry Jenkins) refers to the technological, industrial, and cultural integration where computing, telecommunications, and traditional media blend text, audio, still photography, and video onto unified digital network platforms.
Q144
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyDigital Journalism Challenges
What is one key challenge faced by digital journalists?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Verifying crowdsourced information)
In the fast-paced 24/7 digital news environment, one of the greatest editorial challenges is Verifying Crowdsourced Information, user-generated content (UGC), and viral social media posts to avoid disseminating fake news and deepfakes.
Q145
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyMedia Formats Characteristics
Match the following characteristics with their respective media formats: Characteristic: i. Interactive and real-time ii. One-way communication iii. Limited updates iv. Hyperlink-based information
Media Type: 1. Digital journalism 2. Print media 3. Broadcast media 4. Online media
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4)
i -> 1 (Digital journalism: interactive user comments and live real-time reporting), ii -> 2 (Print media: traditional static one-way printed distribution), iii -> 3 (Broadcast media: fixed hourly programming schedules with limited updates), iv -> 4 (Online media: non-linear hypertext and hyperlinked architecture). Correct match: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
Q146
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyPrimary Sources in Historical Research
Which of the following is a primary source of data in historical research methodology?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Autobiographies)
In historical research, Primary Sources are firsthand, contemporary original records created at the time of the event (such as autobiographies, personal diaries, government archival edicts, letters, and eyewitness interviews). Textbooks and encyclopedias are secondary/tertiary sources.
Q147
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyBasic vs Applied Research
Which of the following best defines "Basic Research"?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Research focused on developing and testing theories without immediate practical application.)
Basic Research (pure or fundamental research) is driven by scientific curiosity and aims to expand theoretical knowledge, discover fundamental laws, and develop conceptual frameworks without immediate commercial or practical application.
Q148
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyResearch Methods Matching
Match the following research methods with their key characteristics: i. Experimental Method ii. Historical Method iii. Content Analysis iv. Survey Research
Characteristics: 1. Focuses on past events and relationships between persons, places, and times. 2. Involves manipulating an independent variable to observe its effect on a dependent variable. 3. Analyzes documents and records to classify and describe content. 4. Uses questionnaires or interviews to collect data from a sample population.
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4)
i -> 2 (Experimental: independent variable manipulation), ii -> 1 (Historical: past events and archival analysis), iii -> 3 (Content analysis: systematic quantitative/qualitative analysis of textual/broadcast records), iv -> 4 (Survey: questionnaires/interviews of sample). Correct match: i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4.
Q149
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyWriting for Online vs Print
How does writing for online media differ from writing for print?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Online writing demands short, concise, and interactive content)
Online media writing differs from traditional print by utilizing scannable inverted pyramid structures, concise sentences, bulleted lists, subheadings, multimedia integration, and hyperlinks tailored for digital screen readers.
Q150
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyDigital Media Terminology Matching
Match the following terms with their correct definitions: Term: i. Blog ii. Vlog iii. SEO iv. Hyperlink
Definition: 1. Video-based storytelling 2. Optimizing content for search engines 3. A written online journal 4. A clickable link to another page
Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4)
i -> 3 (Blog: online weblog/journal), ii -> 1 (Vlog: video blog storytelling), iii -> 2 (SEO: search engine optimization), iv -> 4 (Hyperlink: clickable URL anchor link). Correct match: i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4.
Q151
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyExploratory Research Design
What is the primary objective of "Exploratory Research"?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To generate basic knowledge and clarify issues related to a problem.)
Exploratory Research is conducted when a problem is broad, ambiguous, or in its preliminary stages, aiming to gain initial background insights, clarify research questions, and formulate hypotheses for subsequent study.
Q152
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyDigital vs Print Journalism Comparison
Which of the following statements about the difference between digital and print journalism are correct? i. Digital journalism allows for real-time updates. ii. Print journalism is more interactive than digital journalism. iii. Digital media provides hyperlinking to related content. iv. Print journalism is more suitable for listicles and bullet-point articles. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i and iii only)
Statements i and iii are correct: Digital journalism enables instantaneous live blogging/real-time updates (i) and embeds hyperlinks to primary sources (iii). (Statement ii is false as digital is more interactive; iv is false as listicles are native to digital publishing). Correct: i and iii only.
Q153
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologySearch Engine Optimization (SEO)
Why do online media organizations emphasize Search Engine Optimization (SEO)?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To improve visibility and ranking on search engines)
Search Engine Optimization (SEO) involves optimizing web content, metadata, headlines, and site architecture to achieve higher organic rankings on search engines (Google), driving maximum web traffic and visibility.
Q154
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyResearch Typologies Matching
Match the following types of research with their primary focus: i. Basic Research ii. Applied Research iii. Action Research iv. Conceptual Research
Primary Focus: 1. Immediate problem-solving in a specific setting. 2. Development of theories and intellectual challenges. 3. Practical application of theoretical knowledge. 4. Abstract ideas and reinterpretation of existing concepts.
Choose the correct answer:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4)
i -> 2 (Basic: theoretical knowledge generation), ii -> 3 (Applied: practical application to problems), iii -> 1 (Action: immediate localized practitioner problem-solving), iv -> 4 (Conceptual: philosophical/abstract reinterpretation). Correct match: i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4.
Q155
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyNew Media Storytelling Features
Which of the following is NOT a feature of new media storytelling?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Static content with no updates)
New media storytelling is dynamic, multimedia-rich, participatory, and continually updated in real-time; 'Static content with no updates' is a limitation of traditional legacy print, NOT a feature of new media.
