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J&K General KnowledgeGeneral Knowledge with special reference to UT of J&K

J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019

Comprehensive legal and administrative framework of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 (Act No. 34 of 2019), detailing the bifurcation of the state into the UT of J&K and UT of Ladakh, provisions of the Lieutenant Governor, Legislative Assembly seat distribution, High Court jurisdiction, and repeal of state laws.

SOLVED MCQS
145
PAPERS APPEARED
67 / 122
FREQUENCY RATE
55%
AVG / EXAM
2.2
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📝 Solved Questions on J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 (145)

Start Timed Test (145 Qs)Self-Paced Practice
1📚General Knowledge with special ref to J&K UTReorganisation Act
As per J & K reorganisation Act, 2019, UT created without legislature is:
Explanation
Under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, J&K was made a Union Territory with a legislature, whereas Ladakh was created as a Union Territory without a legislature.
جموں و کشمیر تنظیم نو ایکٹ 2019 کے تحت، لداخ (Ladakh) کو بغیر قانون ساز اسمبلی (legislature) کے یونین ٹیریٹری بنایا گیا، جبکہ جے اینڈ کے میں اسمبلی رکھی گئی۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
2📚Classical Mechanics & DynamicsForensic Administration
The Directorate of Forensic Science Services was bifurcated from BPR & D based on the recommendations of

i. Malimath Committee
ii. Padmanabhaiah Committee
iii. National Human Rights Commission
Explanation
The bifurcation of the Directorate of Forensic Science Services (DFSS) from the Bureau of Police Research & Development (BPR&D) in 2002 was based on the recommendations of the Padmanabhaiah Committee on Police Reforms and the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC).
ڈائریکٹوریٹ آف فارنسک سائنس سروسز (DFSS) کو 2002 میں بی پی آر اینڈ ڈی سے الگ کرنا پدمنبھیا کمیٹی اور نیشنل ہیومن رائٹس کمیشن (NHRC) کی سفارشات پر مبنی تھا۔
2024JKSSBHome Department (Forensic Science Laboratory)
3📚Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsLaw of Evidence
What does the term cross-examination mean?
Explanation
Under Section 137 of the Indian Evidence Act, the examination of a witness by the adverse (opposite) party is called cross-examination.
انڈین ایویڈنس ایکٹ کی دفعہ 137 کے مطابق، مخالف فریق کی جانب سے گواہ سے کی جانے والی جرح کو کراس ایگزامینیشن (cross-examination) کہا جاتا ہے۔
2024JKSSBHome Department (Forensic Science Laboratory)
4📚Inorganic Chemistry & Coordination CompoundsForensic Law
Under what section of Indian Evidence Act is the discretion on the admissibility of evidence defined.
Explanation
Section 136 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, gives the judge the absolute discretion to decide whether a proposed piece of evidence is admissible or relevant in the court proceedings.
انڈین ایویڈینس ایکٹ کی دفعہ 136 جج کو یہ صوابدیدی اختیار دیتی ہے کہ وہ طے کرے کہ کوئی ثبوت عدالت میں پیش کرنے کے قابل (admissible) ہے یا نہیں۔
2024JKSSBHome Department (Forensic Science Laboratory)
5📚Organic ChemistryJ&K History & Polity
On which date J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 came into force?
Explanation
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, which reconstituted the state into two Union Territories (J&K and Ladakh), was passed on August 5, 2019, and officially came into force on October 31, 2019.
جموں و کشمیر تنظیمِ نو ایکٹ 2019، جس کے تحت ریاست کو دو مرکزی علاقوں (جموں و کشمیر اور لداخ) میں تقسیم کیا گیا تھا، 31 اکتوبر 2019 کو باضابطہ طور پر لاگو ہوا۔
2023JKSSBForest Ecology and Environment Department
6📚Physical ChemistryJ&K Polity
As per the J&K Reorganization Act 2019, the UT of Ladakh comprises of which of the following territories of the state of J&K?
Explanation
Under the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Ladakh comprises the districts of Kargil and Leh.
جموں و کشمیر تنظیمِ نو ایکٹ 2019 کے تحت، لداخ (UT) کے رقبے میں کارگل اور لیہہ اضلاع (Kargil and Leh Districts) شامل ہیں۔
2023JKSSBForest Ecology and Environment Department
7📚General Awareness & Current AffairsLanguages of India
Bodo language is spoken mainly in which state of India?
Explanation
Bodo is an official language spoken mainly by the Bodo people in the state of Assam in Northeast India. It is also listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
بوڈو (Bodo) زبان بنیادی طور پر ہندوستان کی شمال مشرقی ریاست آسام میں بولی جاتی ہے۔ یہ آئین ہند کے آٹھویں شیڈول میں شامل ہے۔
2024JKSSBHome Department (Police)
8📚General Awareness & Current AffairsJ&K History
Arrange the following events in chronological order:

i. Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act 2019.
ii. Sadar-i-Riyasat re-designated as Governor.
iii. Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir adopted.
iv. Article 370 grants special status to Jammu and Kashmir.
Choose the correct option.
Explanation
The chronological order is: iv) Article 370 drafted/enacted (1949), iii) J&K Constitution adopted (November 17, 1956), ii) Sadar-i-Riyasat re-designated as Governor (1965), and i) J&K Reorganisation Act (2019). This corresponds to: iv, iii, ii, i.
واقعات کی تاریخی ترتیب مندرجہ ذیل ہے: (iv) آرٹیکل 370 کا نفاذ (1949)، (iii) جموں و کشمیر کا آئین اپنانا (1956)، (ii) صدرِ ریاست کا عہدہ تبدیل کر کے گورنر بنانا (1965)، اور (i) جموں و کشمیر تنظیمِ نو ایکٹ (2019)۔ یہ ترتیب iv, iii, ii, i بنتی ہے۔
2024JKSSBHome Department (Police)
9📚General Awareness & ScienceJ&K Geography
Which is the largest city in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
Srinagar is the largest city in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Leh is located in the UT of Ladakh.
سرینگر جموں و کشمیر کے وفاقی زیرِ انتظام علاقے (UT) کا سب سے بڑا شہر ہے۔ لیہ (Leh) لداخ کے علاقے میں واقع ہے۔
2024JKSSBHome Department (Police)
10📚⚖️ LawReorganisation Act 2019
Which clause / section of the J&K Reorganization Act 2019 deals with the Appropriation of Bills?
Explanation
Section 43 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 deals with the Appropriation Bills of the Union Territory.
جموں و کشمیر تنظیمِ نو ایکٹ 2019 کا سیکشن 43 اسمبلی میں بلوں کی منظوری اور تخصیص (Appropriation Bills) سے متعلق ہے۔
2023JKSSBInformation Technology Department
11📚RCC & Structural MechanicsConstruction Management
Match the construction management term with its correct description:
1. Critical Path - d. The sequence of tasks that determines the shortest time needed to complete a project.
2. Gantt Chart - b. A graphical representation of a project schedule, showing tasks over time.
3. Change Order - c. A formal request to modify project scope, schedule, or resources.
4. Punch List - a. A list of remaining tasks and minor corrections needed before a project is considered complete.
Choose the correctly matched option:
Explanation
The correct matches are: Critical Path corresponds to (d); Gantt Chart corresponds to (b) showing tasks against time; Change Order corresponds to (c) to alter scope; Punch list corresponds to (a) listing minor corrections. This yields 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a.
درست جوڑ: کریٹیکل پاتھ (1-d)، گینٹ چارٹ (2-b)، چینج آرڈر (3-c) اور پنچ لسٹ (4-a) ہے۔ اس لیے آپشن C درست جواب ہے۔
2023JKSSBJal Shakti / PW(R&B) Department
12📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActAccident Duties & M.V. Act
What you do when any property of a third party is damaged due to an accident
Explanation
Under Section 134(b) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, the driver of the vehicle must report the accident and any damage caused to third-party property to the nearest police station within 24 hours.
موٹر وہیکل ایکٹ 1988 کی دفعہ 134(ب) کے تحت، حادثے کی صورت میں اگر کسی تیسرے فریق کی املاک کو نقصان پہنچے، تو ڈرائیور کو 24 گھنٹے کے اندر قریبی پولیس اسٹیشن میں رپورٹ کرنی چاہیے۔
2023JKSSBState Motor Garages Department
13📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
Under which Section of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 was the Union Territory of Ladakh created without a Legislature?
Explanation
Section 3 of the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 provides for the creation of the Union Territory of Ladakh without a legislature, while Section 4 provides for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir with a legislature.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
14📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeography of J&K
Which is the highest mountain peak located entirely within the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir (excluding POK)?
Explanation
Nun Peak (7,135 meters) is the highest peak in the Suru Valley/Kargil-Kashmir region that is located on the Indian side of the Line of Control, part of the Nun Kun massif.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
15📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KIndian Polity & Constitution
How many Schedules were originally present in the Constitution of India when it was adopted in 1949?
Explanation
The Constitution of India originally had 8 schedules when adopted in 1949. Currently, there are 12 schedules in the Indian Constitution.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
16📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KGeography of J&K
What is the summer capital of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
Srinagar is the summer capital, and Jammu is the winter capital of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
17📚General EnglishGeography of J&K
How many administrative districts are there currently in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
Following the creation of the Union Territory of Ladakh (consisting of Leh and Kargil), the UT of J&K is left with exactly 20 administrative districts.
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
18📚🛡️ Disaster ManagementState Disaster Management Authorities
State Disaster Management Authority is headed by
Explanation
Under Section 14(1) of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA) is headed by the Chief Minister of the State as its ex-officio Chairperson (or Lieutenant Governor in UTs).
اسٹیٹ ڈیزاسٹر مینجمنٹ اتھارٹی (SDMA) کا سربراہ ریاست کا وزیر اعلیٰ (Chief Minister) ہوتا ہے۔
2023JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
19📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsRepresentation in Parliament: Rajya Sabha
According to the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act 2019, how many members of councils of state are from Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
Under Section 8 and the First Schedule of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir is allocated 4 seats in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
جموں و کشمیر تنظیم نو ایکٹ 2019 کے تحت راجیہ سبھا (کونسل آف اسٹیٹس) میں جموں و کشمیر کے لیے 4 نشستیں مختص ہیں۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
20📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsLegislative Procedure & Appropriation Bills
Which clause / section of the J&K Reorganization Act 2019 deals with Appropriation of Bills?
Explanation
Section 41 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 specifically governs the introduction and passing of Appropriation Bills in the Legislative Assembly.
جموں و کشمیر تنظیم نو ایکٹ 2019 کی دفعہ 41 (Section 41) ایپروپری ایشن بلز سے متعلق ہے۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
21📚🏦 Banking & FinancePublic vs Private Sector Banks
Which among the following is not a public sector bank?
Explanation
City Union Bank (headquartered in Kumbakonam, Tamil Nadu) is a scheduled Private Sector Bank, whereas the others are public sector banks.
سٹی یونین بینک (City Union Bank) ایک پرائیویٹ سیکٹر بینک ہے، سرکاری بینک نہیں۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
22📚Numerical & Reasoning AbilityPilgrimage Sites of J&K
Which famous shrine is located in the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir and is an important pilgrimage site for Hindus?
Explanation
The holy shrine of Shri Mata Vaishno Devi is located on the Trikuta Hills in Katra, Reasi district, within the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
شری ماتا ویشنو دیوی مندر جموں و کشمیر کے کٹرا (ضلع ریاسی) میں واقع ایک مقدس ترین زیارت گاہ ہے۔
2023JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
23📚Numerical & Reasoning AbilityFolk Dances of J&K
Which of the following is not a folk dance belonging to the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
Dangi is a traditional folk dance from the Dangs district of Gujarat. Dumhal, Hafiza, and Rouf are authentic Kashmiri folk dances.
ڈانگی (Dangi) گجرات کا لوک رقص ہے، جموں و کشمیر کا نہیں (جبکہ دمحل، حفیظہ اور روف جموں و کشمیر کے رقص ہیں)۔
2024JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
24📚Numerical & Reasoning AbilityJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir came into existence on
Explanation
Under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir and the Union Territory of Ladakh formally came into legal existence on 31 October 2019 (National Unity Day).
جموں و کشمیر تنظیم نو ایکٹ کے تحت مرکز کے زیر انتظام علاقہ جموں و کشمیر 31 اکتوبر 2019 کو باضابطہ طور پر وجود میں آیا۔
2024JKSSBGeneral Administration / Various Departments
25📚General Awareness & ScienceJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in which year
Explanation
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 was passed by the Parliament of India in August 2019, reconstituting the state into two Union Territories (J&K and Ladakh) effective 31 October 2019.
جموں و کشمیر تنظیم نو ایکٹ ہندوستانی پارلیمنٹ نے سال 2019 میں پاس کیا تھا۔
2023JKSSBVarious Departments
26📚General Awareness & ScienceEighth Schedule Languages
At present, how many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
Explanation
The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India currently lists 22 official regional languages (originally 14, with additions via 21st, 71st, and 92nd Constitutional Amendments).
ہندوستانی آئین کے آٹھویں شیڈول میں فی الوقت 22 سرکاری زبانیں شامل ہیں۔
2023JKSSBVarious Departments
27📚General Awareness & ScienceLanguages of North-East India
Bodo language is spoken mainly in which of the following states of India?
Explanation
Bodo (Boro), an official language listed under the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, is primarily spoken in the state of Assam (Bodoland Territorial Region).
بوڈو (Bodo) زبان بنیادی طور پر ریاست آسام میں بولی جاتی ہے۔
2023JKSSBVarious Departments
28📚General Awareness & ScienceJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
The union territory of J&K came into existence on
Explanation
The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir formally came into legal existence on 31 October 2019 (commemorated as National Unity Day / Rashtriya Ekta Diwas).
مرکز کے زیر انتظام علاقہ جموں و کشمیر 31 اکتوبر 2019 کو وجود میں آیا۔
2023JKSSBVarious Departments
29📚General Awareness & ScienceBifurcation of Districts in J&K
Kishtwar was carved out of which district of Jammu Kashmir?
Explanation
Kishtwar was created as an independent district in 2006–2007 by bifurcating the erstwhile large Doda district.
کشتواڑ ضلع کو سابقہ ضلع ڈوڈہ (Doda) کو تقسیم کر کے بنایا گیا تھا۔
2024JKSSBVarious Departments
30📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KConstitutional Provisions for UT of J&K (Art 239A)
After the reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir into Union Territories, which constitutional provision became applicable specifically for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
Under Section 13 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the constitutional provisions of Article 239A (which originally created a Legislative Assembly and Council of Ministers for the UT of Puducherry) were made applicable to the UT of Jammu and Kashmir.
جموں و کشمیر ری آرگنائزیشن ایکٹ کے تحت پڈوچیری کی طرز پر دفعہ 239A (Article 239A) جموں و کشمیر پر لاگو ہوئی۔
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
31📚General EnglishDelimitation & Legislative Assembly Seats
According to the J&K Reorganisation Act 2019, the number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of UT of Jammu and Kashmir to be filled by direct election is
Explanation
Under the J&K Reorganisation Act 2019 (as amended post-Delimitation Commission 2022), the Legislative Assembly consists of 114 total seats, of which 24 remain vacant for PoJK and 90 (or 83/87 in earlier provisions) are filled by direct territorial election.
جموں و کشمیر اسمبلی کے لیے براہ راست منتخب ہونے والی نشستوں کی تعداد حد بندی کے بعد 90 (اور ایکٹ میں 114 میں سے 24 خالی) ہے۔
2024JKSSBRevenue Department
32📚Traffic Rules, Road Signs & MV ActDuties of Driver in Road Accidents (Section 134)
What must you do when any property of a third party is damaged due to an accident?
Explanation
Under Section 134(b) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, the driver must report the accident and third-party property damage to the nearest police station within 24 hours.
حادثے میں تیسرے فریق کا نقصان ہونے پر ڈرائیور کو 24 گھنٹے کے اندر قریبی تھانے میں رپورٹ کرنا لازمی ہے۔
2023JKSSBTransport / Various Departments
33📚Automobile Mechanisms & Pollution ControlSection 146: Mandatory Third-Party Insurance
Consider the following statements:
Statement-1: As per Indian Motor Vehicles Act 1988, a comprehensive motor insurance policy is mandatory.
Statement-2: Third-party liability insurance is optional for Indian vehicles.
Choose the correct combination:
Explanation
Under Section 146 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988: Third-Party Liability Insurance is legally MANDATORY, while Comprehensive Own-Damage Insurance is OPTIONAL. Both statements in the question are false.
تھرڈ پارٹی انشورنس قانونی طور پر لازمی ہے جبکہ جامع انشورنس اختیاری ہے، اس لیے دونوں بیانات غلط ہیں (Both false)۔
2023JKSSBTransport / Various Departments
34📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KLegislative Assembly Strength
As per the J&K Reorganization Act 2019, the total number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir to be filled by persons chosen by direct election was originally set at
Explanation
Under Section 14(4) of the J&K Reorganisation Act 2019 as originally enacted, the total number of seats was 107 (83 directly elected seats + 24 reserved for PoJK).
ایکٹ 2019 کی دفعہ 14 کے تحت کل نشستیں 107 (جن میں 24 خالی) رکھی گئی تھیں۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
35📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with special ref to J&KBifurcation of J&K and Ladakh
According to the J&K Reorganization Act 2019, the union territory created without a legislature is
Explanation
Under the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Ladakh was created without a Legislative Assembly (governed directly by the Lieutenant Governor), while J&K was created with a Legislative Assembly.
ایکٹ 2019 کے تحت بغیر اسمبلی والی یونین ٹیریٹری لداخ (Ladakh) قائم کی گئی۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
36📚Mental Ability / ReasoningRBI Regulatory Actions on Payments Banks
Recently in early 2024, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed supervisory restrictions under Section 35A on which payment bank?
Explanation
In January–February 2024, the RBI directed Paytm Payments Bank Limited (PPBL) to stop accepting deposits, credit transactions, and top-ups due to persistent regulatory non-compliance.
ریزرو بینک (RBI) نے پے ٹی ایم پیمنٹس بینک (Paytm Payment Bank) پر پابندیاں عائد کی تھیں۔
2024JKSSBFinance Department
37📚Basic EnglishClassification of Article 370
With respect to the erstwhile State of Jammu & Kashmir, Part XXI of the Constitution of India classified Article 370 under which heading?
Explanation
Part XXI of the Constitution of India is titled 'Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions', and Article 370 was explicitly titled 'Temporary provisions with respect to the State of Jammu and Kashmir'.
آرٹیکل 370 آئین کے باب XXI میں عارضی دفعات (Temporary Provisions) کے تحت درج تھا۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
38📚Basic EnglishConcurrent List: Economic Planning
Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, 'Economic and Social Planning' is placed in which Legislative List?
Explanation
Entry 20 of the Concurrent List (List III) in the Seventh Schedule deals with 'Economic and social planning', allowing both Parliament and State Legislatures to enact laws.
معاشی اور سماجی منصوبہ بندی آئین کے مشترکہ فہرست (Concurrent List) میں شامل ہے۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
39📚General Awareness & ScienceArticle 35A
Which now-repealed constitutional provision empowered the Jammu and Kashmir State Legislature to define 'Permanent Residents' and confer special rights and privileges regarding employment and property?
Explanation
Article 35A (inserted into the Indian Constitution via the 1954 Presidential Order) empowered the J&K legislature to define permanent residents and grant them exclusive rights.
جموں و کشمیر کے مستقل باشندوں کے حقوق کی حفاظت آرٹیکل 35A (Article 35A) کرتی تھی۔
2024JKSSBAnimal / Sheep Husbandry Department
40📚General English & ComprehensionJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
Which section of the Jammu Kashmir Reorganization Act 2019 abolished the legislative council of the existing state of Jammu & Kashmir?
Explanation
Under Section 57(1) of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Legislative Council of the existing State of Jammu and Kashmir was officially abolished.
जम्मू और कश्मीर पुनर्गठन अधिनियम 2019 की धारा 57 के तहत जम्मू और कश्मीर की विधान परिषद को पूरी तरह समाप्त कर दिया गया।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
41📚General English & ComprehensionJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, led to the bifurcation of the state into two Union Territories.
Reason (R): It was implemented to reclaim Pakistan-occupied Kashmir.

Which of the following is the correct Answer:
Explanation
Assertion (A) is factually correct as the state was bifurcated into UT of J&K and UT of Ladakh on October 31, 2019. Reason (R) is false as the official objective of the Act was internal administrative reorganization, national integration, and socio-economic governance.
अभिकथन (A) सत्य है क्योंकि राज्य 2 केंद्र शासित प्रदेशों में विभाजित हुआ। कारण (R) असत्य है क्योंकि इसका प्राथमिक उद्देश्य आंतरिक प्रशासनिक सुधार और विकास था। अतः A सत्य है, लेकिन R असत्य है।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
42📚General English & ComprehensionConstitutional History & Article 370
Which constitutional provision allowed Jammu and Kashmir to have its own flag before 2019?
Explanation
Article 370 of the Constitution of India granted special autonomous status to the State of Jammu and Kashmir, allowing it to adopt its own Constitution (under Section 144 of the J&K Constitution) and separate state flag until August 2019.
भारतीय संविधान के अनुच्छेद 370 के तहत मिले विशेष दर्जे के कारण जम्मू और कश्मीर का अपना अलग संविधान और राज्य ध्वज था।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
43📚General English & ComprehensionJ&K UT Administration & Governors
Who is the first Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
Girish Chandra Murmu (GC Murmu), an IAS officer of the Gujarat cadre, was sworn in as the first Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir on October 31, 2019.
गिरीश चंद्र मुर्मू (Girish Chandra Murmu) 31 अक्टूबर 2019 को केंद्र शासित प्रदेश जम्मू और कश्मीर के पहले उपराज्यपाल बने।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
44📚General English & ComprehensionJ&K Constitutional History & Integration
Why was the Jammu & Kashmir Constitution abrogated in 2019?
Explanation
The abrogation of Article 370 and the J&K Constitution was undertaken to foster complete national integration, eliminate discriminatory residency/domicile barriers, extend fundamental central laws, and accelerate socio-economic development and investments across the region.
2019 में जम्मू-कश्मीर के विशेष दर्जे और अलग संविधान को समाप्त करने का उद्देश्य पूर्ण राष्ट्रीय एकीकरण, सभी नागरिकों को समान अधिकार प्रदान करना और क्षेत्र में आर्थिक सुधार व निवेश को गति देना था (उपरोक्त सभी)।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
45📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KDistricts & Administrative Setup of J&K
After the reorganization in 2019, how many districts are there in Jammu & Kashmir UT?
Explanation
Following the creation of the Union Territory of Ladakh (consisting of Leh and Kargil districts), the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir comprises exactly 20 districts (10 in Jammu Division and 10 in Kashmir Division).
2019 में लद्दाख के अलग होने के बाद केंद्र शासित प्रदेश जम्मू और कश्मीर में कुल 20 जिले हैं (10 कश्मीर संभाग और 10 जम्मू संभाग में)।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
46📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KJ&K Governance & Legislative Assembly Powers
Who among the following will aid and advise the Lieutenant Governor of Jammu & Kashmir on matters that the assembly has powers to legislate?
Explanation
According to Section 53 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, there shall be a Council of Ministers consisting of not more than 10% of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly, with the Chief Minister at the head, to aid and advise the Lieutenant Governor on matters where the Assembly has legislative power.
जम्मू और कश्मीर पुनर्गठन अधिनियम 2019 की धारा 53 के अनुसार, मुख्यमंत्री के नेतृत्व वाली 'मंत्रिपरिषद' (Council of Ministers) उपराज्यपाल को सहायता और सलाह देती है।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
47📚General Knowledge & Current Affairs with ref to J&KJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
In accordance with the J&K Reorganization Act, 2019, how many women can be nominated by the Lieutenant Governor to the Legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
Under Section 15 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Lieutenant Governor may nominate two women members to the Legislative Assembly if, in his opinion, women are not adequately represented.
जम्मू और कश्मीर पुनर्गठन अधिनियम 2019 की धारा 15 के तहत उपराज्यपाल विधानसभा में 2 महिला सदस्यों को मनोनीत कर सकते हैं।
2025JKSSBGeneral Administration & State Departments
48📚General Awareness & Current AffairsState Reorganisation Act 1956
Which of the following states was formed by merging Travancore and Cochin with parts of the Malabar district of Madras State?
Explanation
The State of Kerala was created on November 1, 1956, under the States Reorganisation Act, merging the Malayalam-speaking regions of Travancore-Cochin with the Malabar district and Kasaragod taluk.
1 नवंबर 1956 को त्रावणकोर, कोचीन और मद्रास राज्य के मालाबार जिले को मिलाकर केरल राज्य का गठन किया गया था।
2025JKSSBTransport & State Fleet Departments
49📚Web Technologies, Networking & Software EngineeringProcess Lifecycle & State Transitions
A process is in the "ready" state. What event will move it to the "running" state?
Explanation
A process transitions from the Ready state to the Running state when the Short-Term CPU Scheduler selects it and the Dispatcher assigns the CPU core to it.
तैयार (Ready) अवस्था से रनिंग अवस्था में प्रक्रिया तब जाती है जब CPU शेड्यूलर उसे निष्पादन के लिए चुनता है।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
50📚Web Technologies, Networking & Software EngineeringFCFS Scheduling Calculations
A system has 3 processes with the following arrival and burst times:
• Process A: Arrival = 0 ms, Burst = 5 ms
• Process B: Arrival = 1 ms, Burst = 3 ms
• Process C: Arrival = 2 ms, Burst = 8 ms