Q156
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyOnline Writing Best Practices
Consider the following statements about online writing: i. It should use short sentences and paragraphs. ii. It must always be written in an academic tone. iii. Headlines should include keywords for search optimization. iv. Interactive elements like videos and graphics enhance engagement. Which of the statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i, iii, and iv)
Statements i, iii, and iv are golden rules of digital online journalism: Scannable short sentences/paragraphs (i), SEO keyword integration in headlines (iii), and multimedia interactive embedding (iv). (Statement ii is false as digital writing favors conversational, accessible language over rigid academic jargon). Correct: i, iii, and iv.
Q157
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyResearch Variables Classification
Which of the following statements about variables is/are correct? i. An independent variable is the outcome that a researcher wishes to explain. ii. A dependent variable is the variable that is manipulated in an experiment. iii. Discrete variables are obtained by counting, while continuous variables are obtained by measuring. iv. Variables can be classified as either independent or dependent based on their role in the research. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (iii and iv only)
Statements iii and iv are correct: Discrete variables take countable whole numbers (e.g. number of viewers), while continuous variables are measured on a continuum (e.g. response time) (iii), and variables are categorized functionally as IV or DV (iv). (Statements i and ii are inverted: IV is manipulated, DV is the outcome measured). Correct: iii and iv only.
Q158
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyClifford Woody Research Definition
According to Clifford Woody, which of the following is NOT a step in the research process?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Applying research findings directly to industrial problems.)
Clifford Woody defines research as defining problems, formulating hypotheses, collecting/evaluating data, making deductions, and carefully testing conclusions. 'Applying research findings directly to industrial problems' without verification is commercial engineering, NOT a step in the research process.
Q159
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyOnline Video Platforms (YouTube)
Which online platform played a significant role in allowing individuals to reach global audiences with multimedia video content?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (YouTube)
YouTube (launched in 2005) democratized video broadcasting by allowing individual creators to upload, stream, and monetize user-generated video content to billions of global viewers worldwide.
Q160
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyDigital Journalism (Listicles)
What is a Listicle in digital journalism?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (A short-form article written in a list format with supporting text)
A Listicle is a popular form of digital journalism and online content where an article is structured around a numbered or bulleted list with concise explanatory text and embedded multimedia.
Q161
Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyPrint to Digital Media Transition
What is the primary reason print organizations initially failed when moving to digital platforms?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (They posted entire newspapers online without adapting content for digital readers)
Early legacy print publishers suffered from 'shovelware' practices—merely uploading static digital replicas (PDFs/unaltered print articles) of print editions without optimizing for online scannability, search engine indexing, hyperlinking, and multimedia interaction.
Q162
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsFront Office Cashiering
A person who handles money, post charges & oversees guest account settlement at the front desk is:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (A cashier)
The Front Office Cashier (Cashier) is responsible for opening guest folios, receiving payments (cash/credit card), posting departmental vouchers, exchanging foreign currency, and executing final account settlements during guest checkout.
Which among these is generally NOT an accepted mode of settlement of bill for a walk-in / direct Free Independent Traveler (FIT) guest without prior corporate credit approval?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Cheque)
Hotels generally do NOT accept personal Cheques from individual FIT guests at checkout due to the high risk of dishonor/bouncing without prior bank credit clearance. (Cash, approved credit cards, and verified TAVs are accepted).
Q164
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsPayment Systems (Debit Card)
A card that allows customers to access their bank funds immediately and electronically for payment is a:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Debit card)
A Debit Card directly deducts money electronically from the cardholder's linked bank checking/savings account in real time at the point of sale (unlike a credit card which borrows funds up to a credit limit).
Q165
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsFront Office Vouchers
A written statement or a documentary evidence of a financial transaction used in front office accounting is a:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Voucher)
A Voucher is a written or digital source document that provides verifiable documentary evidence that a financial charge, transaction, paid-out, or adjustment took place (e.g. restaurant bill voucher, laundry voucher).
It refers to the cash payments made by a hotel front desk on behalf of resident guests for outside services (such as taxi fares, postage, or medicine delivery):
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Visitor's paid out)
A Visitor's Paid Out (VPO / Paid-Out) occurs when the front desk cashier pays cash out of the cashier's float on behalf of a guest for emergency cash needs or external merchant services, debiting the amount to the guest's folio.
Q167
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsGuest Ledger Balance Formula
Choose the correct formula for calculating the net outstanding balance on a guest folio account:
In hospitality accounting: Net Outstanding Balance=Previous/Opening Balance+Debit Entries (New Charges)−Credit Entries (Payments/Allowances). Choice D.
An airline issues a _______ to its flight crew to be accommodated in a contracted hotel:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Meal & accommodation order)
A Meal and Accommodation Order (MAO) is an official voucher issued by an airline authorizing contracted hotels to provide standard lodging and meal services to flight cockpit and cabin crews at agreed corporate rates.
Q169
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsMiscellaneous Charge Voucher
A voucher for non-room ancillary charges, such as laundry, health club, fitness centre, beauty salon is a:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Miscellaneous voucher)
A Miscellaneous Charge Voucher (MCV / Miscellaneous Voucher) is used to record and post miscellaneous ancillary department charges (laundry, spa, fitness center, salon, banquet extras) to a guest folio.
It refers to the maximum upper limit of credit extended by a hotel to an individual guest:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (House limit)
The House Limit (Credit Limit) is the maximum monetary debt ceiling set by hotel management up to which a resident guest may charge goods and services to their room folio without making an interim settlement.
Q171
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsLedger Accounting in Hotels
A collection of the same type of accounts in front office accounting is called a:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Ledger)
A Ledger is a financial master book or database containing a collection of accounts of the same type; in hotel front office accounting, the two primary ledgers are the Guest Ledger (in-house resident guests) and the City Ledger (non-resident and corporate accounts).
Q172
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsTypes of Front Office Folios
Which among these is NOT a recognized standard type of folio in front office accounting?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Room folio)
Standard front office folios include: Guest Folio (individual accounts), Master Folio (group/corporate shared bills), Non-Guest / Semi-permanent Folio (city ledger club members), and Employee Folio. 'Room folio' is not a separate formal category (it is part of the guest folio).
Q173
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsGuest Folio Statement
It is a detailed statement of all financial transactions (debits and credits) that take place between a hotel and a resident guest during their stay:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Guest folio)
A Guest Folio (Guest Bill) is the formal statement of account that continuously records all financial transactions, room tariffs, taxes, restaurant charges, and payments between an individual registered guest and the hotel.
Q174
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsEmployee Folio Accounting
A folio that contains the credit transactions between a hotel and its internal staff/employees is an:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Employee folio)
An Employee Folio is a designated internal account used to track authorized credit purchases, uniform charges, staff dining debits, and salary deductions of hotel employees.
Q175
Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementNight Audit (End of the Day)
The arbitrary cutoff time that marks the end of financial transactions for a particular business day in hotel night auditing is:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (End of the day)
The 'End of the Day' (or End of Day - EOD) is the official accounting cutoff point declared by the Night Auditor, after which the accounting system rolls over to the next calendar date and daily financial ledgers are balanced.
Q176
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsGuest Billing Status (PIA)
Guests who pay cash for accommodation at registration and are typically not extended in-house charge privileges at restaurants and bars are called:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Paid-in advance guest (PIA))
A Paid-In-Advance (PIA) guest is a guest who pays cash upfront upon arrival and does not provide a valid credit card pre-authorization; their folio is flagged to prevent charging room service or dining to the room account.
Q177
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsFront Office Posting Process
The process of recording financial transactions (debits or credits) on a guest folio is called:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Posting)
Posting is the fundamental accounting process of entering, updating, and recording financial transaction charges (room rent, restaurant bills, laundry) and payments directly onto an active guest folio.
Q178
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsCash Float / Cash Bank
An amount of cash assigned to a cashier so that he or she can handle change and small currency transactions during a particular work shift is the:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Cash bank)
A Cash Bank (or Cash Float / Bank) is a specific, predetermined amount of working cash currency assigned to a front desk cashier at the start of each work shift to provide change to guests.
A _______ occurs when a cashier pays out more cash than he/she receives, such that there is not enough cash in the drawer to restore the initial float bank:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Due back)
A 'Due Back' occurs when a cashier pays out more cash (via guest paid-outs, cash advances, or large change returns on foreign currency) than received in cash payments, requiring the hotel accounting vault to refund cash back to replenish the cashier's float.
Q180
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsCash Shortages and Overages
A _______ occurs when the physical cash counted in the cash drawer at the end of a shift is less than the net cash receipts indicated on the shift summary report:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Shortages)
A Cash Shortage occurs when the actual physical currency in the cash register is less than the net balance calculated from transaction receipts (if physical cash exceeds receipts, it is an Overage).
Q181
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsMethods of Settlement in Hotels
Which of the following is a method of payment generally used in a hotel front office?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of these)
Hotel front office operations accept multiple approved settlement methods: Legal tender currency (Cash), Electronic credit/debit cards, Direct corporate billing (Bill to Company / BTC), and Travelers Cheques ⟹ All of these. Choice D.
Q182
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsZeroing Out Folios
To settle in full the balance of a folio account to zero as the guest checks out is called to:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Zero out)
To 'Zero Out' an account means to bring the net outstanding balance of a guest folio exactly to zero (0.00) at checkout through final payment collection or credit transfer before closing the account.
City ledger accounts that remain unpaid and overdue for more than 90 days are considered as:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Delinquent account)
In account aging analysis, corporate or credit card receivables that exceed standard credit terms and remain unpaid beyond 90 days past due are officially categorized as Delinquent Accounts, requiring collection measures.
A front office transcript which is used to record the day's transactional activity for non-guest accounts in the city ledger is a:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Supplemental transcript)
While the Daily Transcript records guest ledger transactions for in-house resident guests, the Supplemental Transcript is specifically used during the audit to record daily transactional charges and credits posted to Non-Guest City Ledger accounts.
Q185
Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementSemi-Automated Audit Reports
Forms produced in a semi-automated audit system that includes the front office cash report and night audit summary report is sometimes called a:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (D card)
In classical semi-automated NCR/tabular front office audit systems, summary management auditing reports and cash balancing sheets are designated under standardized card indexing (e.g. D-Card / Daily Report Form).
Which of the following statement/statements DOES NOT involve in front office internal control procedure?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (None of the above (All are internal control procedures))
Internal accounting control in front office operations fundamentally encompasses all listed procedures: tracking all source vouchers, verifying billing entries against receipts, cross-checking cashier balances, and identifying system vulnerabilities ⟹ All are involved. Option D.
Q187
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsTransfer Vouchers
A voucher that supports the reduction in balance on the originating folio and an equivalent increase in balance on the destination folio is a:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Transfer voucher)
A Transfer Voucher is an accounting source document that authorizes and validates the transfer of an outstanding charge or balance from one guest folio (originating folio) to another folio or city ledger account (destination folio).
Consider the following statements regarding the functions of the Night Audit: 1) Balancing of front office accounts 2) Monitoring guest credit limits (house limit) 3) Producing operational and managerial reports 4) To make hotel reservations Which of the following statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 2 & 3)
The primary responsibilities of the Night Auditor include: balancing all departmental financial accounts (1), monitoring credit ceilings and high balances against house limits (2), and generating the Daily Operations Report for executive management (3). (Making reservations is a reservations department function). Correct: 1, 2 & 3 (Choice B).