Using FCFS, what is the waiting time for Process C?
Explanation
FCFS Schedule:
- Process A runs from 0 to 5 ms.
- Process B runs from 5 to 8 ms.
- Process C starts at 8 ms.
Waiting time for Process C = Start Time - Arrival Time = 8−2=6 ms8 - 2 = 6\text{ ms} (under cumulative timeline, start at 8 ms). Choice C (8 ms / 6 ms).
FCFS शेड्यूलिंग: A (0 से 5 ms), B (5 से 8 ms), C (8 से 16 ms)। C का प्रारंभ समय 8 ms है।
2025JKSSBInformation Technology Department
51📚Basic EnglishAuxiliary & Modal Verbs
Fill in the blank with the correct choice of helping verb.
You _______ stay here and take care of the dogs while we are away for the weekend.
Explanation
'You are to' expresses an obligation, instruction, or scheduled directive for second-person 'you'.
'You are to stay here' (निर्देश या दायित्व दर्शाने के लिए 'are to' का प्रयोग होता है)।
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52📚Geography, Environment & GK of J&K UTTunnels and Infrastructure in J&K
Which of the following options is the longest all weather road tunnel that has enabled increase in trade and tourism in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel (Chenani-Nashri Tunnel on NH-44) spans 9.28 km, making it India's longest bi-directional all-weather road tunnel.
डॉ. श्यामा प्रसाद मुखर्जी टनल (चेनानी-नाशरी टनल - 9.28 किमी) जम्मू और कश्मीर की सबसे लंबी ऑल-वेदर रोड टनल है।
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53📚Child Psychology & Disability FrameworksRPwD Physical Disabilities
Which of the following is a physical scheduled disability among children?
I. Cerebral palsy.
II. Muscular dystrophy
III. Dwarfism

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act 2016, Locomotor/Physical Disabilities explicitly encompass Cerebral Palsy, Muscular Dystrophy, Dwarfism, Acid Attack Victims, and Leprosy Cured persons.
RPwD अधिनियम 2016 के तहत सेरेब्रल पाल्सी, मस्कुलर डिस्ट्रॉफी और बौनापन (I, II and III) तीनों शारीरिक/लोकोमोटर दिव्यांगता की श्रेणी में आते हैं।
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54📚Inclusive Pedagogy, Sensory Impairments & Legal Acts21 Disabilities RPwD
How many disabilities are enlisted in the RPWD Act 2016?
Explanation
The RPwD Act 2016 expanded the schedule of recognized disabilities from 7 (in the 1995 Act) to 21 disabilities.
RPwD अधिनियम 2016 के तहत कुल 21 दिव्यांगताओं को मान्यता दी गई है।
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55📚Curriculum Development & Teaching MethodologiesOperant Conditioning
Operant conditioning theory was given by
Explanation
B.F. Skinner established Operant Conditioning (instrumental conditioning) emphasizing reinforcement schedules, rewards, and operant behavior.
क्रिया प्रसूत अनुबंधन सिद्धांत (Operant conditioning) बी.एफ. स्किनर (B.F. Skinner) द्वारा प्रतिपादित किया गया था।
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56📚Nutrition, Food Hygiene & Epidemic DiseasesNational Food Safety Events
The World Food India 2024 event, scheduled from September 19-22, 2024, in New Delhi, is organized by:
Explanation
World Food India is the flagship mega-food event organized annually at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI), Government of India.
वर्ल्ड फूड इंडिया 2024 कार्यक्रम का आयोजन खाद्य प्रसंस्करण उद्योग मंत्रालय (Ministry of Food Processing Industries - MoFPI) द्वारा किया गया।
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57📚Food Safety (HACCP), Public Health Legislation & MCHFood Establishment Sanitation
What is the main purpose of implementing a cleaning schedule for food preparation areas in eating establishments?
Explanation
A structured cleaning and sanitizing schedule prevents food debris accumulation, eliminates bacterial harborage/biofilms, and eliminates the risk of allergen and pathogen cross-contamination.
सफाई कार्यक्रम लागू करने का मुख्य उद्देश्य क्रॉस-संदूषण (Cross-contamination) के जोखिम को कम करना और सुरक्षित भोजन तैयार करना है।
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58📚General English & ComprehensionSubjunctive Mood
She insisted that he _______ (attend) the meeting despite his busy schedule.
Explanation
Verbs of demand or insistence ('insisted that...') require the present subjunctive mood, using the base form of the verb ('attend').
Subjunctive mood में 'insist that' के बाद क्रिया का मूल रूप (Base form: 'attend') प्रयुक्त होता है।
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59📚Medical Records Science, Policies & HMISDrugs and Cosmetics Act Regulations
What is the maximum retention period for medical records as per the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, for patients treated with controlled substances in India?
Explanation
Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940 and NDPS statutory rules, registers and prescription records for controlled schedule substances and psychotropics must be preserved for at least 2 to 5 years.
ड्रग्स एंड कॉस्मेटिक्स एक्ट के तहत नियंत्रित दवाओं से संबंधित पर्चे और रिकॉर्ड 5 वर्ष (5 years) तक सुरक्षित रखे जाते हैं।
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60📚Health Documentation, Forms & Legal RegulationsRetention Factors
What is a key factor in determining the retention period of a medical record?
Explanation
Medical record retention schedules are strictly determined by the clinical classification of the record (pediatric, adult, oncology, surgical) and prevailing statutory/regulatory legal mandates.
मेडिकल रिकॉर्ड की अवधारण अवधि (Retention period) निर्धारित करने का मुख्य कारक रिकॉर्ड का प्रकार और लागू कानूनी नियम (Type of record and legal regulations) होते हैं।
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61📚ICD Coding, Record Audits & Quantitative AptitudeControlled Substance Documentation
Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, what is a healthcare provider's legal obligation regarding the recording and prescription of controlled substances?
Explanation
Statutory drug schedules mandate detailed recording of all controlled substances in a dedicated register, including date, patient name/diagnosis, drug formulation, quantity dispensed, and prescriber signature.
ड्रग्स एंड कॉस्मेटिक्स एक्ट के तहत डॉक्टर को नियंत्रित दवाओं के पर्चे, मात्रा और नुस्खे के कारण का पूरा दस्तावेजीकरण करना कानूनी रूप से अनिवार्य है।
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62📚General Awareness, Geography & Current AffairsJ&K Administrative Divisions
How many districts are there in Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir comprises exactly 20 administrative districts (10 in Jammu Division and 10 in Kashmir Division).
केंद्र शासित प्रदेश जम्मू और कश्मीर में कुल 20 जिले (20 districts) हैं।
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63📚General Awareness, Indian History & GeographyState Reorganization
Hyderabad is the joint capital of which two Indian states until 2014?
Explanation
Under the AP Reorganisation Act 2014, Hyderabad served as the joint capital for both Andhra Pradesh and Telangana for a transitional period of up to 10 years (until June 2024).
आंध्र प्रदेश पुनर्गठन अधिनियम 2014 के तहत हैदराबाद 'आंध्र प्रदेश और तेलंगाना' (Andhra Pradesh and Telangana) की संयुक्त राजधानी थी।
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64📚General Science, Public Hygiene & Special Reference to J&KJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
When did Jammu and Kashmir officially become a Union Territory of India?
Explanation
Under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir officially transitioned into two Union Territories (J&K UT and Ladakh UT) on 31 October 2019 (National Unity Day).
जम्मू और कश्मीर पुनर्गठन अधिनियम 2019 के तहत जम्मू और कश्मीर आधिकारिक तौर पर '31 अक्टूबर 2019' (31 October 2019) को केंद्र शासित प्रदेश बना।
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65📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsProhibited Diseases under DMRA
The Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954 was enacted to prevent the advertisement of drugs that claim to cure which of the following?
Explanation
The Schedule to the DMRA 1954 lists 54 incurable/severe disorders including Cancer, AIDS, Diabetes, Epilepsy, and Blindness for which drug advertisements claiming cures are strictly prohibited.
यह अधिनियम कैंसर, एड्स और मधुमेह जैसी गंभीर बीमारियों के झूठे इलाज का दावा करने वाले विज्ञापनों को प्रतिबंधित करता है।
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66📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence & Drug Regulatory ActsPoisons Act Schedules
Which poisonous substances from the following are exempted from certain provisions of the Poison Act?
Explanation
Under the statutory schedules of the Poisons Rules, specific diluted preparations listed under List B (or designated exempted schedules) are exempted from retail registration provisions.
पॉइजन एक्ट के तहत कुछ विशिष्ट प्रावधानों से छूट प्राप्त विषैले पदार्थ 'List B' में रखे गए हैं।
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67📚Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRIT Act RBI Act Amendments
Which section of the Reserve Bank of India has been amended after the commencement of the Information Technology Act, 2000 to include electronic fund transfer services like RTGS, NEFT, etc.?
Explanation
The Third Schedule of the IT Act, 2000 amended Section 58(2) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 to empower RBI to regulate electronic fund transfers (NEFT, RTGS).
IT अधिनियम 2000 द्वारा भारतीय रिज़र्व बैंक अधिनियम 1934 की 'धारा 58 (2)' में संशोधन करके इलेक्ट्रॉनिक फंड ट्रांसफर को शामिल किया गया था।
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68📚Cyber Security, IT Act 2000, Cryptography & IPRCopyright Act 1957 Sections
Match Column - X with Column - Y:
Column - X (Copyright Act, 1957):
1. Section 40
2. Section 64
3. Section 14

Column - Y (Description):
I. Defines the meaning of 'copyright' and exclusive rights
II. Power to extend copyright to foreign works
III. Deals with the Power of police to seize infringing copies.

Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
Under Indian Copyright Act 1957: 1. Section 40 -> II (Power to extend copyright to foreign works), 2. Section 64 -> III (Power of police to seize infringing copies), 3. Section 14 -> I (Meaning of copyright). Correct match: 1-II, 2-III, 3-I.
1-II (विदेशी कृतियों पर कॉपीराइट विस्तार), 2-III (पुलिस द्वारा जब्ती की शक्ति), 3-I (कॉपीराइट की परिभाषा)। सही विकल्प B है।
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69📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Acts & Regulatory AffairsD&C Act Schedules (Schedule S)
What does Schedule S prescribe under D and C Act 1940?
Explanation
Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945, Schedule S prescribes the statutory standards, testing specifications, and quality limits for Cosmetics manufactured in India.
ड्रग्स एंड कॉस्मेटिक्स रूल्स 1945 के तहत शेड्यूल एस (Schedule S) सौंदर्य प्रसाधनों (Cosmetics) के निर्माण मानकों को निर्धारित करता है।
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70📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Acts & Regulatory AffairsD&C Act Schedule J
List of diseases and ailments which a drug may not claim to prevent or cure is covered under .............
Explanation
Schedule J of the D&C Rules lists diseases and ailments (such as Cancer, AIDS, Diabetes, Blindness) which a drug may not claim to prevent or cure.
शेड्यूल जे (Schedule J) उन गंभीर बीमारियों की सूची है जिनके इलाज का झूठा दावा करने वाली दवाओं पर प्रतिबंध है।
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71📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Acts & Regulatory AffairsSchedule X Psychotropic Substances
Examples of Schedule X except ______
Explanation
Schedule X covers potent psychotropic and habit-forming barbiturates/CNS depressants (Amobarbital, Pentobarbital, Cyclobarbital). Analgin (Metamizole) is an NSAID/analgesic and is not a Schedule X drug.
एनाल्जिन (Analgin) एक गैर-शेड्यूल X दर्द निवारक दवा है, जबकि अमोबार्बिटल और पेंटोबार्बिटल शेड्यूल X के तहत आते हैं।
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72📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Acts & Regulatory AffairsD&C Act License Forms
Give the form no. of Licence required for retail sale of drugs other than Schedule C, C1, X
Explanation
Form 20 is the statutory license granted for the retail sale of general allopathic drugs other than those specified in Schedules C, C1, and X (Form 21 is for C/C1; Form 20F is for Schedule X).
शेड्यूल C, C1 और X के अलावा अन्य सामान्य दवाओं की खुदरा बिक्री के लिए लाइसेंस 'फॉर्म 20' (Form 20) में जारी किया जाता है।
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73📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Acts & Regulatory AffairsLoan License Forms
Application for the grant or renewal of loan license shall be made in ______
Explanation
Application for the grant or renewal of a Loan License to manufacture for sale of drugs other than those specified in Schedule C/C1 is submitted in Form 24A.
शेड्यूल C/C1 के अलावा अन्य दवाओं के निर्माण के लिए ऋण लाइसेंस (Loan license) हेतु आवेदन 'फॉर्म 24A' (Form 24A) में किया जाता है।
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74📚Foundations of Library & Information Science and Five LawsCopyright Act Economic Rights
Which of the following rights are granted for 'Literary works' according to Copyright Law of India?
i) To make translation
ii) To use in reporting current events
iii) To make any adaptation
iv) To use for the purpose of research
Codes:
Explanation
Under Section 14 of the Indian Copyright Act 1957, exclusive rights granted to authors of literary works include: (i) Right to produce, reproduce, or translate the work, and (iii) Right to make any adaptation of the work. Correct: (i) and (iii).
भारतीय कॉपीराइट अधिनियम की धारा 14 के तहत साहित्यिक कार्यों के लिए लेखक को 'अनुवाद करने' (i) और 'रूपांतरण करने' (iii) का अनन्य अधिकार प्राप्त है। सही विकल्प A है।
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75📚Food Safety Acts, FSSAI Regulations & StandardsFSSAI Compliance Schemes
FSSAI's "FSSAI Accreditation" scheme helps food businesses by :
Explanation
FSSAI recognized auditing and laboratory accreditation schemes assist food business operators by evaluating and ensuring systematic compliance with statutory food safety regulations and Schedule 4 hygienic practices.
FSSAI की योजनाएं खाद्य व्यवसायों को 'खाद्य सुरक्षा नियमों का अनुपालन सुनिश्चित करने' (Ensuring compliance with food safety regulations) में सहायता करती हैं।
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76📚Food Microbiology, Fermentation & Safety LawsFBO Statutory Responsibilities
According to the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, which of the following is NOT a responsibility of a food business operator?
Explanation
Under Schedule 4 sanitary requirements of FSSA 2006, Food Business Operators are strictly PROHIBITED from employing any person known to be suffering from or a carrier of a communicable/infectious disease in food handling areas.
FSSA 2006 के तहत 'संक्रामक रोगों से पीड़ित व्यक्तियों को काम पर रखना' (Employing individuals with infectious diseases) FBO का दायित्व नहीं है बल्कि पूरी तरह प्रतिबंधित है।
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77📚Environmental Microbiology, Toxic Chemicals & Environmental LawsIndian Acts Provisions Matching
Consider the following pairs:
Set - A (Act):
1. The Factories Act, 1948
2. The Atomic Energy Act, 1962
3. Motor Vehicle Act, 1988
4. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972

Set - B (Mandate):
i. Adequate ventilation and reasonable temperature maintenance
ii. The protection of wild animals, birds and plants
iii. Prevention of radiation hazards and guarantee of public safety
iv. Legislative provisions regarding licensing of drivers and registration of motor vehicles

Which one among the pairs given below is correct:
Explanation
1 -> i (Factories Act 1948: Section 13 ventilation/temperature standards), 2 -> iii (Atomic Energy Act 1962: radiological safety), 3 -> iv (Motor Vehicles Act 1988: vehicle emission norms & registration), 4 -> ii (Wildlife Protection Act 1972: conservation of flora/fauna). Correct match: (1)-(i), (2)-(iii), (3)-(iv), (4)-(ii).
1-i (कारखाना अधिनियम 1948 - वेंटिलेशन/तापमान), 2-iii (परमाणु ऊर्जा अधिनियम 1962 - विकिरण सुरक्षा), 3-iv (मोटर वाहन अधिनियम 1988 - वाहन पंजीकरण/उत्सर्जन), 4-ii (वन्यजीव संरक्षण अधिनियम 1972 - वन्यजीव संरक्षण)। सही विकल्प C है।
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78📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Regulatory Acts & Forensic PharmacyD&C Rules Schedules (Schedule F2)
Which Schedule of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945, deals with the requirements for 'Standards for surgical dressings'?
Explanation
In the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945: Schedule F2 prescribes statutory standards for Surgical Dressings (Schedule F1 is for vaccines/sera, Schedule F3 is for umbilical tapes, Schedule FF is for ophthalmic preparations).
शल्य चिकित्सा ड्रेसिंग (Surgical dressings) के मानकों के लिए 'शेड्यूल F2' (Schedule F2) निर्धारित है।
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79📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Regulatory Acts & Forensic PharmacyDPCO 2013 Statutory Basis
The Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 2013, was issued under which act?
Explanation
The Drugs (Prices Control) Order (DPCO), 2013 is promulgated by the Central Government under Section 3 of The Essential Commodities Act, 1955 to regulate the ceiling prices of essential scheduled formulations.
औषधि मूल्य नियंत्रण आदेश (DPCO, 2013) 'आवश्यक वस्तु अधिनियम, 1955' (The Essential Commodities Act, 1955) के तहत जारी किया गया था।
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80📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Regulatory Acts & Forensic PharmacyDPCO Retailer Margin (16%)
A margin of what percent shall be allowed while fixing a ceiling price of scheduled formulations and retail prices of new drugs?
Explanation
Under the provisions of DPCO 2013, a statutory Retailer Margin of 16% is allowed to retailers while fixing the ceiling prices of scheduled bulk formulations.
DPCO 2013 के तहत अनुसूचित दवाओं के अधिकतम मूल्य निर्धारण में खुदरा विक्रेताओं को '16%' (16%) का मार्जिन दिया जाता है।
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81📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Regulatory Acts & Forensic PharmacyDrugs & Magic Remedies Act 1954
Which of the following is a key feature of the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954?
Explanation
The Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act, 1954 strictly prohibits advertisements claiming magical cures or treatments for 54 specified chronic ailments (Schedule disorders like cancer, diabetes, epilepsy, sexual impotence, blindness).
दवा और जादुई उपचार अधिनियम 1954 का मुख्य उद्देश्य उन भ्रामक विज्ञापनों पर रोक लगाना है जो गंभीर बीमारियों के चमत्कारी इलाज का दावा करते हैं।
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82📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Regulatory Acts & Forensic PharmacyPrevention of Cruelty to Animals Act
Which of the following is not considered an offense Under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960?
Explanation
Under Chapter IV of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 (Section 14), performing experiments on animals for scientific, medical, and physiological advancement is lawful and exempted from cruelty offenses provided it complies with CPCSEA guidelines. Option D in this context notes the legitimate exemption of authorized scientific experimentation.
पशु क्रूरता निवारण अधिनियम 1960 के तहत वैज्ञानिक और चिकित्सा अनुसंधान के लिए अधिकृत प्रयोग करना अपराध की श्रेणी से मुक्त रखा गया है।
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83📚Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence, Drug Regulatory Acts & Forensic PharmacyPoisons Act Schedules
Which of the following is an example of List B poison, under The Poisons Act, 1919?
Explanation
Under the statutory Poison Schedules of The Poisons Act, 1919: Highly potent mineral poisons and heavy cyanides belong to List A, whereas corrosive organic acids like Oxalic Acid, carbolic acid (phenol), and zinc chloride belong to List B.
पॉइज़न्स एक्ट 1919 के तहत लिस्ट बी (List B) का प्रमुख उदाहरण 'ऑक्सालिक एसिड' (Oxalic acid) है।
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84📚General Knowledge, Physiology & Current AffairsIndian Polity (Article 370)
What did Article 370 of the Indian Constitution deal with?
Explanation
Article 370 of the Constitution of India conferred temporary Special Autonomous Status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir, modified by Parliament in August 2019.
भारतीय संविधान का अनुच्छेद 370 'जम्मू और कश्मीर के विशेष दर्जे' (The special status of Jammu and Kashmir) से संबंधित था।
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85📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019 (Ladakh UT)
After the reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir in 2019, The Union Territory of Ladakh, does not have a legislative assembly. Which of the following is true regarding its governance?
Explanation
Under Section 3 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Ladakh was established without a Legislative Assembly and is administered by the President through an appointed Lieutenant Governor (LG).
जम्मू और कश्मीर पुनर्गठन अधिनियम 2019 के तहत लद्दाख केंद्र शासित प्रदेश का प्रशासन 'उपराज्यपाल' (Lieutenant Governor) द्वारा चलाया जाता है।
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86📚Digital Journalism, Online Media & Communication Research MethodologyMedia Formats Characteristics
Match the following characteristics with their respective media formats:
Characteristic:
i. Interactive and real-time
ii. One-way communication
iii. Limited updates
iv. Hyperlink-based information

Media Type:
1. Digital journalism
2. Print media
3. Broadcast media
4. Online media

Choose the correct option:
Explanation
i -> 1 (Digital journalism: interactive user comments and live real-time reporting), ii -> 2 (Print media: traditional static one-way printed distribution), iii -> 3 (Broadcast media: fixed hourly programming schedules with limited updates), iv -> 4 (Online media: non-linear hypertext and hyperlinked architecture). Correct match: i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4.
i-1 (डिजिटल पत्रकारिता - इंटरैक्टिव व रियल-टाइम), ii-2 (प्रिंट - एकतरफा संचार), iii-3 (प्रसारण - निर्धारित स्लॉट), iv-4 (ऑनलाइन - हाइपरलिंक आधारित)। सही विकल्प A है।
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87📚Sociology, Social Stratification & Social DevelopmentConstitutional Provisions (73rd Amendment)
Which of the following amendments to constitution of India grants a constitutional status of Panchayat Raj system?
Explanation
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 inserted Part IX (Articles 243 to 243-O) and the 11th Schedule into the Constitution of India, conferring constitutional status and a three-tier structure upon Panchayati Raj Institutions.
भारत के संविधान का '73वां संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम 1992' पंचायती राज व्यवस्था को संवैधानिक दर्जा प्रदान करता है।
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88📚Front Office Operations, Hospitality Management & TourismHotel Room Tariff Types
Rate charged for children above 5 years & below 12 years of age accompanying their parents is termed as:
Explanation
In hotel tariff schedules, a Crib Rate (or Child Rate) is a special nominal discounted rate charged for young children sharing a room with their parents, often including a supplemental rollaway bed/crib.
माता-पिता के साथ रहने वाले 5 से 12 वर्ष के बच्चों के लिए लागू विशेष रियायती दर 'क्रिब रेट / चाइल्ड रेट' (Crib rate) कहलाती है।
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89📚Guest Cycle, Reservations & TelecommunicationsGuaranteed Reservations
A reservation that assures the guest that the hotel will hold a room until a specific time of the day following the guest's scheduled arrival date is a:
Explanation
A Guaranteed Reservation guarantees that the hotel will hold the reserved room regardless of the guest's arrival time (even past normal check-in hours or overnight), secured by advance payment, credit card pre-authorization, or corporate voucher.
एक ऐसा आरक्षण जो यह सुनिश्चित करता है कि होटल निर्धारित आगमन के अगले दिन तक कमरा सुरक्षित रखेगा, 'गारंटीकृत आरक्षण' (Guaranteed reservation) कहलाता है।
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90📚Guest Cycle, Reservations & TelecommunicationsFront Office Terminology (No-Show)
A guest who made a room reservation but did not register or cancel is called a:
Explanation
A No-Show Guest is a client who holds a confirmed room reservation but fails to arrive at the hotel on the scheduled date without informing the hotel or cancelling the reservation in advance.
वह अतिथि जिसने आरक्षण कराया लेकिन न तो होटल पहुंचा और न ही रद्द कराया, 'नो-शो अतिथि' (No-show guest) कहलाता है।
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91📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Governance & Legislation (RTI Act)
In which year did the Right to Information (RTI) Act come into force in Jammu & Kashmir (under the State Act)?
Explanation
The Jammu and Kashmir Right to Information Act was enacted and came into full force in the former state in 2009 (J&K RTI Act, 2009). Following the J&K Reorganisation Act 2019, the Central RTI Act, 2005 replaced it on 31 October 2019.
जम्मू और कश्मीर में राज्य सूचना का अधिकार (RTI) अधिनियम वर्ष '2009' में लागू हुआ था (2019 में केंद्रीय RTI अधिनियम लागू हुआ)। सही विकल्प C है।
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92📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UTJ&K Constitutional History (Article 370)
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Jammu & Kashmir was granted special status under Article 370 of the Indian Constitution.
Reason (R): Article 370 allowed J&K to have its own constitution and autonomy over all matters except defense, foreign affairs, finance, and communications.
Which statement is are correct?
Explanation
Both Assertion and Reason are historically and constitutionally accurate: Article 370 conferred a unique constitutional asymmetric status upon J&K (A), specifically restricting Parliament's legislative powers to defense, external affairs, communications, and ancillary financial matters while permitting a separate state Constitution (R). Choice A.
अभिकथन A और कारण R दोनों सत्य हैं तथा R, A की सही व्याख्या करता है (अनुच्छेद 370 के तहत रक्षा, विदेश मामले और संचार को छोड़कर J&K को स्वायत्तता प्राप्त थी)। सही विकल्प A है।
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93📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
Which of the following provisions was repealed by the Jammu & Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019?
Explanation
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 (together with Constitutional Orders C.O. 272 and 273) abrogated the special status under Article 370, nullified Article 35A, and repealed the separate Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir   ⟹  \implies All of the above. Choice D.
जम्मू और कश्मीर पुनर्गठन अधिनियम 2019 द्वारा अनुच्छेद 370, अनुच्छेद 35A और जम्मू-कश्मीर का अलग संविधान सभी समाप्त कर दिए गए (All of the above)।
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94📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsJ&K Polity & Assembly
In the present Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Assembly (post-2023 amendment), how many members can be nominated by the Lieutenant Governor?
Explanation
Under the J&K Reorganisation (Amendment) Act, 2023, the Lieutenant Governor is empowered to nominate up to 5 members: 2 women, 2 Kashmiri Migrants (including one woman), and 1 displaced person from Pakistan-occupied Jammu and Kashmir (PoJK). Choice D.
जम्मू-कश्मीर पुनर्गठन संशोधन अधिनियम 2023 के तहत उपराज्यपाल (LG) कुल 5 सदस्यों को विधानसभा में मनोनीत कर सकते हैं (2 महिलाएं, 2 कश्मीरी प्रवासी और 1 PoJK विस्थापित)।
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95📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsConstitutional Law (Article 35A)
Article 35A of the Indian Constitution, which was applicable only to Jammu and Kashmir, was concerned with:
Explanation
Article 35A empowered the J&K State Legislature to define 'Permanent Residents' and confer special rights and privileges upon them, including the exclusive right to purchase immovable property (prohibiting land acquisition by non-residents) and state government employment.
अनुच्छेद 35A जम्मू और कश्मीर के 'स्थायी निवासियों' को विशेष अधिकार देता था और गैर-निवासियों को जमीन खरीदने से रोकता था (Prohibition of land sale to non-residents)।
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96📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsJ&K Integration & Reorganisation
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The Jammu & Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, fully integrated Jammu & Kashmir into the Indian Union.
Reason (R): The Act dissolved the special status granted to Jammu & Kashmir and brought it under the provisions of the Indian Constitution.
Choose the correct statement:
Explanation
Both statements are true and causally linked: The 2019 Act and presidential orders revoked the asymmetric constitutional status, extending all provisions of the Constitution of India uniformly to the region and fully integrating J&K into the Indian Union. Choice A.
अभिकथन A और कारण R दोनों सही हैं तथा R, A की सही व्याख्या करता है (विशेष दर्जा समाप्त कर भारतीय संविधान के सभी प्रावधान लागू करके J&K को पूरी तरह एकीकृत किया गया)। सही विकल्प A है।
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97📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsDemographics of Ladakh
The Ladakhi Buddhist community, which forms a significant portion of Ladakh's population, belongs to which category for reservation purposes in India?
Explanation
The indigenous communities of Ladakh (both Ladakhi Buddhists and Balti/Purig Muslims) are officially notified and recognized as Scheduled Tribes (ST) under the Constitution (Jammu and Kashmir) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1989.
लद्दाख का बौद्ध समुदाय भारत में आरक्षण के उद्देश्य से 'अनुसूचित जनजाति' (Scheduled Tribes / ST) श्रेणी के अंतर्गत आता है।
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98📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsConstituent Assembly & Article 370
Who was primarily responsible for drafting Article 370 of the Indian Constitution in the Constituent Assembly?
Explanation
Narasimha Gopalaswami Ayyangar (former Prime Minister of J&K and Minister without Portfolio in Nehru's Cabinet) drafted and piloted Article 306A (which became Article 370) in the Constituent Assembly of India in 1949.
संविधान सभा में अनुच्छेद 370 का प्रारूप तैयार करने और प्रस्तुत करने वाले प्रमुख व्यक्ति 'एन. गोपालस्वामी अय्यंगार' (N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar) थे।
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99📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019 (Ladakh UT)
Which of the following is true about Ladakh after the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019?
Explanation
Under Section 3 of the J&K Reorganisation Act 2019, Ladakh was constituted as a separate Union Territory without a Legislative Assembly (administered directly by a Lieutenant Governor). Choice C.
2019 के पुनर्गठन अधिनियम के बाद लद्दाख बिना विधानसभा वाला केंद्र शासित प्रदेश बना (Ladakh has no Legislative Assembly)। सही विकल्प C है।
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100📚Mental Ability, Analytical & Logical ReasoningLogical Deduction
A statement is given, followed by two conclusions:
Statements: All organized individuals make time for rest. Despite her hectic schedule, Manisha manages to find time to rest.
Conclusions:
I. Manisha is an organised person.
II. Manisha is an industrious person.
Choose the correct statement:
Explanation
Premise explicitly states all organized people make time for rest; since Manisha manages to find time for rest despite her busy schedule, conclusion I ('Manisha is an organised person') directly follows. Conclusion II ('industrious') is not mentioned or implied in the premises. Correct: Only conclusion I follows (Choice C).
कथन से सीधे निष्कर्ष निकलता है कि चूंकि सभी व्यवस्थित व्यक्ति आराम के लिए समय निकालते हैं और मनीषा भी समय निकालती है, अतः मनीषा एक व्यवस्थित व्यक्ति है (Only conclusion I follows)। सही विकल्प C है।
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101📚Mental Ability, Analytical & Logical ReasoningTime Zone Calculations
If an event is scheduled for 3:00 PM on December 10th in Los Angeles (UTC-8), what is the corresponding time and date in Cape Town, South Africa (UTC+2), which is 10 hours ahead of Los Angeles?
Explanation
Add 10 hours to 3:00 PM on December 10th: 3:00 PM+9 hours=12:00 Midnight3:00\text{ PM} + 9\text{ hours} = 12:00\text{ Midnight} (start of December 11th), plus 1 more hour =1:00 AM on December 11th= 1:00\text{ AM on December 11th}. Choice B.
10 दिसंबर को दोपहर 3:00 बजे में 10 घंटे जोड़ने पर: रात 12:00 बजे के बाद अगला दिन शुरू होगा यानी '11 दिसंबर को सुबह 1:00 बजे' (1:00 AM, December 11th)। सही विकल्प B है।
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102📚General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceIndian Constitution (8th Schedule)
The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India lists ________ languages as officially recognized by the Government of India:
Explanation
The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution currently lists 22 officially recognized languages (originally 14, expanded via the 21st, 71st, and 92nd Constitutional Amendments).
भारतीय संविधान की 8वीं अनुसूची में वर्तमान में कुल '22' आधिकारिक भाषाएं सूचीबद्ध हैं।
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103📚General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceDistricts of Ladakh
Which of the following districts come under the Union Territory of Ladakh after the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019?
Explanation
Under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Ladakh comprises exactly two districts: Kargil and Leh.
2019 के पुनर्गठन अधिनियम के बाद केंद्र शासित प्रदेश लद्दाख में केवल दो जिले आते हैं: 'कारगिल और लेह' (Kargil and Leh)। सही विकल्प C है।
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104📚General Awareness, Current Affairs & J&K UT Special ReferenceConstitutional History (Article 370)
Which article of the Indian Constitution ensured the special asymmetric status of Jammu and Kashmir prior to August 2019?
Explanation
Article 370 of the Indian Constitution conferred temporary special status on Jammu and Kashmir from 1949 until its effective abrogation on 5 August 2019.
अगस्त 2019 से पूर्व जम्मू और कश्मीर को विशेष दर्जा 'अनुच्छेद 370' (Article 370) के तहत प्राप्त था।
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105📚Satellite Communications & Space SystemsSatellite DAMA Protocols
Which of the following is a key difference between the Polling Method and the Centrally Controlled Random Access Method in Demand Assigned Multiple Access (DAMA)?
I. In the Polling Method, the master station only responds to requests from earth stations, whereas in the Centrally Controlled Random Access Method, the master station constantly checks the availability of slots.
II. The polling Method involves the master station sequentially polling all earth stations for call requests, while the Centrally Controlled Random Access Method allows earth stations to request slots directly, with the master station allocating them when available.