A type of accounting error which occurs when numbers related to a transaction are reversed (for example, entering 54 instead of 45) is called a:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Transposition error)
A Transposition Error is an accounting entry mistake that occurs when two adjacent digits in a number are accidentally reversed or swapped (e.g., writing ₹54.00 as ₹45.00), identifiable because the discrepancy is always evenly divisible by 9.
Q190
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsAllowances vs Corrections
After the first night of his 3-night stay, Mr. Gupta complained about the noise from the lounge below his room. The front desk agent assigned Mr. Gupta another room for rest of his stay and decreased his folio by INR 1500/- as compensation for the inconvenience. This type of transaction is called an:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (account allowance)
An Account Allowance (Allowance Voucher) is a financial credit adjustment that reduces a guest's outstanding folio balance to compensate for poor service, inconvenience, or management goodwill (Account Correction fixes an erroneous posting made on the current day).
Q191
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsLate Charges in Front Office
A transaction requiring posting to a guest account that does not reach the front desk for posting until after the guest has checked out and closed his or her account is a:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Late charge)
A Late Charge is an ancillary departmental charge (e.g. breakfast taken right before checkout or minibar consumption) that arrives at the front desk after the guest has already settled their bill and checked out, charged to the city ledger for recovery.
Which among these approaches is used to establish room rates in hotels?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of these)
Hospitality management utilizes three primary room pricing methodologies: 1. Market Condition Approach (competitive benchmarking), 2. Hubbart Formula (bottom-up cost pricing based on target ROI), and 3. Rule-of-Thumb Approach (₹1 per ₹1,000 of construction cost per room) ⟹ All of these. Choice D.
Which of the following is typically considered the most important managerial outcome of the front office night audit?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Daily operations report)
The Daily Operations Report (also known as the Manager's Report) is the single most critical strategic output of the night audit, summarizing occupancy %, ADR, RevPAR, food & beverage sales, and departmental revenues for the General Manager.
Q194
Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementDaily Operations Report
The daily operations report is also known as the:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Manager's report)
In hotel management, the comprehensive Daily Operations Report generated at the conclusion of the night audit is standardly referred to as the Manager's Report.
Q195
Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementHubbart Formula Pricing
It is considered the bottom-up approach to pricing hotel rooms:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Hubbart formula)
The Hubbart Formula is a Bottom-Up pricing model that begins with the hotel owner's desired net return on investment (ROI), adds operating expenses and non-room departmental profits, and calculates the average room rate needed to cover total costs.
Q196
Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementNight Audit Standard Sequence
Arrange the following in chronological order as per the standard sequence of the night audit: 1) Complete outstanding postings 2) Prepare required reports 3) Post room rates and taxes 4) Verify room rates and status Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (1, 4, 3, 2)
Standard Night Audit Sequence: 1. Complete all outstanding departmental postings and vouchers −> 4. Verify room rates, housekeeping discrepancies, and occupancy status −> 3. Post room tariffs and applicable taxes automatically to all folios −> 2. Generate daily operational, revenue, and management reports (1, 4, 3, 2). Choice C.
An organized flow of source documents detailing each step in the processing of a transaction is an:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (Audit trail)
An Audit Trail is the systematic, sequential chronological record of source vouchers, system logs, register tapes, and electronic timestamps that allows auditors to trace every financial transaction from origin to final general ledger posting.
Q198
Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementNo-Show Billing Verification
In posting no-show charges to a client, the night auditor must be careful to verify:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (All of the above)
Before levying and billing a No-Show Billing Penalty, the night auditor must rigorously confirm: 1. The booking was genuinely guaranteed (credit card/deposit), 2. The guest did not arrive or check in under an alias, and 3. No duplicate cancellation or rebooking occurred ⟹ All of the above. Choice D.
Q199
Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementHospitality Operating Ratios
The number of rooms occupied by more than one guest divided by the total number of rooms occupied by guests is the:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Multiple occupancy %)
Multiple Occupancy Percentage formula: Multiple Occupancy %=Total Number of Rooms Occupied by GuestsNumber of Rooms Occupied by More than One Guest×100. Choice A.
Q200
Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementHospitality KPI (RevPAR)
Full form of RevPAR is:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Revenue Per available room)
RevPAR stands for Revenue Per Available Room—a foundational key performance indicator (KPI) calculated as: RevPAR=Occupancy Rate×Average Daily Rate (ADR)=Total Available RoomsTotal Room Revenue.
Q201
Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementHospitality Financial Ratios
A group of statistical ratios that assist in the analysis of hospitality operational performance are:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Operating ratios)
Operating Ratios (including Occupancy Percentage, Average Daily Rate, RevPAR, Yield Percentage, and Cost Per Occupied Room) provide comprehensive analytical benchmarks for evaluating the operational efficiency and profitability of a hotel.
The maximum share of the market that can be occupied by a hotel in its competitive set is the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (market potential)
Market Potential is the maximum possible demand, market share, or room night sales that an individual lodging property could theoretically capture within its defined competitive market.
Q204
Night Audit Operations, Hospitality Ratios & Yield ManagementMultiple Occupancy Calculation
The Leela convention hotel has 750 rooms. At 70% occupancy, 375 of the 525 rooms sold are normally occupied by more than one person. The multiple occupancy % would be:
💡Correct Answer: Option D (71.4%)
Given: Total rooms =750. Occupied rooms sold =70% of 750=525 rooms. Rooms with multiple occupancy =375. Multiple Occupancy %=525375×100=71.428%≈71.4%. Choice D.
The mathematical difference between the hotel's Potential Average Double Rate and Potential Average Single Rate is the:
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Rate spread)
Rate Spread is defined as the monetary difference between the potential average double rate and the potential average single rate: Rate Spread=Potential Average Double Rate−Potential Average Single Rate.
Which of these is a low demand tactic used in hotel revenue management?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Options A, B, C)
During periods of low occupancy/demand, revenue managers deploy yield tactics including: removing minimum length-of-stay restrictions (A), designing discounted value packages and promotions (B), and encouraging room upgrades to stimulate booking volume ⟹ Options A, B, C. Choice D.
Q208
Front Office Accounting, Folios, Billing & Financial ControlsForeign Exchange Regulations in Hotels
Which of the following statements regarding foreign currency exchange in Indian hotels are correct? 1. Foreign currency exchange can be only extended to resident guests of the hotel 2. Foreign exchange encashment certificate may or may not be made, depending on the guest. 3. Exchange is done only in local currency (INR) 4. The hotel must have the license (RBI Full-Fledged Money Changer / Authorized Dealer) to exchange foreign currency. Choose the correct option:
💡Correct Answer: Option B (1, 3, 4)
Under RBI foreign exchange regulations for hotels: Foreign currency exchange is restricted to resident in-house guests (1), currency must be disbursed in local Indian Rupees (3), and the hotel must hold a valid RBI FFMC license (4). (Encashment certificates are mandatory, not optional). Correct: 1, 3, 4 (Choice B).
Q209
Basic Mathematics & Quantitative AptitudePartnership Business Math
G is an active partner and H is an inactive partner in business. G puts in Rs. 5000 and H puts in Rs. 6000. G received 15% of the profit for managing the business and the rest is divided in proportion to their capitals. The amount received by G out of the total profit of Rs. 880 is:
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Rs. 472)
Total profit =Rs. 880. G's management fee =15% of 880=0.15×880=Rs. 132. Remaining profit to distribute =880−132=Rs. 748. Capital ratio G:H=5000:6000=5:6 (total parts =11). G's share from remaining profit =115×748=5×68=Rs. 340. Total amount received by G =132+340=Rs. 472. Choice A.
Q210
History of Photography & Indian PhotographersIndian Photojournalism
_________ was one of the first on the scene capturing the aftermath of the gas leak from Union Carbide's pesticide plant in Bhopal, India, 1984
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Raghu Rai)
Legendary photojournalist Raghu Rai (an associate of Henri Cartier-Bresson and Magnum Photos member) rushed to Bhopal immediately after the catastrophic toxic gas leak on the night of December 2–3, 1984. His haunting, world-renowned photographic documentation exposed the corporate negligence and human tragedy in his seminal book 'Exposure: A Corporate Crime'.
Q211
History of Photography & Indian PhotographersIndian Photojournalism
Who is the Father of Indian photojournalism?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (T S Satyan)
T. S. Satyan (Tambarahalli Subramanya Satyan, 1923–2009) is universally revered as the 'Father of Indian Photojournalism'. He pioneered compassionate, human-interest feature photo-essays for 'The Illustrated Weekly of India', 'Life', and UNICEF over five decades.
Q212
History of Photography & Indian PhotographersVisual Narrative & Photojournalism
What term refers to capturing the emotional essence of a story or event through images?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Photographic storytelling)
Photographic storytelling (narrative visual storytelling) is the deliberate art of conveying a compelling narrative, emotional resonance, and meaning through a single powerful photograph or a cohesive series of images.
Q213
History of Photography & Indian PhotographersMasterpieces of Photojournalism
Who photographed the famous picture 'The Afghan Girl'?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (Steve McCurry)
Magnum photographer Steve McCurry photographed the iconic portrait of Sharbat Gula (the 'Afghan Girl' with piercing green eyes) in December 1984 at the Nasir Bagh refugee camp in Pakistan, which became the celebrated June 1985 cover of National Geographic.
Q214
Quantitative Aptitude & MathematicsPartnership
Nirmal and Dharam started a business investing Rs. 9,000 and Rs. 12,000 respectively. After 6 months, Dharam withdrew half of his investment. If after a year, the total profit was Rs. 4,800, what is Dharam’s share in the profit?
💡Correct Answer: Option D (Rs. 2,400)
Calculate equivalent monthly capital investments: - Nirmal: 9000×12=108,000 - Dharam: 12000×6+6000×6=72,000+36,000=108,000 Ratio of profit sharing = 108,000:108,000=1:1. Dharam's share = 21×4800=Rs. 2400.
Q215
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingSociology of News & Journalism
Consider the following statements about news and journalism: i. News is a cultural discourse that exists in relation to other institutions and discourses. ii. Mainstream journalism treats news as a commodity to be bought and sold. iii. Public relations journalism focuses on reaping profits rather than advancing causes. iv. News agencies are the primary source of revenue for newspapers. Which of the statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (i and ii)
Statements i and ii are correct in sociological media studies. News is socially constructed cultural discourse and commercial mainstream journalism packages news as a market commodity. Statement iii is false (PR focuses on persuasion and institutional advocacy), and Statement iv is false (advertising is the primary revenue source for newspapers; news agencies are a content expenditure).
Q216
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingDigital Journalism Features
Consider the following statements about digital journalism: i. Digital journalism competes with traditional media by offering faster and crisper content. ii. Web journalists focus solely on textual content and avoid multimedia elements. iii. Long-form journalism is absent in digital media. iv. Digital journalism allows for real-time updates and audience interaction. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i and iv)
Statements i and iv are correct. Digital journalism thrives on immediacy, speed, real-time live reporting, hyperlinking, and two-way audience interaction. Statements ii and iii are false because web journalism heavily integrates multimedia (podcasts, video, infographics) and extensive long-form interactive journalism.