III. The Polling Method allows earth stations to request slots at any time, while the Centrally Controlled Random Access Method has a fixed polling schedule.
IV. In the Polling Method, earth stations must queue their requests when slots are unavailable, whereas, in the Centrally Controlled Random Access Method, requests are denied immediately.
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
Statement II accurately states the foundational operational distinction in satellite DAMA protocols: in Polling, the central hub sequentially queries each station in a deterministic round-robin cycle, whereas in Centrally Controlled Random Access (such as slotted ALOHA request channels), earth stations asynchronously transmit slot requests on demand.
कथन II सही अंतर स्पष्ट करता है: पोलिंग विधि में मास्टर स्टेशन क्रमिक रूप से सभी स्टेशनों से कॉल अनुरोध पूछता है, जबकि रैंडम एक्सेस विधि में अर्थ स्टेशन स्लॉट का अनुरोध सीधे भेजते हैं और मास्टर स्टेशन उपलब्ध होने पर आवंटित करता है। सही विकल्प A है।
2025JKSSB
106📚Preventive Conservation, Heritage Material Science & Conservation ChemistryLighting Control Strategies & Reciprocity Principle
In preventive conservation, which of the following measures is the most effective in minimizing light-induced damage to light-sensitive materials in museums?
1. Using UV-filtered glass and maintaining light levels below 200 lux.
2. Limiting daily exposure duration and using motion-activated lighting systems.
3. Displaying sensitive artifacts under incandescent bulbs with dimmers.
4. Using daylight for illumination combined with periodic artifact rotation.
Options:
Explanation
Because photochemical deterioration follows the Law of Reciprocity (Total Damage = Light Intensity × Exposure Time), eliminating unnecessary light exposure duration by installing passive infrared motion-activated lighting systems and strictly limiting daily exhibition schedules is the most proactive, effective preventive conservation measure for highly light-sensitive cultural property.
प्रकाश क्षति पारस्परिकता के नियम (कुल क्षति = तीव्रता × समय) का पालन करती है। इसलिए दैनिक प्रदर्शन समय को सीमित करना और मोशन-सेंसर आधारित लाइटिंग सिस्टम (Motion-activated lighting) का उपयोग करना प्रकाश-प्रेरित क्षति को रोकने का सबसे प्रभावी उपाय है, जिससे वस्तुएं केवल तभी प्रकाशित होती हैं जब दर्शक सामने हों। अतः विकल्प B (Only 2 is correct) सही है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
107📚Jammu & Kashmir Heritage, Archaeology & Archival ScienceCentrally Protected ASI Monuments in J&K
As of the latest available data, how many monuments in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir are designated as Monuments of National Importance under the protection of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)?
A) 28
B) 42
C) 56
D) 72
Explanation
According to official notifications of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI, under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India), there are exactly 56 Centrally Protected Monuments of National Importance located in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir (spanning Srinagar and Jammu sub-circles, including Martand Sun Temple, Avantipur temples, Parihaspora, Harwan, and Akhnoor fort).
भारतीय पुरातत्व सर्वेक्षण (ASI) के आधिकारिक आंकड़ों के अनुसार, केंद्र शासित प्रदेश जम्मू और कश्मीर में राष्ट्रीय महत्व के संरक्षित स्मारकों (Monuments of National Importance) की कुल संख्या 56 है। अतः सही विकल्प C (56) है।
2025JKSSBCulture Department (Directorate of Archives, Archaeology and Museums)
108📚General Awareness with Special Reference to J&K UT & Current AffairsConstitutional Provisions & Article 370
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Article 370 was a temporary provision in the Indian Constitution that granted special status to Jammu and Kashmir.
Reason (R): The abrogation of Article 370 in 2019 required an amendment to the Indian Constitution through a one-third majority in Parliament.
Which of the above statement are correct?
Explanation
Assertion (A) is true: Article 370 was placed under Part XXI ('Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions') of the Indian Constitution. Reason (R) is false: The abrogation in August 2019 was executed via Presidential Orders (C.O. 272 and C.O. 273) and statutory resolutions passed by simple majority, not through a constitutional amendment requiring a non-existent 'one-third majority'.
अभिकथन (A) सही है: अनुच्छेद 370 भारतीय संविधान के भाग XXI में एक अस्थायी प्रावधान था जिसने जम्मू और कश्मीर को विशेष दर्जा दिया था।
कारण (R) गलत है: 2019 में अनुच्छेद 370 को निष्प्रभावी करने के लिए राष्ट्रपति के आदेश (C.O. 272 और 273) और संसद में सांविधिक संकल्प पारित किए गए थे, किसी 'एक-तिहाई बहुमत' वाले संविधान संशोधन की आवश्यकता नहीं थी। अतः A सत्य है, लेकिन R असत्य है।
2025JKSSBLabour & Employment Department
109📚Indian Cinema, Visual Communication & Media LawsContempt of Courts Act Provisions
Consider the following statements about the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971:
i. Civil contempt involves wilful disobedience to a court order.
ii. Criminal contempt involves scandalising the authority of the court.
iii. Truth is always a valid defence in contempt proceedings.
iv. The punishment for contempt can include imprisonment for up to six months.
Which of the statements are correct?
Explanation
Statements i, ii, and iv are correct under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971. Section 2(b) defines Civil Contempt as wilful disobedience; Section 2(c) defines Criminal Contempt as scandalising the court. Section 12 prescribes simple imprisonment up to 6 months. Statement iii is false because truth was introduced as a defence by the 2006 amendment under Section 13(b) ONLY IF it is in public interest and bona fide—it is not an absolute unconditional right.
कथन i, ii और iv सही हैं। सिविल अवमानना आदेशों की जानबूझकर अवज्ञा है; आपराधिक अवमानना न्यायालय को बदनाम करना है; और सजा 6 महीने तक हो सकती है। कथन iii गलत है क्योंकि सत्य केवल तभी बचाव बन सकता है जब वह दुर्भावना रहित और लोकहित में हो।
2025JKSSBHigher Education Department
110📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KHandlooms & Crafts of J&K
Which of the following options is INCORRECT with reference to the famous fabrics weaved (under handloom sector) in Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
Explanation
Raffal, Kani, and Pashmina are legendary indigenous GI-tagged handloom shawls of Jammu and Kashmir. Rabari shawls belong to the nomadic Rabari embroidery traditions of Kutch, Gujarat and Rajasthan, not J&K.
राफल (Raffal), कानी (Kani) और पश्मीना (Pashmina) जम्मू-कश्मीर के विश्व प्रसिद्ध पारंपरिक हथकरघा शॉल हैं। जबकि 'रबारी शॉल' (Rabari Shawls) गुजरात और राजस्थान के कच्छ क्षेत्र की परंपरा है, कश्मीर की नहीं। अतः सही विकल्प D है।
2025JKSSBVarious Departments
111📚General Awareness & General Science with Special Reference to J&KIndian Polity & State Formation
Maharashtra and Gujarat Day are celebrated annually to mark the establishment of these states. On which date and in which year were the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat officially formed?
Explanation
Under the Bombay Reorganisation Act, 1960, the bilingual State of Bombay was officially bifurcated into the Marathi-speaking state of Maharashtra and Gujarati-speaking state of Gujarat on 1 May 1960.
बॉम्बे पुनर्गठन अधिनियम, 1960 के तहत पूर्ववर्ती बॉम्बे राज्य को विभाजित करके '1 मई 1960' को आधिकारिक तौर पर महाराष्ट्र और गुजरात राज्यों का गठन किया गया था। अतः सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSBVarious Departments
112📚Fitness to Drive, First Aid & Alcohol InfluenceStatutory Post-Accident Duties under MVA
While driving if your car is involved in an accident and hurting a pedestrian, you should
Explanation
Under Section 134 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 (Duty of driver in case of accident and injury to a person), the driver must immediately secure medical attention for the injured pedestrian by transporting them to the nearest hospital and report the incident to the nearest police station within 24 hours.
मोटर वाहन अधिनियम की धारा 134 के तहत दुर्घटना में किसी व्यक्ति के घायल होने पर चालक का वैधानिक कर्तव्य है कि वह घायल को तुरंत अस्पताल ले जाए और निकटतम पुलिस स्टेशन में रिपोर्ट दर्ज कराए। सही विकल्प B है।
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113📚Driving Documents, Licensing, Insurance & OffencesNational Jurisdiction of Driving Licences
A learner's license is effective and valid for driving a vehicle
Explanation
Section 13 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 (Extent of effectiveness of licences, to drive motor vehicles) explicitly mandates that any learner's licence or driving licence issued under this Act shall be effective throughout India.
मोटर वाहन अधिनियम 1988 की धारा 13 के अनुसार, भारत में जारी किया गया कोई भी लर्नर लाइसेंस या ड्राइविंग लाइसेंस 'संपूर्ण भारत में' (Throughout India) प्रभावी और मान्य होता है। सही विकल्प D है।
2025JKSSB
114📚Driving Documents, Licensing, Insurance & OffencesMandatory Third-Party Insurance Requirement
Consider the following statements,
Statement-1: Driver may drive cautiously with expire vehicle insurance, provided the driver's personal insurance policy is valid.
Statement-2: Driver shall not drive in any case with expire vehicle insurance
Which of the following combinations is correct
Explanation
Statement 1 is FALSE and Statement 2 is TRUE. Section 146 of the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 strictly mandates that no person shall use a motor vehicle in a public place unless there is in force a valid third-party insurance policy complying with the requirements of Chapter XI. Driving with expired vehicle insurance is an unbailable offence under Section 196, irrespective of personal insurance.
कथन 1 गलत है और कथन 2 सही है। मोटर वाहन अधिनियम की धारा 146 के अनुसार, तीसरे पक्ष के वैध बीमा (Third-party insurance) के बिना वाहन चलाना पूर्णतः अवैध है; अतः समाप्त बीमा के साथ किसी भी स्थिति में वाहन नहीं चलाया जा सकता। सही विकल्प C है।
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115📚Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingOS Architecture: Memory & Process Concepts
Match the following
i. Multiprogramming
ii. Time sharing
iii. Job scheduling
iv. Virtual memory
1. Technique that allows the execution of a process not fully in memory
2. Keeps the CPU busy by organising jobs, so one is always ready to execute
3. Selecting which job to bring from disk to memory
4. Enables interactive use, where multiple users think the system is dedicated to them.
Choose the Correct Option:
Explanation
Operating system concepts: (i) Multiprogramming keeps CPU busy by having multiple ready jobs in memory -> 2; (ii) Time-sharing enables interactive multi-user execution via rapid time-slicing -> 4; (iii) Job scheduling (long-term scheduler) selects jobs from mass storage pool to load into memory -> 3; (iv) Virtual memory allows executing processes that exceed physical RAM capacity -> 1. Correct code: i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1.
ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम की अवधारणाओं का सही मिलान: मल्टीप्रोग्रामिंग -> सीपीयू को लगातार व्यस्त रखना (2); टाइम शेयरिंग -> इंटरएक्टिव बहु-उपयोगकर्ता उपयोग (4); जॉब शेड्यूलिंग -> डिस्क से मेमोरी में कार्य चुनना (3); वर्चुअल मेमोरी -> मेमोरी से बड़ी प्रक्रियाओं को चलाना (1)। सही विकल्प A है।
2025JKSSB
116📚Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingMultiprogramming & Processor Efficiency
The main purpose of multiprogramming is:
Explanation
The primary objective of multiprogramming in an operating system is to maximize CPU utilization. By keeping several jobs concurrently in main memory, whenever the currently running process pauses to perform an I/O operation, the CPU scheduler immediately switches the processor to another ready job, preventing CPU idle time.
मल्टीप्रोग्रामिंग (Multiprogramming) का मुख्य उद्देश्य 'सीपीयू उपयोग को अधिकतम करना' (To increase CPU utilization) होता है ताकि I/O प्रतीक्षा के दौरान प्रोसेसर खाली न बैठे। सही विकल्प A है।
2025JKSSB
117📚Computer Systems, Operating Systems & NetworkingLinux Architecture: User Utilities vs Kernel
Which of the following is considered a user utility in Linux?
Explanation
In Linux architecture, user utilities are standard command-line tools and userland programs (such as file management utilities: cp, mv, ls, rm, tar, find) that users execute in user space to manage files and data. The kernel scheduler and network domain are low-level kernel routines.
लिनक्स में 'फ़ाइल प्रबंधन उपकरण' (File management tools जैसे ls, cp, mv, rm) उपयोगकर्ता स्तर की उपयोगिताओं (User utilities) के अंतर्गत आते हैं। सही विकल्प B है।
2025JKSSB
118🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
What type of water should be used for canning according to FSSAI?
Explanation
FSSAI Schedule 4 (General Hygienic and Sanitary Practices) mandates that water used in food processing, washing, blanching, brining, syruping, and can cooling must be potable water conforming to Bureau of Indian Standards (IS 10500).
FSSAI के अनुसार कैनिंग प्रक्रिया में उपयोग किया जाने वाला पानी स्वच्छ, पीने योग्य और सुरक्षित (Potable and safe drinking water - IS 10500 मानक) होना चाहिए।
2025JKSSB
119🔬General ScienceFood Technology & Preservation
Match the HACCP Principles with functions in food processing:
Column - A:
i. Hazard Analysis
ii. Critical Control Point (CCP)
iii. Critical Limits
iv. Monitoring
v. Corrective Action
Column - B:
1. Scheduled observations at CCPs
2. Step when control is applied to eliminate hazards
3. Maximum or minimum values to ensure CCP control
4. Steps taken during deviation from CCP
5. Identification of potential hazards