Q217
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingHistory of Indian Advertising
Consider the following statements about the evolution of advertising in India: i. James Augustus Hickey started the first newspaper in India, which included trade and legal notices. ii. Lintas advertising agency launched Dalda, the first major example of branding in India. iii. The first TV commercial in India was aired on Doordarshan in 1976. iv. The Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI) was established in 1985. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, ii, and iv)
Hickey's Bengal Gazette (1780) carried early advertisements. Lintas spearheaded the iconic Dalda marketing blitz, creating India's first mass-branded consumer good. ASCI was established in 1985 as a self-regulatory body.
Q218
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingDefinition and Construction of News
According to the text, what is 'news' primarily considered to be? A) The event itself B) The written, audio, or visual construction of an event C) A factual account of an event without any interpretation D) A direct representation of reality
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The written, audio, or visual construction of an event)
In media theory and journalism studies, news is not the raw unmediated event itself, but rather a structured linguistic, textual, audio, or visual 'construction' of selected events produced through gatekeeping, news values, and framing.
Q219
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingMedia Forms & Functions
Match the following terms with their descriptions: i. Journalism ii. Print Media iii. Radio and Television iv. Editorials Descriptions: 1. Mass media 2. Conveying information with accuracy 3. Focus on interpretation of news 4. Written communication for a mass audience Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3)
Matching: - Journalism: Conveying truthful, factual information with accuracy (i-2). - Print Media: Written news communication distributed to mass readers (ii-4). - Radio and Television: Broadcast mass media (iii-1). - Editorials: Opinion columns focusing on perspective and interpretation of news (iv-3).
Q220
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingVisual Storytelling in Digital Media
What is the primary purpose of using visuals in new media storytelling? A) To replace textual content entirely B) To enhance engagement and provide a sensory experience C) To reduce the need for hyperlinks D) To limit the audience's understanding of the topic
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To enhance engagement and provide a sensory experience)
In digital and multimedia journalism, incorporating interactive graphics, video, and photos enriches narrative immersion, heightens audience engagement, and provides an engaging sensory experience.
Q221
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingRole of News Agencies (Wire Services)
Which of the following best describes the role of news agencies in mainstream journalism? A) They provide free news stories to all media outlets B) They are the primary source of revenue for newspapers C) They supply news stories and visuals to reduce news-gathering costs D) They focus on investigative journalism
💡Correct Answer: Option C (They supply news stories and visuals to reduce news-gathering costs)
News agencies (wire services like PTI, UNI, Reuters, AP) employ vast networks of correspondents and sell syndicated wire copy and imagery to newspapers and broadcasters, substantially lowering individual media houses' news-gathering operational costs.
Q222
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingMedia Convergence Definition
In the context of digital communication, "convergence" refers to: A) The blending of traditional and digital media platforms B) The decline of print media industries C) The separation of different media industries D) A method of encoding and decoding messages
💡Correct Answer: Option A (The blending of traditional and digital media platforms)
Media convergence refers to the merging and blending of previously separate mass media technologies (print, audio, video, telecommunications) onto single digital and internet platforms.
Q223
Communication Models, Theories & Media SystemsGatekeeping Theory in Journalism
In mass communication, 'gatekeeping' refers to: A) The audience's control over content B) The process of filtering information C) The transmission of messages D) Feedback from receivers
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The process of filtering information)
Coined by Kurt Lewin and applied to journalism by David Manning White, 'Gatekeeping' refers to the filtering process through which information is selected, shaped, edited, or rejected by media gatekeepers before dissemination to the public.
Q224
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingNew Media Characteristics
Which of the following is a key characteristic of new media? A) One-way communication B) High interactivity C) Limited audience engagement D) Fixed content with no updates
💡Correct Answer: Option B (High interactivity)
High interactivity is the hallmark defining characteristic of new media, empowering users to actively manipulate, comment upon, share, and produce content in real time.
Q225
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingPublic Relations Journalism
What is the primary objective of journalism when it is used as public relations? A) To maximize profits B) To advance causes, perspectives, or fight an 'infowar' C) To provide unbiased reporting D) To entertain the audience
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To advance causes, perspectives, or fight an 'infowar')
When journalism practices are co-opted for corporate, political, or institutional public relations (advocacy journalism / sponsored PR content), the primary objective shifts from objective neutrality to actively advancing institutional agendas, promoting specific viewpoints, or combating rival narratives in an information war.
Q226
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingSocial Responsibility of Journalism
What is the primary role of journalism in society? A) To entertain the audience B) To inform, interpret, and educate the public C) To promote political agendas D) To provide advertisements
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To inform, interpret, and educate the public)
The fundamental normative function of journalism in a democratic society is to inform citizens with truthful reporting, interpret complex societal issues, and educate the public to facilitate self-governance and democratic participation.
Q227
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingAdvertorials & Ethics in Journalism
A newspaper publishes a feature article about a new product launch, presenting it as a news story without disclosing that it was paid for by the company. What is this practice most commonly referred to as? A) Investigative journalism B) Public relations C) Advertorial D) Editorial independence
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Advertorial)
An 'Advertorial' (paid news / native advertising) is an advertisement formatted to deliberately mimic the editorial layout and objective tone of an authentic news story without explicit disclosure to readers.
Q228
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingFunctions of Journalism
Consider the following statements about journalism: i. Journalism's main function is to inform the public. ii. Journalism only focuses on news stories and does not interpret events. iii. Mass communication in journalism involves communication with a large audience. iv. Print media serves a complementary role to radio and television in news dissemination. Which of the following statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, iii, and iv)
Statements i, iii, and iv are correct. Journalism informs, addresses mass audiences, and print complements broadcast media through depth and permanence. Statement ii is false because interpretive reporting, editorial analysis, and investigative contextualization are core pillars of journalism.
Q229
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingHistory of Indian Journalism Themes
Arrange the following themes of Indian journalism in chronological order: i. Political freedom and social reforms ii. Nation-building post-independence iii. Efforts to strengthen the press after 1947 iv. Emergence of the 'Kesari' newspaper Which of the following is the correct chronological order?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (iv, i, iii, ii)
Chronological progression of Indian journalistic eras: 1. Emergence of Kesari (founded by Bal Gangadhar Tilak in 1881) (iv) 2. Freedom movement and social reform journalism (early 20th century) (i) 3. Post-1947 Press commissions and statutory bodies (First Press Commission 1952-54, Press Council) (iii) 4. Post-independence developmental nation-building journalism (1950s-1970s) (ii).
Q230
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingThe Press Terminology
Which term best defines journalism as the oldest medium of communication? A) Fourth Estate B) Mass Media C) Press D) Information Dissemination
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Press)
The term 'Press' (referring to the mechanical printing press) historically designates journalism in its original and oldest mass medium incarnation, derived from the printed word.
Q231
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingPrimary Purpose of Advertising
Which of the following is the primary purpose of advertising? A) To entertain the audience B) To sell products, services, or ideas C) To provide free samples to consumers D) To reduce production costs
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To sell products, services, or ideas)
The fundamental definition and primary commercial purpose of advertising is to persuade, inform, and influence a target audience to purchase products, adopt services, or embrace specific ideas.
Q232
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingWriting for Digital Media
Which of the following is a key feature of writing for online media? A) Long, detailed paragraphs with complex phrasing B) Use of passive voice and indirect language C) Short sentences, active voice, and concise writing D) Avoidance of subheads and bullet points
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Short sentences, active voice, and concise writing)
Digital web readers scan in an F-pattern. Online journalism guidelines prioritize scannability: short sentences, active voice, concise paragraphs, bold bullet points, and prominent subheadings.
Q233
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingHyperlinks in Online Journalism
What is the primary advantage of using hyperlinks in new media storytelling? A) It limits the reader's access to additional information. B) It allows readers to explore related content and gain a broader perspective. C) It reduces the need for visuals in online content. D) It ensures that readers stay on a single webpage.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It allows readers to explore related content and gain a broader perspective.)
Hyperlinking creates non-linear narrative depth, allowing digital news readers to instantly navigate to background context, primary sources, archived stories, and related perspectives.
Q234
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingLimitations of Advertising
What is one of the key limitations of advertising? A) It guarantees repeat sales for all products. B) It is a two-way communication process. C) It cannot compel consumers to buy a product. D) It always reduces the price of the product.
💡Correct Answer: Option C (It cannot compel consumers to buy a product.)
While advertising can inform, build brand awareness, and create desire, it cannot physically force or compel an individual consumer to purchase a product; buying decisions depend on price, quality, personal preference, and purchasing power.
Q235
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingNew Media Characteristics
Which of the following is a defining characteristic of new media compared to traditional media? A) Static representation of information B) Limited interactivity and one-way communication C) Dynamic, interactive, and fast-moving content D) Reliance on print and broadcast formats
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dynamic, interactive, and fast-moving content)
New media is distinguished by dynamic digital malleability, continuous real-time updates, multi-directional user interactivity, and rapid information distribution across decentralized networks.
Q236
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingNew Media Dynamics
Consider the following statements about new media: i. New media relies on digital computer technology for content distribution. ii. Traditional media is more interactive than new media. iii. New media allows users to produce, distribute, and consume content simultaneously. iv. Print media is faster in delivering real-time updates compared to new media. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option B (i and iii)
Statements i and iii are correct. New media operates on digital microprocessing/IP networks and breaks down the barrier between audience and creator, turning users into 'prosumers'. Statements ii and iv are false (new media is infinitely more interactive and delivers instantaneous live updates compared to daily print editions).
Q237
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingEvolution of Public Relations
Consider the following statements about the evolution of public relations: i. The British government in India established the Central Bureau of Public Information in 1923. ii. The House of Tata's started its public relations department in 1945. iii. The Soviet Union and the Communist International established PR organs during World War I. iv. The primary goal of corporate PR during the 1930s Depression was to increase advertising revenue. Which of the statements are correct?
💡Correct Answer: Option C (i, ii, and iii only)
Statements i, ii, and iii are historically accurate: - Central Bureau of Public Information was established by the British Indian Government in 1923 (headed by J. Coatman). - Tata established India's first dedicated corporate public relations division in 1945 under Mina Kharas. - Post-1917 Bolshevik Russia institutionalized international state agitprop/PR organs. Statement iv is false because corporate PR during the Great Depression was launched to rebuild shattered public trust in big corporations and defend the free enterprise system, not to generate ad revenue.
Q238
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingHistory of Corporate Public Relations
What was the primary reason for the rise of corporate public relations during the 1930s Depression in the United States? A) To increase product sales through advertising B) To counteract public distrust of business and government C) To promote international trade relations D) To expand the use of mass media for entertainment
💡Correct Answer: Option B (To counteract public distrust of business and government)
Following the 1929 stock market crash and the Great Depression, big corporations faced severe public hostility, suspicion, and regulatory scrutiny. Corporate PR emerged dynamically to rehabilitate business credibility and counteract public distrust.
Q239
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingKeywords & Search Engine Optimization
What is the primary role of keywords in online content? A) To confuse search engines and reduce visibility B) To make the content longer and more detailed C) To improve search engine optimization and attract readers D) To replace the need for visuals in online articles
💡Correct Answer: Option C (To improve search engine optimization and attract readers)
In Search Engine Optimization (SEO), keywords align content with users' search queries, assisting web crawlers in indexing pages accurately and driving organic organic search traffic to articles.