Options:
Explanation
The 7 HACCP Principles correlate as follows:
- Hazard Analysis (i) -> Identification of potential biological, chemical, physical hazards (5)
- Critical Control Point (CCP) (ii) -> Step where control is applied to prevent or eliminate hazards (2)
- Critical Limits (iii) -> Maximum or minimum parameters (temperature, time, pH) to ensure CCP control (3)
- Monitoring (iv) -> Scheduled observations and measurements at CCPs (1)
- Corrective Action (v) -> Procedures implemented when monitoring indicates a deviation from a critical limit (4)
Thus, Option A (i-5, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1, v-4) is correct.
HACCP सिद्धांतों का सही मिलान:
- खतरा विश्लेषण (Hazard Analysis) (i) -> संभावित खतरों की पहचान (5)
- क्रिटिकल कंट्रोल पॉइंट (CCP) (ii) -> खतरे को समाप्त करने के लिए नियंत्रण बिंदु (2)
- महत्वपूर्ण सीमाएं (Critical Limits) (iii) -> अधिकतम या न्यूनतम स्वीकार्य मान (3)
- निगरानी (Monitoring) (iv) -> CCP पर निर्धारित अवलोकन (1)
- सुधारात्मक कार्रवाई (Corrective Action) (v) -> विचलन होने पर उठाए जाने वाले कदम (4)
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120🔬General ScienceCivil Engineering & Drafting
Which of the following is included in a detailed estimate?
Explanation
A detailed estimate consists of working drawings, a comprehensive report, general specifications, detailed item-wise quantity measurement calculations (dimensions from drawings), and abstract of cost applying schedule of rates (SOR).
विस्तृत प्राकलन (Detailed estimate) में निर्माण के प्रत्येक मद की मात्रा की विस्तृत गणना और दर विश्लेषण (Item-wise quantity and rate calculations) शामिल होता है।
2025JKSSB
121🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
What is the fertilizer schedule for rainfed mulberry cultivation
Explanation
The standard recommended fertilizer dose for rainfed mulberry cultivation is 100:50:50 kg NPK/ha/year (applied in two split doses coinciding with rains). By contrast, irrigated mulberry receives a higher dose of 300:120:120 kg NPK/ha/year.
वर्षा आधारित (Rainfed) शहतूत की खेती के लिए अनुशंसित उर्वरक खुराक 100:50:50 किग्रा NPK/हेक्टेयर/वर्ष होती है। (सिंचित शहतूत के लिए 300:120:120 किग्रा NPK/हेक्टेयर/वर्ष होती है)।
2025JKSSB
122🔬General ScienceSericulture & Mulberry Cultivation
What is the number of leaf harvests that can be generally made in a year in mulberry cultivation for silkworm rearing
Explanation
In tropical and sub-tropical intensive mulberry plantations under assured irrigation, 4 to 6 leaf harvests (corresponding to 5 commercial rearing crops per year) are routinely obtained following shoot harvesting or individual leaf plucking schedules.
शहतूत की सघन खेती में रेशमकीट पालन के लिए प्रति वर्ष सामान्यतः 4 से 6 बार (4-6 harvests) पत्तियों की तुड़ाई या शाखा कटाई की जाती है।
2025JKSSB
123📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsArt & Culture
Which of the following is NOT the classical language of India?
A) Odia
B) Maithili
C) Malayalam
D) Telugu
Explanation
The classical languages of India originally recognized by the Government of India are Tamil (2004), Sanskrit (2005), Telugu (2008), Kannada (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014) [later expanded to include Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali in Oct 2024]. Maithili is included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, but it is NOT recognized as a classical language.
भारत की शास्त्रीय भाषाओं (Classical Languages) में तमिल, संस्कृत, तेलुगु, कन्नड़, मलयालम और ओडिया (तथा हाल ही में जोड़ी गई मराठी, पाली, प्राकृत, असमिया और बंगाली) शामिल हैं। मैथिली आठवीं अनुसूची में शामिल भाषा है, लेकिन शास्त्रीय भाषा नहीं है।
2025JKSSB
124📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
Who administered the oath of lieutenant governors of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh, respectively, on 31 October 2019?
A) Ram Nath Kovind
B) Satya Pal Malik
C) Narendra Modi
D) Justice Gita Mittal
Explanation
On 31 October 2019, Justice Gita Mittal, the then Chief Justice of the Jammu & Kashmir High Court, administered the oath of office to Radha Krishna Mathur as the first Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh in Leh, and to Girish Chandra Murmu as the first Lieutenant Governor of Jammu and Kashmir in Srinagar.
31 अक्टूबर 2019 को जम्मू-कश्मीर उच्च न्यायालय की तत्कालीन मुख्य न्यायाधीश न्यायमूर्ति गीता मित्तल (Justice Gita Mittal) ने लेह में लद्दाख के पहले उपराज्यपाल आर.के. माथुर और श्रीनगर में जम्मू-कश्मीर के पहले उपराज्यपाल जी.सी. मुर्मू को पद की शपथ दिलाई।
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125📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsIndian Polity & Municipalities
Which of the following statements regarding Article 243T of the Indian Constitution, inserted by the 74th Amendment Act, are correct?
A) It deals with the constitution and composition of ward committees consisting of elected members representing each ward in a Municipality.
B) It provides for the reservation of seats in every municipality for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.
C) It mandates the reservation of one-third of the total number of seats for women, including women belonging to SCs and STs.
D) It allows the state legislature to provide for the reservation of seats for backward classes.
Explanation
Article 243T of the Indian Constitution (introduced by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992) explicitly provides for the reservation of seats in every Municipality for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in proportion to their population (Clause 1), as well as reservation for women (Clause 3). Primary subject-heading of Article 243T is 'Reservation of seats'.
74वें संविधान संशोधन द्वारा जोड़ा गया अनुच्छेद 243T (Article 243T) नगर पालिकाओं में अनुसूचित जातियों (SC) और अनुसूचित जनजातियों (ST) के लिए जनसंख्या के अनुपात में सीटों के आरक्षण तथा महिलाओं के आरक्षण से संबंधित है।
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126📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsJ&K Reorganisation Act 2019
Why is 31 October 2019, the day the state of Jammu and Kashmir was reorganized into two Union Territories, considered significant in Indian history?
A) It marks the signing of the Shimla Agreement between India and Pakistan.
B) It commemorates the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
C) It marks the day India signed the Instrument of Accession with Jammu and Kashmir.
D) It is observed as National Integration Day in memory of India's independence.
Explanation
October 31 marks the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (celebrated across India as National Unity Day / Rashtriya Ekta Diwas). The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 was deliberately brought into effect on 31 October 2019 to honor the 'Iron Man of India' who spearheaded the integration of princely states into the Indian Union.
31 अक्टूबर सरदार वल्लभभाई पटेल की जयंती (राष्ट्रीय एकता दिवस) है। रियासतों के एकीकरण में उनकी ऐतिहासिक भूमिका को श्रद्धांजलि देने के लिए जम्मू-कश्मीर पुनर्गठन अधिनियम को जानबूझकर 31 अक्टूबर 2019 से प्रभावी किया गया था।
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127📚General Knowledge with special reference to UT of J&KPolitical History & Accession of J&K
When did the Instrument of Accession of Jammu and Kashmir to India take place?
A) 15th August 1947
B) 26th October 1947
C) 15th August 1948
D) 5th August 2019
Explanation
Maharaja Hari Singh signed the Instrument of Accession on 26th October 1947, acceding the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir to the Dominion of India. It was accepted by Governor-General Lord Mountbatten on 27th October 1947.
महाराजा हरि सिंह ने 26 अक्टूबर 1947 को जम्मू और कश्मीर के भारत संघ में विलय के लिए विलय पत्र (Instrument of Accession) पर हस्ताक्षर किए थे, जिसे 27 अक्टूबर 1947 को गवर्नर-जनरल लॉर्ड माउंटबेटन ने स्वीकार किया। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
2025JKSSB
128📚General Knowledge with special reference to UT of J&KConstitutional Status & J&K Reorganisation
Article 370, which gave special status to Jammu and Kashmir, was abrogated on
A) 15th August 2019
B) 26th January 2019
C) 5th August 2019
D) 1st October 2019
Explanation
On 5th August 2019, the Government of India revoked the special constitutional status of Jammu and Kashmir under Article 370 and subsequently bifurcated the state into two Union Territories: Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.
5 अगस्त 2019 को भारत सरकार ने संसद में जम्मू-कश्मीर को विशेष दर्जा देने वाले अनुच्छेद 370 के अधिकांश प्रावधानों को निष्प्रभावी कर दिया और राज्य को दो केंद्र शासित प्रदेशों (जम्मू-कश्मीर और लद्दाख) में पुनर्गठित किया। अतः विकल्प C सही है।
2025JKSSB
129📚General Knowledge with special reference to UT of J&KConstitutional History of J&K
Article 35A was inserted into the Constitution by
A) The Constituent Assembly
B) Presidential Order of 1954
C) Parliament Act
D) Supreme Court Verdict
Explanation
Article 35A was incorporated into the Indian Constitution through the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954, issued by President Dr. Rajendra Prasad under Article 370(1) on the recommendation of the J&K Constituent Assembly.
अनुच्छेद 35A को 1954 के राष्ट्रपति आदेश (The Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954) द्वारा संविधान में शामिल किया गया था, जो राज्य के स्थायी निवासियों को विशेष अधिकार प्रदान करता था। अतः विकल्प B सही है।
2025JKSSB
130📚Civil EngineeringConstruction Management - Precedence Relationships & Leads
A scheduled activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor activity finishes. Then it's referred as an example of,
A) Finish to start
B) Finish to finish
C) Start to finish
D) Start to start
Explanation
In project scheduling, the basic predecessor-successor logical relationship is Finish-to-Start (FS), where the successor normally starts after the predecessor finishes. When the successor is scheduled to begin 10 days prior to the predecessor's finish, it represents a Finish-to-Start relationship with a 10-day lead (FS - 10 days lead).
परियोजना शेड्यूलिंग में जब कोई अनुवर्ती गतिविधि अपनी पूर्ववर्ती गतिविधि के समाप्त होने से 10 दिन पहले शुरू हो सकती है, तो यह 10 दिन के लीड (अग्रता) के साथ फिनिश-टू-स्टार्ट (Finish to start with lead) संबंध का उदाहरण है। अतः विकल्प A सही उत्तर है।
2025JKSSB
131📚Forensic Chemistry & NarcoticsDesigner Drugs & Analogues
A designer drug can be best defined as:
Explanation
A designer drug is a synthetic analogue of a controlled substance with slight chemical modifications designed to produce similar psychoactive effects while intentionally circumventing existing drug control legislation (making them technically not yet illegal until scheduled).
डिजाइनर ड्रग दवाओं के ऐसे संशोधित संस्करण होते हैं जिन्हें मौजूदा नशीली दवा कानूनों से बचने के लिए रासायनिक रूप से थोड़ा बदल दिया जाता है, जिससे वे तकनीकी रूप से तुरंत अवैध नहीं होते।
2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)
132📚Forensic Law & Drug RegulationsControlled Substances Act Schedules
Which of the following drugs come under the schedule III of controlled substance act?
Explanation
Under the Controlled Substances Act (CSA), Schedule III includes substances with moderate to low potential for physical dependence, such as Anabolic steroids and combination products containing limited amounts of codeine (e.g. Tylenol with codeine). Methadone and PCP are Schedule II.
नियंत्रित पदार्थ अधिनियम (CSA) की अनुसूची III के अंतर्गत मध्यम दुरुपयोग क्षमता वाली दवाएं शामिल हैं, जिनमें एनाबॉलिक स्टेरॉयड (Anabolic steroids) और कोडीन के संयुक्त यौगिक (जैसे कोडीन युक्त दर्द निवारक) शामिल हैं। मेथाडोन और पीसीपी अनुसूची II में आते हैं।
2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)
133📚Forensic Toxicology & NDPS ActMedical Opioids - Morphine
Which opioid is commonly used for the treatment of severe pain but is also a controlled substance under the NDPS Act?
Explanation
Morphine is a powerful natural opioid analgesic widely utilized for palliative care, cancer pain, and severe post-operative analgesia. Because of its high abuse and dependence liability, it is strictly controlled and scheduled under India's NDPS Act, 1985. Ibuprofen, acetaminophen, and naproxen are non-opioid OTC drugs.
मॉर्फिन (Morphine) गंभीर दर्द के लिए इस्तेमाल होने वाला एक शक्तिशाली ओपिओइड एनाल्जेसिक है जो अपने दुरुपयोग की क्षमता के कारण एनडीपीएस अधिनियम 1985 के तहत एक सख्त नियंत्रित पदार्थ है।
2026JKSSBHome Department (FSL)
134📚General Knowledge & Current AffairsJ&K Reorganisation Act, 2019
Which of the following was NOT a provision under the J&K Reorganization Act, 2019?
A) The J&K High Court became the common high court for both UTs.
B) Judges appointed to the High Court are selected by the Union Government only.
C) The UT of J&K will have its own legislative assembly of 107-114 members.
D) The act provides that the administration of Jammu and Kashmir will be as per Article 239A of the Indian Constitution.
Explanation
Option B was NOT a provision of the Act. High Court judges in India are appointed by the President of India under Article 217 of the Constitution following the Supreme Court collegium process in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Lieutenant Governor, not selected 'by the Union Government only'. All other options (A, C, D) are genuine sections of the 2019 Act.
विकल्प B अधिनियम का प्रावधान नहीं था। उच्च न्यायालय के न्यायाधीशों की नियुक्ति संविधान के अनुच्छेद 217 के तहत भारत के राष्ट्रपति द्वारा कॉलेजियम प्रणाली और मुख्य न्यायाधीश के परामर्श से की जाती है, न कि केवल केंद्र सरकार द्वारा। अन्य सभी विकल्प 2019 अधिनियम के वास्तविक प्रावधान हैं।
2026JKSSBSchool Education Department
135📚Basic Concepts of ComputersOperating System - Priority Inversion & Scheduling
Consider a system using preemptive priority scheduling with multiple real-time and user-level processes. Priority inheritance protocol is implemented.
I. Priority inversion can occur when a low-priority process holds a resource that a high-priority process needs.
II. Under priority inheritance, the low-priority process temporarily inherits the higher priority to avoid blocking.
III. Priority inversion can be completely avoided if all processes are scheduled in a round-robin fashion.
IV. Starvation may still occur for low-priority processes even with priority inheritance.

Which of the statements are correct?
A) I and II only
B) II and III only
C) II and IV only
D) I, II and IV only
Explanation
Evaluating the statements:
- Statement I is true: Priority inversion happens when a lower-priority task blocks a higher-priority task because it holds a mutually exclusive resource.
- Statement II is true: Under priority inheritance, the task holding the resource temporarily inherits the highest priority of any blocked task waiting for that resource to speed up release.
- Statement III is false: Round-robin scheduling applies to CPU slicing, but does not eliminate synchronization contention on exclusive locks.
- Statement IV is true: Low-priority non-resource-holding processes can still suffer starvation if high-priority processes continually arrive.
Thus, statements I, II, and IV are correct.
कथन I, II और IV सही हैं। कथन III गलत है क्योंकि राउंड-रॉबिन शेड्यूलिंग म्यूचुअल एक्सक्लूजन लॉक्स के कारण होने वाले इनवर्जन को पूरी तरह समाप्त नहीं कर सकती। अतः विकल्प D सही है।
2026JKSSBGeneral Administration Department
136📚Basic EnglishSubject-Verb Agreement
Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?
A) Neither the teacher nor the students were aware of the sudden change in schedule.
B) One of the most important factors influencing the results are temperature variations.
C) The number of applicants have increased significantly this year.
D) Each of the proposals submitted by the researchers were carefully examined.
Explanation
Option A is correct: When two subjects are connected by 'neither... nor', the verb agrees with the closer subject (proximity rule). Since 'the students' is plural, the plural verb 'were' is correct. In B, 'One' requires 'is'. In C, 'The number' takes singular verb 'has'. In D, 'Each' takes singular verb 'was'.
विकल्प A सही है: 'Neither... nor' के प्रयोग में क्रिया निकटतम कर्ता के अनुसार आती है (निकटता का नियम)। यहाँ 'the students' बहुवचन है, अतः 'were' बिल्कुल सही है। विकल्प B में 'is', C में 'has' तथा D में 'was' होना चाहिए था।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
137📚General Awareness & ScienceCurrent Affairs and Polity
Identify the correct statements about the SIR (Special Intensive Revision) exercise, being conducted in some Indian states.
I. It is conducted to update and verify the electoral rolls.
II. It helps remove duplicate and ineligible voters from the voter list.
III. It is being supervised by the Delimitation Commission of India, in exercise of its powers under Article-324 of the Indian Constitution.
Choose the correct option:
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) II and III only
D) All of the above
Explanation
Statements I and II are correct as Special Intensive Revision (SIR) is carried out to verify rolls and purge duplicate/ineligible names. Statement III is incorrect because voter roll preparation and revision under Article 324 is exclusively supervised by the Election Commission of India (ECI), not the Delimitation Commission.
कथन I और II सही हैं क्योंकि SIR का उद्देश्य मतदाता सूची का पुनरीक्षण एवं अयोग्य/डुप्लिकेट नामों को हटाना है। कथन III गलत है क्योंकि अनुच्छेद 324 के तहत मतदाता सूचियों का पर्यवेक्षण भारत निर्वाचन आयोग (ECI) करता है, न कि परिसीमन आयोग।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
138📚General Awareness & ScienceJ&K Reorganisation Act, 2019
Following the 2019 Reorganization, while the legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir can legislate on state matters, which of the following subjects are exclusively reserved for the Union government, unlike other states?
A) Public order and Police
B) Education and Health
C) Local self-government
D) Agriculture and Industries
Explanation
Under Section 32 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir can make laws with respect to any matters in the State List or Concurrent List except 'Public Order' (Entry 1 of the State List) and 'Police' (Entry 2 of the State List), which remain directly under the Union Government.
जम्मू और कश्मीर पुनर्गठन अधिनियम, 2019 की धारा 32 के तहत, विधानसभा राज्य सूची और समवर्ती सूची के मामलों पर कानून बना सकती है, सिवाय 'लोक व्यवस्था' (Public Order) और 'पुलिस' के, जो केंद्र सरकार के प्रत्यक्ष क्षेत्राधिकार में आरक्षित हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
139📚Environment, Ecology & ForestryForestry and ISFR - Jammu & Kashmir
According to the Indian State of Forest Report, 2023, what is the 'Total Forest Cover' of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir as a percentage of its total geographic area?
A) 38.15%
B) 37.15%
C) 39.15%
D) 36.15%
Explanation
According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2023, the total forest cover of the Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir is recorded at 39.15% of its total geographical area (amounting to 21,346.4 sq km).
भारतीय वन स्थिति रिपोर्ट (ISFR) 2023 के अनुसार, केंद्र शासित प्रदेश जम्मू और कश्मीर का कुल वन आवरण उसके कुल भौगोलिक क्षेत्रफल का 39.15% (लगभग 21,346.4 वर्ग किमी) दर्ज किया गया है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
140📚Indian Polity & ConstitutionEighth Schedule Languages
Identify the correct statements about the languages in Schedule Eighth of the Indian Constitution-
I. Rajasthani is one of the 22 languages currently included in the Eighth Schedule.
II. The languages - Bodo, Dogri and Maithili were added in the Schedule by the 71st Constitutional Amendment Act.
Explanation
Both statements are false:
- Statement I is FALSE: Rajasthani is NOT among the 22 languages recognized in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
- Statement II is FALSE: The 71st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali. The languages Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali (BDMS) were added by the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.
Hence, Neither I nor II is correct.
दोनों कथन गलत हैं:
- कथन I गलत है: राजस्थानी भाषा आठवीं अनुसूची में शामिल 22 आधिकारिक भाषाओं में शामिल नहीं है।
- कथन II गलत है: 71वें संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम, 1992 द्वारा कोंकणी, मणिपुरी और नेपाली को जोड़ा गया था। बोडो, डोगरी, मैथिली और संथाली को 92वें संविधान संशोधन अधिनियम, 2003 द्वारा जोड़ा गया था।
अतः सही उत्तर 'न तो I और न ही II' (विकल्प D) है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department
141📚
Which of the following Acts provide framework for the designation of "Critical Wildlife Habitats"?
I. Forest Conservation Act, 1980
II. Biological Diversity Act, 2002
III. Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006
Choose the correct option:
Explanation
The concept of "Critical Wildlife Habitats" (CWH) is exclusively defined and established under Section 2(b) of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 (FRA 2006). Thus, Only III is correct.
"क्रिटिकल वाइल्डलाइफ हैबिटेट्स" (CWH) का प्रावधान विशेष रूप से अनुसूचित जनजाति और अन्य पारंपरिक वन निवासी (वन अधिकारों की मान्यता) अधिनियम, 2006 (FRA 2006) की धारा 2(b) के तहत परिभाषित किया गया है। अतः केवल III सही है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology & Environment Department (Wildlife Protection)
142📚
Which of the following environmental laws is not explicitly covered under the NGT Act for adjudicating disputes?
Explanation
Schedule I of the NGT Act, 2010 lists 7 statutes. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and the Indian Forest Act, 1927 are not included under the jurisdiction of the National Green Tribunal.
NGT अधिनियम, 2010 की अनुसूची I में 7 अधिनियम शामिल हैं। वन्यजीव (संरक्षण) अधिनियम, 1972 और भारतीय वन अधिनियम, 1927 NGT के अधिकार क्षेत्र में शामिल नहीं हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
143📚
The Environment Management Plan (EMP) essentially:
Explanation
An Environment Management Plan (EMP) is an operational action plan that details site-specific mitigation measures, environmental monitoring protocols, schedule, budgeting, and institutional responsibilities to mitigate impacts during pre-construction, construction, and operation.
पर्यावरण प्रबंधन योजना (EMP) निर्माण और संचालन चरणों के दौरान प्रतिकूल पर्यावरणीय प्रभावों को कम करने के लिए आवश्यक शमन, निगरानी और आकस्मिक उपायों की विस्तृत कार्ययोजना निर्धारित करती है।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
144📚
Which of the following is not a typical component of an Environment Management Plan (EMP)?
Explanation
An EMP consists of pollution mitigation measures, monitoring schedules, compliance standards, and organizational responsibilities. The promoter's corporate financial statements belong to accounting filings, not environmental management plans.
EMP में प्रदूषण नियंत्रण उपाय, निगरानी योजना और जिम्मेदारियां शामिल होती हैं। प्रमोटर के कॉर्पोरेट वित्तीय विवरण EMP का हिस्सा नहीं होते हैं।
2026JKSSBForest, Ecology and Environment Department
145📚General Awareness & National Current Affairsgeneral-science-physics-chemistry-biology
Which of the following is NOT a Non-Banking Financial Institution (NBFI)?
Explanation
Bank of India (BOI) is a Scheduled Public Sector Commercial Bank accepting demand deposits from the general public. In contrast, EXIM Bank, SIDBI, and NABARD are All-India Specialized Development Financial Institutions (AIFIs / NBFIs) that do not conduct general commercial retail banking.
बैंक ऑफ इंडिया (BOI) एक सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र का वाणिज्यिक बैंक (Commercial Bank) है, जो जनता से जमा स्वीकार करता है। जबकि EXIM बैंक, SIDBI और NABARD विशिष्ट विकास वित्तीय संस्थान/गैर-बैंकिंग वित्तीय संस्थान (NBFI/AIFI) हैं। अतः BOI इसका सही उत्तर है।
2016SSCStaff Selection Commission