Q240
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingHypertext & Nonlinear Storytelling
What is the primary advantage of using hyperlinks in new media storytelling? A) It limits the reader's access to additional information. B) It allows readers to explore related content and gain a broader perspective. C) It reduces the need for visuals in online content. D) It ensures that readers stay on a single webpage.
💡Correct Answer: Option B (It allows readers to explore related content and gain a broader perspective.)
Hyperlinks empower digital readers to engage in non-linear reading, jumping directly to primary source documents, interactive charts, and related perspectives to build comprehensive subject context.
Q241
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingNew Media Characteristics
Which of the following is a defining characteristic of new media compared to traditional media? A) Static representation of information B) Limited interactivity and one-way communication C) Dynamic, interactive, and fast-moving content D) Reliance on print and broadcast formats
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Dynamic, interactive, and fast-moving content)
New media platforms (websites, mobile applications, social networks) are intrinsically characterized by interactive feedback loops, rapid multimedia updating, non-linear navigation, and user participation.
Q242
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingEarliest Indian Corporate PR Venture
Which of the following was the earliest known public relations venture by Indian industry? A) The establishment of the Public Information Bureau (PIB) in 1923 B) The publicity campaign by the Great Indian Peninsular Railway in 1920 C) The formation of the House of Tata's PR department in 1945 D) The British government's use of PR during World War II
💡Correct Answer: Option B (The publicity campaign by the Great Indian Peninsular Railway in 1920)
In the history of Indian public relations, the Great Indian Peninsular (GIP) Railway launched the first institutional corporate publicity campaign in 1920, opening a publicity bureau in London and using cinema vans and posters to stimulate tourist travel in India.
Q243
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingPR History Chronology
Arrange the following events in the evolution of public relations in chronological order: i. Establishment of the Central Bureau of Public Information in India ii. Publicity campaign by the Great Indian Peninsular Railway iii. Rise of corporate PR during the 1930s Depression in the United States iv. Formation of the House of Tata's PR department Which of the following is the correct chronological order?
💡Correct Answer: Option A (ii, i, iii, iv)
Chronology of PR milestones: 1. Great Indian Peninsular Railway publicity campaign: 1920 (ii) 2. Central Bureau of Public Information established: 1923 (i) 3. Rise of corporate PR during Great Depression in US: 1930s (iii) 4. Formation of Tata PR division: 1945 (iv).
Q244
Journalism, Digital Media, PR & AdvertisingHeadline Writing for Digital Media
Which of the following is a recommended practice for writing headlines in online media? A) Use euphemisms and wordplay to intrigue readers B) Make headlines long and indirect to create suspense C) Ensure headlines are direct, concise, and include relevant keywords D) Avoid using keywords to maintain originality
💡Correct Answer: Option C (Ensure headlines are direct, concise, and include relevant keywords)
In digital journalism and web writing, best practices mandate that headlines should be clear, direct, informative, concise (under 60-70 characters for search engines), and incorporate primary SEO search keywords.
Q245
EconomicsNational Income Accounting
Suppose, GDP in India in FY 2023-24 is 6,00,000 and we also assume the following: Mr. P, an Indian citizen, works in Tokyo and earns 50,000. Mr. Q, an Australian citizen, works in Mumbai and earns 30,000. Mrs. R, an Indian citizen, owns a restaurant in UK which she rents to a British family for 25,000. Mrs. S, a German citizen, owns a factory in New Delhi which she rents to an Indian firm for 60,000. Given above, GNP in India in FY 2023-24 will be: A) 5,85,000 B) 6,45,000 C) 4,80,000 D) 5,30,000
💡Correct Answer: Option A (5,85,000)
GNP = GDP + Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA). Factor income earned by Indian residents abroad: Mr. P (50,000) + Mrs. R (25,000) = 75,000. Factor income earned by non-residents in India: Mr. Q (30,000) + Mrs. S (60,000) = 90,000. NFIA = 75,000 - 90,000 = -15,000. Therefore, GNP = 6,00,000 + (-15,000) = 5,85,000.
Q246
EconomicsNational Income Accounting
Suppose the GDP at Market Price of a country in 2024 was 1000 crores. The values of Net factor income from abroad was 100 crores, net factor income paid to abroad was 50 crores, net indirect taxes were 100 crores and the national income was 700 crores. Calculate the total value of depreciation. A) 250 crores B) 450 crores C) 1850 crores D) 300 crores
💡Correct Answer: Option A (250 crores)
National Income is NNP_FC = 700 crores. GDP_MP = 1000 crores. NFIA = Factor income from abroad (100) - Factor income paid to abroad (50) = 50 crores. GNP_MP = GDP_MP + NFIA = 1000 + 50 = 1050 crores. GNP_FC = GNP_MP - Net Indirect Taxes = 1050 - 100 = 950 crores. Since NNP_FC = GNP_FC - Depreciation, we have 700 = 950 - Depreciation => Depreciation = 950 - 700 = 250 crores.
Q247
Basic MathematicsProfit, Loss and Partnerships
A company divides its total investment of Rs. 12,00,000 among three projects A, B and C in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. After one year: Project A gives a return of 10% profit Project B gives a return of 20% profit Project C incurs a 10% loss What is the overall percentage gain or loss of the company? A) 3% loss B) 3% profit C) 3.6% profit D) 3.6% loss
💡Correct Answer: Option B (3% profit)
Total parts = 2 + 3 + 5 = 10 parts. Net return = (2 × (+10%) + 3 × (+20%) + 5 × (-10%)) / 10 = (20 + 60 - 50) / 10 = +30 / 10 = +3%. Since the value is positive, the company made an overall 3% profit.
About Accountancy & Book Keeping Questions for JKSSB & JKPSC
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